Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Patient ass > Patient assessment > Flashcards

Patient assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Natural factors which increase body temperature

A

Late afternoon is highest point but ovulation, exercise and first 5 months of pregnancy increase temperature as well!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Les’ preferred normal temperature range for patients?

A

36.5-37.5 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What point of day has lowest body temperature?

A

The morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What temperature method is recommended for peds?

A

Axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Common temperature taking methods

A

Tympanic, axillary and oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Normal HR
Tachy HR
Brady HR

A

60-100 normal
Over 100 is tachy
Under 60 is bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define
Bigeminy and trigeminy
And what your first step would be upon discovering one

A

Trigeminy beats in groups of 3
Bigeminy is beats in groups of 2

Needs an ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the categories of pulse grade

A 
4+ pulse strong and impossible to occlude
3+ pulse difficult to occlude
2+ brisk or normal pulse
1+ thready or weak pulse 
0 no pulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 key factors when reporting pulse

A

Rate rhythm and grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
define:
Tachypnea
bradypnea
hyperpnea
hypopnea
A

tachypnea- RR above normal
Bradypnea RR below normal
hyperpnea- minute volume increased
hypopnea- minute volume decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 factors to report for breathing?

A

RR and rhythym/pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

define the values for the following:
normal BP
hypertension
hypotension

A 
normal= 120/80
hypertension= 140/90 or over
hypotension= less than 90/60
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

optimal bladder arm coverage %
in adults
in peds

A

adutls is 80%

peds is 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which korotokoff phases are used to asses BP?

A

phase 1- systolic pressure

phase 5 diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can succesfull patient centered care proportedly improve?

A

patient safety
communication
compliance with treatment plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 4 stages of patient client interaction?

A

1- chart review. clarify in your mind and with charts what your role is today.
2- introdctory stage. establish rapport with the patient
use their name formally until they tell you not too
3-initial assesment. identify patients baseline condition and need for treatment as physician has ordered
4-follow up stage. communicate with the patient for a moment. “do you have any questions for me” on way out always look back and do one final glance over patient and room.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 categories of space

A

intimate 0-2 ft
personal 2-4
social 4-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tips to express genuine concern

A

face patient square on
use eye contact
be an active lsitener
consider appropriate touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does the acronym PQRST stand for

and when should we use it?

A 
Provocative "what caused it"
Qualtiy or quantity "burning, sha
R region/radiation
S severity "out of 10
T timing "since when does it hurt"
it is for pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what acronym is used for a primary survey?

A

SAMPLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does sample stand for?

A 
Symptoms
allergies
medication
Past history 
last meal
events prior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are to factors which can be used in predictive medicine?

A

family history
or
occupational/ environemental histoy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3 key things to review on patient file before meeting them

A

admission note-describes pertinent facts ot their admission
physicians orders- lists treatments and hterapies
progress reports- descrie the patients response to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define DNR

A

do no resusitate
aka do not attempt to revive patient
common in elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

define and distinguish between symtpoms and signs

A

signs are objective “measureable imperical data”

symptoms are subjective what the patient says

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a cough and what causes it?

A

a protective reflex triggered by stimulation of cough receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

primary symptoms of cardiopulmonary disorders

A 
cough
sputum production
hemoptysis
SOB
chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
your patient grimaces when they are being interiveiwed post op. She is suffering some confusion about her responses. What could be impeding her communication skills?
self-concept
listening habits
pain and anxiety
hearing impairment
A

pain and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

active listening is most essential of what stage of the clinical encounter?

A

the initial assesment stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the 4 stages of the clinical encounter

A

introductory stage
initial assesment stage
treatment and monitoring
follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

patient is having difficulty learning to use their enhaler. after many attempts they stil cannot use it independently and properly. what should your next step be?
request permission from doctor to find more acceptable delivery system
cease attempts and give up
push the patient to try harder and practice more
chart trx as not given and return later

A

request permission from patients doctor to find more acceptable delivery route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what space is appropriate to develop patient rapport

A

social

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

why should you always log off your computer when leaving the computer?

A

HIPAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are some important cultural beliefs to explore with patient during the assesment stage.

A

concepts of health and disease
responses to authority
gender and family roles
reliigous values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is an ill advised way to decrease patient anxiety?

A

prescription of analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are 4 key elements of a good patient action plan?

A

a specific measurable goal
barriers to goal measurement
actions to achieve the goal
a follow uo mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what piece of equipment is essential to protect yourself from airborne hazards?

A

properly fitting N95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are your first steps after a patient poorly responds to the trx you have given after patient is stablilzed

A

speak with nurse, chart response and chart whoseover you notified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

in setting up a postural drainage treatment what info could be important for you to obtain?
patients med sched
pt ideal body weight
pt meal schedule

A

med sched

meal sched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

all of the following are acceptable for an RT to suggest to a pt with COPD except what?
help pt develop good action plans
training pt in self care techniques
recomending diet or nutrition changes
providing information about disease process

A

diet and nutrition change recomendations shouldnt be given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T or F

proper diagnosis and trx are determined to a great extent by the accuracy and detal of the patients history

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

in what section of the patient history can a detailed description of the patients current symptoms be found?

A

history of present illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

information obtained form the patient an which cannot be percieved by the observer is known as?

A

subjective data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

where in patient info could you find potential history of exposrure to asbestos?

A

occupational history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

subjective manifestations of the disease are commonly known as?

A

symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

define pertinent negaitve

A

a sign or symptom assocaited woith the disease or suspected disease process which the patient denies having.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DNR means?

A

do no resusitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
family history can be helpful in diagnosing which of the following?
acute bronchitis
cystic fibrosis
pnuemothorax
pulmonary edema
A

CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

which of the following could lead to a weak cough?

a. Reduced lung recoil
b. Bronchospasm
c. Weak inspiratory muscles

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q 
A cough described as being persistent for more than 3 weeks would be called which of the following?
acute
paroxysmal
chronic
nocturnal
A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following problems associated with hemoptysis?

a. Tuberculosis
b. Lung carcinoma
c. Pneumonia

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A patient’s complaint of breathlessness or air hunger would be defined as which of the following?

a. Hemoptysis
b. Wheezing
c. Dyspnea
d. Cyanosis

A

dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?

a. Orthopnea
b. Platypnea
c. Eupnea
d. Apnea

A

platypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?

a. Orthopnea
b. Platypnea
c. Eupnea
d. Apnea

A

increase in lung compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What term is used to describe difficult breathing in the reclining position?

a. Apnea
b. Platypnea
c. Orthopnea
d. Eupnea

A

orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

\

A

radiates to the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of the following may cause syncope?

a. Severe cough
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Hypovolemia
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

define syncope

A

temporary loss of consciousness due to low BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following is (are) true regarding dependent edema cause by lung disease?

a. It is caused by pulmonary vasodilation
b. Accompanying hepatomegaly may be present
c. It is caused by acute systemic hypertension
d. All of the above

A

accompanying hepatomegaly may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Chronic pulmonary hypertension may lead to which of the following clinical findings?

a. Pedal edema
b. Inspiratory crackles
c. Hepatomegaly
d. A and C

A

hepatomegaly and pedal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

define hepatomegaly

A

swollen liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following is associated with night sweats?

a. Tuberculosis
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Asthma
d. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with GERD?

a. Pedal edema
b. Hoarseness
c. Coughing
d. Wheezing

A

pedal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In what decade of life is snoring and obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) most likely to be present in adult males?

a. 20 to 29 years
b. 30 to 39 years
c. 40 to 49 years
d. 50 to 59 years

A

50-59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

all of the following are included in the measurement of vital signs, except which one?

a. Pulse
b. Respiratory Rate
c. Urinary output
d. Blood pressure

A

urinary output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following changes is consistent with a fever?

a. Decreased respiratory rate
b. Increased pulse rate
c. Decreased oxygen consumption
d. Decreased blood pressure

A

increased pulse rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following methods of temperature measurement is recommended for neonates?

a. Oral
b. Axillary
c. Rectal
d. Ear

A

axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the normal value of the resting pulse rate in the adult?

a. 30-60 beats/min
b. 60-100 beats/min
c. 80-120 beats/min
d. 100-150 beats/min

A

60-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the normal range for respiratory rate for adults?

a. 6-10 breaths/min
b. 8-12 breaths/min
c. 12-20 breaths/min
d. 15-25 breaths/min

A

12-20 breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following causes tachycardia in the adult?

a. Hypothermia
b. Hypoxemia
c. Hypertension
d. Polycythemia

A

hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following arterial sites is the most common for evaluating the pulse in the adult patient?

a. Pedal
b. Temporal
c. Radial
d. Femoral

A

radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following causes tachypnea in the adult?

a. Hypothermia
b. Narcotic overdose
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Hyperoxia

A

metabolic acidosis

73
Q

Which of the following causes an erroneously low blood pressure measurement?

a. Inflation pressure held in the cuff between measurements
b. Use of blood pressure cuff that is too narrow
c. Not enough pressure used in the cuff during measurement
d. Tachycardia

A

not enough pressure used in the cuff during measurement

74
Q

Hypotension may often be associated with all of the following, except which ones?

a. Reduced perfusion
b. Less oxygen delivery to the tissues
c. Excessive salt intake
d. Dehydration

A

excessive salt intake

75
Q

The peak pressure in the arteries is known as which of the following?

a. Pulse pressure
b. Diastolic pressure
c. Systolic pressure
d. Pulse pressure

A

systolic pressure

76
Q
  1. A decrease in the intensity of the palpated pulse during inhalation is a definition of which of the following?
    a. Abdominal paradox
    b. Pulse pressure
    c. Pulsus paradoxus
    d. Pulsus alternans
A

pulsus paradoxus

77
Q

What is the normal range for pulse pressure?

a. 10-20 mmHg
b. 20-25 mmHg
c. 30-50 mmHg
d. 35-40 mmHg

78
Q

If a patient experiences syncope when moving from the supine to the upright position, what is the likely cause?

a. Left ventricular failure
b. Postural hypotension
c. Excessive vasoconstriction
d. Pulsus paradoxes

A

postural hypotension

79
Q

Which of the following is not a typical component to physical examination?

a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Auscultation
d. Interviewing

A

interviewing

80
Q

Pursed-lip breathing is most often seen in patients with which of the following diseases?

a. Pulmonary fibrosis
b. COPD
c. Pneumonia
d. Congestive heart failure

81
Q

Which of the following is an unlikely cause of diaphoresis?

a. Myocardial infarction
b. Fever
c. Pulmonary fibrosis
d. Exercise

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

82
Q

In which of the following conditions is lymphadenopathy of the neck seen?

a. Infection of the upper airway
b. Asthma
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Atelectasis

A

upper airway infection

83
Q

define lymphadenopathy

A

disease fo the lymph nodes

84
Q

Which of the following may cause an increased jugular vein distension?

i. Chronic hypoxemia
ii. Right-sided heart failure secondary to left-sided heart failure
iii. Right-sided heart failure alone
a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. i, ii and iii

85
Q

What spinous process is most prominent with the patient sitting and with the head bent forward?

a. T1
b. C1
c. C7
d. S3

86
Q

At which of the following topographic locations is the bifurcation of the trachea located on the anterior chest?

a. Over the upper part of the manubrium
b. Beneath the sternal angle
c. The fourth rib at the sternum
d. Under the xiphoid process

A

beneath the sternal angle

87
Q

The minor (horizontal) fissure begins at which of the following locations on the anterior chest?

a. Second rib at the sternal border
b. Fourth rib at the sternal border
c. Sixth rib at the sternal border
d. Seventh rib at the sternal border

A

fourth rib at the sternal border

88
Q

An “inward depression of the sternum” describes which of the following thoracic configurations?

a. Kyphosis
b. Pectus excavatum
c. Flail chest
d. Barrel chest

A

pectus excavatum

89
Q

What type of lung problem is associated with severe kyphoscoliosis?

a. COPD
b. Restrictive lung disease
c. Pneumothorax
d. Pulmonary fibrosis

A

restrictive lung disease

90
Q

Which of the following best describes an apneustic breathing pattern?

a. Prolonged exhalation
b. Prolonged inhalation
c. Deep and fast
d. Absence of breathing

A

prolonged inhalation

91
Q

What is indicated by the presence of retractions?

a. Heart failure
b. An increase in the work of breathing
c. Pneumothorax
d. Restrictive lung disease

A

increase WOB

92
Q

Which of the following I:E ratios is consistent with a severe asthma attack?

a. 3:1
b. 2:1
c. 1:1
d. 1:3

93
Q

Which of the following breathing patterns is associated with narrowing of the intrathoracic airways?

a. Prolonged inspiratory time
b. Prolonged expiratory time
c. Rapid and shallow
d. Rapid and deep

A

prolonged expiratory time

94
Q

Which of the following indicate diaphragmatic fatigue?

i. Paradoxical pulse
ii. Abdominal paradox
iii. Respiratory alternans
iv. Biot breathing pattern
a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. iii and iv

95
Q

Which of the following causes an increased tactile fremitus?

a. Atelectasis with a patent bronchiole
b. Pleural effusion
c. Emphysema
d. Obesity

A

atelectasis with a patent bronchiole

96
Q

Which of the following causes a bilateral decrease in chest expansion?

a. Lung tumor
b. Pneumothorax
c. COPD
d. Pleural effusion

97
Q

Which of the following causes an increase resonance to percussion of the chest?

a. Lobar consolidation
b. Pneumothorax
c. Pleural effusion
d. Atelectasis

A

pneumothorax

98
Q

What clinical condition would cause the range of diaphragm movement to be reduced bilaterally?

a. Severe emphysema
b. Left lower lobe atelectasis
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Pneumonia

A

severe emphysema

99
Q

Normal tracheal breath sounds are produced by which of the following mechanisms?

a. Turbulent airflow through large airways
b. Filtered sounds through lung tissue
c. Passage of air through secretions
d. Passage of air through narrowed airways

A

turbulent airflow through large airways

100
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe discontinuous adventitious lung sounds?

a. Wheeze
b. Crackles
c. Rhonchi
d. Stridor

101
Q

The finding of late inspiratory crackles on auscultation of a patient might indicate which of the following?

i. Atelectasis
ii. Pulmonary fibrosis
iii. Bronchospasm
iv. Pneumonia
a. i only
b. i and iii
c. i, ii and iii
d. i, ii and iv

A

atelectasis, PF and pneumonia

102
Q

What clinical condition is most closely associated with polyphonic wheezing?

a. Pneumonia
b. Pneumothorax
c. Asthma
d. Pulmonary fibrosis

103
Q

Which of the following lung sounds is commonly heard in patients with upper airway obstruction?

a. Polyphonic wheeze
b. Fine inspiratory crackles
c. Coarse inspiratory and expiratory crackles
d. Inspiratory stridor

A

inspiratory stridor

104
Q

Which of the following is the normal topographic location of the PMI?

a. Third intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
b. Fourth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
c. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
d. Sixth intercostal space at the midsternal line

A

fifth intercostal space

105
Q

what is PMI

A

point of maximal impulse; the location where the cardiac pulse can be palpated externally.

106
Q

Which of the following locations is best for auscultating the mitral valve?

a. Third intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
b. Fourth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
c. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
d. Sixth intercostal space at the midsternal line

A

fifth intercostal

107
Q

What produces the sounds associated with the first heart sound?

a. Closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves
b. Closure of the semilunar valves
c. Left ventricular muscle movement
d. Blood flow through normal valves

A

closure of AV valve

108
Q

What clinical condition is most commonly associated with a gallop heart rhythm?

a. Pneumonia
b. Pericarditis
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Aortic stenosis

109
Q

Which of the following may cause an increased P2 component of the second heart sound?

i. Pulmonary hypertension
ii. Pulmonary embolism
iii. Cor pulmonale
iv. Systemic hypertension
a. i and iii
b. ii and iii
c. i, ii and iii
d. i, ii, iii and iv

A

pulmonary hypertension
pulmonary embolism
cor pulmonale

110
Q

Which of the following is/are associated with right heart failure?

i. Jugular venous distention
ii. Hepatomegaly
iii. Pedal edema
iv. Systemic hypertension
a. i only
b. i and ii
c. i and iii
d. i, ii and iii

A

jugular venous distension
hepatomegaly
pedal edema

111
Q

what are the 3 phases of a cough?

A

inspiratory, compression and expiratory

112
Q

is it advised to give anti-tussives to a patient with a productive cough? why or whynot?

A

it is ill advised, as they are assisting the body in expelling the infection, and thus to stop that impedes this process.

113
Q

define and distinguish between acute and chronic and paroxysmal

A

acute- sudden onset, short course
chronic- over 3 weeks persistent
paroxysmal- periodic, prolonged episodes, which come and go

114
Q

clear coloured sputum indicates what?

A

normal function

115
Q

black coloured sputum indicates what?

A

smoke or coal dust inhalation

116
Q

brownish coloured sputum indicates what?

A

cigarette smoker

117
Q

frothy white or pink coloured sputum indicates what?

A

pulmonary edema

118
Q

sand or small stone coloured sputum indicates what?

A

aspiration of foreign material-broncholithiasis-calcified ro ossified material in the bronchial lumen

119
Q

purulent coloured sputum indicates what?

120
Q

purulent apple-green thick coloured sputum indicates what?

A

haemophilus influenzae infection

121
Q

pink, thin, and blood streaked sputum indicates what?

A

streptococci or staphyloccoc infetion

122
Q

red currant jelly purulent sputum indicates what?

A

klebsellia infection

123
Q

rusty sputum indicates what?

A

pneumococci

124
Q

yellow or green copious sputum indicates what?

A

pseudomonas species pneumonia

125
Q

fetid or foul smelling sputum indicates what?

A

lung abscess, anaerobic infections or bronciectasis or aspiration

126
Q

mucoid (white-gray and thick) sputum indicates what?

A

emphysema, pulmonary tuberculosis, early chronic bronchitis, neoplasms, asthma

127
Q

grayish sputum indicates what?

A

legionnaires disease

128
Q

silicone like casts in sputum indicates what?

A

bronchial asthma

129
Q

blood streaked or bloody sputum (hemoptysis) indicates what?

A

bronchogenic carcinoma, TB, chronic bronchitis, coagulpathy, pulmonary contusion or abscess.

130
Q

distinguish between hemoptysis and hematemesis

A

hemoptysis is blood in sputum, hematemesis is vomitted blood

131
Q

SOB is the cardinal symptom ofd what disease?

A

cardiac disease

132
Q

dyspnea scoring scale

A

modified borg scale
0- nothing
10 is maximal maximal effort

133
Q

american thoracic society shortness of breath scale

A

0 no SOB
1 slight- troubled when wlaking uphill or vigourous walking on the flat
2 moderate- walks slower than people of same age due to breathlessness
3 severe- stops for breath after wlaking about 100 yards
4 very severe- too breathless to leave house, looses breath when dressing or undressing

134
Q

define psychogenic dyspnea

A

SOB due to panic disorder or mental health, not related to physical exertion

135
Q

define cardiac and circulatory dyspnea

A

inadequate supply of O2 to tissues primarily caused by exercising

136
Q

define hyperventilation

A

rate and depth of breathing whihc exceeds the bodies curretn metabloc demand. results in hypocapnoia and decreased cerebral blood flow.

137
Q

edema in the ankles and lower legs is most often casued by

A

RHF or LHF

138
Q

define cor pulmmonale

A

right ventricular hypertrophy caused by increased diseased state or resistance in the pulmonary circulation

139
Q

a patient has 1cm deep edema which takes 90 seconds to refill, they would be classified as what level on the pitting edema scale?

A

3+ moderate for 0.6-1.3 cm and 1-2 minute refill

140
Q

the pitting edema scale

A

1-trace slight with rapid refill
2-mild 0-0.6 cm with 10-15 second refill
3-moderate 0.6-1.3 cm with 1-2 minute refill
4- severe 1.3cm+ with 2min + refill

141
Q

common causes of fever (pulmonary diseases)

A

empyema (pus in lungs), TB, pnuemonia, legionaires

142
Q

most common cause of snoring and sleep apnea is?

143
Q

peak ages for male and females for OSA

A

50-59 male and 60-64 female

144
Q 
signs and symptoms of CHF
eyes
skin
brething
lung sounds
sputum colour
BP change
etc
A

dilated pupils- sympathetic response
pale skin
dyspnea SOB from pulmonary congstion
orhtopnea
crackels and wheezes
frothy pink andor white sputum
decreased blood pressure ;leads toincrease pulse
vomiting as peristalsis slows and stomach backs up
dependant edema
fall O2 sats
jugular vein distension from venous congestion
S3 gallop
decreased urine output
enlarged spleen and liver from veinous buildup impedes diaphragmatic excursion.

145
Q

importance of vital signs

A

establish a baseline, observe trends and determine general patient status

146
Q

what are the 4 classic VS?

A

temp, pulse, RR and BP

147
Q

what are the other vital signs considered 5th vital

A

pain and pulse ox

148
Q

what are some clinical patient signs of hypoxemia

A 
impaired coordination
cool extremities
diaphoresis
decreased mental function
increased WOB and use of accesory muscles
tahcycardia
arrhytmia
initial increase in BP
149
Q

how does having a fever impact O2 and CO2 in the body?

A

O2 consumption increases 10% per degree celsius fever increase
CO2 production increases aswell

150
Q

aside from exposure to cold, when else can we find hypothermia?

A

head injury patients to reduce ICP?

151
Q

how does hypothermia affect O2 and CO2 in the body?

A

decreases O2 consumption and decreases CO2 production

152
Q

define pulsus paradoxus

A

drop in systolic pressur eby 10 mmhg during inspiration

153
Q

define pulsus alterans

A

beat to beat change in the stregnth of cardiac contraction, caused by chagning preload.

154
Q

define apnea

A

lack of spontaneous breaths

155
Q

define eupnea

A

normal rate of breathing

156
Q

define bradypnea

A

less than normal rate of breathing

157
Q

define tachypnea

A

rapid rate of breating

158
Q

define hypopnea

A

decreased depth of breathing

159
Q

define hypernea

A

increased depth of breathing with or without an increased rate

160
Q

describe cheyne stokes breathing pattern

A

crescendo and decrescendo followed by apnea periods

161
Q

decribe biots breathing

A

quick shallow breaths folllowed by apnic periods

162
Q

describe kussmauls breathinf

A

deep and laboured breathing pattern

163
Q

describe apnuestc breating

A

inspirations followed by inadequate expiraitons, causd by severed or damaged pons?

164
Q

normal BP range
stage 1 hypertension
stage 2 hypertension
stage 3 hypertension

A

120-139/80-89
140-159/90-99
160-179/100-109
180+/ 110+

165
Q

define isolated systolic hypertension

A

systolic over 140mmhg and diastolic less than 90 mmhg

166
Q

define the term ausculatory gap in terms of BP

A

a range in the korotakoff sounds where no audible noise is heard although noise is heard above and below the range

167
Q

why must one remove glasses of patient wile assesing pupil response?

A

light could be amplified by lenses and/or lense could distort pupil size.

168
Q

why must you take a pulse as you increase cuff pressure wile taking BP?

A

to minimize hyperinflation

169
Q

how do normal temperature ranges vary from oral, redctal and axillary? (according to Welch Allyn) in degrees celsius

A

axillary- 34.7-37.3
oral 35.5-37.5
rectal- 36.6-38.0
thermoscan- 35.8-38.0

170
Q

distinguish between the 4 different scores for eyes in the glasgow coma scale

A

4 spontaneously open
3 open in response to speech
2 open in reposnse to pain
1 do not open at all

171
Q

distinguish between the 5 different scores for verbal responses in the glasgow coma scale

A 
5 oriented
4 confused
3 inappropriate words/makes no sense
2 incomprehensible sounds
1 no sounds
172
Q

distinguish between the 6 scores for motor response in the glasgw coma scale

A 
6 obeys verbal command
5 localizes pain
4 withdraws from apin
3 flexion to pain
2 extension to pain
1 none
173
Q

someone is considered to be ina coma with a GCS score of what or less?

174
Q

where is the tracheal bifurcation located in the front?

A

sternal angle/angle of louis

175
Q

what are reasons for jugular venous distension?

A

CHF-right sded

176
Q

where on chest are vesicular breaths found normally?

A

on the lungs surface?

177
Q

cause and sound of friction rubs

A

caused by pleuritis and sound squeaky

178
Q

what anatomy is responsible for each of the heart sounds?

A

lub- AV valve closing

dub- pulmonic and aortic valves closing

Patient ass (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions