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Paramedic Science > Pathophysiology > Flashcards

Pathophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe pain from a dissecting aortic aneurysm

A

Sudden-onset high intensity

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2
Q

What is the highest bone in the laryngopharynx

A

Hyoid

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3
Q

The body’s failure to compensate for a drop in oxygen perfusion results in

A

Hypoperfusion, Low Cardiac Output, Increased Pre-load

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4
Q

State the blood concentration of plasma and other elements

A

Plasma 55% Elements 45%

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5
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure is generally higher in which gender?

A

Male

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6
Q

What effect does a blood loss of 25% have on the heart rate?

A

Tachycardia

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7
Q

Describe the symptoms of stable angina

A

Heavy, dull, ‘pressure-like’ pain, lasting 10-15 mins or less, comes on during a predictable amount of exercise.

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8
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of neurogenic shock

A

Loss of sympathetic nervous tone

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9
Q

The primary bronchi divide into

A

Secondary bronchi

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10
Q

secondary bronchi divide into

A

Tertiary/segmental bronchi

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11
Q

Segmental bronchi divide into

A

Bronchioles

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12
Q

At the end of bronchioles, there are

A

Alveoli

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13
Q

Are beta-blockers agonists or antagonists

A

Antagonists

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14
Q

Condition: a foreign protein enters the body and gives rise to a severe allergic reaction

A

Anaphylaxis

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15
Q

Condition: a foreign protein enters the body and gives rise to a severe allergic reaction resulting in tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnoea.

A

Anaphylactic shock

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16
Q

When the heart muscle is contracted and emptying

A

Systole

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17
Q

When the heart muscle is relaxed and filling

A

Diastole

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18
Q

The amount of blood in the heart at the end of diastole

A

Pre-load

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19
Q

Resistance the left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood

A

Afterload

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20
Q

Part of the nervous system that controls fight or flight reflexes,

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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21
Q

Part of the nervous system that controls the slow-moving reflexes, such as the reproductive system or the digestive system.

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

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22
Q

Type of antagonist medication that blocks the receptors that adrenaline normally attaches to, slowing the heart rate, and lowering the blood pressure

A

Beta-Blockers (Propanolol, Atenolol, Bisoprolol)

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23
Q

Type of medication that slows down the nervous system by increasing the effect of GABA resulting in sedation, anti-convulsant, and muscle-relaxant effects.

A

Benzodiazepines (diazepam, lorazepam)

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24
Q

A type of body fluid found in body cavities that reduces friction between two membranes. commonly found in the pericardium, meninges, and pleura.

A

Serous Fluid

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25
Q

Medication that widens blood vessels (by forcing them to relax. Nitrate–>nitrous oxide, metabolises releasing proteins that relaxes the smooth muscle in the blood vessels.

A

Glyceryl TriNitrate (Nitroglycerin)

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26
Q

Cushings Triad is indicative of…

A

Increased intracranial pressure

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27
Q

Cushing’s Triad symptoms

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, bradypnoea

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28
Q

What causes someone to look ‘pale’

A

Vasoconstriction of the cutaneous circulation

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29
Q

What is the most significant change in a patient’s vital signs when a differential diagnosis is an intracranial haematoma?

A

Reduced level of consciousness (GCS)

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30
Q

Most beneficial treatment for a tension pneumothorax?

A

Needle Thoracocentesis

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31
Q

Name the Deadly Dozen Chest injuries (CAFOTH)

A 
Cardiac Tamponade
Airway obstruction
Flail Chest
Open Pneumothorax
Tension Pneumothorax
Haemothorax
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32
Q

The calculation for Mean Arterial Pressure

A

[ 2(DBP) + 1(SBP) ] / [3]

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33
Q

The Calculation for Cerebral Perfusion Pressure

A

MAP - ICP = CPP

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34
Q

The two life-threatening features of anaphylaxis

A

Widespread vasodilation and bronchoconstriction

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35
Q

The 6 layers of the head in order from outside to inside (SPS DAP)

A

Scalp, Periosteum, Skull, Dura Mater, Arachnoid Mater, Pia Mater

36
Q

Name the position where the patient is sat at a 45* angle.

A

Semi-recumbent (Fowler’s)

37
Q

Name the position where the patient is lying flat on their back

A

Supine

38
Q

Name the position where the patient is lying flat on their front

A

Prone

39
Q

How should you transport a patient if there is a high index of suspicion towards a tension pneumothorax

A

Recovery position with the affected side underneath.

40
Q

How could you improvise a splint for a flail segment of ribs?

A

Use a fluid bag in the segment space.

41
Q

Spinal cord injuries result in enlarged vascular compartments. Why?

A

Loss of sympathetic tone caused by spinal cord injury means it requires more effort for blood to return to the heart, as such it creates a ‘backlog’ of blood, causing fluid to be pushed into the surrounding tissue, identified by ‘pitting’ peripheral oedema.

42
Q

What do histamines do to the circulatory system?

A

Vasodilation (increases blood vessel permeability) and increases heart rate.

43
Q

What do histamines do to the respiratory system?

A

Bronchoconstriction

44
Q

An Antimuscarinic/Anticholinergic Medication that is given to speed up a heart rate of less than 40 where the patient is symptomatic and deteriorating.

A

Atropine

45
Q

A fancy name for an itch,

A

Pruritus

46
Q

A fancy name for an itchy red rash

A

Urticaria

47
Q

Condition: the Sino-atrial node stops firing, causing the atria to contract at random intervals, meaning the ventricles don’t know when to contract, causing an irregular heartbeat

A

Atrial Fibrillation

48
Q

Condition: the heart isn’t pumping well enough, so the blood backs up along the pulmonary veins, where fluid is pushed into the lungs (pulmonary oedema)

A

Left Ventricular Failure

49
Q

Condition: the heart ‘adjusting’ to chronic hypertension, resulting in cardiac hypertrophy, leading to ineffective pumping of the heart, causing blood to collect at the feet due to gravity, and fluid to be pushed into the ankles (peripheral oedema)

A

Right Ventricular Failure, caused by Cor Pulmonale (Pulmonary Heart Disease)

50
Q

The normal amount of air moved in and out of the lungs with each breath

A

Tidal Volume

51
Q

Fancy name for difficulty speaking

A

Dysphasia

52
Q

Fancy name for difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphagia

53
Q

Fancy name for inability to speak at all

A

Aphasia

54
Q

Condition: Necrosis of an area of the Myocardium

A

Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)

55
Q

What are two late signs of a bowel obstruction

A

Faeculant breath odour and faecal vomiting

56
Q

Condition: Hypersensitive airway, causing inflammation, leading to obstruction, resulting in a characteristic expiratory wheeze

A

Asthma

57
Q

What makes an asthma attack ‘Severe’ (TITS)

A

Tachycardic,
Inability to complete sentences,
Tachypnoeic,
Salbutamol does not relieve symptoms.

58
Q

What makes an asthma attack ‘Life-Threatening’ (CHASER)

A 
Cyanosis,
Hypotension,
Altered consciousness,
Silent breath sounds,
Exhaustion,
Reduced SpO2.
59
Q

Why does Diabetes cause silent MIs?

A

Diabetic Neuropathy

60
Q

Leading cause of death in under 45s

A

Unintentional Injury and Suicide.

61
Q

Fancy name for difficulty breathing when lying flat

A

Orthopnoea

62
Q

What is the most common type of Hepatitis in IV drug users?

A

Hepatitis C

63
Q

What are the 3 sections of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla Oblongata

64
Q

Fancy name for patient positioning where the feet are up and the head is down

A

Trendelenburg

65
Q

What prevents the alveoli from collapsing

A

Surface Tension

66
Q

Condition: a serious infection of the lungs resulting in unilateral chest crackles on auscultation

A

Pneumonia

67
Q

What creates the Lub sound of a heartbeat?

A

Closure of the atrioventricular (tricuspid and mitral) valves

68
Q

What causes the Dub Sound of a heartbeat?

A

Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

69
Q

If a drug is lipid and water soluble, where can it be absorbed

A

Through the intestinal wall.

70
Q

Condition: Acute shortness of breath that wakes the patient from sleep

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnoea

71
Q

Which type of hepatitis is also known as the viral time bomb, due to the unpredictable amount of time it lies dormant in the body before terminal symptoms appear?

A

Hepatitis C

72
Q

Increase in H+ in the blood, does what to the pH?

A

Lowers it (more acidic)

73
Q

Increase in pH of the blood does what to the respiration rate?

A

increases respiration rate

74
Q

Increase in H+ in the blood does what to the respiration rate?

A

Increases it

75
Q

Decrease in H+ in the blood does what to the pH

A

Increases it

76
Q

Decrease in pH in the blood does what to the respiration rate?

A

Decreases it

77
Q

Decrease in H+ in the blood does what to the respiration rate?

A

Decreases it

78
Q

Which type of medication delivery method results in an increased troponin level and why?

A

Intramuscular injection - muscle damage causes troponin to be released.

79
Q

An increase in CO2 in the blood does what to the H+ ions

A

Increases it

80
Q

A decrease in CO2 in the blood does what to the H+ ions`

A

Decreases it

81
Q

Which neurotransmitter is exclusive to the sympathetic nervous system and increases heart rate and blood pressure?

A

Noradrenaline

82
Q

What GCS score would a patient need to have to be in a coma?

A

8 or less

83
Q

Condition: Plaque infiltrates the arterial wall, decreasing elasticity and narrowing the lumen

A

Atherosclerosis

84
Q

Air still in the lungs after forced exhalation

A

Residual Volume

85
Q

Condition: Chronic low levels of Haemoglobin in the blood

A

Anaemia

86
Q

In hypovolaemia, compensatory mechanisms in the body can cope with up to how much blood loss?

A

30%

87
Q

What causes cerebral herniation?

A

Significantly increased intracranial pressure

Paramedic Science (1 decks)

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