Pathoma Chapter 12 Flashcards

1
Q

What is horseshoe kidney?

A
  • Conjoined kidneys usually connected at the lower pole
  • Most common congenital renal anomly
  • Most commonly located in the lower abdomen
    • Horseshoe kidney gets caught on the inferior mesenteric artery root during its ascent from the pelvis to the abdomen
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2
Q

What is the difference between unilateral and bilateral renal agenesis?

A
  • renal agnesis = absent kidney formation
  • Unilateral agenesis leads to hypertrophy of the existing kidney
    • One kidney now has to do the work of two kidneys
    • Functions fine until later in life
    • Hyperfiltration increases risk of renal failure later in life
  • Bilateral Agenesis leads to oligohydramnios (not enough amnitic fluid is produced) with lung hypoplasia, flat face with low set ears and developmental defects of the extremities (Potter’s Sequence)
    • Incompatabile with life
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3
Q

What is Potter’s Sequence?

A
  • Due to Oligohydramnios: not enough amniotic fluid is produced
  • Lung Dysplasia (lungs don’t develop properly)
    • When the lung develops, one way that it grows is by stretch
    • Breathing in and out amniotic fluid streches the lung
    • If not enough amniotic fluid, lung can’t develop
  • Flat face with low set ears
    • no amniotic fluid means face will get pressed up against the wall of the uterus causing flat face with low set ears
  • Limb Deformaties
    • limbs are also pressued up against mom so they develop abnormally
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4
Q

What is dysplastic kidney disease?

A
  • Noninherited
  • Congenital malformation of the renal parenchyma characterized by cysts and abnormal tissue
  • Usually unilateral
    • When bilateral, must be distinguished from inherited polycystic kidney disease
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5
Q

What is Polycystic Kidney Disease? What are the two different versions?

A
  • Inherited defect leading to bilateral enlarged kidneys with cysts in the renal cortex and medulla
  • Autosomal recessive form presents in infants as worsening renal failure and hypertension
    • Newborns may present with Potter sequence
      • Kidneys are not working properly so not producing enough amniotic fluid
  • Autosomal dominant form presents in young adults as hypertension (due to increased renin), hematuria, and worsening kidney failure
    • Due to mutation in the APKD1 or APKD2 gene
    • Cysts develop over time
    • Associated with berry aneurysms, hepatic cysts and mitral valve prolapse
      • If have family history of renal disease and there is death occuring b/c of renal disease or brain hemorrhage, think autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
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6
Q

What is Medullary Cystic Kidney Disease?

A
  • Inherited: autosomal dominant
  • Defect leading to cysts in the medullary collecting ducts
  • Parenchymal fibrosis results in shrunken kidneys and worsening renal failure
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7
Q

What is acute renal failure?

A
  • acute, severe decrease in renal function (develops in days)
  • Hallmark is azotemia (increase in waste products in the blood: increased BUN and creatinine)
  • Often with Oliguria: low production of urine
  • 3 types: prerenal, postrenal and intrarenal azotemia
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8
Q

What is prerenal azotemia?

A
  • Due to increased blood flow to the kidneys
    • Ex. Cardiac Failure
  • Decreased blood flow results in decreased GFR, azotemia and oliguria
  • Reabsorption of fluid and BUN ensues (serum BUN:Cr ratio >15)
    • Because there is low blood flow to the kidney, the renin/angiotensin system will be activated and aldosterone will cause reabsorption of sodium and water
    • B.c of water reabsorption, more BUN will be reabsorbed
  • Tubular function remains intact (fraction excretion of sodium [FANa] <1% and urinary osmalility is [osm] > 500
    • tubules can absorb sodium and concentrate urine still
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9
Q

What is postrenal azotemia?

A
  • Due to obstruction of the urinary tract downstream of the kidney
    • Have back pressure which will decrease glomerular pressure
  • Decreased outflow results in decreased GFR, azotemia and oliguria
  • During early stage of obstruction, increased tubular pressure forces BUN into the blood (serum BUN:Cr >15)
    • Tubular Function remains intact (FENa <1% and urine osm >500)
  • With longstanding obstruction, tubular damage ensues resulting in:
    • decreased reabsorption of BUN (serum BUN:Cr <1)
    • decreased reabsorption of sodium (FENa >2)
    • inability to concentrate urine (urine osm <500)
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10
Q

What is Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A
  • Injury and necrosis of tubular epithelial cells
  • Most common cause of acute renal failure
    • Intrarenal azotemia
  • Necrotic cells plug tubules and the obstruction causes a decrease in the GFR
    • It causes backpressure and backpressure counteracts glomerular pressure
  • Brown, granular casts are seen in the urine
  • Dysfunctional tubular epithelium results in decreased reabsorption of BUN (serum BUN/Cr <15), decreased reabsorption of sodium (FENa >2%) and inability to concentrate urine (urine osm <500)
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11
Q

What are the two causes of Acute Tubular Necrosis? What can prevent chemotherapy induced Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A
  • Ischemia
    • decreased blood supply resulting in necrosis of tubules
    • often preceded by prerenal azotemia
      • If bloodflow remains low for an extended period of time, can become ischemic
    • proximal tubule and medullary segment of the thick ascending limb are particularly susceptible to ischemic damage
  • Nephrotoxic
    • Toxic agents result in necrosis of tubules
      • Proximal tubule is particularly susceptible
    • Causes include aminoglycosides (most common), heavy metals (lead), myoglobinuria (crush injury to muscle), ethylene glycol (associated with oxalate crystals in urine), radiocontrast dye, and urate (ex. tumor lysis syndrome)
      • Hydration and allopurinol are used prior to initiation of chemotherapy to decrease risk of urate-induced Acute Tubular Necrosis
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12
Q

What are the clinical features of Acute Tubular Necrosis? How do you treat it?

A
  • Oliguria with brown, granular casts
  • Elevated BUN and creatinine
    • low GFR means you can’t filter out BUN and Cr
  • Hyperkalemia (due to decreased renal excretion) with metabolic acidosis
    • Metabolic acidosis is due to the fact that you have a decrease in excretion of organic acids
    • will have increased anion gap
  • Reversible but often requires supportive dialysis since electrolyte imablances can be fatal
    • Oliguria can persist for 2-3 weeks before recovery
    • tubular cells (stable cells) take time to reenter the cell cycle and regenerate
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13
Q

What are the brown, granular casts found in Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A
  • Epithelial cells die, sloth off and obstruct the the tubule
  • Dead epithelial cells then get casted in the shape of the tubule
  • See dead endothelial cells making up the cast in the urine
  • Looks brown and granular because cells are dead
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14
Q

What is Acute Interstitial Nephritis?

A
  • Drug-induced hypersentivity involving the interstitum and tubules results in acute renal failure (intrarenal azotemia)
  • Causes include NSAIDS, penicillin, and diuretics
  • Presents as oliguria, fever, and rash days to weeks after strating a drug
  • Eosinophils may be seen in urine
  • Resolves with cessation of drug
  • May progress to renal papillary necrosis
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15
Q

What is Renal Papillary Necrosis?

A
  • Necrosis of renal papillae
  • Presents with gross hematuria and flank pain
  • Causes include:
    • Chronic analgesic abuse (long term phenacetin or aspirin use)
    • Diabetes Mellitus
    • Sickle Cell trait or disease
    • Severe Acute Pyelonephritis
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16
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Glomerular disorders characterized by proteinuria (>3.5 g/day) resulting in:
    • Hypoalbuminemia: pitting edema
    • Hypogammaglobulinemia: increased risk of infection
    • Hypercoagualable state: due to loss of antithrombin III
      • Antithrombin III breaks up thrombin and other coagulation factors so you can’t produce thrombin
    • Hyperlipidemia and hypercholesterolemia: may result in fatty casts in urine
      • loss of protein causes blood to be tthin so liver reacts by putting excess fat in the blood to beef it up
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17
Q

What is Minimal Change Disease (MCD)?

A
  • Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
  • Usually idiopathic but may be associated with Hodgkins lymphoma
  • Normal glomeruli on H&E stain
    • lipid may be seen in the proximal tubule
  • Effacement of foot process on eletron microscopy
    • in MCD, you lose the foot processes on the glomerular filtration barrier
  • No immune complex deposits; negative immunofluorescence
  • Selective proteinuria
    • change is so minimal that only protein lost is albumin
  • Excellent response to steroids (damage is mediated by cytokines from T cells)
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18
Q

What is the relationship between Minimal Change Disease and Hodgkins Lymphoma?

A
  • in MCD, you lose the foot processes on the glomerular filtration barrier
  • cytokines damage the foot processes
  • In Hodkins lymphoma, get massive production of cytokines by Reed-Sternberg cells
  • Cytokines can attack the kidney and knock out podocytes
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19
Q

What is Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis?

A
  • Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in Hispanics and African Americans
  • Usually idiopathic but can be associated with HIV, heroin use, and sickle cell disease
  • Focal (some glomeruli) and segmental (involving only part of the glomerulus) sclerosis is seen on H&E staining
    • not all glomeruli are affected
    • glomeruli that are affected have only part of it not working
  • Effacement of foot processes on EM (flattened podocytes)
  • No immune deposits; negative IF
  • Poor response to steroids
    • Progresses to chronic renal failure
    • Patient with Minimal Change Disease that do not respond to steroids progress to Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
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20
Q

What does mebranous mean in terms of renal pathology?

A
  • thickening of the membrane due to immune complex desposition
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21
Q

What is Mebranous Nephropathy?

A
  • Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in Caucausian adults
  • May be associated with Hep B or C, solid tumors, SLE or drugs (NSAIDS and penicillamine)
    • immune complex deposition forms under podocyte or subepithelial
  • Due to immune complex deposition
    • Get granular immunoflorescence
    • subepithelial deposits with spike dome appearance on EM
  • Poor response to steroids
  • Progresses to chronic renal failure
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22
Q

Why does Membranous Nephropathy have a spike and dome appearance on EM?

A
  • immune complex deposition forms under podocyte or on subepithelial cell
  • podocyte responds by trying to lay down additional basement membrane
  • generate a dome over the deposit
  • in between the deposits, end up creating spikes
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23
Q

What causes Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis?

A
  • get immune complex deposition under the endothelium or under the basement membrane
  • the mesangial cell that is holding the capillary together will notice the immune complex deposit and will proliferate its cytoplasm to cut through the deposit
  • creates a tram track appearance b/c splits deposit in half
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24
Q

What is Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis and what are the two subtypes?

A
  • thick glomerular basement membrane formation with tram track appeance due to immune complex deposition
    • Granular immunoflorence
  • Divied into two suptypes based on location of the deposits
    • Type I: subendothelial
      • Associated with Hep B and Hep C
      • more associated with Tram Tracks
    • Type II: dense deposit disease
      • intramembranous
      • Associated with C3 nephritic factor
        • Autoantibody that stabilizes C3 convertase, leading to overactivation of complement, inflammation and low levels of circulating C3)
  • Poor response to steroids
  • Progresses to chronic renal failure
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25
Q

What is the effect of Diabetes Mellitus on the kidneys? How can progression to kidney failure be slowed down?

A
  • High serum glucose leads to nonenzymatic glycoslylation of the vascular membrane resulting in hyaline arteriolosclerosis
    • when you stick sugar on the basement membrane without the use of enzyme, thats nonenzymatic glycosylation: basement membrane becomes leaky and protein leaks into wall of blood vessel causing hyaline arteriosclerosis
    • hyaline arteriolosclerosis causes thickening of the blood vessel wall which causes a decrease in the size of the lumen
  • Glomerular effererent arteriole is more affected than the afferent arteriole, leading to high glomerular pressure
    • Hyperfiltration injury leads to microalbuminuria
  • Eventually progresses to nephrotic syndorme
    • characterized by sclerosis of the mesangium with formation of Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
  • ACE inhibitors slow progression of hyperfiltration-induced damage
    • Angiotension II squeezes on efferent arteriole
    • If you stop that from happening, have less squeezing down on efferent arteriole thus slowing down progression
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26
Q

How does systemic amyloidoisis affect the kidneys?

A
  • Kidney is te most commonly involved organ in systemic amyloidosis
  • Amyloid deposits in the mesangium, resulting in nephrotic syndrome
  • Characterized by apple-green birefringence under polarized light after staining with Congo red
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27
Q

What is nephritic syndrome?

A
  • Glomerular disorders characterized by glomerular inflammation and bleeding
    • Limiting proteinuria (<3.5 g/day)
    • Oliguria and azotemia
    • Salt retention with periorbital edema and hypertension
    • RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs in urine
  • Biopsy reveals hyperceulluar, inflammed glomeruli
    • immune complexes cause the inflammation
    • immune complex deposition activates complement
    • C5a attracts neutrophils which mediate damage
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28
Q

What type of casts are found with nephritic syndromes and why?

A
  • glomerulus is bleeding so have RBCs going into the tubules
  • the RBCs get casted in the shape of the tubule and are urinated out as a square cast of RBCs
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29
Q

What is Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)? How does it present and how is it treated?

A
  • Nephritic syndrome that arises after group A beta hemolytic streptococcal infection of the skin or pharynx
    • occurs with nephritogenic strains: strain carrying M protein virulence factor
    • May occur after infection with nonstreptococcal organisms as well
  • Presents 2-3 weeks after infection as hematuria (cola-colored urine), oliguria, hypertension and periorbital edema
    • Usually seen in children but may occur in adults
  • Mediated by immune complex deposition: immune complexes start subendothelial and work their way up and pile up in subepithelial
    • Deposits will eventually pass their way through
  • Treatment is supportive
    • Children rarely progress to renal failure
    • Some adults develop rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
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30
Q

What are the histological findings associated with Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?

A
  • Hypercellular, inflammed glomeruli on H&E
  • Mediated by immune complex deposition (granular immunoflorescence)
  • Subepithelial humps on EM
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31
Q

What is Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Due to diffuse antigen-antibody complex deposition usually sub-endothelial
  • Most common type of renal disease in SLE
    • Caused by mebranous nephropathy in lupus patients
32
Q

What is Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Nephritic syndrome that progresses to renal failure in weeks to months
  • Characterized by crescents in Bowman’s space (of glomeruli) on H&E
    • Cresecents are comprised of fibrin and macrophages
  • Various forms of Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis which can be classified via immunofluorescence findings
33
Q

Different Immunofluorescence findings in Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis: Linear Immunofluorescence Pattern

A
  • ​​Goodpasture syndrome
  • have an antibody against collagen in glomerular and alveolar basement membranes
  • Presents as hematuria and hemoptysis
  • Clasically in young adults
34
Q

Different Immunofluorescence findings in Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis: Granular Immunofluorescence Pattern

A
  • Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN) or diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
  • Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is due to diffuse antigen-antibody complex deposition in the sup-endothelial
  • Most common type of disease in SLE
35
Q

Different Immunofluorescence findings in Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis: Negative Immunofluorescence Pattern

A
  • limited immune so need to perform C-ANCA (Anti-proteinase 3 which binds in cytoplasm) and P-ANCA (Anti-myeloperoxidase which binds around nucleus)
  • Positive C-ANCA (Anti-proteinase 3): Granulomatosis with polyangitis
    • get involvement of lung = hemoptysis
    • get involvement of kidney = rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
    • also involves nasopharynx: ex. sinus infections
      • nasopharynx symptoms not seen in Goodpasture syndrome
  • Positive P-ANCA (Anti-myeloperoxidase)
    • Microscopic polyangitis or Churg-Strauss
    • granulomatous inflammation, eosinophilia and asthma are only seen in Churg-Strauss
36
Q

What is IgA nephropathy (Berger Disease)?

A
  • IgA immune complex deposition in mesangium of glomeruli
    • most common nephropathy worldwide
  • Presents during childhood as episodic gross or micrscopic hematuria with RBC casts, usually following mucosal infections
    • IgA is increased during infections
  • IgA immune complex deposition in the mesangium is seen on immunoflorescence
  • May slowly progress to renal failure
37
Q

What is Alport Syndrome?

A
  • Inherited defect in Type IV collagen
    • Mostly X-linked
  • Results in thinning and splitting of the glomerular basement membrane
  • Presents as isolated hematuria, sensory hearing loss and ocular disturbances
38
Q

What is a urinary tract infection?

A
  • Infection of urethra, bladder or kidney
  • Most commonly arises due to ascending infection
    • starts in urethra and works its way up
  • Increased incidence in females
  • Risk factors include sexual intercourse, urinary stasis, and catheters
39
Q

What is Cystitis and what are the symptoms?

A
  • Infection of the bladder
  • Presents as dysuria (painful urination), urgency and suprapubic pain
    • systemic signs (fever) are usually absent
40
Q

Lab Findings of Cystitis

A
  • Urinalysis:
    • cloudy urine with >10 WBCs/high power field
  • Dipstick:
    • positive leukocyte esterase (due to pyuria or pus in the urine)
    • positive for nitrites (bacteria convers nitrates to nitrites)
  • Culture: greater than 100,000 colony forming units
41
Q

What are the causes of Cystitis?

A
  • E.Coli: most common
  • Staphylococcus saprophyticus
    • increased incidence in young, sexually active females (E. coli is still more common in that population)
  • Klebsiella
  • Proteus mirabilis
    • alkaline urine with ammonia scent
  • Enterococcus faecalis
42
Q

What is sterile pyuria and what does it suggest?

A
  • Sterile pyuria is the presence of pyuria (pus) with a negative urine culture
    • Suggests urethritis due to Chlamydia or Neisseria gonorrhoeae (dominant presenting sign of urethritis is dysuria)
43
Q

What is pyelonephritis and what causes it?

A
  • Infection of the kidney
    • Usually due to ascending infection
    • Increased risk with vesicoureteral reflux
  • Presents with fever, flank pain, WBC casts, and leukocytosis in addition to symptoms of cystitis (infection ascends from bladder to kidney)
  • Most common pathogens are:
    • E coli: 90%
    • Enterococcus
    • Klebsiella
44
Q

What is a white blood cell cast?

A
  • when infection ascends up from the ureter to the kidney, WBCs follow by traveling up the kidney tubules
  • WBCs end up taking the shape of the tubules
45
Q

What is Vesicoureteral reflux?

A
  • ureters plug into the bladder at a particular angle to prevent reflux of urine back into the ureters
  • if there is a malformation of this angle, there is an increased risk of reflux up into the kidney
  • reflux into the kidney can lead to chronic scarring or fibrosis with atrophy of the tubules
46
Q

What is Chronic Pyelonephritis?

A
  • Intersitial fibrosis and atrophy of tubules due to multiple bouts of acute pyelonephritis
  • Due to vesicoureteral reflux (children) or obstruction (BPH or cervical carcinoma)
  • Leads to cortical scarring with blunted calyces
    • scarring at upper and lower poles is chracteristic of vesicoureteral reflux
  • Atrophic tubules containing eosinophilic, proteinaceous material resemble thyroid follicles (thyroidization of the kidney)
  • Waxy casts may be seen in urine
47
Q

What is nephrolithiasis?

A
  • precipiation of a urinary solute as a stone
  • Risk factors include high concentration of solute in the urinary filtrate and low urine volume
    • low urine volume leads to increased concentration of solute
  • Presents as colicky pain with hematuria and unilateral flank tenderness
48
Q

Frequency/Causes/Treatment for Calcium Oxalate or calcium phosphate kidney stones

A
  • Frequency
    • most common type
    • Usually seen in adults
  • Causes
    • Most common cause is idiopathic hypercalciuria
      • patient puts excess calcium into the urine and calcium level in the blood is normal
    • Hypercalcemia and its related causes must be exluded
    • Also seen with Crohn’s Disease
      • small bowel damage in Crohn’s disease results in increased reabsorpiton of oxilate which can then bind calcium causing formation of calcium oxilate stone
  • Treatment
    • Hydrochlorothiazide (calcium sparing diuretic)
      • decreases calcium in the urine
49
Q

Frequency/Causes/Treatment for Ammonium magnesium phosphate kidney stones

A
  • Frequency:
    • Second most common type
  • Cause:
    • Most common cause is infection with urease-positive organsims (Proteus vulgaris or Klebsiella)
    • Alkaline urine leads to stone formation
  • Treatment:
    • Classically results in staghorn calculi in renal calyces which act as nidus for urinary tract infections
    • treatment involves surgical removement of stone and eradication of pathogen
50
Q

Frequency/Causes/Treatment for Uric Acid Kidney Stones

A
  • Not visible on X-Ray
  • Frequency:
    • Third most common stone
    • Radiolucent as opposed to the other types which are radiopaque
  • Causes:
    • Risk factors include hot, arid climates, low urine volume, and acidic pH
    • Most common stone seen in patients with gout
    • Hyperuricemia (in leukemia or myeloproliferative disorders) increases risk
      • in leukemia or myeloproliferative dirsorders, generating lots of cells so making lots of uric acid when breaking down nuclei
  • Treatment:
    • Treatment involves hydration and alkalinization of urine (potassium bicarbonate)
    • Allopurinol is also adminstered in patients with gout
51
Q

Frequency/Causes/Treatment for Cystine Stones

A
  • Frequency:
    • rare cause of nephrolitiasis
    • most commonly seen in children
  • Causes:
    • Associated with cystinuria
      • a genetic defect of tubules that results in decreased reabsorption of cysteine
      • cysteine piles up in the filtrate
  • Treatment
    • May form staghorn calculi
    • Treatment involves hydration and alkalinization of the urine
52
Q

What is Chronic Kidney Failure and what causes it?

A
  • AKA end-stage kidney failure
    • May result from glomerular, tubular, inflammatory or vascular insults
    • Most common causes are diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glomerular diseases
53
Q

What are the clincial features of chronic kidney failure?

A
  • Uremia
    • Increased nitrogenous waste products in blood (azotemia) causes nausea, anorexia, pericarditis, platelet dysfunction, encephalopathy with asterixis and deposition of urea crystals in skin
  • Salt and water retention with resultant hypertension
  • Hyperkalemia with metabolic acidosis
    • can’t get rid of potassium and acid
    • have anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • Anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by renal peritubular intersitital cells
  • Hypocalemia due to decreased 1-alpha hydroxylation of vitamin D by proximal renal tubule cells and hyperphosphatemia
    • phosphate binds with calcium so free calicum will be low
  • Renal osteodystrophy (damage to the bone b/c of renal failure) due to secondary hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia and osteoporosis
54
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy? What are the three components?

A
  • damage to the bone that occurs b/c of renal failure
  1. osteitis fibrosis cystica
    • patients have hypocalcemia and thus PTH levels rise
    • causes a reabsorption of calcium which causes burnout of the bone
    • leads to fibrosis and cyst formation
  2. Osteomalacia
    • can’t mineralize the new bone that forms
  3. Osteoporosis
    • patients have metabolic acidosis
    • one of the buffering systems against metabolic acidosis is to buffer it against the bone
    • calcium is leached from the bones
55
Q

What is the treatment for Chronic Renal Failure?

A
  • Treatment involves diaylsis or renal transplant
    • Cysts often develop within shrunken end-stage kidneys during dialysis, increasing risk for renal cell carcinoma
56
Q

What is an angiomyolipoma?

A
  • Hamartoma comprised of blood vessels, smooth muscle and adipose tissue
  • Increased frequency in tuberous sclerosis
57
Q

What is Renal Cell Carcinoma and what are the clinical findings for it?

A
  • Malignant epithelial tumor arising from kidney tubules
  • Presents with classic triad of hematuria, palpable mass and flank pain
    • all three symptoms rarely occur together
    • Hematuria is the most common symptom
  • Fever, weight loss or multiple paraneoplastic syndrome may also be present
  • Rarely may present with left-sided varicocele
    • left spermatic vein drains into renal vein on left side
    • blockage of the left renal vein will cause the left spermatic vein to varicocele
    • Right spermatic vein drains directly into the IVC thus right sided varicocele is not seen
58
Q

What are the lab findings for Renal Carcinoma?

A
  • gross exam reveals a yellow mass
  • microscopically, the most common variant exhibits clear cytoplasm
59
Q

What causes Renal Carcinoma and what are the two forms of it?

A
  • Pathogenesis involves loss of VHL (3p) tumor suppressor gene, which leads to increased IGF-1 (promotes growth) and increased HIF trasncription factor (increases VEGF and PDGF)
  • Tumors may be hereditary or sporadic
    • Sporadic tumors classically arise in adult males (60 years) as a single tumor in the upper pole of the kidney
      • Major risk factor for sporadic tumors is cigarette smoke
    • Hereditary tumors arise in younger adults and are often bilateral
      • Von Hippel-Lindau disease is an autosomal dominant disorder associated with inactivation of VHL gene leading to increased risk for hemangioblastoma of the cerebellum and renal cell carcinoma
60
Q

What is Wilm’s Tumor?

A
  • Malignant kidney tumor comprised of blastema (immature kidney mesenchyme), primitive glomeruli and tubules and stromal cells
    • Most common malignant renal tumor in children
    • Average age is 3 yrs
  • Presents as large, unilateral flank mass with hematuria and hypertension due to renin secretion
  • Most cases are sporadic
61
Q

Syndromic Wilm’s Tumors are found in what disorders?

A
  1. WAGR syndrome
    • Wilms tumor
    • Aniridia
    • Genital abnormalities
    • mental and motor Retardation
    • associated with deletion of WT1 tumor supressor gene
  2. Denys-Drash Syndrome
    • Wilms tumor, progressive renal (glomerular) disease and male pseudohermaphroditism
    • Associated with mutations of WT1
  3. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
    • Wilms tumor, neonatal hypoglycemia, muscular hemihypertrophy (muscles are different sizes on each side), and organomegaly
    • Associated with mutations in WT2 gene cluster especially IGF-2
62
Q

What is Urothelial (Transitional Cell) Carcinoma? What are the risk factors for it and how does it present?

A
  • Malignant tumor arising from urothelial lining of the renal pelvis, ureter, bladder or urethra
    • Most common type of lower urinary tract cancer
      • Usually arises in the bladder
  • Major risk factor is cigarette smoke
  • Other risk factors are napthylamine (also in cig smoke), azo dyes and long term cyclophosphamide or phenacetin use
  • Generally seen in older adults
  • Classically presents with painless hematuria
  • Tumors are often multifocal and recur
    • often have multiple tumors that recur
    • Have field deficit: all of endothelial surface is mutated and its only a matter of time before multiple tumors develop
63
Q

What are the two pathaways that Urothelial (Transitional Cell) Carcinoma arises from?

A
  1. Flat
    • develops as high-grade flat tumor and then invades
    • associated with early p53 mutations
  2. Papillary
    • develops as long grade papillary tumor that progresses to a high grade papillary tumor and then invades
    • not associated with early p53 mutation
64
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • Malignant proliferation of squamous cells, usually involves the bladder
  • arises in a background of squamous metaplasia (normal bladder surface is not lined by squamous epithelium)
  • Risk factors include chronic cystitis (causes chronic infection), Schistosoma haematobium infection (Egyptian male), and long standing nephrolithiasis
    • Chronic inflammation is a risk factor
    • Schistosoma embeds itself in bladder wall and causes chronic inflammation
65
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A
  • Malignant proliferation of glands, usually involving bladder
  • Causes:
    • Urachal remnant: tumor develops at the dome of the bladder
      • urachus connects fetus to bladder with yoke sac
      • allows bladder to drain waste into the yoke sac
      • goes from the dome of the bladder through the umbilical cord
      • lined by glandular cells
      • supposed to go away but if it doesn’t can cause cancer
    • Cystitis glandularis
      • chronic inflammation of the bladder resulting in columnar metaplasia in the bladder
    • Exstrophy
      • congenital failure to form the caudal portion of the anterior abdominal wall and bladder walls
      • exposes part of the bladder to the outside world
66
Q

Bartter Syndrome (AR)

A
  • Reabsorptive defect in NaCl in the thick ascending loop
  • Acts like loop diuretic
    • losing sodium, potassium and chloride
    • causes you to have a metabolic alkalosis b/c losing chloride
67
Q

Gitelman syndrome

A
  • reabsportive defect in NaCl in distal convoluted tubule
  • Acts like thiazide diuretic
  • less severe than Bartter syndrome
    • only losing sodium and chloride
68
Q

Liddle Syndrome

A
  • Gain of function mutation of Na+ channel
  • Increased Na+ reabsorption in collecting duct
    • mimics having too much aldosterone
    • Losing K+
  • Results in hypertension
  • Treat with Amiloride (K+ sparing)
69
Q

Common Causes of Metabolic Alkalosis

A
  • Vomitting
  • Loop Diuretics
  • Hyperaldosteronism
  • Antacid use
70
Q

Common Causes of Anion gap Metabolic Acidosis

A
  • Addition of an acid that isn’t Hydrochloric acid
  • MUDPILES
  • Methanol
  • Uremia
  • Diabetic Ketoacidosis
  • Propylene glycol
  • Iron tablets
  • Lactic acidosis
  • Ethylene glycol
  • Salicylates
71
Q

Common Causes of Normal Gap Metabolic Acidosis

A
  • Addition of Hydrochloric acid
  • HARDASS
  • Hyperalimentation
  • Addison disease
  • Renal tubular acidosis
  • Diarrhea
  • Acetazolamide
  • Spironolactone (hypoaldosteronism)
  • Saline infusion
72
Q

What is Winter’s Formula?

A

PCO2 = 1.5 (HCO3) +6-10

73
Q

Anion Gap Formula

A
  • AG= Na - (HCO3 + Cl)
74
Q

What can cause a low Anion gap?

A
  • albumen is low
  • Unmeasured cations are high such as due to light chain excess (multiple myeloma)
75
Q

Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis Type 1

A
  • Distal tubule can’t get rid of hydrogen ion
  • Can’t acidy the urine so the urine pH is very high (alkaline)
  • Defect in ability to alpha intercollated cells to secrete H+
  • Alpha intercolated cells can’t reclaim K+ resulting in hypokalemia
76
Q

Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis Type 4

A
  • Hypoaldosteronism reuslting in hyperkalemia thus causing increased NH3 synthesis in Proximal convoluted tubule and decreased urine buffering of H+
    • Will have high urine pH
  • No aldosterone so can’t exchange H+ ion to reabsorb in Na+
77
Q

Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis

A
  • Problem with HCO3 reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Classically caused by Franconi Syndrome