pathophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the stages of intramembranous ossification?

A
  • ossification center appears in the fibrous CT membrane. Mesenchymal cells from the mesoderm cluster and differentiate into osteoblasts forming ossification center.

Bone matrix(osteoid) is secreted within the fibrous membrane, trapped osteoblasts become osteocytes.

Woven bone and periosteum form; bone matrix is laid down between blood vessels creating trabeculae. It condenses and becomes the periosteum.

Bone collar(thickened periosteum) of compact bone forms and red marrow appears.

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2
Q

Stages of endochondral ossification

A
  1. formation of bone collar around hyaline cartilage model
  2. cavitation of the hyaline cartilage within the cartilage model
  3. invasion of internal cavities by the periosteal bud ad spongey bone formation
  4. formation of the medullary cavity as ossification continues, appearance of 2ndry ossification centers in the epiphyses
  5. ossification of the epiphyses when completed hyaline cartilage remains only in the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages
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3
Q

Postnatal bone growth:

-what are the three functional zones in long bone growth?

A

Growth zone: cartilage cells undergo mitosis, pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis

Transformation zone: older cells enlarge, matrix becomes calcified, cartilage cells die, and the matrix begins to deteriorate.

Osteogenic zone: ne b one formation occurs.

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4
Q

Describe appositional growth of bone

A

Appositional Growth:
-osteoblasts beneath periosteum secrete bone matrix forming ridges that follow the course of periosteal blood vessels.

  • as the bony ridges enlarge and meet, the groove containing the blood vessel becomes a tunnel.
  • periosteum lining the tunnel is transfored into an endosteum and the osteoblasts just deep to the tunnel endosteum secrete bone matrix, narrowing the canal.
  • Osteoblasts beneath endosteum form new lamellae, a osteon is created. This process is repeated continuing to enlarge bone diameter.
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5
Q

During infancy and childhood, epiphyseal plate activity is stimulated by what hormone?

How does remodeling of bone occur?

What two control loops regulate bone remodeling?

A

Epiphyseal plate activity is stimulated by growth hormone, in puberty testosterone, and estrogen.

Remodelling: osteoblasts and osteoclasts deposit and resorb bone at periosteal and endosteal surfaces.

Control loops regulating bone remodeling:
-hormonal mechanisms (Calcitonin;deposition in bone and PTH; osteocytes degrade bone and release Ca) maintaining calcium homeostasis in blood

-mechanical and gravitational forces acting on the skeleton.

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6
Q

What is Wolffs law? Supportive observations?

A

Wolffs Law: a bone grows or remodels in response to the forces or demands placed upon it.

Observations:

  • long bones are thickest midway along the shaft (where bending stress is greatest)
  • curved bones are thickest where they are most likely to buckles.
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7
Q

Describe each Bone fx:

  • nondisplaced
  • displaced
  • complete
  • incomplete
  • linear
A

nondisplaced: bone ends retain their normal position
displaced: bone ends are out of normal alignment
complete: bone is broken all the way through

Incomplete: bone is not broken all the way through

Linear: fx is parallel to the long axis of the bone

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8
Q

Describe each bone fx:

  • Transverse
  • compound (open)
  • Simple (closed)
A

Transverse: the fx is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone

compound (open): both ends penetrate the skin

simple (closed): bone ends do not penetrate the skin

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9
Q

Describe each bone fx:

  • comminuted
  • spiral
  • depressed
  • compression
A

comminuted: bone fragements into three or more pieces (elderly)
spiral: ragged break when bone is excessively twisted (sports injury)
depressed: broken bone portion pressed inward. (skull fx)

Compression: bone is crushed (common in porous bones)

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10
Q

describe each type of bone fx:

  • epiphyseal
  • greenstick
A

epiphyseal: epiphysis separates from diaphysis along epiphyseal line
greenstic: incomplete fx where one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends. (breaking a fresh twig in half)

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11
Q

Stages of bone fx healing

A

hematoma formation: site becomes swollen, warm, and red.

fibrocartilaginous callus formation: (new capillaries grow into the tissue and phagocytic cells begin cleaning)

Bony callus formation: begins 3-4 weeks after injury ad continues until firm union is formed 2-3 months later

Bone Remodeling: excess material is removed and compact bone is laid down to reconstruct shaft walls

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12
Q

Osteomalacia

  • what is this
  • cause
  • main sx
  • what is this called in children?
A

What
-bones are inadequately mineralized causing softened, weakened bones

Cause
-insufficient Ca or Vit D deficiency

Main Sx
-pain when weight is put on the affected bone

In children its called Rickets

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13
Q

Rickets

-signs and sx

A

Signs and Sx

  • soft spot is slow to close
  • bony necklace
  • curved bones
  • big, lumpy joints
  • bowed legs
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14
Q

Osteoporosis

  • What is this
  • What type of bone is most vulnerable?
  • MC in who
  • inciting events
  • Tx
A

What
-group of diseases in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit

Type
-spongy bone of the spine is most vulnerable

MC in post-menopausal women

Events
-sneezing or stepping off a curb can cause fractures

Tx

  • Ca and Vit D supplements
  • weight bearing exercise
  • MHT
  • statins increase bone density
  • progesterone cream prompts new bone growth
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15
Q

Paget’s Disease

  • characterized by what
  • sx
  • Localized where
  • cause
  • tx
A

Characterized by

  • excessive bone formation and breakdown
  • -reduced mineralization causes spotty weakening of the bone (osteoblasts keep working but clasts fade out)

Sx

  • may develop arthritis and deafness
  • may be painful

Usually localized in the spine, pelvis, femur, and skull

Cause
-unknown!

Tx

  • Didronate
  • Fosamax
  • calcitonin (build up bone)
  • bisphosphonates (prevent the loss of bone mass)
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16
Q

By what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?

Ligaments connect which structures? tendons?

Compare skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle?

A

by age 25 nearly all bones are completely ossified.

Ligaments connect bone to bone, tendons connect muscles to bone.

Skeletal muscle:
-elongated cell with multiple peripheral nuclei, visible striations, voluntary

Cardiac:
-single central nucleus, visible striations, involuntary

Smooth muscle:
-spindle shaped cell, single central nucleus, lack visible striations, involuntary

17
Q

What are the 3 CT sheaths of skeletal muscle?

A

epimysium: surrounds the entire muscle
perimysium: surrounding fascicles
endomysium: surrounding each muscle fiber.

18
Q

Sarcomere:

  • what is this?
  • composed of what two filaments?
  • features of a sarcomere.
A

What: smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber. It is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z discs

Composed of thick and thin filaments made of contractile proteins.

Features:

  • thick filament: runs the entire length of A band.
  • thin filament: runs the length of the I band and partway into the A band.
  • z disc: coin shaped sheet of proteins that anchors the thin filaments and connects the myofibrils to one another.
  • H zone: lighter midregion where filaments do not overlap
  • M line: line of protein that holds adjacent thick filaments together. (center of sarcomere)
  • Z discs are pulled toward eachother by titin.
19
Q

What makes up the thick and thin filaments?

A

Thick: myosin tails and heads.

Thin: G actin, tropomyosin, troponin

20
Q

Describe steps in muscle contraction.

A
  1. AP arrives at axon terminal of motor neuron.
  2. voltage gated Ca channels open and Ca enters axon terminal
  3. Ca entry causes some synaptic vessesl to release Ach via exocytosis
  4. Ach diffuses across synaptic cleft and binds to receptor in sarcolemma
  5. Ach binding opens ion channels that allow simultaneous Na passage into the muscle fiber and K out.
  6. Ach effects are terminated by its enzymatic breakdown in the synaptic cleft by acetylcholinesterase.

At end of contractile mechanism Ca is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (requires ATP and magenesium)**

21
Q

Describe the effects of an autoimmune dz where an antibody is directed against the AchR.

A

Inability of Ach to attach to AchR, no opening of channels, no AP, no muscular contraction…

22
Q

Describe pathophys of myasthenia gravis?

A

Motorneuron AP arrives at nerve terminal…. Ca influx causes release of Ach…. Ach cant bind to AchR***….no opening of ion channels for Na movement leading to the absence of depolarization….muscle fibers are not able to contract.

23
Q

Describe pathophys of botulinum toxin

A

Motorneuron AP arrives at nerve terminal…. there is NO Ca influx*** so there is no release of Ach…. Ach cant bind to AchR….no opening of ion channels for Na movement leading to the absence of depolarization….muscle fibers are not able to contract.

24
Q

Describe pathophys of multiple sclerosis

A

There is NO Motorneuron AP*** arriving at nerve terminal…. there is NO Ca influx so there is no release of Ach…. Ach cant bind to AchR….no opening of ion channels for Na movement leading to the absence of depolarization….muscle fibers are not able to contract.

25
Q

Compare the steps of muscle contraction between skeletal and cardiac muscle.

A

Skeletal:

  • trigger for sarcoplasmic reticulum release is VOLTAGE GATED CA RELEASE.
  • Ca release is proportional to MEMBRANE VOLTAGE.

Cardiac:

  • trigger for SR release is CALCIUM ACTIVATED CALCIUM RELEASE.
  • Ca release is PROPORTIONAL TO CA ENTRY.
26
Q

Describe:

  • summation
  • tetanus
A

Summation
-rapid sequence of stimuli… muscle twitches fuse into each other, each subsequent one being stronger than its precedent

Tetanus
-very rapid sequence of stimuli… no relaxation

27
Q

T/F, the motor neuron is in the dorsal horn and sensory neuron is in the ventral horn?

A

FALSE! motor neuron is in the ventral horn of the spinal cord and the sensory neuron is in the dorsal horn.