Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GBA Pathology > PATHOMA17 - Central Nervous System Pathology > Flashcards

PATHOMA17 - Central Nervous System Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the developmental anomolies?

A

1) neural tube defects 2) cerebral aqueduct stenosis 3) Dandy Walker Malformation 4) Arnold Chiari Malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do neural tube defects arise from?

A

They arise from incomplete closure of the neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens to the neural plate early in gestation?

A

It invaginates to form the neural tube, which runs along the cranial caudal axis of the embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Regarding the neural plate, what forms the central nervous system?

A

The wall of the neural tube forms central nervous system tissue,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the neural tube, what does the hollow lumen form?

A

the ventricles and spinal cord canal, and the neural crest forms the peripheral nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are neural tube defects associated with?

A

low folate levels prior to conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When are neural tube defects detected?

A

during prenatal care by elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in the amniotic fluid and maternal blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is anencephaly?

A

it is the absence of the skull and brain (disruption of the cranial end of the neural tube)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does anencephaly lead to?

A

a frog like appearance of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does anencephaly result in?

A

maternal polyhydramnios since fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid is impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

It is failure of the posterior vertebral arch to close, resulting in a vertebral defect (disruption of the caudal end of the neural tube).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does Spina bifida occulta present?

A

as a dimple or patch of hair overlying the vertebral defect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does Spina bifida present?

A

with cystic protrusion of the underlying tissue through the vertebral defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a meningocele?

A

protrusion of meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is meningomyelocele?

A

protrusion of meninges and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is cerebral aqueduct stenosis?

A

congenital stenosis of the channel that drains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the 3rd ventricle into the 4th ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does cerebral aqueduct stenosis lead to?

A

accumulation of CSF in the ventricular space; most common cause of hydrocephalus in newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common cause of hydrocephalus in newborns?

A

Cerebral aqueduct stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What produces the CSF?

A

It is produced by the choroid plexus lining the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Decribe the flow of CSF?

A

from the lateral ventricles into the 3rd ventricle via the interventricular foramen of Monro, Flows from the 3rd ventricle into the 4th ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct, Flows from the 4th ventricle into the subarachnoid space via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the cerebral aqueduct?

A

Allows for the flow from the 3rd ventricle into the 4th ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What allows the CSF to flow from the 4th ventricle into the subarachnoid space?

A

Via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the foramen of monro?

A

Allows for the flow of CSF from the lateral ventricles into the 3rd ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does cerebral aqueduct stenosis present with?

A

enlarging head circumference due to dilation of the ventricles (cranial suture lines are not fused)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a dandy walker malformation?

A

Congenital failure of the cerebellar vermis to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does a dandy walker malformation present?

A

as a massively dilated 4th ventricle (posterior fossa) with an absent cerebellum; often accompanied by hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an Arnold chiari malformation?

A

Congenital extension of cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What might Arnold Chiari malformation result in?

A

Obstruction of CSF flow can result in hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What might Arnold chiari malformation occur in association with?

A

meningomyelocele and syringomyelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the spinal cord lesions?

A

Syringomyelia, poliomyelitis, Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Friedreich ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

Cystic degeneration of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does syringomyelia arise with?

A

trauma or in association with an Arnold-Chiari malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where does syringomyelia usually occur?

A

at C8-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does syringomyelia present?

A

as sensory loss of pain and temperature with sparing of fine touch and position sense in the upper extremities (cape like distribution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the presentation of syringomyelia due to?

A

involvement of the anterior white commissure of the spinothalamic tract with sparing of the dorsal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does syrinx expansion result in?

A

involvement of other spinal tracts leading to 1. Muscle atrophy and weakness with decreased muscle tone and impaired reflexes 2. Horner syndrome with ptosis (droopy eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (decreased sweating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why does the syrinx expansion result in muscle atrophy and weakness with decreased muscle tone and impaired reflexes?

A

Its due to damage to lower motor neurons of the anterior horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is ptosis?

A

Droopy eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is miosis?

A

Constricted pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is anhidrosis?

A

Decreased sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why does the syrinx expansion lead to horner syndrome with ptosis (droopy eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (decreased sweating)?

A

It?s due to disruption of the lateral horn of the hypothalamospinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is poliomyelitis?

A

Damage to the anterior motor horn due to poliovirus infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How does poliomyelitis present?

A

with lower motor neuron signs?flaccid paralysis with muscle atrophy, fasciculations, weakness with decreased muscle tone, impaired reflexes, and negative Babinski sign (downgoing toes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Werdnig-Hoffman disease?

A

It?s an inherited degeneration of the anterior motor horn and is autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does Werdnig-Hoffman disease present?

A

as a floppy baby, death occurs within a few years after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is amylotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

Degenerative disorder of upper and lower motor neurons of the corticospinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In ALS, what does anterior motor horn degeneration lead to?

A

lower motor neuron signs?flaccid paralysis with muscle atrophy, fasciculations, weakness with decreased muscle tone, impaired reflexes, and negative Babinski sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In ALS what does lateral corticospinal tract degeneration lead to?

A

upper motor neuron signs ? spastic paralysis with hyperreflexia, increased muscle tone, and positive Babinski sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is an early sign of ALS?

A

atrophy and weakness of hands is an early sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What distinguishes ALS from syringomyelia?

A

Lack of sensory impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are most cases of ALS?

A

they are sporadic, arising in middle age adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is present in some familial cases of ALS?

A

Zinc-copper superoxide dismutase mutation (SOD) is present in some familial cases; leads to free radical injury in neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Friedreich Ataxia?

A

Degenerative disorder of the cerebellum and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does degeneration of the cerebellum lead to?

A

ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does degeneration of multiple spinal cord tracts lead to?

A

loss of vibratory sense and proprioception, muscle weakness in the lower extremities, and loss of deep tendon reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the cause of Friedreich Ataxia genetically?

A

Autosomal recessive; due to expansion of an unstable trinucleotide repeat (GAA) in the frataxin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is frataxin?

A

it is essential for mitochondrial iron regulation; loss results in iron buildup with free radical damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does Friedreich Ataxia present?

A

in early childhood; patients are wheelchair bound within a few years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Friedreich Ataxia associated with?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does the spinothalamic tract do?

A

Pain and temperature sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the first order neuron for the spinothalamic tract?

A

Peripheral nerves of posterior horn; cell body is in dorsal root ganglion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the second order neuron for the spinothalamic tract?

A

It arises from posterior horn, immediately crosses over in anterior white commissure, and ascends via the spinothalamic tract to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the third order neuron for the spinothalamic tract?

A

thalamus to cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the Dorsal column-medial lemniscus responsible for?

A

pressure, touch, vibration, and proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the first order neurons for the dorsal column-medial lemniscus?

A

Peripheral nerves to medulla via dorsal column; cell body is in dorsal root ganglion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the second order neuron for the dorsal column-medial lemniscus?

A

Arises from medulla, crosses over, and ascends via the medial lemniscus to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the third order neuron for the dorsal column-medial lemniscus?

A

Thalamus to cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the lateral corticospinal tract responsible for?

A

voluntary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the first order neurons for the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

Pyramidal neurons in the cortex descend, cross over in medullary pyramids, and synapse on the anterior motor horn of the cord (upper motor neuron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the second order neuron for the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

Arises from the anterior motor horn and synapses on muscle (lower motor neuron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the third order neurons for the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the hypothalamospinal tract responsible for?

A

sympathetic input of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the first order neuron for the hyothalamospinal tract?

A

It arises from the hypothalamus and synapses on the lateral horn at T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the second order neuron for the hypothalamospinal tract?

A

It arises from lateral horn at T1 and synapses on the superior cervical ganglion (sympathetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the third order neuron for the hypothalamospinal tract?

A

Superior cervical ganglion to eyelids, pupil, and skin of face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is meningitis?

A

inflammation of the leptomeninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What do the meninges consist of?

A

three layers (dura, arachnoid, and pia) that lie between the brain and the skull,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the leptomeninges?

A

Pia and arachnoid together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is meningitis most commonly due to?

A

an infectious agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the infectious agents that cause meningitis?

A

1) Group B streptococci, E coli, and Listeria monocytogenes (neonates) 2) N meningitidis (children and teenagers). Streptococcus-pneumoniae (adults and elderly), and H influenza (non vaccinated infants) 3. Coxsackievirus (children; fecal-oral transmission) 4. Fungi (immunocompromised individuals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the infectious agent causing meningitis for neonates?

A

Listeria monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the infectious agent causing meningitis for children and teenagers?

A

N. Meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the infectious agent causing meningitis for adults and elderly?

A

Streptococcus-pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the infectious agent causing meningitis for non vaccinated infants?

A

H. Influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the infectious agent causing meningitis for children; fecal-oral transmission?

A

Coxsackievirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the infectious agent causing meningitis for immunocomprimised individuals?

A

fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How does meningitis present?

A

With a classic triad of headache, nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness), and fever; photophobia, vomiting, and altered mental status may also be present,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How is the diagnosis for meningitis made?

A

it is made by lumbar puncture (sampling of CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How is a lumbar puncture performed?

A

by placing a needle between L4 and L5 (level of the iliac crest). Spinal cord ends at L2, but subarachnoid space and cauda equina continue to S2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the layers crossed by the lumbar puncture?

A

include skin, ligaments, epidural space, dura, and arachnoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the CSF findings in LP for bacterial meningitis?

A

neutrophils with low CSF glucose; positive gram stain and culture often identify the causative organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the CSF findings in LP for viral meningitis?

A

lymphocytes with normal CSF glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the CSF findings in LP for fungal meningitis?

A

lymphocytes with low CSF glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Complications are usually seen with what type of meningitis?

A

bacterial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is involved in cerebrovascular disease?

A

Neurologic deficit due to cerebrovascular compromise; major cause of morbidity and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is cerebrovascular disease due to?

A

ischemia (85% of cases) or hemorrhage (15% of eases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are neurons dependent on and what are the susceptible to?

A

serum glucose as an essential energy source and are particularly susceptible to ischemia (undergo necrosis within 3 - 5 minutes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is global cerebral ischemia?

A

Global ischemia to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the major etiologies for global cerebral ischemia?

A
  1. Low perfusion (e.g., atherosclerosis) 2. Acute decrease in blood flow (e.g., cardiogenic shock) 3. Chronic hypoxia (e.g., anemia) 4. Repeated episodes of hypoglycemia (eg insulinoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the clinical features for global cerebral ischemia based on?

A

Its based on duration and magnitude of the insult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What does mild global ischemia result in?

A

transient confusion with prompt recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What does severe global ischemia result in?

A

diffuse necrosis; survival leads to a vegetative state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What does moderate global ischemia lead to?

A

infarcts in watershed areas (eg area lying between regions fed by the anterior and middle cerebral artery) and damage to highly vulnerable regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

In moderate global ischemia, what are the vulnerable regions that may be damaged?

A

1) Pyramidal neurons of the cerebral cortex (layers 3, 5, and 6) 2) Pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus (temporal lobe) 3) Purkinje layer of the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does damage to the pyramidal neurons of the cerebral cortex (layers 3, 5, and 6) lead to?

A

laminar necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does damage to the pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus (temporal lobe) lead to?

A

Its important in long term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What does damage to the purkinje layer of the cerebellum lead to?

A

It integrates sensory perception with motor control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is ischemic stroke?

A

Regional ischemia to the brain that results in focal neurologic deficits lasting > 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What happens in the symptoms last < 24 hours?

A

the event is termed a transient ischemic attack (TIA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the subtypes for ischemic stroke?

A

They include thrombotic, embolic, and lacunar strokes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the thrombotic stroke due to?

A

rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Where does atherosclerosis usually develop?

A

at branch points (e.g., bifurcation of internal carotid and middle cerebral artery in the circle of Willis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What does atherosclerosis result in?

A

a pale infarct at the periphery of the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is an embolic stroke due to?

A

thromboemboli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the most common source of emboli?

A

It is the left side of the heart (e.g., atrial fibrillation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What does an embolic stroke usually involve?

A

the middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What does the embolic stroke result in?

A

a hemorrhagic infarct at the periphery of the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When does a lacunar stroke occur?

A

Its secondary to hyaline arteriolosclerosis, a complication of hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What vessels does lacunar stroke most commonly involve?

A

lenticulostriate vessels, resulting in small cystic areas of infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

In a lacunar stroke, what does the nvolvement of the internal capsule lead to?

A

a pure motor stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

In a lacunar stroke, what does the involvement of the thalamus lead to?

A

a pure sensory stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What does ischemic stroke result in?

A

liquefactive necrosis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is an early microscopic finding (12 hours after infarction) for ischemic stroke?

A

Eosinophilic change in the cytoplasm of neurons (red neurons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What happens 24 hours into an ischemic stroke?

A

coagulative necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What happens in days 1-3 in an ischemic stroke?

A

infiltration by neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What happens in days 4-7 in an ischemic stroke?

A

microglial cells enzyme cause liquifactive necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What happens in weeks 2-3 in an ischemic stroke?

A

granulation tissue (weeks 2-3) then ensue

128
Q

An ischemic stroke results in the formation of what?

A

a fluid-filled cystic space surrounded by gliosis

129
Q

What is an intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

Bleeding into brain parenchyma

130
Q

What is an intracerebral hemorrhage classically due to?

A

rupture of Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms of the leniiculostriate vessels

131
Q

What is intracerebral hemorrhage a complication of?

A

hypertension; treatment of hypertension reduces incidence by half.

132
Q

What is the most common site for intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

Basal ganglia

133
Q

What does intracerebral hemorrhage present as?

A

severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and eventual coma

134
Q

What is subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space

135
Q

What does subarachnoid hemorrhage present as?

A

a sudden headache (worst headache of my life) with nuchal rigidity

136
Q

What does the lumbar puncture shows in a subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

xanthochromia (yellow hue due to bilirubin breakdown)

137
Q

What is a subarachnoid hemorrhage most frequently due to?

A

(85%) rupture of a Berry aneurysm; other causes include AV malformations and an anti-coagulated state,

138
Q

What are Berry aneurysms?

A

they are thin-walled saccular outpouching that lack a media layer, increasing the risk for rupture.

139
Q

What are Berry aneurysms most frequently located?

A

in the anterior circle of Willis at branch points of the anterior communicating artery

140
Q

What are Berry aneurysms associated with?

A

Marfan syndrome and autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

141
Q

What is an epidural hematoma?

A

Collection of blood between the dura and the skull

142
Q

What is an epidural hematoma classically due to?

A

fracture of the temporal bone with rupture of the middle meningeal artery; bleeding separates the dura from the skull.

143
Q

In an epidural hematoma, what is seen on CT?

A

Lens-shaped lesion on CT

144
Q

When do you see neurologic signs in an epidural hematoma?

A

Lucid interval may precede neurologic signs. Usually in Herniation.

145
Q

What is a lethal complication for an epidural hematoma?

A

Herniation is a lethal complication.

146
Q

What is a subdural hematoma?

A

Collection of blood underneath the dura; blood covers the surface of the brain

147
Q

What is the subdural hematoma due to?

A

tearing of bridging veins that lie between the dura and arachnoid; usually arises with trauma

148
Q

What is seen on CT in subdural hematoma?

A

Crescent-shaped lesion on CT

149
Q

What does subdural hematoma present with?

A

progressive neurologic signs

150
Q

In whom is there an increased rate of occurrence for subdural hematoma?

A

in the elderly due to age-related cerebral atrophy, which stretches the veins

151
Q

What is a lethal complication for subdural hematoma?

A

Herniation

152
Q

What is herniation (brain)?

A

Displacement of brain tissue due to mass effect or increased intracranial pressure

153
Q

What is tonsillar herniation?

A

It involves displacement of the cerebellar tonsils into the foramen magnum.

154
Q

What might tonsillar herniation lead to?

A

the compression of the brain stem leads to cardiopulmonary arrest

155
Q

What is subfalcine herniation?

A

It involves displacement of the cingulate gyrus under the falx cerebri.

156
Q

What would subfalcine herniation lead to?

A

Compression of the anterior cerebral artery leads to infarction

157
Q

What does uncal herniation involve?

A

the displacement of the temporal lobe uncus over the tentorium cerebelli.

158
Q

Uncal herniation leads to what?

A

1) eye moving (down and out) and a dilated pupil. 2) infarction of the occipital lobe (contralateral homonymous hemianopsia). 3) Duret (brainstem) hemorrhage.

159
Q

With an uncal herniation, why is there eye movement down and out and a dilated pupil?

A

Compression of cranial nerve III (oculomotor)

160
Q

With an uncal herniation, why is there infarction of occipital lobe?

A

(contralateral homonymous hemianopsia) compression of posterior cerebral artery

161
Q

With uncal herniation, why is there Duret (brainstem) hemorrhage?

A

Rupture of the paramedian artery leads to Duret (brainstem) hemorrhage.

162
Q

What are the demyelinating disorders?

A

1) leukodystrophies 2) multiple sclerosis 3) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 4) progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 5) Central pontine myelinolysis

163
Q

What does myelin do?

A

it insulates axons, improving the speed and efficiency of conduction

164
Q

What myelinates the central nervous system?

A

oligodendrocytes

165
Q

What myelinates the peripheral nervous system?

A

Schwann cells

166
Q

What are demyelinating disorders characterized by?

A

destruction of myelin or oligodendrocytes; axons are generally preserved.

167
Q

What are leukodystrophies?

A

They are inherited mutations in enzymes necessary for production or maintenance of myelin

168
Q

What are the leukodystrophies?

A

metachromatic leukodystrophy, Krabbe disease, adrenoleukodystrophy

169
Q

What is metachromatic leukodystrophy due to?

A

a deficiency of arylsulfatase (autosomal recessive)

170
Q

What is the most common leukodystrophy?

A

metachromatic leukodystrophy

171
Q

What is metachromatic leukodystrophy?

A

Myelin cannot be degraded and accumulates in the lysosomes of oligodendrocytes (lysosomal storage disease)

172
Q

What is Krabbe disease due to?

A

a deficiency of galactocerebroside beta-galactosidase (autosomal recessive) resulting in galactocerebroside to accumulate in macrophages.

173
Q

What is adrenoleukodystrophy due to?

A

impaired addition of coenzyme A to long-chain fatty acids (X-linked defect).

174
Q

What does adrenoleukodystrophy result in?

A

accumulation of fatty acids damages adrenal glands and white matter of the brain.

175
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

Autoimmune destruction of CNS myelin and oligodendrocytes

176
Q

What is the most common chronic CNS disease of young adults (20-30 years of age)?

A

Multiple sclerosis

177
Q

In whom is multiple sclerosis more commonly seen?

A

in women

178
Q

What is multiple sclerosis associated with?

A

HLA-DR2

179
Q

In what region is multiple sclerosis more commonly seen?

A

in regions away from the equator

180
Q

What does multiple sclerosis present with?

A

relapsing neurologic deficits with periods of remission (multiple lesions in time and space)

181
Q

What are the clinical features for multiple sclerosis?

A
  1. Blurred vision in one eye (optic nerve) 2. Vertigo and scanning speech mimicking alcohol intoxication (brainstem) 3. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (medial longitudinal fasciculus) 4. Hemiparesis or unilateral loss of sensation (cerebral white matter, usually periventricular) 5. Lower extremity loss of sensation or weakness (spinal cord) 6. Bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction (autonomic nervous system)
182
Q

How is the diagnosis for multiple sclerosis made?

A

by MRI and lumbar puncture.

183
Q

What does the MRI for multiple sclerosis reveal?

A

plaques (areas of white matter demyelination)

184
Q

What does the lumbar puncture for multiple sclerosis show?

A

increased lymphocytes, increased immunoglobulins with oligoclonal IgG bands on high resolution electrophoresis, and myelin basic protein.

185
Q

What does gross examination for multiple sclerosis show?

A

it shows gray-appearing plaques in the white matter

186
Q

What is involved in the treatment of multiple sclerosis?

A

The acute attacks includes high-dose steroids and the long-term treatment with interferon beta slows progression of disease.

187
Q

What is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?

A

Progressive, debilitating encephalitis leading to death

188
Q

What is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis due to?

A

slowly progressing, persistent infection of the brain by measles virus

189
Q

For subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, when does the infection occur?

A

in infancy

190
Q

For subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, when do the neurologic signs arise?

A

years later (during childhood)

191
Q

What is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis characterized by?

A

viral inclusions within neurons (gray matter) and oligodendrocytes (white matter)

192
Q

What is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

A

JC virus infection of oligodendrocytes (white matter)

193
Q

What leads to reactivation of the latent virus?

A

Immunosuppression (e.g., AIDS or leukemia)

194
Q

What does progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy present with?

A

rapidly progressive neurologic signs (visual loss, weakness, dementia) leading to death

195
Q

What is central pontine myelinolysis?

A

Focal demyelination of the pons (anterior brain stem)

196
Q

What is central pontine myelinolysis due to?

A

Rapid intravenous correction of hyponatremia

197
Q

In whom does central pontine myelinolysis occur?

A

in severely malnourished patients (e.g., alcoholics and patients with liver disease)

198
Q

How does central pontine myelinolysis classically present?

A

as acute bilateral paralysis (locked in syndrome)

199
Q

What are the dementia and degenerative disorders?

A

1) Alzheimer disease 2) vascular dementia 3) Pick disease 4) Parkinson Disease 5) Huntington Disease 6) Normal pressure hydrocephalus 7) spongiform encephalopathy

200
Q

What are the dementia and degenerative disorders characterized by?

A

the loss of neurons within the gray matter

201
Q

What are dementia and degenerative disorders often due to?

A

accumulation of protein which damages neurons

202
Q

Degeneration of what leads to dementia?

A

the cortex

203
Q

Degeneration of what leads to movement disorders?

A

the brainstem and basal ganglia

204
Q

What is Alzheimer disease?

A

Degenerative disease of cortex; most common cause of dementia

205
Q

What is the most common cause of dementia?

A

Alzheimer disease

206
Q

What are the clinical features for Alzheimer disease?

A

1) Slow-onset memory loss (begins with short-term memory loss and progresses to long-term memory toss) and progressive disorientation 2) Loss of learned motor skills and language 3) Changes in behavior and personality 4) Patients become mute and bedridden; infection is a common cause of death. 5) Focal neurologic deficits are not seen in early disease.

207
Q

In Alzheimer disease, what is the most common cause of death?

A

infection

208
Q

What happens in most cases of Alzheimer disease

A

most cases (95%) are sporadic and seen in the elderly

209
Q

The risk for developing Alzheimer disease increases with what?

A

age (doubles every 5 years after the age of 60)

210
Q

What allele is associated with increased risk for Alzheimer disease?

A

Epsilon 4 allele of apolipoprotein E is associated with increased risk,

211
Q

What allele is associated with decreased risk for Alzheimer disease?

A

Epsilon 2 allele is associated with decreased risk,

212
Q

What is early-onset AD seen in?

A

it is seen in Familial cases and down syndrome

213
Q

What are the Familial cases of early onset AD associated with?

A

presenilin 1 and presenilin 2 mutations

214
Q

What is the relationship between down syndrome and early-onset AD?

A

commonly occurs by 40 years of age

215
Q

What are the morphologic features for AD?

A

1) (diffuse) Cerebral atrophy with narrowing of the gyri, widening of the sulci, and dilation of the ventricles 2) Neuritic plaques 3) Neurofibrillary tangles 4) Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis of Meynert

216
Q

What are Neuritic plaques?

A

Its an extracellular core comprised of Abeta (amyloid beta) amyloid with entangled neuritic processes

217
Q

What is Abeta amyloid derived from?

A

amyloid precursor protein (APP), which is coded on chromosome 21. APP normally undergoes alpha cleavage; beta cleavage results in Abeta amyloid (cannot be broken down)

218
Q

Where is amyloid precursor protein coded?

A

On chromosome 21

219
Q

What normally happens to APP?

A

Normally undergoes alpha cleavage

220
Q

What happens to APP in Alzheimer disease?

A

beta cleavage results in Abeta amyloid (cannot be broken down)

221
Q

What is cerebral amyloid angiopathy?

A

Amyloid may also deposit around vessels, increasing the risk of hemorrhage resulting in cerebral amyloid angiopathy

222
Q

What are neurofibrillary tangles?

A

They are intracellular aggregates of fibers composed of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

223
Q

What is the Tau protein?

A

It is a microtubule-associated protein.

224
Q

How is the diagnosis for Alzheimer disease made?

A

by clinical and pathological correlation. 1) Presumptive diagnosis is made clinically after excluding other causes, 2) Confirmed by histology at autopsy (when possible)

225
Q

What is vascular dementia?

A

Multifocal infarction and injury due to hypertension, atherosclerosis, or vasculitis

226
Q

What is the 2nd most common cause of dementia?

A

Vascular dementia

227
Q

What is pick disease?

A

Degenerative disease of the frontal and temporal cortex; spares the parietal and occipital lobes

228
Q

What is Pick disease characterized by?

A

round aggregates of tau protein (Pick bodies) in neurons of the cortex

229
Q

What are the symptoms for Pick disease?

A

Behavioral and language symptoms arise early; eventually progresses to dementia

230
Q

What is Parkinson disease?

A

It?s a degenerative loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia

231
Q

What is the nigrostriatal pathway?

A

It is a part of the basal ganglia that uses dopamine to initiate movement.

232
Q

In what population is Parkinson?s disease common?

A

it?s a common disorder related to aging; seen in 2% of older adults

233
Q

What is the etiology for Parkinson?s disease?

A

Unknown etiology; historically, rare cases were related to MPTP exposure (a contaminant in illicit drugs).

234
Q

What are the clinical features for Parkinson’s disease?

A

TRAP: 1) Tremor 2) Rigidity 3) akinesia/bradykinesia 4) Postural instability and shuffling gait

235
Q

Describe the tremor seen in Parkinson?s disease?

A

pill rolling tremor at rest; disappears with movement

236
Q

Describe rigidity seen in Parkinson?s disease?

A

cogwheel rigidity in the extremities

237
Q

Describe akinesia/bradykinesia in Parkinson?s disease?

A

slowing of voluntary movement; expressionless face

238
Q

What does the histology for Parkinson’s disease reveal?

A

loss of pigmented neurons in the substantia nigra and round, eosinophilic inclusions of alpha-synuclein (Lewy bodies) in affected neurons.

239
Q

What is a common feature of late Parkinson?s disease?

A

dementia

240
Q

What is early-onset dementia suggestive of?

A

Lewy body dementia

241
Q

What is Lewy body dementia characterized by?

A

dementia, hallucinations and parkinsonian features

242
Q

What does histology for Lewy Body dementia reveal?

A

cortical Lewy bodies

243
Q

What is Huntington disease?

A

It?s the degeneration of GABAergic neurons in the caudate nucleus of the basal ganglia

244
Q

What is Huntington disease characterize by?

A

Its an autosomal dominant disorder (chromosome 4) characterized by expanded trinucleotide repeats (CAG) in the huntington gene

245
Q

What should be taken into consideration when it comes to Huntington?s and previous generations?

A

Further expansion of repeats during spermatogenesis leads to anticipation (grandfather gets it at 60, but the father at 55 and the son at 50 for example)

246
Q

What does Huntington’s disease present with?

A

chorea that can progress to dementia and depression; average age at presentation is 40 years.

247
Q

What is a common cause of death in Huntington?s?

A

Suicide is a common cause of death.

248
Q

What is normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Increased CSF resulting in dilated ventricles

249
Q

What does normal pressure hydrocephalus cause?

A

Can cause dementia in adults; usually idiopathic

250
Q

What does normal pressure hydrocephalus present as?

A

triad of urinary incontinence, gait instability, and dementia (wet, wobbly, and wacky)

251
Q

What might improve symptoms in normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Lumbar puncture improves symptoms and treatment is ventriculoperitoneal shunting

252
Q

What is spongiform encephalopathy?

A

Degenerative disease due to prion protein

253
Q

What is the prion protein?

A

Prion protein is normally expressed in CNS neurons in an alpha-helical configuration (PrP).

254
Q

When does spongiform encephalopathy arise?

A

with conversion to a beta-pleated conformation (PrP)

255
Q

Why does the alpha form of the prion undergo conformational change to the beta form?

A

Conversion can be sporadic, inherited (familial forms of disease), or transmitted.

256
Q

What does the Pathologic protein do once it is in the patient?

A

it is not degradable and converts normal protein into the pathologic form, resulting in a vicious cycle

257
Q

In Spongiform encephalopathy what characterizes damage?

A

Damage to the neurons and glial cells is characterized by intracellular vacuoles (spongy degeneration).

258
Q

What is CJD?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is the most common spongiform encephalopathy.

259
Q

What is the most common form of spongiform encephalopathy?

A

CJD

260
Q

Why does CJD usually arise?

A

Usually sporadic; rarely can arise due to exposure to prion-infected human tissue (e.g., human growth hormone or corneal transplant)

261
Q

What does CJD present as?

A

rapidly progressive dementia associated with ataxia (cerebellar involvement) and startle myoclonus

262
Q

What is seen on EEG for CJD?

A

Spike-wave complexes are seen on EEG.

263
Q

What is the result of CJD?

A

Results in death, usually in < 1 year

264
Q

What is variant CJD?

A

it is a special form of disease that is related to exposure to bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow).

265
Q

What is familial fatal insomnia?

A

it is an inherited form of prion disease characterized by severe insomnia and an exaggerated startle response

266
Q

What are the CNS tumors?

A

1) glioblastoma multiforme 2) meningioma 3) schwannoma 4) oligodendroglioma 5) pilocytic astrocytoma 6) medulloblastoma 7) ependymoma 8) craniopharyngioma 9)

267
Q

Are CNS tumor metastatic?

A

Can be metastatic (50%) or primary (50%)

268
Q

How do metastatic CNS tumors characteristically present?

A

as multiple, well-circumscribed lesions at the gray-white junction.

269
Q

What are the three most common sources that metastasize to the brain?

A

Lung, breast, and kidney are common sources

270
Q

How are primary tumor classified?

A

according to cell type of origin (e.g., astrocytes, meningothelial cells, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, or neuroectoderm)

271
Q

In adults what usually are CNS primary tumors?

A

they are usually supratentorial

272
Q

What are the most common CNS tumors in adults?

A

they are glioblastoma multiforme, meningioma, and schwannoma.

273
Q

In children what usually are CNS primary tumors?

A

they are usually infratentorial.

274
Q

What are the most common tumors in children?

A

They are pilocytic astrocytoma, ependymoma, and medulioblastoma,

275
Q

Describe primary malignant CNS tumors?

A

they are locally destructive, but rarely metastasize.

276
Q

What is glioblastoma multiforme?

A

Malignant, high-grade tumor of astrocytes

277
Q

What is the most common primary malignant CNS tumor in adults?

A

glioblastoma multiforme

278
Q

How does glioblastoma multiforme usually arise?

A

in the cerebral hemisphere; characteristically crosses the corpus callosum (butterfly lesion)

279
Q

What is glioblastoma multiforme characterized by?

A

regions of necrosis surrounded by tumor cells (pseudopalisading) and endothelial cell proliferation; tumor cells are GFAP positive.

280
Q

What is the prognosis for glioblastoma multiforme?

A

poor

281
Q

What is a meningioma?

A

Benign tumor of arachnoid cells

282
Q

What is the most common benign CNS tumor in adults?

A

meningioma

283
Q

What may meningioma present as?

A

seizures; tumor compresses, but does not invade, the cortex

284
Q

What does the imaging of meningioma reveal?

A

a round mass attached to the dura

285
Q

What does histology of meningioma show?

A

a whorled pattern; psammoma bodies may be present

286
Q

What is schwannoma?

A

Benign tumor of Schwann cells

287
Q

What does schwannoma involve?

A

cranial or spinal nerves; within the cranium,

288
Q

Within the cranium what does schwannoma most frequently involve?

A

cranial nerve VIII at the cerebellopontine angle (presents as loss of hearing and tinnitus)

289
Q

Schwannoma tumor cells are positive for what?

A

Tumor cells are S-100 positive

290
Q

For Schwannoma, when are bilateral tumors seen?

A

in neurofibromatosis type 1

291
Q

What is oligodendroglioma?

A

Malignant tumor of oligodendrocytes

292
Q

What does the imaging for oligodendroglioma reveal?

A

a calcified tumor in the white matter, usually involving the frontal lobe;

293
Q

Oligodendroglioma may present with what?

A

seizures

294
Q

What is the appearance of oligodendroglioma on biopsy?

A

Fried-egg appearance of cells on biopsy

295
Q

What is pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

Benign tumor of astrocytes

296
Q

What is the most common CNS tumor in children?

A

it usually arises in the cerebellum

297
Q

What does imaging for pilocytic astrocytoma reveal?

A

a cystic lesion with a mural nodule

298
Q

What does biopsy for pilocytic astrocytoma show?

A

Rosenthal fibers (thick eosinophilic processes of astrocytes and eosinophilic granular bodies;

299
Q

Pilocytic astrocytoma tumor cells are positive for what?

A

GFAP positive.

300
Q

What is medulloblastoma?

A

Malignant tumor derived from the granular cells of the cerebellum (neuroectoderm)

301
Q

In whom does medulloblastoma usually arise?

A

in children

302
Q

What does histology reveal for medulloblastoma?

A

small, round blue cells; Homer-Wright rosettes may be present

303
Q

What is the prognosis for medulloblastoma?

A

Poor prognosis;

304
Q

Why is there a poor prognosis for medulloblastoma?

A

tumor grows rapidly and spreads via CSF

305
Q

What does medulloblastoma metastasize to?

A

to the cauda equine and is termed drop metastasis

306
Q

What is ependymoma?

A

Malignant tumor of ependymal cells

307
Q

In whom is ependymoma usually seen?

A

in children

308
Q

Where does ependymoma most commonly arise?

A

in the 4th ventricle

309
Q

What might an ependymoma present with?

A

hydrocephalus

310
Q

What is a characteristic finding for ependymoma?

A

Perivascular pseudorosettes are a characteristic finding on biopsy

311
Q

What is a craniopharyngioma?

A

Tumor that arises from epithelial remnants of Rathke’s pouch

312
Q

What does craniopharyngioma present as?

A

a supra tentorial mass in a child or young adult

313
Q

What might a craniopharyngioma lead to?

A

It may compress the optic chiasm leading to bitemporal hemianopsia

314
Q

What is commonly seen on imaging for craniopharyngioma?

A

Calcifications are commonly seen on imaging (derived from tooth-like tissue)

315
Q

Is craniopharyngioma malignant or benign?

A

Benign, but tends to recur after resection

GBA Pathology (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions