Patient Assessment Flashcards
1
Q
What is another name for crepitus and what causes it?
A
Subcutaneous emphysema
Trauma, barotrauma, medical procedure, spontaneous pneumothorax
2
Q
Increased tactile fremitus, or vibrations when talking, are felt in what disease states?
A
Vocal fremitus increases due to inflammation and consolidation like pneumonia and abscess
3
Q
How is pitting edema classified, what disease states is it indicative of, and what is the recommended therapy
A
Stages 1-3+
CHF and renal failure
Diuretics
4
Q
When pressed with your finger, Increased venous distention is noted above the clavicle in what disease processes?
A
Right heart failure
Fluid overload
Obstructive lung disease and air trapping
5
Q
What life functions are tested with a capillary refill test and how quickly should the nailbed color return?
A
circulation and perfusion.
3 seconds
6
Q
What is paradoxical movement of the chest wall called and what should you suspect
A
Flail chest
Trauma and underlying lung issues (ie pneumothorax)
7
Q
What are some causes of hyperpnea, or deep breathing?
A
Metabolic disorder, CNS disorder
8
Q
What is the difference between hypopnea and bradypnea and some reasons for both?
A
Shallow breathing-OSA
Slow breathing-sleep, drugs, alcohol, metabolic disorders
9
Q
A deep and rapid breathing pattern that approaches 1:1 and that does not have periods of apnea? What is the classic diagnosis?
A
Kussmauls breathing
Diabetic keto acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Hypoxemia
Renal failure
10
Q
“The respiratory rate varies from normal to faster and may include short periods of apnea. It is most often seen with head injuries, but also can be seen with drug overdose, increased intracranial pressure, and congestive heart failure,
A
Cheyne stokes breathing
11
Q
What are two ways to apply a forced expiratory technique to help with mobilizing secretions?
A
Mid inspiratory cough
Huff cough
12
Q
A change from white or yellow sputum to green is indicative of what
A
 pneumonia
13
Q
Green and foul smelling sputum is typical of what disease processes?
A
Lung abscess
Bronchiectasis
Cystic fibrosis
14
Q
Where is the apical pulse normally palpated and what is it known as?
A
Area of the left midclavicular line in the fifth intercostal space
Point of maximum impulse
15
Q
Intropy, or variable force, with each heartbeat is usually a sign of
A
Heart disease
16
Q
What are the three subdivisions of tactile fremitus?
A
- Vocal fremitus
- Pleural rub fremitus-inflamed pleural surfaces
- Rhonchial fremitus-secretions
17
Q
Bronchial, aka tracheal breath sounds, are heard over what areas and what would it indicate if they were heard over the lung periphery?
A
Trachea and bronchus
Consolidation
18
Q
Increased vesicular breath sounds are normal in what patients?
A
Children
Debilitated adults
19
Q
Late inspiratory, crackles are heard in patients with what conditions
A
pneumonia,
pulmonary edema, or fibrosis
20
Q
How would you describe a harsh, monophonic? High-pitched inspiratory sound over the larynx?
Treatment?
A
Stridor
Racemic epinephrine
21
Q
When stridor is heard on inspiration and expiration, is commonly caused by what?
A
Aspirated foreign body, tracheal stenosis, or laryngal tumor
22
Q
What causes a galloping heart rate and what is the typical pathologic finding?
A
A third (s3) or fourth (s4) heart sound
Congestive heart failure
23
Q
In a fetus, infection, fetal immaturity, congenital heart malformation, and the effect of maternal drugs can have what impact on the babies heart rate?
A
Tachycardia
24
Q
Fetal asphyxia and distress can caused their heart rate to become?
A
Bradycardic
25
What will likely develop an a premature neonate without sufficient surfactant?
Respiratory distress syndrome
26
What is the L: S ratio, indicative of?
Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio is the relative amount of these two surfactant components. In general, the more lecithin compared with sphingomyelin, the more mature, the lungs.
27
What is the second test involving the presence of surfactant called?
What is the significance?
PG or phatidylglycerol in the amniotic fluid
The presence of PG in the amniotic fluid always indicates lung maturity
28
What does transillumination of the chest in an infant identify?
Pneumothorax
29
What test on babies monitors upper chest movement, lower chest movement, xiphoid, retractions, nasal dilation, and expiratory grunt to determine respiratory distress
Silverman- Anderson score
30
An inflammation of the epiglottis and Superglottic structures is a medical emergency called?
What do you see an x-ray?
Epiglottitis
Thumb Sign
31
Loryngotracheobronchitis is also known as?
What’s seen on chest x-ray
Croup
Steepling or pencil sign
32
Besides chest x-ray, what are clinical indicators of epiglotitis versus Loryngotracheobronchitis?
An epiglottitis, the patient presents with a fever, drooling and difficulty swallowing. The white blood cells are elevated and has a rapid onset.
33
Inspection: hyper inflated chest with use of accessory muscles
Palpation: Decreased expansion/decreased fremitus
Percussion: hyperresonance/low diaphragm
Auscultation: long, expiratory time /wheezes
Asthma and COPD
34
Inspection: inspiratory lag on affected side
Palpation: decreased fremitus and trachea and heart shift toward affected side
Percussion: dullness 
Auscultation: absent breath sounds
 atelectasis (lobar)
35
Inspection: possible, inspiratory lag, splinting on affected side
Palpation: rhonchial fremitus
Percussion: dullness
Auscultation: bronchial breath sounds, bronchophony, pectoriloquy
Consolidation (pneumonia)
36
Inspection: inspiratory lag on affected side
Palpation: absent, crematories, trachea, and heart shifted away from affected side
Percussion: hyperresonance
Auscultation: absent breath sounds
Tension pneumothorax
37
Inspection: inspiratory lag on affected side
Palpatatuon: decreased fremitus
Percussion: dullness
Auscultation: absent breast sounds
Pleural effusion
38
What are the four life functions in order of importance?
Ventilation
Oxygenation
Circulation
Perfusion
39
If a persons CVP is less than 2 mm Hg, what is a possible treatment recommendation?
Fluid therapy
40
If a patient’s CVP is greater than 6 mmHg what is the treatment recommendation?
Diuretics
41
What are the four steps to the physical examination of a patient?
Inspection
Palpation.
Percussion
Auscultation
42
What should a respiratory therapist consider when a patient is lethargic somnolent or sleepy?
Sleep apnea
Excessive O2 with retainer
43
When a patient seems anxious or nervous, which should respiratory therapist consider may be the cause?
respiratory distress or hypoxemia
44
General malaise, angry, combative, or irritable patients could potentially be suffering from
Electrolyte imbalance
45
What is the potential emotional state of patients with severe hypoxia or with a tension pneumothorax or status asthmaticus
Panic
46
What is orthopnea and what condition could it demonstrate?
Difficulty breathing except in the upright position
CHF
47
How many stages of dyspnea are there and what stages the worst?
Five stages with five being the worst. Stage 5 is dyspnea at rest
48
Diaphoresis, or extreme sweating, can indicate heart failure, infection, anxiety, or tuberculosis (night sweats). As a respiratory therapist, what would you suggest for each?
Heart failure – diuretics and positive inotropic agents infection fever – antibiotics
Nervousness – sedatives
Tuberculosis – anti tubercular drugs
49
What are a three reasons a patient look pale, or pallor, in a patient assessment
Anemia
Acute blood loss
Vasoconstriction
50
What causes cyanosis, or discoloration of skin and mucous membranes, in patient inspection?
Caused by hypoxia from an increased amount of reduced hemoglobin (5g )
51
Normal respiratory rate depth and rhythm is called. What and what is the normal rate?
Eupnea
12 to 20 breaths per minute
52
Over 20 breaths per minute is called tachypnea. What’s could be the cause?
Hypoxia
Fever
Pain
CNS problem
53
Normal sleep, drugs, alcohol, and metabolic disorders can all lead to what type of breathing
Bradypnea, less than 12 breaths/minute
54
Biots breathing is caused by a CNS problem and is different than Cheyne Stokes breathing in which way?
Each breath has the same depth
55
An apneustic pattern is marked by prolong, gasping inspiration fall by extremely short, insufficient expiration. What are some causes?
Problem with respiratory center, trauma or tumor
56
What makes cachexia different than normal muscle loss.
It’s due to a underlying condition, like COPD, CHF or AIDS
57
When the chest moves inward during inspiratory efforts instead of outward, it’s called retractions and what does it indicate in an adult? How about a newborn?
Severe airway instruction in adults
Respiratory distress in newborns
58
Nasal flaring in newborns indicates what?
Respiratory distress
59
What could a dry or nonproductive cough complaint indicate
Tumor in the lungs
60
What is macroglossia?
Enlarged tongue
61
What classes of Mallampati are considered difficult and what should be utilized?
Class three and class four are considered difficult airways and you should use a fiber optic bronchoscope or a video assist device
62
Tachycardia could indicate hypoxemia anxiety or stress. Which should a respiratory therapist recommend recommen
Oxygen therapy
63
Bradycardia can indicate heart failure, shock or a code emergency. What should respiratory therapist recommend?
Atropine
64
How many beats per minute change indicates an adverse reaction in a patient
20
65
What is paradoxical pulse/pulses paradoxus mean?
Pulse/blood pressure varying with respiration. May indicate severe air trapping. (status asthmaticus, tension pneumothorax, or cardiac tamponade.)
66
What causes a tracheal deviation away from the pathology?
Massive pleural fusion
Tension, pneumothorax,
Neck, or thyroid tumor
Large mediastinal mass
67
What causes a tympanic or hyper resonant sound in diagnostic chest percussion?
Air trapping
Emphysema
Pneumothorax
68
During egophany, if a spoken E or 99 sounds different during auscultation, what does it indicate?
Consolidation
69
Terms that referred to increased intensity or transmission of the spoken voice and indicate consolidation and pneumonia are called?
Broncoohony
Whispered pectoriloquy
70
What are the three types of crackles, where is the fluid, and treatment recommendations
Coarse Crackles (rhonchi) large airway secretions/cough or sxn.
Medium crackles-middle airway secretions/bronchial hygiene
Fine crackles-fluid in the alveoli and associated with CHF or pulmonary edema/O2’s, IPPB, positive inotropic, diuretics
71
What would you suspect and recommend for treatment with a unilateral wheeze?
Foreign body obstruction
rigid bronchoscopy
72
What are the three things that can cause stridor, or crowing Inspiratory sound and how would treat?
Supraglottic swelling/epiglotitis/racemic epi/intubation if severe or marked
Subglottic swelling/croup/cool aerosol
Foreign body obstruction-bronchoscopy
73
A low pitched snoring type of sound, on inhalation, that usually arises from the vibration of fluid or the vibration of tissue that is relaxed or flabby. What is the treatment?
Stertor
CPAP
74
What is the diagnosis and treatment for a coarse grating, rasping, crunching sound heard on oscillation, and what is the cause and treatment?
Pleural friction rub
Caused by inflamed visceral or parietal pleura rubbing together. Maybe associated with pleurisy, TB, pneumonia, pulmonary infarction, cancer, etc.
Steroids antibiotics.
75
What are normal cardiac heart sounds and what do you recommend if they’re not normal?
S1-caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the beginning of the ventricular contraction.
S2- sound heard when systole ends when the ventricles relax and the pulmonic and aortic valves close
Tx-echocardiogram
76
Narrowed bronchi could indicate what?
Bronchogenic carcinoma
77
An increased cardiac shadow indicates cardiomegaly, and what the two potential causes 
Congestive heart failure
pericardial effusion
78
What can cause the pulmonary artery to enlarge?
Pulmonary hypertension
Embolism
79
A slanted or diagonal chest X-ray, called oblique position, is used to diagnose what
The position of pulmonary lesions
80
What is a lateral decubitus x-ray used for?
Differentiate pleural effusions from pneumonia
81
What is apical lordotic chest x-ray used for
Help confirm tuberculosis
82
What is an end expiratory chest x-ray used for?
Detect, small pneumothorax and diaphragmatic excursion
83
On chest x-ray, pacemaker, wires electrode should be normally positioned where
Right ventricle
84
On chest x-ray, the pulmonary arctic catheter should appear where
Right lower lung field
85
On chest x-ray, where should central venous catheter rest?
In the superor vena cava or right atrium
86
Chest tube should be seen where in a chest x-ray
Pleural space
87
Where should nasogastric and feeding tubes be positioned?
2 to 6 cm below the diaphragm
88
Any solid white area on a chest x-ray is known as what and what is the diagnosis
Consolidation
Pneumonia pleural effusion
89
Vascular markings are increased and absent in what conditions?
CHF
Pneumothorax
90
Diffuse infiltrates indicate what 2 potential diagnosis
Pneumonia or atelectasis
91
Diagnosis and treatment for patchy infiltrates, plate like infiltrates, crowded, pulmonary vessels, crowded air bronchograms
Atelectasis
Lung expansion therapy
92
What diseases indicated by ground glass or honeycomb pattern, diffuse bilateral radiopacity. Also called reticulogranular or reticulonodular? Treatment
ARDS
Oxygen, low volume therapy, CPAP, peep
93
Dx. And Tx for blunting of the costaphrenic angle, basilar infiltrates with meniscus, concave superior interface. Fluid level on affected side, possible mediastinal shift to unaffected side.
Pleural effusion
Thoracentesis
Chest tube
Antibiotics
Steroids
94
Air bronchograms with increased density from consolidation and atelectasis indicates what diagnosis and what is the treatment
Pneumonia.
Antibiotics
95
A wedge shaped peripheral infiltrate indicates what and how would you treat
Pulmonary embolus
Heparin and clot buster( streptokinase)
96
On a chest x-ray, cavity formation in the upper lobes is indicative of what and what is the suggested treatment
Tuberculosis
Antitubercular drugs
Nutritional support
Isolation
97
Fluffy infiltrates, butterfly pattern or batwing pattern with diffuse whiteness indicates what disease and what is the treatment
Pulmonary edema
Diuretics and positive inotropic agents, like Digitalis and Digoxin
98
What is the only way to truly diagnose tuberculosis?
Acid fast stain
99
What is the safest diagnostic text for a pulmonary embolus?
A spiral CT scan with contrast
100
What should a respiratory therapist recommend to evaluate sleep disorders?
Electroencephalograph EEG
101
What is the indication for a pulmonary angiography, or arterial pulmogram
When you suspect a pulmonary embolus, and you have an inconclusive V/Q scan and or CT scan. It is the most definitive and most risky.
102
What is the cardiac procedure that is done for both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. It can be used for angioplasty, PCI, balloon, sept, ostomy, and electrophysiology studies.
Cardiac catheterization
103
How would you reduce intercranial pressures as a respiratory therapist?
Hyperventilate to target a PCO2 of 25 to 30 torr.
Keep the head of bed elevated greater than 30°
Narcotics and benzodiazepines
Osmotic agents to remove fluid from the brain like mannitol and hypertonic saline
104
What are cerebral perfusion pressures and what is the normal value?
Pressure gradient to determined cerebral perfusion
Normal value is 70 to 90 mmHg
105
Why would a respiratory therapist recommend exhaled nitric oxide testing?
Used to monitor the patient response to anti-inflammatory (corticosteroid)treatment
106
Why would a respiratory therapist recommend exhale, carbon monoxide testing and what does 7-10 ppm indicate
Used to monitor abstinence and cigarette smokers.
A light smoker
107
Elevated CO levels can be seen in what two types of patients
Smokers
OSA patients
108
What test is the main indication for bronchiectasis
Bronchography
109
In a complete blood count, or CBC, the measurement of RBCs, hemoglobin (hb) and hematocrit (Hct) are all evaluating for what?
Anemia or polycythemia
110
What is the normal value for RBCs in a complete blood count? What factor does it increase for hemoglobin and hematocrit?
4-6 mil/mm3
By a factor of three
Hb: 12-16 g/100 mL blood
Hct: 40-50%
111
What is the normal WBC in a CBC measurement and what the highs and lows indicate
5000 10,000
Increased equals bacterial infection recommend an antibiotics
Decrease WC indicates viral infection recommend antiviral agents
112
Why do WBC’s decrease in a viral infection?
The Segs component of the white blood cell dies off fighting the viral infection, but the Bands portion aren’t triggered to multiply
113
What do eosinophils in a CBC indicate?
Asthma or allergic reaction
114
When monocytes are greater than 3% of the WBC’s in a CBC, what disease state does it indicate?
Tuberculosis
115
What is another name for total CO2 content and what electrolyte is impacted with high levels?
Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
Low potassium
116
What blood chemistry test is the most specific for evaluating kidney failure?
What is the normal range?
creatinine
0.6-1.3 mEq/L
117
Sputum cultures and sensitivity take 48 to 72 hours. When you are in a hurry, what is the test you recommend to test sputum
Gram stain. It takes one hour.
118
What test is used for monitoring heparin therapy and what is the normal value in length of time required for plasma to form a fibrin clot?
APTT-activated partial thromboplastin time: 24-32 seconds
119
What protein found in a cardiac enzyme test is a specific indicator of damage to the heart muscle
Troponin, levels greater than 0.1 ng/mL place a patient at high risk of death from MI
120
What does a respiratory therapist recommend for treatment of high troponin levels and myocardial infarction
OMAN
Oxygen, morphine, aspirin, nitroglycerin
121
What is BNP, or brain natriuretic peptide, and what is normal?
Protein released by the cardiac muscle when heart failure develop or worsen
Normal value is less less than 100 pg/ml
122
What is the measurement of serum BNP, brain natriuretic peptide, helpful in determining?
If the patient symptoms are the result of CHF or another condition such as COPD. Elevated levels, >300 pg/mL, indicate CHF.
123
How do hypertrophy and infarction affect the axis of an echocardiogram?
Hypertrophy shifts access towards the enlargement. Infarction shifts the access away.
124
What is the best lead in electrocardiogram?
Lead 2. Right arm negative to left leg positive
125
what is the only lead that produces an upside down pattern on an EKG?
AVR lead. Right arm positive. Everything else negative.
126
What’s the difference between heart flutter and fibrillation?
Heart flutter is 200 beats or more minute and fibrillation is too fast to count
127
What do you call a heart rhythm with a p wave
Sinus
128
What drug do you prescribe with sinus bradycardia?
Atropine
129
How do you treat atrial flutter and fibrillation?
What additional drugs do you prescribe for fibrillation
Digoxin, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers,
anticoagulants, and thrombolytics
130
On an EKG, what indicates a PVC and how do you treat it?
A wide QRS wave with no P-wave.
Oxygen, lidocaine consider other causes
131
When a patient has ventricular tachycardia with no pulse, would you defibrillate or cardiovert? What drugs would you recommend?
Defibrillate
Epinephrine and amiodarone
132
A depressed or inverted T wave indicates what in an EKG
Ischemia -reduced blood flow to tissue
133
An elevated ST segment in electrocardiogram indicates what?
Myocardial injury
134
What will you see on an EKG with a major heart attack?
Inverted T waves
elevated S-T segment
Significant Q waves
135
What is the treatment for serious heart injury or infarction
OMAN
Oxygen, morphine, aspirin, and nitroglycerin
136
Normal term is how many weeks
38-42
137
AGA, LGA and SGA, stand for what in infant assessment?
Appropriate for gestational age
Large for gestational age
Small for gestational age
138
What does Apgar stand for?
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effort
139
How many points can an infant earn on each letter in the APGAR scale? What are the levels?
2
0-3 resuscitation needed
4-6 stimulate, warm, O2
7-10 routine care
140
At what time period Do you evaluate Apgar scores?
1 and 5 minutes
141
How do you remember a Silverman score for respiratory distress?
It’s exactly opposite of Apgar score. high means bad
142
What is a normal score in a Dubowitz or Baller method for gestational age indicates a post term infant
40
Higher than 40
143
A ductus arteriosus causes what type of shunt and how much higher does it need to be?
A right to left shunt. The PAO2 level from the right arm, often exceeds that found in the lower extremities.
15 torr higher
144
What is capnography?
The monitoring of exhaled carbon dioxide
145
The symbols: ECO2, ETCO2, PETCO2 all indicate what?
exhale carbon dioxide
146
Will PETCO normally be lower or higher than arterial CO2
Lower. As it dilutes with dead space
147
What is the normal value in percent of ECO2?
3-5%
148
What could a decrease in exhaled carbon dioxide indicate
An increase in ventilation or decreased perfusion (deadspace disease, pulmonary embolism, hypovolemia)
149
What two CO2 gas percentages is capnography calibrated with and how often?
0% and 5%
Every eight hours
150
What is the primary purpose of a co-oximeter/hemoximeter and what are the normal values?
Used to diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning
0-1%
151
What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
100% O2 via non-rebreather
152
On a transcutaneous monitor, what electrodes provide PO2 and PCO2 measurements
 Clark is O2
Severinghouse is CO2
153
For accurate, transcutaneous monitoring, what temperature do you need to heat the skin around the electrode?
43 to 45°C improves capillary blood flow and enhances movement through the skin
154
How often should you move the electrotrode in transcutaneous monitoring
Change it every four hours to prevent Patient burns 
155
What life functions is hemodynamics measuring
Circulation and perfusion
156
What three factors control blood pressure
Heart
Blood.
Vessels
157
An increase in the heart rate will increase blood pressure. What drugs will increase heart rate.
Positive Chronotropic drugs like atropine. Less systemic side effects
158
A decrease in heart rate will decrease blood pressure. What drugs will decrease heart rate?
Beta blockers or Beta antagonists will decrease heart rate such as atenolol, propranolol, labetalol, and other drugs ending in olol.
159
What drugs will increase contractility and therefore increase blood pressure?
And what drugs decrease contraction and therefore BP
Positive inotropic drugs, like digitalis, digoxin and dobutamine
Negative inotropic drugs. Also known as calcium channel blockers like Verapamil.
160
How do you treat excessive fluids and increased blood pressures?
Diuretics such as furosemide
161
How do you treat decreased pressures due to loss of fluids
Treat with fluids or blood products
162
What are the two types of vasodilators, and some representative examples, you could give to lower blood pressure?
Direct vasodilators like nitroprussides, nitroglycerin, hydrazine, and milrinone)
Ace inhibitors, like lisinopril, and other pril drugs
163
What are some drugs that would treat vasodilation?
Vasoconstrictors
-epinephrine
-phenylprine
-dopamine
-dobutamine
164
What is a pressure transducer used for?
Convert pressures, or analog signals, into electrical signals, or digital signals that can display on a monitor
165
What is important about transducer placement?
It should be at the same level as the tip of the catheter. If it’s higher, readings are lower than actual.
166
What three pressures does a standard pulmonary artery catheter measure
The proximal catheter port measures CVP
The distal port with the balloon deflated measures PAP
The port with balloon inflated measures PCWP
167
The presence of dicrotic notch in a wave form indicates what location
 PAP or pulmonary artery
168
What is pressure dampening
Occurs in the monitors not showing the normal dichrotic notch and the catheter is obstructed
169
What is normal troubleshooting for pressure dampening or pulmonary artery catheter are not reading correctly
Blood clot, bubble in the catheter or transducer or of the tube.
Flush the catheter and rotate the catheter, pull the catheter
170
An increase in CVP indicates what potential issues
Right heart failure, cor pulmonale, tricuspid valves stenosis
171
An increase in PAP pressures and potentially CVP pressures indicates what pathologies
Lung disorders
Pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary embolism
172
What what pathologies cause an increase in PCWP, or wedge pressure, Decrease cardiac output and could increase pulmonary artery pressure, or PAP?
Left heart failure
Mitral valve stenosis
CHF
173
All pressures rise or fall with hyper or hypovolemia, but what hemodynamic measurement is involved impacted
CVP increases with hypervolemia and decreases with hypovolemia
174
What is the Fick equation?
QT= VO2/C(a-v)O2 x10
175
What is the stroke volume equation and what is the unit of measurement?
QT= heart rate times volume. Change to liters.
176
In a thermal dilution study used to determine cardiac output, what is necessary?
A cold saline injection through a pulmonary artery catheter
177
What is normal cardiac output
4 to 8 L per minute, depending on body size
178
What is the formula for cardiac index and how does it relate to cardiac output?
Cardiac index equals cardiac output divided by body surface area
CI=QT/BSA
It’s typically half the number, so multiplied by two to get cardiac output
179
What is the formula for systemic vascular resistance and what is it measuring?
SVR=(MAP-CVP)/QT
Is the pressure gradient across the systemic circulation divided by the cardiac output
180
What is pulmonary vascular, resistance, measuring and what is the formula?
The pressure gradient across the pulmonary circulation divided by the cardiac output
PVR = (MPAP minus PCP)/QT, or cardiac output
181
For systemic, vascular resistance, and coronary vascular resistance how do you convert Hg/L\min to dynes
 Multiplied by 80
182
Accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, generally caused by liver failure
Ascites
183
What information would help the therapist determine a patient’s circulation is adequate
Heart rate and strength
Cardiac output
184
What changes could you monitor that help indicate if the patient has adequate perfusion
blood pressure
temperature
urine output
Sensorium
Hemodynamics
185
What are five items that are important to examine when interviewing a patients medical record
Chief complaint
Admitting diagnosis.
History of current illness.
Overall medical history.
Medication’s
186
Drugs commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders, panic disorders, insomnia, acute stress reactions, muscle spasms, and certain types of seizures. Indicated for increased intercranial pressures
Benzodiazepines
187
What is the Katz scoring system used for
Evaluating a persons activities of daily living
188
What type of breathing had prolonged gasping inspiration fall by extremely short insufficient expiration?
Apneustic
189
What type of drug decreases blood pressure 
Calcium channel blockers have a negative inatropic effect. Examples include Verpamil and Norvasc
190
On an EKG, what indicates a multifocal premature ventricular contraction and how do you treat it?
When the QRS complexes are different.
Oxygen, lidocaine, consider other causes
191
How would you treat ventricular flutter or fibrillation?
Defibrillate
CPR
Epinephrine and amiodarone
192
What two patient test values would determine how well a patient is ventilating?
PaCO2
EtCO2
193
What four findings might indicate that the patient’s fluid intake has exceeded urine output
Weight gain
electrolyte imbalance
Increased hemodynamic pressures
decreased lung compliance
194
Kerley B lines on a CXR indicate what disease process
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
195
What does confused Doctors look over sick cases stand for?
The six levels of consciousness, confused, delirious, lethargic, obtunded, stuporous, comatose
196
What does confused Doctors look over sick cases stand for?
The six levels of consciousness, confused, delirious, lethargic, obtunded, stuporous, comatose
