Patient Care

Question 1

Informed consent (written,oral, implied

Answer 1

Person’s agreement to allow something to happen(such a surgery) that is based on a full disclosure of the facts needed to make the decision intelligently. That is, knowledge of ricks involved,alternative,benefits, and other information needed by a reasonable person to make a decision.

Question 2

Confidentiality (HIPAA):

Answer 2

The belief that the health-related information about individual patients and accountability Act(HIPAA) was passed in 1996 to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the health care system by mandating confidentiality of health information: Among the components that standards and requirements for the electronic transmission of certain health info. Specifically,this law governs access and usage of patients identifiable information.

Question 3

American hospital association, AHA. Patient care partnership. Patients bill of rights.

Answer 3

Informs patient’s about what they should expect during the hospital stay with regard to there rights and responsibilities.

Question 4

Privacy

Answer 4

We respect the confidential of your relationship with your doctor and other caregivers, and the sensitive information about your health and health care that are part of relationships. State and federal laws and hospital operation policy protection the privacy of your medical information.

Question 5

Extent of Care

Answer 5

Ex DNR

Do not resuscitate order by patient’s request.

Question 6

Access to information

Answer 6

Having access to their medical information/records as a patient.

Question 7

Living well, health care proxy, advance devices.

Answer 7

A legal document in which a person specifics what action should be taken for there health if they are no longer able to make decisions for themselves because of illness or in capability.

Question 8

Research participation.

Answer 8

When you enter the hospital, your sign a general consent to treat. In some cases, such as surgery, experimental treatment or research study, you may be asked to confirm in written that you understand what is planned and agree to it. This process projects your right to consent to or refuse a treatment.

Question 9

Legal issues:

Verification 

Answer 9

Patients identification, compare order to clinical indication, exam coding. The practice of having the patient involved in identifying themselves and using two identifiers ; is essential in improving the reliability of patient’s identification process. The of two identifiers also helps ensure that a correct match is made between the service or treatment and the individual..

Question 10

Common terminology: Battery

Answer 10

Any unlawful touching of others that is without justified or excused..

Question 11

Common terminology: Negligence

Answer 11

Failure to do something a that a reasonable person guided by the ordinary considerations that ordinarily regulate human affairs would do or the doing of something a reasonable and prudent person would not do.

Question 12

Common terminology: Malpractices

Answer 12

Improper, illegal, or neglection professional activity or treatment by a medical practitioner, lawyer or a public official.

Question 13

Common terminology: beneficence:

Answer 13

Doing of good;active promotion of goodness; kindness and charity..

Question 14

Legal Doctrines: Respondeat superior

Answer 14

Meaning “ let the superior or the masters speaks for the servant”;the physician,supervisor, or employer may be liable in certain cases for the wrongful acts of employees or subordinates. Res Lpsa Loguitur- meaning “the thing speak for itself” legal theory requiring three elements: (1) that the type of injury did not occur except for negligence. (2) that’s the activity was under the complete control of the defendant & (3) that the plaintive did not contribute to his or her own injury in any way. 

Question 15

Restraints Versus Immobilization:

Answer 15

The hindrance of an action (movement) vs: The act of greatly reduced the negative effects of movement or improper positioning on the diagnostic quality of the finished image.

Question 16

ARRT STANDARDs OF ETHICS:

Answer 16

They reflect the rules and standards that govern the conduct of professionally technologist who hold current or former registration for the ARRT and persons applying for examination and certification by the ARRT, student radiographs should strive to understand, appreciate and value these standards. Failure to abide by the published standards may result in disciplinary procedures.

Question 17

Interpersonal communication: modes of communication: verbal/written:

Answer 17

Messages sent using spoken words, the exchange of information or shaped by vocabulary; clarity,tone,pitch of voice and even the organization of sentences:

Question 18

Nonverbal (ex eye contact, touching):

Answer 18

Exchange of information,thoughts,or messages using methods other then actual words of speech ( tone of voice, facial expressions, and position of speakers extremities and torso(body language).

Question 19

Challenges in communication: interaction with others: Language barriers:

Answer 19

A figurative phrase used primarily to indicate the difficulties faced when people who have no language in common attempt to communicate with each other.

Question 20

Culture and social factors:

Answer 20

Certain customs, lifestyles and values that characterize a society or group.(EX: beauty, education, language, law and politics,religion, social organizations, technology and material culture, values and attitudes).

Question 21

Physical and sensory impairments:

Answer 21

A significant deviation, loss or loss of use of anybody structure or body function in an individual with a health condition, disorder or disease. This results in restrictions on an individual‘s ability to participate in what is considered, normal, in there every day society.

Question 22

Age

Answer 22

Length of time that a person has lived or a thing has existed. 

Question 23

Emotional status,acceptance of condition:

Answer 23

A) person’s assent to the reality of a situation, recognizing A process or condition( often a negative or uncomfortable situation) without attempting to change it or protest it.
B) explanation of medical terms.
C) Strategies to improve understanding..

Question 24

Patient education: Explanation of current procedure..

Answer 24

Ex: risks, benefits

Question 25

Patient education: B) Verify informed consent when necessary

Answer 25

Getting patient’s information for test or doctor appointment.. and makes sure it all Matches with doctors order for test or appointment..

Question 26

Patient education: pre-and post examination instructions:

Answer 26

Preparations,diet,medications; discharge instructions..

Question 27

Patient education: Respond to inquires about other imaging modalities:

Answer 27

CT, MRI,Mammography,sonography,

radiography ,bone densitometry.

Question 28

Patient transfer and movement: Body mechanics (EX: balance,alignment,movement

Answer 28

Describe the ways we move as we go about our daily lives including her we sat, stand, left, Cary, Ben, and sleep. The application of proper lifting and transfer techniques Inc. race job safety. This,Techs who use these Technics can reduce their injury risks and minimize lower back pain.

Question 29

Base of Support:

Answer 29

Foundation on which a body rests or stars, when a person is standing, the feet and the space between them defined the base of support.

Question 30

Center of Gravity:

Answer 30

Hypothetical point around which all mass appears to be concentrated.

Question 31

Mobility Muscle

Answer 31

Muscles that are found in the four extremities and that are designed for movement(EX: biceps femoris biceps and gastrocnemius..

Question 32

Stability Muscles:

Answer 32

Muscles that support the torso and are designed to provide postural stability(EX: latissimus Doris,abdominal group and erector spinal)

Question 33

Patient transfer techniques:

Answer 33

To execute safe, efficient patient transfers with minimal stress and discomfort for health professionals and patients, the radiologic technologist must maintain a wide base of support, hold patients close to the center of ravity,avoid truck twisting, keep the back stable,lift from the knees and let the patients assist as much of possible.Take the time to be gentle and safe to move slowly. These extra moments might prevent a serious injury. (Transfer broad,Hoyer lift, gait belts)

Question 34

Assisting patients with medical equipment: Infusion catheter and pumps:

Answer 34

Infuses fluids,medication or nutrients into a patient’s circulatory system. It is generally used intravenously,although subcutaneous,arterial and epidural infusions are occasionally used.

Question 35

Oxygen delivery systems:

Answer 35

The Tech Will encounter a variety of devices used to deliver oxygen. Regardless the type of system(nasal cannula, masks, tent, oxyhood, ventilation). These devices in no way hamper the technologist’s ability to perform rad procedures. It is the Tech’s responsibility to make sure the device is not kinked/disconnected and the device is probably positioned. Oxygen delivery devices are designed to operate at a certain (LPM;Liter Per Minute) An oxygen flow meter is a reducing valve that permits flow(LPM) safe for patient use and serves as the connection between the oxygen delivery device and gas sources..

Question 36

Nasogastric tubes:

Answer 36

Is a medical process involving the insertion of a plastic tube(nasogastric tube/NG tube) through the nose, past throat, and down into the stomach.

Question 37

Urinary catheters:

Answer 37

A latex, polyurethane, or silicone tube known as a urinary catheter is inserted into a patient’s bladder via the urethra. Catheterization allows the patients urine to drain freely from the bladder conditions.

Question 38

Tracheostomy tubes:

Answer 38

A tree heal tube(trach) is a catheter that is inserted into the trachea for the primary purpose of establishing and maintaining a patent airway and to ensure the adequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide..

Question 39

Routine Monitoring: Vital Signs

Answer 39

Are used measure the body’s basic functions. These measurements are taken to help asses the general physical health of a person, give Clues to possible diseases, and show progress toward recovery. The normal ranges for a persons vital signs vary with age, weight, gender, and overall health. There are four main vital signs, body temperature. ( 97.6-100f, 36.5-37.8c) blood pressure ( 120-80mm hg) pulse/heart rate(60 100, child: 70 120),and respirations (12 20 bpm, child 20 30).

Question 40

Physical signs and symptoms: Motor control:

Answer 40

The process by which humans and animals use their brains/cognition to activate and coordinate the muscles and limbs involved in the performance of a motor skill.

Question 41

Physical signs and symptoms: Severity of Injury.

Answer 41

Established medical score to assess trauma. A major trauma (polytrauma)is defined as the injury severity score being greater then 15.

Question 42

Fall prevention:

Answer 42

A variety of actions to help reduce the # of accidental falls suffered by older people. Falls and fall related injuries are among the most serious and common medical problems experienced by older adults.

Question 43

Documentation:

Answer 43

Material that provides official information or evidence or that serves as record. 

Question 44

Immobilization:

Answer 44

Act of rendering immovable; restrict the movements ( of a limb or patient) to allow healing.

Question 45

Sedation:

Answer 45

The reduction of irritability or agitation by administration of sedative drugs, generally facilitate a medical procedure or diagnostic procedure( propofol, etomidate, ketamine fentanyl and midazolam.

Question 46

Allergic reaction(EX: pharmaceuticals, latex):

Answer 46

Allergies, also known as allergic diseases, are a number of conditions caused by hyper sensitivity of the immune system to something in the environment that usually causes little or no problems in most people.

Question 47

Cardiac or respiratory arrest(EX: CPR) Cardiac

Answer 47

A sudden Loss of blood flow resulting from the failure of the heart to effectively pump. Symptoms include loss of consciousness and abnormal or absent breathing. Some may experience chest pain, SOB, or nausea before cardiac arrest. If not treated within minutes it could lead to death.

Question 48

Respiratory arrest(CPR)

Answer 48

The cessation of normal breathing due failure of the lungs to function effectively. Respiratory arrest may be caused by a cardiac arrest, and can also be the result of prolonged apnea-breathing then slow down or stops.

Question 49

Physical injury or trauma:

Answer 49

References to physical injuries of sudden onset and severity which require immediate medical attention. The insult may cause systemic shock and may require immediate resuscitation and interventions to save life and limb..

Question 50

Other disorders seizures:

Answer 50

The physical findings or changes in behavior that occur after an episode of abnormal electrical activity in the brain. It can range from mild, brief loss of consciousness/starting in the space) to severe ( involuntary contraction of muscles on and one or both sides of the body). No attempts should be made to restrain the patient as that could be dangerous. Patients who experienced them often have a error, or a physical or mental warning of seizure in pending. If such warning is given the patient should be removed to the floor away from any objects and have a pillow placed under their head.

Question 51

Diabetic reactions: Hypoglycemia 

Answer 51

(Low blood sugar) is when blood sugar decreases to below normal levels/excessive insulin is present. This may result in a variety of symptoms including clumsiness, trouble talking, confusing, loss of consciousness, seizures or death. A feeling of hunger, sweating shaking, and weakness may also present.

Question 52

Diabetic reaction: hyperglycemia

Answer 52

(High blood sugar) is one blood sugar decreased to above normal levels/excessive sugar in the blood. Patients exhibits extensive thirst, urination, dry mucus, deep breathing, drowsiness, confusion and can lead to the a diabetic coma if untreated..

Question 53

Infection control cycle of infections:pathogens

Answer 53

Have the ability to one of three functions extremely well one they can multiply in large numbers and cause an obstruction, too they can cause tissue damage and three they can secret organic substances called exotoxins. These exotoxins can produce certain side effects such as an extremely High body temperature, nausea, vomiting, or shock. Pathogens are divided into four basic infection agents bacteria, viruses, fungi and protozoan parasites.

Question 54

Cycle of infections: Reservoir:

Answer 54

Alternative or passive host or carrier that harbors pathogenic organisms, without injury to itself, and serves as a source from which other individuals can be infected.

Question 55

Cycles of infection: portal of exit:

Answer 55

The set from where micro-organisms leave the host to enter another host and cause disease/infections. For example, a micro organism may leave the reservoir through the nose or mouth when someone sneezes or coughs, or in feces.

Question 56

Model of transmission: Direct contact: 

Answer 56

Transmissions requires physical contact between an infected person and a susceptible person, and the physical transfer of micro organisms. Direct contact includes touching and affected individual kissing, sexual contact, contact with oral secretions, Or contact with the body lesions.

Question 57

Mode of transmission: Droplets

Answer 57

A small drop, such as a particle of moisture discharge from the mouth during coughing, sneezing or speaking, then may transmit infection while airborne to others.

Question 58

Mode of transmission: indirect airborne:

Answer 58

The disease that is caused by pathogens that can be transmitted through the air. The related pathogens may be viruses, bacteria or fungi, and they may be spread through breathing, Talking coughing, sneezing, rising of dust, spraying of liquids, toilet flushing or any activities which generates aerosol particles or droplets.

Question 59

Indirect. Vehicle- borne: Fomite: 

Answer 59

Any nonliving object or subject capable of carrying infection organisms, such as viruses or bacteria, hence transferring them from one individual to another. Skin cells, hair clothing, and bedding or common hospital sources of contamination.

Question 60

Vehicle-borne mechanical or biological:

Answer 60

Occurs when an insect requires a pathogen from one animal and transmits it to another. Mechanical transmission means that the disease agent does not replicate or develop in/on vector, it is transported by the factor from one animal to another(flies). 

Question 61

Biological transmission: 

Answer 61

Occurs when the vector up takes the agent, usually through a blood mail from an infection animal, repels and or develops it, and then regurgitate the pathogen onto or injects it into a susceptible animal.
Fleas, ticks and mosquitoes are common biological factors of disease.

Question 62

Portal of entry:

Answer 62

Is this site through which microorganism enter the susceptible host and cause disease/infection. Infectious agents enter the body through various portals call mucous membranes, the skin, the respiratory and the gastrointestinal tract. Pathogens often enter the body of the hose through the same route they exit the Reservoir.( EX: airborne pathogens from one person sneeze can enter through the nose of the other person).

Question 63

Susceptible host:

Answer 63

A member of a species population who is at risk of being infected with a certain disease due to a variety of reasons. Susceptible posts differ from the general population because they are far more likely to get infectious diseases.

Question 64

Asepsis:

Answer 64

The state of being free from disease causing microorganisms( such as pathogenic bacteria, viruses, pathogenic fungus, and parasites). The term often reference to those practices using to promote or indue aseptsis in an operative field of surgery or medication to prevent infection such as: A) Equipment B) Equipment sterilization.

Question 65

Medical aseptic technique:

Answer 65

A set of specific practices and procedures performed under careful controlled conditions with the goal of minimizing contamination by pathogens.

Question 66

Sterile technique:

Answer 66

Strategies used in patient care to reduce exposure to micro organisms and maintain objects and area as free from micro organisms as possible.

Question 67

CDC Standard Precautions:

Answer 67

Precautions to prevent the transmission of disease by body fluids and substance. They should be used when performing procedures that may require contact with blood, body fluid, secretions, excretions, mucus membranes, and non intact skin. Apply standard procedures to all patients regardless of diagnosis and infection status.

Question 68

CDC standard procedures: hand hygiene:

Answer 68

A routine practice and all patients care settings, the single most important means of providing the space of infection. Wash or scrubbing the hands involving removing of contamination(transients), as well as residents Microorganisms.

Question 69

CDC standards procedures: using of PPE: 

Answer 69

Provides as barrier between the patient and the healthcare providers to prevent exposure to the skin and mucous membranes( growns,masks). Gloves: must be contained items and during all vascular access procedures. They must be removed after using before touching non-contained surfaces and between patients.

Question 70

CDC‘s standards procedures: self injection practices:

Answer 70

Injected Medication commonly used in healthcare settings for prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of various illnesses. Unsafe Infections practices pot patience and healthcare providers at risk of infections and non-infections of Adverse events.

Question 71

CDC standers precautions:? Safety handling of contamination equipment/surfaces.

Answer 71

Disposal of contaminated materials

1) Lines 2) Needles 3) patient supplies 4) blood and bodily fluids.. 

Question 72

Transmission based precautions: contact

Answer 72

The latest routine infection prevention and control practices applied for patients who are known or suspected to be infected or colonized with infectious agents, including certain epidemiologically important pathogens. A Single patient room is perfect. In multiple patient rooms, 3 feet spatial separation between beds is advised to reduce the opportunity for inadvertent sharing of items between the infected/ colonized patients or potentially contaminated areas in the environment.

Question 73

Transmission based procedures:Droplet

Answer 73

Intended to prevent transmission of pathologist spread through close respiratory or mucous membrane contact with respiratory secretions. A single patient room is preferred. Spatial separation of 3 feet and drawing the curtain between patient beds is especially important for patients in multi- bed rooms infections transmitted by the droplet route. Healthcare personnel wear a mask for close contact, the mass is generally donned upon room entry. Patients who must be transported outside Ruth should wear a mask if tolerated.

Question 74

Transmission base procedures: airborne:

Answer 74

Prevent transmission of infections Asians that remain infectious over long distance when suspected in the air. The prevented placement for patients who require airborne prevention is an airborne infection isolation room(ALLR). An ALLR is a single patient’s room that is equipped with special air handling and ventilation capability. In settings where airborne prevention cannot be implicated due to limited engineering resources( e.g positions offices), masking the patient, placing the patient in a private room with the door closed, and preventing respiratory or masks will reduce the likelihood of airborne transmission until the patient is either transferred to a facility with an (AlllR)or returns to the home environment. Healthcare personnel caring for patients on airborne prevention wear a mask or respiratory, depending on the disease specific recommendations.

Question 75

Additional precautions: Neutropenic precautions ( reverse isolation) 

Answer 75

Designed to protect a patient with a compromised or suppressed immune system, who is highly susceptible to contracting an infection. There is also positive pressure in the room. Filtered, clean air is brought into the room analyzed to vent out of the room to the surrounding corridors. Usually visitors must wear protective garb to protect the patient if visitor are allowed at all.

Question 76

Healthcare associated(nosocomial infections);

Answer 76

Healthcare associates infection( HCAI), also referred to as “nosocomial or hospital “ infection, is an infection occurring in a patient during the process of care in a hospital or other health care facility which was not present or incubating at the time of admission.