Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Imaging pathology > Pathology quiz > Flashcards

Pathology quiz Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following causes a lack of oxygen and accumulation of carbon dioxide?
    a. Electric shock
    b. Poisoning
    c. Asphyxiation
    d. Neoplasm
A

c. Asphyxiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Phenotype is a word used to describe
    a. Inherited diseases
    b. Physical appearance
    c. Body build
    d. Colour vision
A

b. Physical appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. An acute, highly infectious respiratory tract disease characterized by a repetitious , paroxysmal cough and prolonged, harsh or shrill sound during inspiration is called
    a. Tetanus
    b. Bronchitis
    c. Laryngitis
    d. Pertussis
A

d. Pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. A region of infected macrophages surrounded by fibrous capsule is likely to be
    a. Abscess
    b. Cyst
    c. Furuncle
    d. Infectious granuloma
A

d. Infectious granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Thrombophlebitis is caused by
    a. Infection
    b. Trauma
    c. Prolonged immobility
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The smallest parasite microorganisms are:
    a. Bacilli
    b. Cocci
    c. Tapeworms
    d. viruses
A

d. viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. An inflammation of the membrane lining the heart valves characterized by the formation of vegetations is called
    a. Pericarditis
    b. Myodacrditis
    c. Endocarditis
    d. Mitral insufficency
A

c. Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The spreading process of a malignant tumor or cancer is
    a. Tachycardia
    b. Sarcoma
    c. In situ
    d. metastasis
A

d. metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. In an individual with 20% full thickness burns, widespread inflammation results in
    a. Vascular permeability
    b. Hypovolemia
    c. Increased hermatocrit
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a genetic disorder?
    a. Cystic fibrosis
    b. Sickle cell anaemia
    c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
    d. phenylketonuria
A

c. Carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The incubation period for varicella
    a. 5 days
    b. 14 days
    c. 15-20 days
A

c. 15-20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. An antiviral protein that interferes with viral replication is likely to be
    a. Interleukins
    b. Interfereon
    c. Complement
    d. histamine
A

b. Interfereon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Inflammation of the vocal cords and the surrounding mucosa is
    a. Laryngitis
    b. Pharyngitis
    c. Infectious mononucleosis
    d. None of the above
A

a. Laryngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Neioplasm that closely resemble normal parent tissue are
    a. Encaosulated
    b. Sarcomas
    c. Epithelial
    d. Differentiated
A

d. Differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A predisposing factor for a disease includes:
    a. Virulence
    b. Age, gender, heredity, or environment
    c. Infectivity
    d. All of the above
A

b. Age, gender, heredity, or environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about DNAs genetic activity?
    a. The DNA is a complex molecular structure in the cell nucleus that is incorporated into chromosomes
    b. At the time of fertilization, the 23 chromosomes from the ovum combine randomly with the same number from the sperm
    c. Dominant genes are expressed only when the gene pair is homozygous, whereas, recessive genes are expressed whether the gene pair is homozygous or heterozygous
    d. Mutations that occur when the normal sequence of DNA units is disrupted can come functional disturbances in the body
A

c. Dominant genes are expressed only when the gene pair is homozygous, whereas, recessive genes are expressed whether the gene pair is homozygous or heterozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Heart murmurs may be caused by:
    a. Blood leaking back through an incompetent valve
    b. Blood forcing it’s way through the narrowed valve
    c. A rapid diastolic flow
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The white blood cells that are affected the most by HIV are:
    a. Monocytes
    b. Eosinophils
    c. Lymphocytes
    d. Neutrophils
A

c. Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. A life-threatening inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart characterised by dyspnoea, tachycardia, orthopnea, pallor is:
    a. Pericarditis
    b. Myocardial infarction
    c. Rheumatic heart disease
    d. Hypertension
A

a. Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following is a manifestation of Downs syndrome
    a. Tall stature
    b. Epicanthal eye folds
    c. Accelerated mental development
    d. Edward syndrome
A

b. Epicanthal eye folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Cystic fibrosis is caused by an ______ gene.
    a. X-linked dominant
    b. X-linked recessive
    c. Autosomal dominant
    d. Autosomal recessive
A

d. Autosomal recessive

22
Q
  1. Acquired immunity is gained:
    a. In utero
    b. After birth
    c. Via injection of specific antibodies
    d. In adulthood
A

b. After birth

23
Q
  1. The predominant antibody of a typical primary immune response is:
    a. IgG
    b. IgM
    c. IgA
    d. IgD
A

b. IgM

24
Q
  1. Undifferentiated cells are:
    a. Stem cells
    b. All tumour cells
    c. Committed cells
    d. T cells
A

a. Stem cells

25
Q
  1. Conditions associated with the onset of embolic stroke include:
    a. Endocarditis
    b. Atrial fibrillation
    c. Valvular prosthesis
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

26
Q
  1. Fortification of foods with folic acid has resulted in a significant reduction in the incidence of:
    a. Huntington disease
    b. Turners syndrome
    c. Neural tube defects
    d. Cleft lip and palate
A

c. Neural tube defects

27
Q
  1. Blood screens on newborns are performed to detect:
    a. Epilepsy
    b. Tay-sachs disease
    c. Pica
    d. PKU
A

d. PKU

28
Q
  1. Erythropoietin
    a. Is secreted by the liver in response to tissue hypoxia
    b. Stimulates proliferation of stem cells
    c. Can cause a maximum production rate of 2.5 million erythrocytes per second
    d. Causes increased respiration in hypoxia
A

b. Stimulates proliferation of stem cells

29
Q
  1. All of the following are precursors to erythrocytes except:
    a. Haemopoietic stem cells
    b. Normoblast
    c. Megaloblast
    d. T cells
A

d. T cells

30
Q
  1. The underlying disorder of this type of anaemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.
    a. Microcytic
    b. Hypochronic
    c. Perniscious
    d. Haemolytic
A

c. Perniscious

31
Q
  1. A patient is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following is the predominant clinical manifestations?
    a. Lymph node enlargement
    b. Hepatitis
    c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
    d. Odema in the area of the eyes
  2. Which of the following are clinical manifestations
A

a. Lymph node enlargement

32
Q
  1. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of acute leukaemia?
    a. Fever
    b. Anorexia
    c. Bleeding
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

33
Q
  1. Reed-Steinberg cells are present in:
    a. Acute leukaemias
    b. Haemolytic anaemia
    c. Thrombocytopaenia
    d. Hodgkin disease
A

d. Hodgkin disease

34
Q
  1. Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are therefore diagnosed as ____ hypertension
    a. Primary
    b. Secondary
    c. Congenital
    d. Acquired
A

a. Primary

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is characterised by attacks of vasospasm in the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, the toes.
    a. Raymaud phenomenon
    b. Raymaud disease
    c. Buerger disease
    d. A and B
A

d. A and B

36
Q
  1. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is most predictive of the disease?
    a. Diabetes mellitus
    b. Hypertension
    c. Obesity
    d. High alcohol consumption
A

b. Hypertension

37
Q
  1. Hepatitis A is characterised by:
    a. An incubation period of 60-180 days
    b. An acute onset
    c. A positive carrier state
    d. A sexual mode of transmission
A

b. An acute onset

38
Q
  1. __________ is an autoimmune disease
    a. Stasis dermatitis
    b. Tinea infection
    c. Systemic lupus erythaematosus
    d. Folliculitis
A

c. Systemic lupus erythaematosus

39
Q
  1. Candidiasis is likely to be exacerbated by:
    a. Cushing disease
    b. Diabetes mellitus
    c. Systemic antibiotics
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

40
Q
  1. The form of angina that occurs unpredictably and almost exclusively when the person is at rest.
    a. Unstable
    b. Crescendo
    c. Prinzmetal
    d. Acute coronary insufficiency
A

c. Prinzmetal

41
Q
  1. MMR vaccine should be administered after 15 months of age because:
    a. Children under this age are not susceptible to rubella
    b. By this time maternally acquired passive immunity has been depleted
    c. Children under 15 months of age are more likely to have an allergic reaction to the vaccine
    d. None of the above
A

b. By this time maternally acquired passive immunity has been depleted

42
Q
  1. The aetiologic agent of SARS is thought to be:
    a. A poxvirus
    b. A coronavirus
    c. Adenovirus
    d. Human papilloma virus
A

b. A coronavirus

43
Q
  1. The pleural membranes are examples of ___ membranes
    a. Mucous
    b. Serous
    c. Synovial
    d. Peritoneal
A

b. Serous

44
Q
  1. The carbon dioxide in Mr.Jones’ system is mainly carried in the blood:
    a. Attached to oxygen
    b. In the form of bicarbonate
    c. Combined with albumin
    d. Dissolved in RBCs
A

B In the form of bicarbonate

45
Q
  1. When the surface barriers are penetrated due to an injury the next line of defence will be
    a. Antibacterial enzymes
    b. Inflammation
    c. Eosinophils
    d. Platelets
A

b. Inflammation

46
Q
  1. Breaking the chain of infection of malaria is best achieved by:
    a. Sterilisation
    b. Destroying the reservoir
    c. Hand washing
    d. Covering secretions
A

b. Destroying the reservoir

47
Q
  1. An abnormal accumulation of lymph in the extremities is called:
    a. Lymphoma
    b. Lymphoedema
    c. Lymphangitis
    d. Lymphosarcoma
A

b. Lymphoedema

48
Q
  1. Pathogenesis of asthma is likely to include the release of chemical mediators from Ig.E mast cells. These include all of the following except
    a. Histamine
    b. Leukotrienes
    c. Prostoglandins
    d. Complement
A

d. Complement

49
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical manifestations is related to hypoxemia
    a. Cyanosis
    b. Cough
    c. Chest pain
    d. Hemoptysis
A

a. Cyanosis

50
Q
  1. The permanent abnormal dilation of small bronchi is called
    a. Emphysema
    b. Bronchitis
    c. Asthma
    d. Bronchiectasis
A

d. Bronchiectasis

51
Q
  1. An acute contagious respiratory disease that occurs in epidemic outbreaks is likely to be caused by
    a. Orthomyxoviridae
    b. Escheria coli
    c. Variola virus
    d. Rubella virus
A

a. Orthomyxoviridae

Imaging pathology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions