Pathophysiology of Anemia II Flashcards

1
Q

Recall that two or more causes of anemia often co-exist. Iron deficiency in the context of a chronic GI bleed is the most common example. Ruling one etiology IN does not rule the others OUT.

A

Recall that two or more causes of anemia often co-exist. Iron deficiency in the context of a chronic GI bleed is the most common example. Ruling one etiology IN does not rule the others OUT.

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2
Q

What is Hemolytic anemia?

A

The term refers to anemias due to either intravascular rupture of red cells OR increased uptake of red cells by phagocytes (such as those in spleen in liver, often referred to as the “reticuloendothelial system”). The second type is sometimes called extravascular hemolysis.

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3
Q

What are some lab tools used to identify hemolytic anemia?

A

free hemoglobin
LDH
Unconjugated bilirubin
Haptoglobin

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4
Q

How is free hemoglobin measured?

A

you can just plain see it when you hold a tube of serum or urine up to the light.

“Visible hemolysis” is the usual term you’ll see attached to a lab report for this.

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5
Q

How else can free hemoglobin occur?

A

In blood specimens it can be caused by a “traumatic” blood draw. Free plasma hemoglobin usually gets filtered out by the kidneys, but in very severe hemolysis and/or renal disease it will be evident in urine as well.

Red cells, which can end up in urine via tissue damage anywhere between the kidneys and the urethra, will give a similar gross appearance; microscopy is needed to tell the difference.

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6
Q

Why is LDH a good indicator of hemolytic anemia?

A

There’s a ton of it in red cells, so if they are rupturing fast there will be a ton of it in serum.

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7
Q

What else can high levels of LDH be indicative of?

A

It can also be elevated due to lysis of other cells, such as lymphoblasts in the context of acute leukemia.

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8
Q

How is unconjugated bilirubin related to RBCs and when would it be elevated?

A

(end product of heme catabolism):

If free hemoglobin is being dumped into serum faster than the liver can metabolize it, this serum value will be up.

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9
Q

Can you visually see unconjugated bilirubin in blood draws?

A

Yes, this one is visible as well – the serum turns yellow.

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10
Q

Is elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin specific to hemolytic anemia?

A

No, it can also be elevated due to some types of liver disease or Gilbert’s syndrome, a benign liver anomaly.

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11
Q

What is haptoglobin?

Is it elevated or decreased in hemolytic anemia?

A

The hemoglobin recycling transporter, and if lots of free hemoglobin is being cleared the net haptoglobin level can be reduced.

But this can be masked by the increase in haptoglobin seen in association with infectious/inflammatory states (it’s an “acute phase reactant.”)

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12
Q

T or F. There is often evidence of hemolysis on the peripheral blood smear and via the reticulocyte count.

A

T, if you recall that the workup of any hematologic disease begins with a review of the peripheral blood smear, you will not miss this.

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13
Q

What is plasma? What is serum?

A

Plasma is the liquid portion of blood.

Serum is the liquid that is left over if you let a tube of blood clot.

Most lab assays of enzyme activities can be done on serum, but those involving the assessment of blood coagulation obviously cannot.

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14
Q

How can defects in red cell membrane components lead to hemolytic anemia?

A

The red cell membrane can be thought of as that of a pressurized balloon with a number of anchor points on its surface. “Cables” (spectrin) run between the anchor points on the interior of the membrane to stabilize the structure. Genetic defects in the cables, anchor points (Band 3), and associated proteins (ankyrin) result in misshapen, and often unstable, red cells.

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15
Q

What is an osmotic fragility test?

A

an assay of what fraction of the red cells survive after they are placed in a hypotonic environment.

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16
Q

How can variations in the AA/protein structure of hemoglobin result in hemolytic anemia?

A

Minor changes in the globin amino acid sequence can cause hemoglobin to crystallize, resulting in precipitation of the hemoglobin and resultant instability of the red cell.

Because these mutations can also confer some resistance to malaria in heterozygotes, they have persisted in the gene pool – more so among populations in malaria-endemic areas.

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17
Q

T or F. Without active membrane transport of sodium out of the cell, the cell would get in trouble fast. Its metabolic needs are otherwise minimal, so after it has matured in the bone marrow it gets rid of its mitochondria and sustains itself by glycolysis only.

A

T.

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18
Q

Thus, defects in glycolytic enzymes are therefore particularly lethal to red cells. What is the most common?

A

pyruvate kinase deficiency.

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19
Q

What does pyruvate kinase deficiency cause?

A

As you could predict, it leads to inadequate transport of sodium out of the red cell, an influx of water down the osmotic gradient, swelling of the red cell, and ultimately rupture.

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20
Q

What would pyruvate kinase deficiency result in, in bone marrow?

A

Bone marrow’s increases efforts to keep up with rapid red cell loss: lots of red cells that have just left the marrow, showing bluish discoloration (“polychromasia”) which the hematology analyzer will count as reticulocytes.
Even less mature red cells (nucleated ones) may also be seen

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21
Q

How do red cells protect against oxidized species?

A

The red cell uses a sulfhydryl-containing molecule, glutathione, which becomes oxidized as it functions to reduce dysfunctional, oxidized proteins and, more importantly, the O2-derived small molecule (peroxide) that generates them.

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22
Q

How is glutathione recycled in red cells?

A

To recycle it, the red cell generates NADPH via a biochemical alternative to glycolysis called the pentose phosphate pathway. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is one of the first enzymes in this pathway, and genetic defects in G6PD are particularly bad for red cells.

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23
Q

G6PD deficiency is one of the more common genetic defects in the human population Why is it so common?

A

It has been selected for during recent human evolution because it imparts slight resistance to malaria (probably because the cells rupture before the parasite can make full use of their contents).

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24
Q

What are Heinz bodies?

A

G6PD deficiency is usually only detected when hemolysis is observed following certain dietary intakes (fava beans are a well known culprit) or after exposure to any of several different drugs.

The resultant oxidized hemoglobin forms precipitates in the red cells, which can be visualized with a stain called methylene blue- the cells are called Heinz bodies.

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25
Q

What else can be oxidized in a red cell?

A

Their cargo (O2) is carried next to a Ferrous (+2) iron atom; if the latter gets oxidized to the ferric form (+3) it no longer works.

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26
Q

Extensive oxidation of heme iron is called ______. When can this occur?

A

Methemoglobinemia; it can occur (in conjunction with hemolysis) in G6PD deficiency, drug toxicity, and in kids who lack the enzyme that normally reduces it back to the ferrous state (cytochrome B5 reductase).

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27
Q

Write out the anti-oxidant pathway of red cells.

A

1) G6PD oxidizes G6P into 6-phosphogluconate as NADP is reduced
2) GSSG is reduced to GSH via glutathionine reductase as NAPDPH is re-oxidzed
3) H2O2 is reduced to 2H20 via glutathione peroxidase as GSH is re-oxidized to GSSG

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28
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in G6PD deficient patients?

A
  • dapsone and primaquine (malaria)
  • methylene blue
  • nitrofurantoin
  • rasburicase

So G6PD testing probably should be (and often is) required before starting any patients in those regions on those drugs.

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29
Q

What is the ‘alternative pathway’ in relation to complement proteins and RBCs?

A

The plasma proteins that initiate complement fixation do in fact bind to red cells at a low rate all the time (via the “alternative pathway”).

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30
Q

If the process went to completion (and formed the dreaded membrane attack complex, or MAC) every time this happened, you would lose a lot of red cells. How is this avoided?

A

Red cells deploy at least one surface protein that blocks the steps in complement fixation that occur immediately after the first few components have latched on.

The key protein is decay accelerating factor (DAF) because it accelerates the decay of surface-bound complement proteins before they can put together the MAC

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31
Q

Defects in DAF result in what?

A

Genetic defects which interfere with this system result in intermittent hemolysis. Can cause paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

32
Q

Is PNH an inherited condition?

A

No, This is not an inherited condition. It results from somatic acquisition of the relevant mutation in a clone of hematopoietic stem cells.

And the mutation is not actually in the DAF gene. It’s in the gene for an enzyme called PIG-A, which is involved in generating a glycolipid that anchors DAF and several other proteins to the cell surface

33
Q

What chromosome is PIG-A located on?

A

A defect in only one of the two PIG-A alleles is required, so it’s on the X chromosome

34
Q

How can PNH be treated?

A

Allogeneic bone marrow transplant or Eculizumab

35
Q

How is malaria diagnosed? How does it present?

A

recent travel to a malaria-endemic area and presenting with high fevers, dark urine, and jaundice and by review of the peripheral smear

36
Q

What is a ‘thick’ smear?

A

If the patient has a lot of parasites on board, this is easy. If not, a “thick smear” is required so the pathologist or hematologist can review many red cells per microscopic field.

37
Q

How is malaria transmitted (its vector)?

A

anopheles mosquito

remember that malaria lyses red cells

38
Q

What should be seen in the peripheral smear of malaria + patients?

A

early forms (merozoites) and late forms (gametocytes) in the red cells

the pathologist should be able to tell you (based on the morphology) which species of malarial parasite is present.
This is important because one species (plasmodium falciparum) is significantly more lethal than the other three.

39
Q

What is babesia? Vector?

A

protozoal intracellular parasite with a generally much milder clinical course than malaria. It is transmitted by ticks, and is endemic in the northeastern US.

red cell lyser

40
Q

What is Bartonella bacilliformis?

A

intracellular parasite endemic in the northern Andes (Peru, Ecuador, Colombia).

red cell lyser

41
Q

How does the presentation of Bartonella bacilliformis differ from its acute vs chronic phases?

A

It can cause severe anemia in its acute phase, and a cutaneous rash (“Peruvian warts”) in its chronic phase.

both phases are caused by the same agent

42
Q

What is the vector for Bartonella bacilliformis?

Synonyms?

A

sand flies

Synonyms: Carrion’s disease and Oroya fever

43
Q

C. Perfringens is a normal skin flora. How does it cause red cell lysis then?

A

it can secrete a toxin that results in hemolysis. It is not clear why the secreted toxin (alpha toxin) can result in such markedly different clinical presentations. The hemolytic anemia, when it occurs, is severe and usually fatal.

blood tubes will be messed up and look like they won’t spin down

44
Q

What are autoimmune hemolytic anemias?

A

caused by antibodies specific for red cell surface antigens.

45
Q

What is the reticuloendothelial system, or RES?

A

In the simplest case, red cells with such antibodies bound get cleared by tissue phagocytes (chiefly in the spleen and liver). These macrophages are collectively called RES.

46
Q

What are bite cells?

A

In some cases instead of clearance of the red cells, the RES phagocytes just “take a bite” out of the red cell, and they are inclined to leave as much hemoglobin behind as possible.

The ratio of membrane to cell volume is thereby reduced, and instead of taking the shape of biconcave discs the resultant red cells are small spheres - “microspherocytes.”

47
Q

What else can happen in autoimmune hemolytic anemias?

A

In other cases, the antibodies will not result in rapid clearance but will induce complement fixation. This is a multi-step process consisting of the binding and cleavage of multiple plasma proteins, two of which (C1 and C3b) are common.

A receptor for C3b on a subset of macrophages is responsible for clearance of red cells showing C3b on their surface; we use the term “extravascular hemolysis” to refer to this kind of process.

If complement fixation goes to completion, it results in formation of the MAC, which lyses the cell (“intravascular hemolysis”).

48
Q

What will you see on a smear in autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

The nRBC’s (nucleated red cells) just reflect greatly accelerated bone marrow red cell production.

49
Q

When else would nRBCs be seen?

A

nRBC’s are also seen in the context of bone marrow diseases such as myelofibrosis, metastatic tumors, or acute leukemias.

However, in those cases the nRBC’s will be accompanied by other marrow components such as myelocytes and blasts - a general appearance termed leukoerythroblastic or “myelophthisic.”

It can be thought of as a condition in which masses of abnormal cells in the bone marrow “kick out” normal components into the bloodstream.

50
Q

How is autoimmune hemolytic anemia diagnosed?

A

Direct Coomb’s test (aka DAT)

Review on DAT procedure:
Add red cells into EDTA tube, wash, add antibodies to human IgG, incubate at 37C, and look for agglutination

51
Q

Is a DAT 100% accurate? Why or why not?

What then?

A

No, Red cells with bound antibodies may get cleared or lysed rapidly and therefore be undetectable by the DAT.

One may still be able to detect such antibodies, however, by incubating the patient’s plasma with exogenous red cells (aka indirect Coomb’s).

Blood banks more often perform this test to detect alloantibodies to “minor” red cell antigens; such antibodies are sometimes induced by blood transfusions.

52
Q

Is DAT specific for AHA?

A

No, there is no single, definitive lab test for AHA. (Up to 8% of hospitalized patients have a +DAT)

you would see C3 and IgG in WAIHA and only C3 in cold AHA

53
Q

What does diagnosis of warm AHA require?

A

-concomitant clinical findings and lab findings consistent with such a diagnosis.

In this case the additional lab evidence could include: increased reticulocytes, visible hemolysis, an increased LDH, or a reduced haptoglobin.

54
Q

There is a group of clinically significant anti-red cell antibodies which are difficult or impossible to detect at body temperature (37 degrees), but can be detected at lower temperatures. What are they?

A

These are cold-reactive antibodies, sometimes called cold agglutinins because they can induce clumping of red cells on a peripheral blood smear. They are usually the pentameric IgM type of antibody.

55
Q

T or F. Almost all individuals have circulating IgM antibodies which will bind and agglutinate red cells at 4 degrees.

A

T. Pathogenic cold agglutinins have either a broad thermal amplitude (reactive up to room temperature or higher) or an unusually high concentration (titer).

56
Q

Where in the body are cold agglutinins common?

A

They typically bind only in the periphery (fingers, toes) and dissociate in the body core (where most of the RES is found).

With luck that will be all they do, and instead of causing significant hemolysis they will just cause or contribute to Raynaud’s phenomenon, a painful vaso-occlusion familiar to winter sports enthusiasts, snowball throwers in particular.

57
Q

Note: For reasons that are not well understood (antibody titer? Thermal amplitude? Antigenic specificity?) cold agglutinins sometimes initiate complement fixation. In this case they can be associated with a hemolytic anemia.

A

Note: For reasons that are not well understood (antibody titer? Thermal amplitude? Antigenic specificity?) cold agglutinins sometimes initiate complement fixation. In this case they can be associated with a hemolytic anemia.

58
Q

Red cell agglutination would do what to hematocrit values?

A

Agglutination can also result in an inaccurate, low red cell count (via the hematology analyzer) and therefore an incorrect, low hematocrit (in conjunction with an inappropriately high hemoglobin value).

Recall that hematology analyzers calculate the hematocrit from the red cell count and the mean cell volume. The count will be low in these cases because the analyzer will count clumps as single cells.

Does that mean you can rely on the Hemoglobin to decide whether this patient is transporting O2 adequately? No, because the hematology analyzer will assess both intracellular and extracellular Hgb. If the patient is lysing red cells actively, the Hgb value on the report will not reflect what you want to know (red cell hemoglobin), and will NOT tell you whether s/he is dangerously anemic. Your best bet in that case is to get the lab to warm up the specimen to get an accurate red cell count and hematocrit.

59
Q

How do you diagnose cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Need:

  • DAT positive at room temp for IgM
  • Positive at 37C for C3 ONLY (IgM gone at this point)
  • Positive antibody screen at room temp to 30C

As with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the diagnosis depends on concomitant clinical and lab findings. The lab tests alone do NOT establish the diagnosis.

60
Q

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is often seen in association with malignancies, although it is far from specific for that. Like what?

A

lymphoma, SLE, RA but can be drug associated or idiopathic

61
Q

Prognosis for warm AHA?

A

poor

62
Q

Treatment for warm AHA? Cold AHA?

A

warm- steroids, and if that doesn’t work, splenectomy

cold- same

63
Q

What is cold AHA associated with?

A

viral syndromes (pneumonia, mono), lymphoma, SLE, RA, can be idiopathic

64
Q

Prognosis for cold AHA?

A

chronic, seasonal- better than warm

65
Q

What does excess vMF cause?

A

Excess fibrin deposition slices red cells into little fragments called “schistocytes”.

We call this type of hemolysis “microangiopathic” and there are a number of conditions in this class.

66
Q

What could cause vMF cables to be too long? Symptoms of TTP?

A

inhibit AdamTS13, the plasma protease that normally trims them to the right size. (causes TTP).

  • clinically evident thromboses in their brains and kidneys,
  • low platelet counts
  • purpura
  • neurologic symptoms
  • fever.
67
Q

How is TTP treated?

A

plasmapheresis, (also called therapeutic plasma exchange) which involves removing large portions of the patient’s plasma and replacing it with plasma from a normal donor.

This both removes the pathogenic antibody and restores VWF levels.

68
Q

What is typical hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) caused by?

A

Stx-secreting bacteria (like E coli H7:O157), and in some cases other infectious agents, can trigger excess complement fixation and “thereby” cause the clinical triad that defines typical HUS

69
Q

What is the clinical triad of HUS? (really 4 things)

Patient population?

A

microangiopathic hemolysis (MAHA), thrombocytopenia, and renal failure, neurologic symptoms

schistocytes on typical and atypical

most common in children under 5

70
Q

Infectious agents that do NOT secrete Stx can still cause the clinical syndrome we call HUS. What is this called?

What is it preceded by?

A

atypical HUS (aHUS)

It turns out that aHUS patients often have genetic deficiencies in any of several proteins involved in regulating complement fixation. So the pathophysiology of aHUS involves both infectious and genetic mechanisms.

And the diagnostic workup of a suspected aHUS patient is not finished until the PCR-based evaluation of those possible genetic contributors is finished.
Why is this important? Because aHUS patients tend to respond well to eculizumab, an inhibitor of complement fixation.

Preceded by gastroenteritis same symptoms as HUS except this

71
Q

T or F. typical HUS response well to Eculizumab

A

F. only atypical HUS does

72
Q

Remember: aHUS and PNH can be thought of as part of the same group of diseases of abnormal complement fixation (they are both treated with eculizumab). What we don’t understand: why are they clinically so different?

A

Remember: aHUS and PNH can be thought of as part of the same group of diseases of abnormal complement fixation (they are both treated with eculizumab). What we don’t understand: why are they clinically so different?

73
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of patients suspected to have HUS or TTP is a difficult empirical process, particularly because you can’t wait for all of the diagnostic tests to come back before you begin treating the patient (unless being correct at autopsy is your primary goal). Also, at presentation there can be some degree of overlap between HUS and TTP. TTP is eminently treatable and therefore must not be missed.

A

Diagnosis and treatment of patients suspected to have HUS or TTP is a difficult empirical process, particularly because you can’t wait for all of the diagnostic tests to come back before you begin treating the patient (unless being correct at autopsy is your primary goal). Also, at presentation there can be some degree of overlap between HUS and TTP. TTP is eminently treatable and therefore must not be missed.

74
Q

What is the workup of patients with the HUS clinical triad? Treatment?

A

Order all the necessary labs: ADAMTS13 level, genetic testing for several HUS-associated mutations, stool sample for PCR-based Stx-toxin assay

Begin treating for TTP (i.e. therapeutic plasma exchange, TPE). If it works, keep doing it, await confirmation of TTP via ADAMTS13 level.

If TPE is ineffective AND Stx is positive, treat only with supportive measures (IV fluids, dialysis if necessary)

If TPE is ineffective AND genetic testing for HUS is positive, treat with eculizumab OR plasma exchange.

75
Q

Remember:
Blood transfusions can result in alloimmune reactions to transfused red cells, I.e. production of antibodies to antigens on transfused red cells that are NOT expressed on the recipient’s red cells. Such reactions can and do kill patients.

A

Remember:
Blood transfusions can result in alloimmune reactions to transfused red cells, I.e. production of antibodies to antigens on transfused red cells that are NOT expressed on the recipient’s red cells. Such reactions can and do kill patients.