Pathology to Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Different types of necrosis?

A
coagulative
colliquative
caseous
Gangrenous 
Fibrinioid 
Fat
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2
Q

Necrosis?

A

uncontrolled cell death

results in inflammation

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3
Q

Apotosis?

A

morphological form of cell death that fragments the cells into bodies with intact membranes that are pahgocytosed that do not ilicit an inflammatory respoense
fragments are exotosed, then degraded or phagocytosed

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4
Q

difference between programmes cell death and apoptosis?

A

PCD is at a higher level as it has intent and is more specific (non-webbed hands)

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5
Q

Difference between primary and secondary intension?

A

primary has less necrosis
greater scar in secondary
more fibrin present in secondary due to increased acute inflammation
secondary has larger amount of granulation tissue. the granulation tissue invades the incision space and collagen fibres bridge incision space

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6
Q

what do fibroblasts secrete?

A

collagen, elastin and proteoglycans

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7
Q

function of a myofibroblast?

A

fibroblast like- secretes collagen

smooth muscle like- has contractile filaments (actin, myosin)

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8
Q

what protein is involved in tight junction?

A

occludin

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9
Q

what protein is involved in adheren junction?

A

Cadherin dimers link actin
the actin in linked from one cell to another
Adheren Actin

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10
Q

what do desmosomes link? and with what?

A

cadherin link intermediate filaments of neighbouring cells

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11
Q

what protein links gap junction?

A

connexin

this is an aqueous channel

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12
Q

what do focal adhesions link?

A

actin and fibronectin between cell and ECM

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13
Q

what do hemidemosomes link?

A

intermediate filaments to lamin in BM via integrins Between cell and ECM

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14
Q

different types of defence mechanisms?

A

innate
adaptive e.g. b lymphocytes and antibodies
mechanical e.g. skin barrier
biochemical e,g. lysozyme in secretions damages cell wall of bacteria

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15
Q

what are interferons?

A

chemicals secreted by infected cells which allow their neighbours to defend themselves better by the infection
three classes: alpha, beta, gamme
Alpha and beta produced by most cells
gamma produced by cells of the immune system

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16
Q

what is chemotaxis?

A

chemicals produced by damaged cells or bacteria in a gradient so that cells can move up the gradient to site of infection

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17
Q

what are opsonins?

A

substances that coat cell/bacteria and enhances the ability of phagocytes to phagocytose the particle

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18
Q

what are the two type of t cells?

A

lymphocytes

natural killer cells

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19
Q

what is IgM?

A

immunoglobin M

a basic anitobody produced by B cells and is the largest in the circulatory system

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20
Q

name the conditions that are a consequence of failure of the immune response?

A

hypersensitivity - e.g hayfever
autoimmunity- immune response against own antigens
immunodeficiency - incorrect immune response

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21
Q

does is the foetus protected by mother?

A

transfer of IgG: oestrogen stimulates production of IgG and IgA
mothers immune system is altered to prevent regection of foetus

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22
Q

what are the concentrations of sodium?

A

extra: 140mM
intra: 10mM

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23
Q

what are the concentration of potassium?

A

extra: 5mM
intra: 140mM

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24
Q

what are the concentrations of chlorine?

A

extra: 110mM
intra: 5mM

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25
electophysiological recording methods?
patch clamp: direct recording of ionic currents from cell surface ion channels planar lipid bilayer techniques: direct recording of ionic currents form intracellular ion channels
26
what information can be gathered form single channel recording?
what opens the channel conductance what ions flow through the channel inhibitors of the channel
27
stages of cardiac excitation-contraction coupling?
1. after cardiac action potential there is a depolarisation of the cardiac membrane 2. this activates the Ca channels which leads to an influx of calcium 3. The influx activates the RyR receptors which allows the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. contraction of heart muscles 5. relaxation occurs when basal level is met once again process is activated by calcium induced calcium release.
28
path of arteries from aorta to femoral artery
aorta--> L and R common iliac --> external iliac arteries | --> femoral artery
29
are the kidney's intraperitoneal?
no
30
what are the holes in the diaphragm called?
``` Aortic hiatus (T 12) oesophageal hiatus (T10- oesophagus) vena caval (T8- vena cava) ```
31
what structures are in the kidney?
cortex medulla renal pyramids (housing nephrons) major and minor calyces (of collecting system)
32
what hormones does the kidney excrete and what does it do?
Renin raises bp indirectly Erythropoietin accelerates red blood cell production
33
kidney blood supply?
renal artery from aorta | renal vein from kidney to IVC
34
what does the nephron consist of?
``` renal corpuscle (glomerulus) proximal convoluted tubule loop of henle distal convoluted tubule collecting duct ```
35
is the ureter retroperitoneal?
yes
36
what controls the emptying of the bladder?
the detrusor muscle | under the control of the parasympathetic system (
37
what is the effect of repeated childbirth on the bladder?
may weaken the pelvic floor and allow the bladder to drop affecting continence
38
what structure do men have that prevents the backflow of urine into the bladder?
prepostatic internal sphincter
39
how do women prevent urine backflow into the bladder?
they do not have a sphincter The bladder is above the pelvic organ so the pressure of the pelvic organs as well as the levator ani contribute to urinary continence
40
what structure lies over the bladder?
the ileum and sigmoid drop into the pelvis on their mesenteries
41
bladder blood supply?
Arteries: internal iliac artery to superior and inferior vesical branches vein: venous plexus on bladder surface then to internal iliac vein
42
bladder lymph drainage?
to nodes alongside external iliac artery
43
what is the path of the female urethra ?
through the pelvic (now in the perineum) surrounded by the external sphincter (made up of striated muscle)
44
the parts of the male urethra?
``` preprostatic ( surround by smooth muscle with an internal sphincter) prostatic membraneous (surrounded by striated muscle with an external sphincter) spongy (passing through the penile bulb and corpus spongiosum) ```
45
vascular supply of the prostate and urethra?
aorta--> L and R common iliac --> internal iliac vein --> internal pudendal artery --> organ--> internal pudendal vein --> internal iliac vein
46
what is the journey of the vas deferens?
testis --> scrotum --> + duct from seminal vesicle --> ejaculatory duct --> urethra
47
function of the prostate gland?
acid seminal secretion to nourish the sperm
48
vascular supply of the prostate gland?
internal iliac vein and artery
49
how does the vascular supply of the urethra in the males and females differ?
females: internal iliac vessels males: internal iliac vessels and internal pudendal vessels
50
how is micturition (urination) maintained?
- relaxation of the external urethral sphincter (made up of striated muscle) - pudendal nerve - contraction of abdominal wall - sensation of urine in urethra
51
what is the nerve supply for the urinary system?
somatic motor for striated muscle | autonomic: sympathetic for male pre-prostatic sphincter and parasympathetic for detrusor
52
vascular supply to the testis?
testicular artery from aorta testicular vein starts as a vein which coalesces to form the vein.. left testicle: left renal vein right testicle: IVC
53
where does lymph from the testis drain to?
the para-aortic node not the inguinal
54
location of lymph nodes?
inguinal axial cervical (^ all palpable) supraclavicular
55
how many seminal vesicles and vas deferens are there?
2!!
56
what is the opening of the urethra wall to the prostate gland?
veru montanum
57
where does the urethra pass in the penis and why?
in the corpus spongiosum | not in the corpora cavernosa otherwise the urethra wouldn't be able to stay open during erection
58
what is the position of the ovary?
hangs of the posterior aspect of the broad ligaments on a mesovarium intraperitoneal
59
what are the different sections of the fallopian tube?
``` ostium infundibulum ampulla isthmus intramural ```
60
different classifications of neurotransmitters?
- amino acids - biogenic amines (catecholamines, indoamines) - peptides - ester
61
example of amino acid NT's?
Glutamate (E) GABA (I) Glycine (I)
62
examples of catecholamines?
norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine
63
examples of indoamines?
seratonin
64
examples of peptide nt's?
encephalin, endorphin, dynorphin
65
example of ester nt's?
Acetyl-choline
66
what does the round ligament link?
the uterus and the labia
67
vascular supply to uterus?
internal iliac artery --> uterine and vaginal artery form an anastomosis
68
how is protein kinase C conventionally activated ?
Diacylglycerol and calcium ions bind to PKC and cause activation
69
which enzyme converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandins?
cyclooxygenase
70
which phospholipase liberates arachidonic acid?
phospholipase A2
71
epithelium in the nasal cavity?
pseudostratified ciliated columnar | plus goblet cells
72
how many conchae in nasal cavity
3 | inferior, middle, superior
73
purpose of conchae?
provide turbulence, increase SA of air flow and increase heat exchange
74
Where are the nerves for the sense of smell?
olfactory bulb in the upper parts of the lateral wall
75
what are the names of the different sinus'?
maxillary, ethmoidal, sphenoidal and frontal
76
which part of the pharynx prevents flood from passing into the larynx?
the oropharynx
77
purpose of the larynx?
controls air flow for speech raises intrabdominal pressure has the cricothyroid membrane which allows emergency access the airway
78
which laryngeal fold forms a protective sphincter at the laryngeal inlet and how is it closed?
The aryepiglottic fold closure of the inlet is by elevation of the larynx muscles aid both closure and widening of laryngeal inlet
79
how are the vocal cords lubricated?
by saccule which have muscosal glands
80
what are the two nerves that control the larynx?
super laryngeal nerve | recurrent laryngeal nerve
81
what happens at A site of ribosome?
Where the tRNA enters the ribosome to then move into the P site
82
what happens at P site of ribosome?
amino acid join newly formed peptide chain
83
what happens at E site of ribosome?
where tRNA is ejected
84
pathway of air from bronchi to alveoli?
bronchi--> conducting bronchioles --> terminal bronchioles--> respiratory bronchioles ---> alveoli
85
epithelium in the trachea?
pseudo ciliated columnar with goblet cells
86
layer of epidermis in thick skin?
[upper] s. corneum (dead cells) s. lucidum (not in thin skin) s. granulosum s. spinosum (desmosomes) s. basale
87
describe the change in epithelium between the bronchi to bronchioles?
from psuedostratified ciliated columnar to ciliated columnar surrounded by a band of smooth muscle
88
epithelium in the terminal and respiratory bronchiole?
non-ciliated cuboidal
89
what are septae?
a thin membrane containing capillaries which seperates alveoli from one another. they form the air-blood barrier for gas exchange
90
what is the membrane that lines the lungs and cavity wall?
pleura
91
what membrane separates the lungs?
mediastinum
92
why is the right lung shorter and wider?
since the right dome of the diaphragm being higher than on the left
93
what structures enter/exit via the hilum in lungs?
pulmonary arteries pulmonary veins bronchus
94
what nerve supplies the diaphragm?
the phrenic nerve