Pathology MCQ Flashcards
1- The following is True concerning acute hematogenous osteomyelitis
a) Commonly affects the epiphysis due to sluggish blood flow
b) Infection reaches the bone from the adjacent joint
c) A subperiosteal abscess is formed
d)The subperiosteal new bone formation is called cloaca
c) A subperiosteal abscess is formed
2- Pott’s disease is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:
a) Kyphosis.
b) Cold abscess
c) Brodie’s abscess
d) Paraplegia
c) Brodie’s abscess
3- The most frequent malignant neoplasms found in bone is
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Osteoclastoma.
c) Metastatic tumors
d) Chondrosarcoma
c) Metastatic tumors
4- The following is locally aggressive rarely metastasizing bone tumor:
a) Osteosarcoma.
b) Osteochondroma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Ewing’s tumor
c) Osteoclastoma
5- Enchondromas arise in
a) Bones of hands and feet.
b) Shoulders and ribs
c) Epiphysis of long bone
d) Distal femur
a) Bones of hands and feet.
6- Osteophyte (Bony overgrowths capped by cartilage develop in the following type of arthritis
a) Osteoarthritis.
b) Tuberculous arthritis
c) Gout.
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
a) Osteoarthritis.
7- Tophi of monosodium urate crystals are pathognomonic for:
a) Acute gouty arthritis
b) Tuberculous arthritis
c) Chronic gouty arthritis
d) Osteoarthritis
c) Chronic gouty arthritis
8- The following lesions is NOT an example of granulomatous lymphadenitis
a. Tuberculosis.
b. Leprosy.
c. Measles.
d. Syphilis.
c. Measles.
9- The following variant of Hodgkin’s
a. Nodular sclerosis.
b. Mixed cellularity.
c. Lymphocyte depletion.
d. Lymphocyte rich.
a. Nodular sclerosis.
10- Causes splenomegaly include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Chronic venous congestion due to lent sided heart failure.
b. Portal hypertension.
c. Lymphomas.
d. Amyloidosis.
a. Chronic venous congestion due to lent sided heart failure.
11- Acute hemorrhagic anemia is:
a. Normocytic normochromic anemia.
b. Microcytic hypochromic anemia.
c. Macrocytic anemia.
d. Normocytic hypochromic anemia.
a. Normocytic normochromic anemia.
12- Bence jones proteinuria is seen in:
a. Polycythemia.
b. Small lymphocytic lymphoma.
c. Multiple myeloma.
d. Metastatic bone diseases.
c. Multiple myeloma.
13- The most common malignant tumor of the brain is:
a. Glioblastoma multiforme.
b. Metastatic tumors.
c. Anaplastic astrocytoma.
d. Medulloblastoma.
a. Glioblastoma multiforme.
14- Traumatic damage to the middle meningeal artery causes the following type of intracranial bleeding:
a. Epidural hematoma.
b. Subdural hematoma.
c. Intracerebral hemorrhage.
d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
a. Epidural hematoma.
15- in acute pyogenic meningitis, the ventricles are filled with:
a. CSF.
b. Blood.
c. Pus.
d. Fibrinous exudate
c. Pus.
16- Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic for:
a. Rabies.
b. Poliomyelitis.
c. Alzheimer disease.
d. Stroke.
c. Alzheimer disease.
17- One the following statements is true about stroke:
a. It is most commonly caused by subarachnoid hemorrhage.
b. A cystic cavity with a gliotic wall appears radiologically within 3 weeks after the primary insult.
c. The circle of Willis is the most frequently affected site.
d. Stroke affecting the region of basal ganglia and the thalamus has better prognosis than other sites.
c. The circle of Willis is the most frequently affected site.
18- In the following type of CNS infection, CSF lumbar puncture revealing high pressure, prominent lymphocytic population, moderate protein elevation and normal glucose content are seen:
a. Acute viral meningitis.
b. Acute septic meningitis.
c. Poliomyelitis.
d. Acute brain abscess.
a. Acute viral meningitis.
19- The most aggressive primary malignant brain tumor in adults is:
a. Anaplastic astrocytoma.
b. Meningioma.
c. Metastatic carcinoma.
d. Glioblastoma Multiforme
d. Glioblastoma Multiforme
20- Acute severe trauma to the middle meningeal artery leads to:
a. Extradural hematoma.
b. Subdural hematoma.
c. Intracerebral hematoma.
d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
a. Extradural hematoma
21- The Rabies virus is transmitted from the bite of a rabid animal to the central nervous system via:
a. Arteries.
b. Veins.
c. Peripheral nerves.
d. Direct implantation.
c. Peripheral nerves.
22- Alzheimer’s disease is a:
a. Congenital disease.
b. Inflammatory disease.
c. Degenerative disease.
d. Cerebrovascular disease.
c. Degenerative disease.
23- Which of the following statements is true about acute pyogenic meningitis:
a. In young adult commonly caused by E. coli.
b. Leptomeninges are congested, swollen and covered by pus.
c. The SF showed lymphocytes.
d. The ventricles are dilated and full of clear fluid.
b. Leptomeninges are congested, swollen and covered by pus.
24- Which is true about acoustic neuroma:
a. It’s a malignant nerve sheath tumor.
b. It’s a benign tumor of Schwann cells
c. Is schwannoma of 7th cranial nerve.
d. It produce fusiform expansion of nerve.
b. It’s a benign tumor of Schwann cells
25- Gliomas include all EXCEPT:
a. Astrocytomas.
b. Ependymoma.
c. Glioblastoma.
d. Medulloblastoma
c. Glioblastoma.
26- All of the following may be cause of non -communicating hydrocephalus EXCEPT:
a. Congenital
b. Post inflammatory fibrosis and adhesions
c. Tumors
d. Decrease CSF resorption.
d. Decrease CSF resorption.
27- Concerning cerebral infarction, all of the following is true EXCEPT:
a. The cause may be thrombotic or embolic
b. It results from cerebral arterial occlusion
c. Thrombotic infarctions are more common than embloic.
d. The size & extent of infarctions may be modified by collateral circulation
c. Thrombotic infarctions are more common than embloic.
28- Subarachnoid hemorrhage is due to:
a. Trauma of meningeal artery
b. Trauma of cortical veins
c. Rupture of cerebral saccular (berry) aneurysm
d. Sudden rise in blood pressure
c. Rupture of cerebral saccular (berry) aneurysm
29- A child presented with a cerebellar cystic tumor with a mural nodule. Biopsy examination showed diffuse proliferation of glial bipolar cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Meningioma.
b. Diffuse astrocytoma
c. Pilocytic astrocytoma,
d. Glioblastoma
c. Pilocytic astrocytoma,
30- Hypertensive patients are at high risk of:
a. Extradural hemorrhage
b. Subdural hemorrhage
c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage.
d. Acute massive intracerebral hemorrhage
d. Acute massive intracerebral hemorrhage
31- Medulloblastoma:
a. Is a benign tumor.
b. Is poorly sensitive to radiation
c. Is an embryonic malignant tumor.
d. Mostly affects the thalamus in children.
c. Is an embryonic malignant tumor.
32- Schwannoma (Neurilemmoma):
a. Is a non-capsulated benign tumor.
b. Is one of the glial CNS tumors
c. The most common site is the 8th cranial nerve at the cerebello-pontine angle
d. Arising from both nerve sides causing a fusiform nerve expansion.
c. The most common site is the 8th cranial nerve at the cerebello-pontine angle
33- Acute brain abscess on the frontal lobe is most probably due to spread of infection from:
a. Mastoiditis
b. Paranasal sinusitis
c. Acute bacterial endocarditis.
d. Acute otitis media.
b. Paranasal sinusitis
34- The most common location for hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage is:
a. Cerebellum
b. Basal ganglia.
c. Cerebral cortex.
d. Brain stem
b. Basal ganglia.
35- The Rabies virus is transmitted from the bite of a rabid animal to the central nervous system via:
a. Arteries.
b. Veins
c. Peripheral or cranial nerves
d. Direct implantation.
c. Peripheral or cranial nerves
36- Which is true about acoustic neuroma:
a. It is a benign nerve sheath tumor.
b. It is a malignant tumor of schwann cells.
c. It is a schwannoma of 7th cranial nerve.
d. It produce fusiform expansion of nerve
a. It is a benign nerve sheath tumor.
37- Psammoma bodies are characteristic of:
a. Astrocytoma
b. Meningioma
c. Ependymoma
d. Medulloblastoma
b. Meningioma
38- Gliomas include all EXCEPT:
a. Astrocytomas
b. Ependymoma.
c. Glioblastoma
d. Medulloblastoma.
c. Glioblastoma
39- Alzheimer’s disease is a
a. Congenital disease
b. Inflammatory disease
c. Degenerative disease
d. Cerebrovascular disease.
c. Degenerative disease
40- Which of the following tumors is characterized by necrosis, vascular endothelial proliferation, cellular tumor with atypical nuclei
a. Schwannoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Glioblastoma
d. Meningioma
c. Glioblastoma
41- Which of the following tumors is highly radiosensitive:
a. Meningioma
b. Ependymoma
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. Medulloblastoma
d. Medulloblastoma
42- Temporal lobe brain abscess is usually a complication of:
a. Suppurative otitis media.
b. Suppurative lung disease
c. Sinusitis.
d. Skull fractures
a. Suppurative otitis media.
43- Gliosis means:
a. Regeneration of brain tissue.
b. Necrosis of brain tissue.
c. Fibrosis of the brain tissue
d. None of the above
c. Fibrosis of the brain tissue
44- Astrocytoma is a:
a. Glial tumor
b. Neuronal tumor
c. Tumor of undifferentiated cells
d. Nerve sheath tumor
a. Glial tumor
45- The following is NOT a feature of meningioma:
a. Usually occurs in adults
b. Usually a benign tumor.
c. Has a whorly cut surface.
d. It is classified into various types according to the degree of nuclear atypia
d. It is classified into various types according to the degree of nuclear atypia
46- A cerebellar tumor in a child showing cystic and solid areas on CT is likely to be
a. Meningioma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Pilocytic astrocytoma
d. Pilocytic astrocytoma
47- Psammoma bodies are characteristic of:
a. Astrocytoma
b. Meningioma
c. Ependymoma.
d. Medulloblastoma.
b. Meningioma
48- Poliomyelitis is an infection of
a. Cerebral cortical cells
b. Anterior horn cells of spinal cord
c. Posterior horn cells of spinal cord
d. Peripheral nerves
b. Anterior horn cells of spinal cord
49- Ruptured Berry aneurysm of circle of Willis would likely produce hemorrhage into the
a. Epidural space
b. Thalamus
c. Subarachnoid space
d. Cerebellum
c. Subarachnoid space
50- Tumor that commonly arises in scars of abdominal surgery:
a. Lipoma
b. Fibromatosis
c. Melanoma.
d. Rhabdomyoma.
b. Fibromatosis
51- Tumor formed of spindle cells characterized by herring bone
arrangement:
a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. Liposarcoma.
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Angiosarcoma.
a. Fibrosarcoma.
52- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma.
b. Basal cell carcinoma.
c. Adenocarcinoma.
d. Squamous cell papilloma.
b. Basal cell carcinoma.
53- Male patient 40 years old known to have HIV infection he developed lymphadenopathy and reddish skin nodules in the lower extremities biopsy of skin lesion revealed a tumor formed of a small irregular vessels with plump spindle cells and extravasated red blood cells what’s your diagnosis?
a. Capillary hemangioma.
b. Pyogenic granuloma.
c. Angiosarcoma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma.
54- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?
a. Glomus tumor.
b. Lymphangioma.
c. Hemangioma.
d. Hemangioendothelioma.
b. Lymphangioma.
55- Malignant Biphasic tumor with spindle and epithelial-like components:
a. Liposarcoma.
b. Fibrosarcoma.
c. Synovial sarcoma
d. Kaposi sarcoma.
c. Synovial sarcoma
54- Ulcerative squamous cell carcinoma of the skin has the following feature:
a. The edges are raised everted with indurated base.
b. The edges are rolled in beaded with firm base.
c. The cells appear basophilic with peripheral palisading.
d. It has an intermediate behaviour which rarely metastasizes
a. The edges are raised everted with indurated base.
55- A cytologically benign lesion with an infiltarative pattern of growth is mostly:
a. Lipoma.
b. Glomus tumor.
c. Pyogenic granulomoa.
d. Fibromatosis
d. Fibromatosis
56- The most common soft tissue sarcoma in children is:
a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
57- Which of the following statements is true as regards condyloma acuminatum:
a. It is a benign tumor affecting the sole of foot in children.
b. It is a benign tumor caused by HPV types 6 & 11.
c. It is a malignant tumor affecting the uterine cervix and external genetalia.
d. It starts as a nodule which rapidly ulcerates.
b. It is a benign tumor caused by HPV types 6 & 11.
58- The most commonly detected vascular tumor detected in AIDS patients is:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Hemangioendothelioma.
c. Lymphangioma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma.
59- The following statement is true about melanoma:
a. It has better prognosis than squamous cell carcinoma.
b. It exclusively affects sun exposed skin regions.
c. The metastatic potential appears in the vertical growth phase.
d. Invasion is usually preceded by short phase of an insitu proliferation.
c. The metastatic potential appears in the vertical growth phase.
60- Which is true concerning condyloma accuminatum:
a. It’s a small, hard mass in the sole of the foot.
b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11
c. It’s a large fleshy mass on skin of fingers.
d. Occurs commonly on face and back of hand.
b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11
61- The most common site of basal cell carcinoma is:
a. Upper limbs.
b. Lower limbs
c. Face.
d. Trunk
c. Face.
62- The sites of malignant melanoma are all EXCEPT:
a. Skin.
b. Eye
c. Anal canal.
d. Stomach.
d. Stomach.
63- Desmoid tumor is an example of:
a. Begin tumor.
b. Hamartomas.
c. Malignant tumor.
d. Fibromatosis.
d. Fibromatosis.
64- All of the following are true concerning rhabdomyosarcoma EXCEPT:
a. The most common soft tissue sarcoma of children.
b. They arise from mature skeletal muscle cells.
c. The sarcoma botryoides type is soft and gelatinous
d. They are aggressive tumors.
b. They arise from mature skeletal muscle cells.
65- Glomus tumor is a:
a. Benign tumor.
b. Malignant tumor.
c. Tumor of fibrous tissue.
d. Tumor of intermediate behavior
a. Benign tumor.
66- Tumor that commonly arises in scars of abdominal surgery:
a. Lipoma
b. Fibromatosis
c. Melanoma
d. Rhabdomyoma.
a. Lipoma
67- Tumor characterized by forming nests with central keratin whorls:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Melanoma.
d. Adenocarcinoma
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
68- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma.
d. Squamous cell papilloma.
b. Basal cell carcinoma
69- Female patient 10 years old presenting with vaginal bleeding. Examination revealed soft gelatinous grape-like mass in the vagina. What is your diagnosis?
a. Liposarcoma.
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
70- Male patient 40 years old known to have HIV infection. He developed lymphadenopathy and reddish skin nodules on the lower extremities. Biopsy of skin lesions revealed small irregular vessels with plump spindle cells and exrtravasated red blood cells. What is your diagnosis?
a. Capillary hemangioma.
b. Pyogenic granuloma.
c. Angiosarcoma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma
d. Kaposi sarcoma
71- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?
a. Glomus tumor.
b. Lymphangioma.
c. Hemangioma
d. Hemangioendothelioma.
b. Lymphangioma.
72- Aggressive metastasizing biphasic tumor with spindle and epithelial-like components:
a. Liposarcoma.
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Synovial sarcoma.
d. Angiosarcoma.
c. Synovial sarcoma.
73- Nevus cells are found in the dermo-epidermal junction and the dermis is called:
a. Compound nevus
b. Intrademal nevus
c. Junctional nevus
d. Melanoma
a. Compound nevus
74- The most important prognostic factor in malignant melanoma giving the probability of metastasis is:
a. Degree of tumor differentiation
b. Depth of tumor invasion
c. Age of the patient.
d. Histologic type of the tumor.
b. Depth of tumor invasion
75- A patient developed slowly growing painless subcutaneous mass in his arm, excision and gross examination of the mass revealed soft yellow encapsulated mass with lobulated greasy cut surface.
The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Fibroma
b. Lipoma
c. Liposarcoma.
d. Dermatofibroma
b. Lipoma
76- The following is NOT a subtype of squamous cell papilloma
a. Condyloma Accuminata
b. Verruca Plantaris
c. Condyloma Lata
d. Verruca Vulgaris
c. Condyloma Lata
77- The most commonly affected area of the body by Basal cell carcinoma is
a. The upper part of the face
b. The shoulder
c. The perianal area
d. The dorsum of the hand
a. The upper part of the face
78- The following is true about: The vertical growth phase of Melanoma:
a. It almost always occurs in the face above an imaginary line between the angle of the mandible and lobule of the ear
b. Melanoma cells grows horizontally without invading the basement membrane
c. The tumor grows downward into the deeper layer of the dermis so they can send metastases
d. Clinically it is always a flat lesion
c. The tumor grows downward into the deeper layer of the dermis so they can send metastases
79- The types of Rhabdomyosarcoma include:
a. Alveolar and pulmonary
b. Emberyonal and desmoid
c. Pleomorphic and desmoid
d. Emberyonal and pleomorphic
b. Emberyonal and desmoid
80- The following is a malignant tumor of smooth muscle origin
a. Carcinosarcoma
b. Leiomyosarcoma
c. Liposarcoma
d. Osteosarcoma
b. Leiomyosarcoma
81- Rodent ulcer is characterized by the following:
a. Raised everted edges
b. Beaded rolled in edges
c. Smooth clean floor
d. Soft base
b. Beaded rolled in edges
82- The following tumor can arise in the setting of lymphedema as in upper limb many years after radical mastectomy for cancer breast:
a. Liposarcoma
b. Kaposi Sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Angiosarcoma
d. Angiosarcoma
83- Peyronie disease: is the name given to
a. Genital wart
b. Plantar fibromatosis
c. Retroperitoneal fibromatosis
d. Penile fibromatosis
d. Penile fibromatosis
84- Herring bone pattern is a histological feature of
a. Liposarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
d. rhabdomyosarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
85- In Compound Nevus:
a. Nests of malignant cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the dermis
b. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidemal junction together with the epidermis
c. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the dermis
d. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the subcutaneous fat.
c. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the dermis
86- Tumor formed of spindle cells characterized by herring bone arrangement
a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Liposarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Angiosarcoma
a. Fibrosarcoma
87- Tumor characterized by forming nests with central keratin whorls
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Squamous cell papilloma
d. Adenocarcinoma
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
88- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Squamous cell papilloma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
89- Which of the followings is NOT predisposed to by sun exposure?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Melanoma
b. Kaposi sarcoma
90- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?
a. Glomus tumor
b. Lymphangioma
c. Hemangioma
d. Hemangioendothelioma
b. Lymphangioma
91- Regarding squamous cell papilloma, which of the following following is correct
a. It is commonly caused by human papilloma virus type 16
b. It is characterized by fibrovascular cores, covered by malignant looking squamous epithelium
c. Condyloma accuminatum occur on the external genitalia
d. Verrucae plantaris are the most common
c. Condyloma accuminatum occur on the external genitalia
92- Regarding melanocytic nevus, which of the following is incorrect
a. Melanin pigmentation is increased in the deeper part of the lesion
b. May be congenital or acquired
c. Appear as small uniformly pigmented lesions
d. The covering epidermis may show a papillary lesion
a. Melanin pigmentation is increased in the deeper part of the lesion
93- Which of the following is not a feature of melanoma
a. Melanoma is less common but more aggressive than squamous cell carcinoma
b. Melanoma is characterized grossly by irregular borders and variation in pigmentation
c. Melanoma in the radial growth phase is capable of metastasis
d. Melanoma may show an epithelioid or sarcomatous appearance microscopically
c. Melanoma in the radial growth phase is capable of metastasis
94- Regarding benign vascular tumors and tumor like lesions, which of the following is true
a. Cystic hygroma IS a large sized hemangioma, occurring in the neck or axilla
b. Pyogenic granuloma present as a rapidly growing pedunculated lesion with common ulceration
c. Cavernous hemangioma doesn’t occur in deep structures
d. Glomus body tumor present as a painless mass, usually in fingers
b. Pyogenic granuloma present as a rapidly growing pedunculated lesion with common ulceration
95- Glomus tumor is
a. Benign tumor
b. Malignant tumor
c. Fibrous tumor
d. Tumor of intermediate behavior
a. Benign tumor
96- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?
a. Glomus tumor
b. Lymphangioma
c. Hemangioma
d. Hemangioendothelioma
b. Lymphangioma
97- Biphasic tumor with spindle and epithelial-like components
a. Liposarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Synovial sarcoma
d. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Synovial sarcoma
98- Which of the following neoplasm is invasive but does not give rise to metastases
a. Papilloma of the skin
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
c. Adenocarcinoma of the lung
d. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Basal cell carcinoma
99- Pyogenic granuloma is a lesion resembling
a. Capillary hemangioma
b. Foreign body granuloma
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Abscess
a. Capillary hemangioma
100- Tumor characterized by forming nests with central keratin whorls
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Squamous cell papilloma
d. Adenocarcinoma
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
101- Lipoma is characterized by
a. It’s an uncommon tumor presenting as slowly growing mobile mass
b. More common in the retroperitoneum than liposarcoma
c. Appear as well defined non-capsulated yellow tumor grossly
d. Characterized microscopically by lobules of mature fat cells, separated by fibrous septae
d. Characterized microscopically by lobules of mature fat cells, separated by fibrous septae
102- Desmoid tumor is an example of
a. Benign tumor
b. Hamartomas
c. Malignant tumor
d. Fibromatosis
d. Fibromatosis
103- Which is true about melanotic nevus
a. It’s tan to brown small papule
b. It’s benign neoplasm of basal cell layer
c. Commonly become malignant
d. The junctional nevus showed nests of nevus cells in dermis
a. It’s tan to brown small papule
104- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Squamous cell papilloma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
105- Which is true concerning condyloma acuminatum
a. It’s a small, hard mass in the sole of the foot
b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11
c. It’s Large fleshy mass on skin of fingers
d. Occurs commonly on face and back of hand
b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11
106- Which of the following is true about Hashimoto Thyroiditis?
a. Infectious disease
b. There is extensive infiltration of parenchyma by neutrophils
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
d. There is painful enlargement of thyroid gland
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
107- Neuroblastoma
a. Is a tumor of adults.
b. Malignant tumor
c. Secretes catecholamines.
d. Arises from adrenal cortex
b. Malignant tumor
108- Nuclear features are important in diagnosis of
a. Follicular adenoma.
b. Follicular carcinoma
c. Papillary carcinoma.
d. Medullary carcinoma
c. Papillary carcinoma
109- Osteitis fibrosa cystica is related to
a. Hyperparathyroidism.
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Hypothyroidism.
d. Hyperthyroidism
a. Hyperparathyroidism.
110- Main pathogenesis of peripheral neuropathy in diabetes is:
a. Atherosclerosis
b. Capillary microangiopathy
c. Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis
d. Cerebral infarcts
b. Capillary microangiopathy
111- Which of the following is characterized by intense lymphocytic infiltrate:
a. Colloid goiter.
b. Follicular adenoma.
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
d. Riedel thyroiditis.
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
112- Which of the following is true about papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
a. It is an undifferentiated tumor of elderly.
b. It is malignant tumor which arise from C cells.
c. Metastases commonly is via blood stream.
d. Their epithelial cells have pale nuclei with grooving
d. Their epithelial cells have pale nuclei with grooving
113- The following are a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT:
a. Urinary stones.
b. Tetany.
c. Nephrocalcinosis.
d. Osteitis fibrous cystica.
b. Tetany.
114- Presence of vanillylmandelic acid in urine is characteristic of:
a. Neuroblastoma.
b Pheochromocytoma.
c. Adrenal cortical tumor
d. Cushing’s syndrome.
b Pheochromocytoma.
115- The following is true about type I diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:
a. It is an autoimmune disease.
b. It develops in childhood.
c. It is a multifactorial complex disease.
d. There is genetic susceptibility.
c. It is a multifactorial complex disease.
116- Pheochromocytoma arises from:
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Pancreatic beta islets of Langerhans
d. Remnants of Rathke’s pouch
b. Adrenal medulla
117- Riedel thyroiditis:
a. Is a common cause of thyroiditis
b. Clinically simulate thyroid carcinoma
c. Characterized by granulomas formation
d. Shows a fleshy cut section
b. Clinically simulate thyroid carcinoma
118- Grave’s disease is characterized by:
a. Marked thyroid enlargement
b. Nodular outer surface and cut section
c. Follicles are distended with excess colloid
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles
119- Diagnosis of follicular carcinoma is based on detection of:
a. Nuclear clearing and grooving
b. Amyloid formation
c. Capsular and/or vascular invasion
d. Undifferentiated malignant cells, spindle cells and giant cells
c. Capsular and/or vascular invasion
120- As regards medullary carcinoma which of the following statement is true:
a. Arises from C cells
b. Arises from follicular cells
c. Areas of amyloid deposits derived from altered thyroxin are present in stroma
d. May show nuclear clearing and grooving
a. Arises from C cells
121- The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
a. Hyperplasia
b. Adenoma
c. Carcinoma
d. Renal failure
b. Adenoma
122- Which of the following is FALSE about morphological changes occur in the pancreas in diabetes mellitus:
a. Changes are more common in type 2 than type 1
b. Most islets are small and inconspicuous
c. Leukocytic infiltrate is mainly T-cells
d. Amyloid deposition occurs
a. Changes are more common in type 2 than type 1
123- Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomas:
a. Always nonfunctioning
b. Usually multiple
c. Composed of uniform monomorphus cells
d. Microadenomas are more than 1 cm in diameter
c. Composed of uniform monomorphus cells
124- Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomas:
a. Always nonfunctioning
b. Usually multiple
c. Composed of monotonous cells
d. More than 1 cm in diameter
c. Composed of monotonous cells
125- A 35 years old female comes to the hospital with cervical lymph node enlargement, imaging revealed thyroid mass, with clear nuclei and nuclear psudoinclusions. what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Papillary carcinoma
b. Follicular carcinoma
c. Anaplastic carcinoma
d. Medullary carcinoma
a. Papillary carcinoma
126- Which of the following is true about Hashimoto Thyroiditis?
a. Infectious disease
b. There is extensive infilration of parenchyma by neutrophils
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
d. There is painful enlargement of thyroid gland
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
127- Grave’s disease is characterized by
a. Marked thyroid enlargement
b. Nodular outer surface and cut section
c. Follicles are distended with excess colloid
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles
128- The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is
a. Hyperplasia
b. Adenoma
c. Carcinoma
d. Renal failure
b. Adenoma
129- All of the following is true concerning pheochromocytoma except
a. It arises from the suprarenal medulla
b. It secretes calcitonin
c. It causes secondary hypertension
d. The tumor is brown in color with areas of hemorrhage
b. It secretes calcitonin
130- in a case of Hashimoto thyroiditis, of the following, which would histologic examination of the thyroid gland most likely reveal?
a. Granulomas and giant cells
b. Clear nuclei and psamomma bodies
c. Lymphocytic infiltrate and oncocytic change
d. Papillae without fibrovascular cores
c. Lymphocytic infiltrate and oncocytic change
131- A 33-year-old female is having her yearly examination when her primary care physician pal- pates a nodule in her thyroid gland. A subsequent fine needle aspiration reveals cells with grooved nuclei and occasional psammoma bodies. Of the fol- lowing, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Follicular carcinoma
b. Anaplastic carcinoma
c. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
d. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
c. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
132- A female presented with a manifestation of hyperthyroidism followed by hypo thyroid states. A physical examination reveals a tender thyroid gland, what would a histologic examination of the thyroid gland reveal?
a. Papillae
b. Markedly atypical cells
c. Granulomas
d. Foreign material
c. Granulomas
133- Which of the following is the most common etiological factor associated with diabetes mellitus seen in older populations?
a. Smoking
b. Obesity
c. Hypertension
d. Infections
b. Obesity
134- Which of the following is true of papillary thyroid carcinoma?
a. May have psammoma bodies
b. The least common kind of thyroid carcinoma
c. The type of thyroid carcinoma with the worst prognosis
d. arise from C cells
a. May have psammoma bodies
135- Patients with diabetes have an increased risk of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. retinopathy
b. Increased atherosclerosis
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Pancreatic carcinoma
d. Pancreatic carcinoma
136- the following is true about Grave’ s disease
a. The thyroid is nodular
b. It’s an autoimmune disease
c. It leads to destruction of the gland and hypothyroidism
d. It’s precancerous
b. It’s an autoimmune disease
137- Type 1 diabetes
a. Manifests at puberty
b. Manifests in childhood
c. Manifest in adulthood
d. Never progress with age
b. Manifests in childhood
138- Neuropathy in diabetes mellitus is due to:
a. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
b. Accelerated atherosclerosis
c. Infection
d. Microangiopathy
d. Microangiopathy
139- Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomas
a. Always nonfunctioning
b. Usually multiple
c. Composed of monotonous cells
d. More than 1 cm in diameter
c. Composed of monotonous cells
140- Neuroblastoma
a. Benign tumor occurs in young children
b. Yellow brown in color
c. Associated with vanilly mandelic acid secretion in urine
d. Formed of round small blue cells
d. Formed of round small blue cells
141- Which of the following is false about paraganglioma
a. Arises in the adrenal gland
b. Usually benign
c. Secrete catecholamine
d. Well defined in shape which may show areas of hemorrhage
a. Arises in the adrenal gland
142- Which of the following is true about Hashimoto Thyroiditis?
a. Infectious disease
b. There is extensive infiltration of parenchyma by neutrophils
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
d. There is painful enlargement of thyroid gland
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
143- Grave’s disease is characterized by
a. Marked thyroid enlargement
b. Nodular outer surface and cut section
c. Folicles are distended with excess colloid
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles
144- Diagnosis of follicular carcinoma is based on detection of
a. Nuclear clearing and grooving
b. Amyloid formation
c. Capsular and/or vascular invasion
d. Undifferentiated malignant cells, spindle cells and giant cells
145- The following condition forms a breast mass that may be
histologically mistaken for a tumor:
a. Traumatic fat necrosis
b. Apocrine metaplasia
c. Usual ductal hyperplasia
d. Adenosis
a. Traumatic fat necrosis
146- The following is TRUE about Sclerosing adenosis:
a. It never accompanies fibrocystic disease
b. It is considered to be a low-grade adenocarcinoma
c. It is adenosis with extensive stromal fibrosis that compress and distorts the lobules of the breast giving
a false impression of invasive carcinoma
d. It is adenosis with excess fatty stroma showing fat necrosis and sclerosis
c. It is adenosis with extensive stromal fibrosis that compress and distorts the lobules of the breast giving
147- These tumors are benign epithelial tumors of the breast EXCEPT:
a. Fibroadenoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Benign phylloides tumor
d. Duct papilloma
b. Pleomorphic adenomab.
148- ….is NOT one of the risk factors of breast cancer:
a. Hyperestrinism
b. Fibrocystic disease with florid ductal hyperplasia
c. Multiple duct papillomas with atypia
d. Apocrine metaplasia
d. Apocrine metaplasia
149- Paget’s disease of the breast:
a. Is an autoimmune reaction against Paget’s antigen
b. Show skin changes including BOTH peaud’orange and nipple ulceration
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
d. Is always associated with inflammatory carcinoma
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
150- A 20-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound shows a dilated endometrial cavity. Evacuation of the uterus by suction curettage reveals grape like clusters and fetal parts. Cytogenetic examination of this tissue will most likely demonstrate which of the following genetic patterns?
a. Triploid
b. Euploid
c. Diploid
d. Aneuploid
a. Triploid
151- Which of the following ĮS NOT a complication of puerperal sepsis:
a. Septicemia
b. Septic thrombophelibitis
c. Infertility
d. Endometrial carcinoma
d. Endometrial carcinoma
152- Theca cell Tumor (thecoma/fibroma) is:
a. Malignant in more than 95% of cases.
b. It mostly occurs in young women
c. Always well defined cystic mass grossly
d. The tumor may produce estrogen
d. The tumor may produce estrogen
153- A 29 year old woman presents with severe pain during menstruatior (dysmenorrhea). During work up, an endometrial biopsy is obtained. The pathology report from this specimen makes the
diagnosis of chronic endometritis. Which of the following cells is reported for diagnosis of chronic endometritis in endometrial biopsy:
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Plasma cells
d. Decidualized stromal cells
c. Plasma cells
154- Which of the following is the most common histologic type of cervical cancer
a. Adenosquamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenoacanthoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
155- Which of the following is NOT TRUE about endometrial hyperplasia:
a. It is less common in females around menopause
b. It is precancerous
c. It can be associated with polycystic ovaries
d. It can be complicated with abnormal uterine bleeding
a. It is less common in females around menopause
156- Which of the following ovarian tumors can be bilateral:
a. Serous cystadenoma
b. Krukenberg tumor
c. Ovarian carcinoma
d. All of the above
a. Serous cystadenoma
157- Which of the following is true about choriocarcinoma
a. It mostly arise from progression of partial vesicular mole
b. Serum HCG level is mildly elevated
c. It has excellent prognosis with recent chemotherapy regimens
d. It is composed microscopically cytotrophoblasts anaplastic syncytiotrophoblasts together with chorionic villi and
c. It has excellent prognosis with recent chemotherapy regimens
158- Which of the following is true about Condyloma accuminata of the vulva:
a. It is precancerous
b. Koilocytosis is not evident
c. It is caused by HPV 16 and 18
d. It may arise as single or multiple papillary lesions
d. It may arise as single or multiple papillary lesions
159- Which of the following is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy:
a. Ovary
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Douglas pouch
b. Fallopian tubes
160- Which of the following mammary neoplasms has the highest incidence of bilaterality:
a. Lobular carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Paget’s disease
d. Apocrine carcinoma
a. Lobular carcinoma
161- Strüma ovarii is a:
a. Type of mature cystic teratoma
b. Type of immature cystic teratoma
c. Type of malignant cystic teratoma
d. Tumor - like lesion with excess formation of ovarian stroma
a. Type of mature cystic teratoma
162- A 36-year-old woman cervical biopsy shows dysplastic squamous throughout cells full thickness epithelium, with intact basement membrane. What is appropriate diagnosis?
a. Squamous metaplasia of the transformation zone,
b. Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
c. CIN-1 (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 1, Mild dysplasia).
d. CIN-3 (Carcinoma in situ, Severe dysplasia).
d. CIN-3 (Carcinoma in situ, Severe dysplasia).
163- The diagnosis of chronic endometritis rests on the presence of these cells within the endometrium.
a. Neutrophils.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Lymphoid follicles.
d. Plasma cells.
d. Plasma cells
164- The endometrial carcinoma caused prolonged unopposed estrogen stimulation is:
a. Endomerioid adenocarcinoma
b. Clear cell carcinoma
c. Serous carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
a. Endomerioid adenocarcinoma
165- A 25-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain, fever vaginal and discharge. Pelvic examination reveals the bilateral adnexal pain. Cultures taken from vaginal discharge grow Neisseria
gonorrhoeae. What is your diagnosis of the cause of this patient’s adnexal pain?
a. b. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Endometriosis
c. Luteoma of pregnancy
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
166- Pseudomyxomaperitonei is most likely to be associated with:
a. Brenner tumor of the ovary
b. Serous tumors of the ovary.
c. Mucinous tumor of the ovary
d. Chocolate cyst.
c. Mucinous tumor of the ovary
167- Which of the following provides the best serologic marker to Diagnose and monitor the course of yolk sac tumor:
a. Alkaline phosphatase.
b. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
c. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)\
b. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
168- The most likely diagnosis of type of hydatidiform mole with no fetal parts is:
a. Partial hydatidiform mole
b. Complete hydatidiform mole
c. choriocarcinoma
d. Placental site trophoblastic tumor.
b. Complete hydatidiform mole
169- Gestational Choriocarcinoma characterized by the following except:
a. It is rare, mostly arise from progression of complete mole
b. The tumor is composed of anaplastic cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with chorionic villi.
c. Serum HCG is markedly elevated
d. It has excellent response with recent chemotherapy regimens.
b. The tumor is composed of anaplastic cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with chorionic villi.
170- Which of the following is a cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB):
a. Failure of ovulation
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Uterine liomyoma
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
a. Failure of ovulation
171- Which of the following is not a feature of endometrial hyperplasia:
a. Mutations in PTEN are found in all of endometrial hyperplasia
b. The recent World Health Organization (WHO) classification recommends two categories.
c. It is complicated by abnormal uterine bleeding
d. Atypical hyperplasia has risk of progression to endometrial cancer
a. Mutations in PTEN are found in all of endometrial hyperplasia
172- Ovarian granulosa cell tumor is:
a. Benign tumors.
b. Presented as cyst.
c. Cells are arranged in micro follicular pattern (Call-Exner bodies)
d. Functional and produce HCG.
c. Cells are arranged in micro follicular pattern (Call-Exner bodies)
173- What is true about phyllodes tumor:
a. Large monophasic tumor.
b. The stroma organized in leaf-like pattern around benign epithelial/myoepithelial lined spaces.
c. Most tumors are malignant
d. The high number of mitosis in epithelial component indicate malignancy in this tumor.
b. The stroma organized in leaf-like pattern around benign epithelial/myoepithelial lined spaces.
174- What is true about the prognostic factors of breast carcinoma:
a. ER positive tumors have worse prognosis than ER negative negative tumors.
b. HER2/neu positive tumors are aggressive.
c. Tubular carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, mucinous carcinoma are of bad prognosis
d. Breast carcinoma during pregnancy or lactation is less aggressive
b. HER2/neu positive tumors are aggressive.
175- Paget’s disease of the breast:
a. Is an autoimmune reaction against Paget’s antigen.
b. Show skin changes including both peaud’orange and nipple ulceration
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
d. Is always associated with inflammatory carcinoma.
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
176- Changes of fibrocystic disease of the breast is not associated with increased risk of carcinoma except:
a. Fibrosis.
b. Cyst formation.
c. Atypical ductal hyperplasia.
d. Mild ductal hyperplasia.
c. Atypical ductal hyperplasia.
177- Gynecomastia is:
a. Pathological condition
b. Always unilateral.
c. May be caused by excess estrogen.
d. It is a precancerous lesion.
c. May be caused by excess estrogen.
178- The following is not a cause of bleeding per nipple:
a. Duct papilloma.
b. Duct carcinoma.
c. Mammary hyperplasia.
d. Fat necrosis.
d. Fat necrosis.
179- Pseudomyxoma peritonei is most likely to be associated with:
a) Clear cell tumor of the kidney
b) Cystic tumor of the gallbladder
c) Mucinous tumor of the ovary
d) Serous tumor of the ovary.
c) Mucinous tumor of the ovary
180- Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor) is:
a) A benign germ cell tumor of young women.
b) Associated with elevated serum level of alpha fetoprotein (AFP).
c) Composed of trophoblast and cytotrophoblasts
d) Associated with estrogen production
b) Associated with elevated serum level of alpha fetoprotein (AFP).
181- Metastatic ovarian tumors are:
a) Rare ovarian tumors
b) Called Krukenberg tumors
c) Unilateral tumors composed of mucin secreting cells. kcera
d) The most common sources of ovarian metastases are liver and brain
b) Called Krukenberg tumors
182- Multiple small mucinous cysts of the endocervix that result from blockage of endocervical glands by overlying squamous metaplastic epithelium are called:
a) Bartholin’s cysts
b) Chocolate cysts
c) Follicular cysts
d) Nabothian cysts
d) Nabothian cysts
183- Which of the following is TRUE about adult polycystic kidney?
a. Kidney shows smooth outer surface.
b. It is due to autosomal recessive anomaly.
c. The cysts are communicating with renal pelvis.
d. It is due to failure of fusion of convoluted and collecting tubules.
d. It is due to failure of fusion of convoluted and collecting tubules.
184- Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is due to:
a. Blood-borne infection.
b. Ascending infection.
c. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli.
d. Autoimmune reaction.
c. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli.
185- Epithelial crescents are characteristic of:
a. Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis.
b. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
c. Membranous glomerulonephritis.
d. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
b. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
186- Fusion of the foot processes of the podocytes is characteristic of:
a. Acute diffuse proliferative GN.
b. Rapidly progressive GN.
c. Membranoproliferative GN.
d. Minimal change disease.
d. Minimal change disease.
187- Gross features of the kidneys in chronic glomerulonephritis include all EXCEPT:
a. Both kidneys are contracted.
b. Contraction of the kidneys is asymmetrical.
c. Outer surface is granular.
d. Loss of differentiation between cortex and medulla.
b. Contraction of the kidneys is asymmetrical.
188- The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adult is:
a. Acute diffuse proliferative.
b. Minimal change disease.
c. Membranous nephropathy.
d. Rapidly progressive GN.
c. Membranous nephropathy.
189- In acute ischemic tubular necrosis:
a. The kidneys are swollen and Pale.
b. The tubular necrosis is diffuse.
c. The tubules show disruption of basement membrane.
d. The distal tubules show casts.
a. The kidneys are swollen and Pale.
190- Factors predisposing to pyelonephritis include all EXCEPT:
a. Urinary tract obstruction.
b. Urinary tract instrumentation.
c. Hypertension.
d. Diabetes.
c. Hypertension.
191- The following type of renal stones is multiple and spiky:
a. Oxalate stones.
b. Urate Stones.
c. Phosphate stones.
d. Cystine stones
a. Oxalate stones.
192- Which is TRUE about renal cell carcinoma:
a. It is commonly affect children.
b. The cells contain mucin.
c. It is usually occurs as multiple bilateral lesions.
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein.
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein.
193- Bilharzial urothelial precancerous lesions include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Cystitis cystica.
b. Cystitis glandularis
c. Dysplasia.
d. Leukoplakia
a. Cystitis cystica.
194- Urothelial carcinoma in situ is
a. Precancerous lesion
b. Flat non invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells
c. Flat invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells
d. Papillary non invasive tumor
b. Flat non invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells
195- Chronic bladder infection with Schistosoma hematobium usually causes
a. Invasive urothelial carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Papillary urothelial carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
196- Chronic specific orchitis includes:
a. Mumps orchitis
b. Idiopathic granulomatous orchitis
c. Gonococcal orchitis
d. Chlamydia infection
b. Idiopathic granulomatous orchitis
197- Which is true about classic seminoma?
a. It is the commonest testicular germ cell tumor in males above 60 years
b. It is a malignant tumor
c. It secretes androgens
d. It stains positive for alpha feto protein
b. It is a malignant tumor
198- Benign prostatic hyperplasia usually arises in
a. Transitional zone.
b. Peripheral zone
c. Central zone.
d. Anterior zone
a. Transitional zone.
199- Electron microscopy finding that is characteristic of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
a. diffuse foot processes effacement
b. segmental foot processes effacement
c. double contours of glomerular basement membrane
d. Sub-epithelial humps
d. Sub-epithelial humps
200-Which is true about minimal change disease:
a. The glomeruli show ed endothelial and mesangial proliferation
b. There is diffuse GBM deposits of C3 in immunofluorescence
c. The glomeruli showed diffuse foot processes effacement in electron microscopy
d. It is one of the common causes of nephritic syndrome
c. The glomeruli showed diffuse foot processes effacement in electron microscopy
201- Histologic features of chronic glomerulonephritis include:
a. Fibrosis of glomeruli
b. Thick walled blood vessels
c. Atrophy of tubules
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
202- Gross features of chronic pyelonephritis include all the following EXCEPT:
a. the kidney is asymmetrically contracted
b. renal capsule strips easily
c. dilated calyces with purulent lining
d. non-demarcated corticomedullary differentiation
b. renal capsule strips easily
203-The following type of renal stone commonly cause hematuria:
a. Cysteine stone
b. Phosphate stone
c. Oxalate stone
d. Urate stone
c. Oxalate stone
204- All are TRUE about renal cell carcinoma EXCEPT :
a. Commonly affects renal poles
b. Usually multiple
c. Have a characteristic golden-yellow color in cut sections
d. Commonly has areas of hemorrhage and necrosis
b. Usually multiple
205- Wilm’s tumor is characterized by:
a. Usually affects adults
b. Presents with a small mass
c. Formed of 3 histologic components
d. Does not spread to para-aortic lymph nodes
c. Formed of 3 histologic components
206- Acute renal failure may occur in all the following EXCEPT:
a. Crescentic glomerulonephrilis.
b. acute tubular necrosis
c. poly cystic kidney disease.
d. complete obstruction of urinary Flow
c. poly cystic kidney disease.
207- Accumulation of serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis:
a. Hydrocele.
b. Testicular torsion
c. Spermatocele
d. Varicocele
a. Hydrocele
208- Which of the following statements concerning the benign prostatic hyperplasia is TRUE?
a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.
b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.
c. Affects young males
d. The hyperplastic glands lined by single cell layer.
b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.
209- Which of the following statements concerning the prostatic cancer is TRUE?
a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.
b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.
c. Affects young males
d. The glands lined by double cell layer.
a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.
210- All the following statements are True regarding the congenital diverticula of urinary bladder EXCEPT:
a. it is usually single
b. Formed of all layers of urinary bladder.
c. Formed only of mucosa.
d. Urinary tract obstruction is causative factor.
c. Formed only of mucosa.
211- Which of the following statements concerning the papillary urothelial tumors of urinary bladder is it TRUE?
a. 20% of bladder cancer
b. Developed on top of squamous metaplasia
c. The extent of invasion is the most important prognostic factor
d. arise from urachal remnants
c. The extent of invasion is the most important prognostic factor
212- All the Following statements are True regarding the cryptorchidism EXCEPT:
a. failure of testicular descent to scrotum.
b. The exact cause unknown.
c. Sterility if bilateral.
d. No risk for testicular cancer
d. No risk for testicular cancer
213- Tuberculous epididymitis results from:
a. Direct spread.
b. Primary infection
c. Lymphatic spread.
d. Blood spread
d. Blood spread
219- The following disease is diagnosed only by electron microscopy:
a. Acute diffuse proliferative GN
b. Rapidly progressive GN
c. Membranoproliferative GN
d. Minimal change GN
d. Minimal change GN
220- Which is TRUE about acute pyelonephritis?
a. Mostly caused by gram-positive bacilli (E. coli)
b. Ascending infection is the most common cause
c. Hematogenous infection is the most common cause
d. May be complicated by hydronephrosis
b. Ascending infection is the most common cause
221- Which is TRUE about renal cell carcinomak?
a. It is commonly affect children
b. The cells contain mucin
c. It is usually occurs as multiple bilateral lesions.
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein
222- which is true about an nephroblastoma (Wilm’s tumour)?
a. in Most of the cases (90%) in is bilateral
b. It has greyish yellow cut section
c. The tumour cells are clear and arranged in solid sheets
d. It may show areas of cartilage or bone
d. It may show areas of cartilage or bone
223- Which of the following is non germ cell tumor?
a. Seminoma.
b. teratoma
c. Sertoli cell tumor.
d. Yolk sac tumor
c. Sertoli cell tumor.
224- Prostatic hyperplasia is characterized by?
a. It occurs in young age
b. It affects the peripheral prostate tissue
c. The nodules show variable proporion of proliferating glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma
d. The prostate size is not affected
c. The nodules show variable proporion of proliferating glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma
225- The following tumor characierized by uniform polyhedron clear cells with large central nuclei with prominent nucleolus and the stroma rich in lymphocytes:
a. Teratoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma
c. Classic Seminoma.
d. Yolk sac
c. Classic Seminoma.
226- Gleason grading system is used for grading of.
a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Carcinoma of the prostate
c. Carcinoma of urinary bladder
d. Carcinoma of the prostatic urethra
b. Carcinoma of the prostate
227- The following condition is a risk factor of Testicular cancer:
a. Bilharzial orchitis
b. Mumps orchitis
c. Syphilitic orchitis
d. Cryptorchidism
d. Cryptorchidism
228- What is the most common risk actor contributing to the development of urothelial carcinoma?
a. HPV infection
b. Cyclophosphamide treatment
c. Irradiation
d. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Schistosoma haematobium
229- The majority of urinary bladder carcinomas are:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Solid (non-papillary) urothelial carcinoma
c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma
230- The following are complications of chronic cystitis:
a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Painless hematuria
c. Pyelonephritis
231- Which of the following features is FALSE regarding nephritic syndrome?
a- Gross hematuria
b- Hypertension
c- Heavy proteinuria
d- Oliguria
c- Heavy proteinuria
232- Which of the following is non-germ cell tumor
a- Leydig cell tumor
c- Yolk sac tumor
b- Choriocarcinoma
d- Teratoma
a- Leydig cell tumor
233- Infantile polycystic kidney is characterized by:
a- Is relatively common affecting about 1: 1000
b- Associated with congenital cystic liver
c- Autosomal recessive
d- Usually affects one kidney
c- Autosomal recessive
234- Which of the following statements is FALSE as regards ischemic acute tubular necrosis
a- Short lengths of the tubules are affected
b- Tubular necrosis is diffuse
c- Distal tubules show casts
d- Tubular cells are flattened and vacuolated
b- Tubular necrosis is diffuse
235- Nephrotic syndrome characterized by all EXCEPT:
a. Heavy proteinuria
b. Edema
c. Hyperlipidemia.
d. Hematuria.
d. Hematuria.
236- Accumulation of blood in the tunica vaginalis is called:
a. Hydrocele
b. Varicocele
c. Chylocele
d. Hematocele
237- Prostatic adenocarcinoma usually arises in:
a. Transitional zone
b. Peripheral zone
c. Central zone
d. Anterior zone
b. Peripheral zone
238- Prostatic granulomas may be due to:
a. E.Coli
b. Gonococci
c. Tuberculosis bacilli
d. Staphylococci
c. Tuberculosis bacilli
239- Corpora Amylacea:
a. Seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Inspissated intratesticular luminal secretions
c. Hallmark of prostatic carcinoma
d. May cause hematuria
a. Seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia
240- Which is true about Gleason grading system
a. Based on degree of cytological atypia
b. Is used for urothelial carcinoma grading
c. Is graded from 1 to 5
d. Usually one pattern is present
c. Is graded from 1 to 5
241- Primary Varicocele:
a. More common on the right side
b. May be due to testicular vein obstruction
c. May affect the fertility
d. A disease of elderly
c. May affect the fertility
242- Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
a. Proteinuria
b. Lipiduria
c. Hematuria
d. hypoalbuminemia
c. Hematuria
243- The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is
a. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
b. Goodpasture syndrome
c. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
d. Ig A nephropathy
a. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
244- Causes of acute renal failure include
a. Amyloidosis
b. Polycystic kidney
c. Calculous anuria
d. Diabetes mellitus
c. Calculous anuria
245- The vacuolated cytoplasm in cells of hypernephroma is due to
a. Lipids
b. Water
c. Glycogen
d. Mucin
a. Lipids
246- Which statement is true about renal stones?
a. Most affected patients are females
b. More common in children
c. May be hereditary
d. Stones are bilateral in 80% of cases
c. May be hereditary
247- Acute cystitis shows all the following except
a. Contracted bladder
b. Mucosal hyperemia
c. Exudate
d. Neutrophilic infiltrate
a. Contracted bladder
248- Bilharzial urothelial precancerous lesions include all the following EXCEPT
a. Leukoplakia
b. Cystitis glandularis
c. Squamous metaplasia
d. Urothelial carcinoma
d. Urothelial carcinoma
249- Serum level of alpha fetoprotein is elevated in
a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Seminoma
d. Sertoli cell tumor
b. Yolk sac tumor
250- The commonest testicular germ cell tumor in young males is
a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Seminoma
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Teratoma
b. Seminoma
251- Increased alkalinity of urine leads to which of the following renal stones?
a. Cysteine
b. Triple phosphate stones
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Uric acid
b. Triple phosphate stones
252- Which statement is true about nephroblastoma?
a. Most cases are bilateral
b. Forms large well circumscribed mass
c. Characterized by yellow grey cut section
d. Most common primary renal tumor in adults
b. Forms large well circumscribed mass
253- Lymphatic obstruction by filariasis can cause
a. Hematocele
b. Varicocele
c. Chylocele
d. Diverticulitis
c. Chylocele
254- Microscopic picture of ulcerative colitis in its active phase shows all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Mucosal inflammation,
b. Crypt abscesses
c. Granulomas.
d. Loss of goblet cells.
c. Granulomas.
255- Which of the following is the diagnosis of a gastric ulcer described as single, small, round, with terraced edges, smooth floor, & microscopically showing necrotic tissue with polymorphs, granulation tissue & fibrosis:
a. Malignant ulcer
b. Peptic ulcer
c. Tuberculous ulcer
d. GIST
b. Peptic ulcer
256- Leukoplakia of the tongue is:
a. An ulcer.
b. An adenocarcinoma.
c. A squamous cell carcinoma
d. A precancerous lesion.
d. A precancerous lesion.
257- The following is true about amebic dysentery:
a. The colon shows flask shaped ulcers with healthy mucosa in between
b. It is caused by Shigella bacilli
c. It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
d. There is no blood in stools.
a. The colon shows flask shaped ulcers with healthy mucosa in between
258- Celiac disease is:
a. Congenital absence of the ganglionic cells in the myenteric plexus of the intestine at the
b. recto-sigmoid junction causing constipation
c. Hypersensitivity reaction to a protein in wheat, Characterized by total villous atrophy of small intestine & malabsorption
d. Malabsorption due to chronic intestinal bacterial infection Characterized by partial villous atrophy of small intestine remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct forming a Tubular blind pouch on antimesenteric border of small intestine
c. Hypersensitivity reaction to a protein in wheat, Characterized by total villous atrophy of small intestine & malabsorption
259- The following is true about carcinoma of the stomach:
a. H pylori is a predisposing factor.
b. It is classified as intestinal type adenocarcinoma & diffuse type carcinoma
c. It is classified as early or advanced
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
260- Liver steatosis is commonly seen in:
a. Hepatitis A.
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.
c. Hepatitis C.
261- The following is true about hepatocellular carcinoma:
a. It is more common in females
b. It is an adenocarcinoma
c. Intracytoplasmic bile may be present.
d. It shows marked (fibrosis).
c. Intracytoplasmic bile may be present.
262- In liver cirrhosis, liver decreases in size EXCEPT in:
a. Post-hepatitic cirrhosis.
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Post-necrotic cirrhosis.
d. Alcoholic cirrhosis.
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
263- All the following is true about acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis EXCEPT:
a. Causes include Gall stone obstructing the ampulla of Vater
b. Causes include alcohol abuse.
c. Serum amylase is decreased
d. Complications include pancreatic pseudocyst formation.
c. Serum amylase is decreased
264- Which of the following is true about typical carcinoid tumor?
a. Microscopically, tumor cells have signet ring appearance
b. It is neuroendocrine in origin
c. High incidence of distant metastasis
d. Stomach is the most common site
b. It is neuroendocrine in origin
265- Which of the following is the most common salivary gland tumor?
a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Warthin tumor
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
266- Gross picture of Crohn’s disease shows:
a. Fissuring ulcers.
b. Cobble stone appearance.
c. Stricture.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
267- The following is true about Barrett’s esophagus:
a. It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma.
b. It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
c. Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus
d. Microscopically, it is formed of squamous epithelium,
b. It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
268- Esophageal atresia is defined as:
a. Failure of embryological canalization of the esophagus.
b. Loss of contractility and failure of relaxation of LES
c. Protrusion of the upper part of the stomach into the thorax via the diaphragmatic orifice.
d. Dilated congested tortuous submucosal veins in the lower esophagus, due to portal hypertension.
a. Failure of embryological canalization of the esophagus
269- The following type of gall stones are usually multiple, 1-1.5 cm in diameter, soft-firm, with faceted surfaces, their cut section is laminated & radiopaque on X-ray:
a. Cholesterol
b. Pigment
c. Mixed
d. Calcium carbonate
c. Mixed
270- Achalasia of the esophagus means:
a. An outpouching of the wall of the esophagus
b. Failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
c. Failure of embryological canalisation of the esophagus.
d. Intestinal metaplasia in the lower end of the esophagus
b. Failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
271- Pleomorphic adenoma is characterized by the following:
a. It is a malignant tumor of salivary glands
b. It has common recurrence after surgical excision
c. Its commonest site is the submandibular gland
d. It is also called adenolymphoma
b. It has common recurrence after surgical excision
272- H pylori infection is a risk factor for the following:
a. Chronic gastritis.
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Gastric lymphoma
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
273- All of the following is true about diffuse gastric carcinoma EXCEPT:
a. The stomach has a leather bottle appearance
b. It has an infiltrative growth pattern.
c. It occurs as an exophytic fungating mass
d. It is formed of dyscohesive signet ring cells.
c. It occurs as an exophytic fungating mass
274- Congenital absence of ganglionic cells in rectosigmoid junction occurs in:
a. Carcinoid syndrome
b. Familial adenomatous polyposis.
c. Hirschsprung’s disease.
d. Zollinger Ellison syndrome.
c. Hirschsprung’s disease.
275- Volvulus occurs most often in:
a. Sigmoid colon.
b. Transverse colon.
c. Ascending colon
d. Descending colon
a. Sigmoid colon.
276- Flask-shaped colonic ulcer is pathognomonic in:
a. Typhoid fever
b. Bacillary dysentery
c. Amoebic dysentery
d. Adenocarcinoma
c. Amoebic dysentery
277- Ulcerative colitis is characterized grossly by presence of:
a. Skip lesions
b. Serpentine ulcers
c. Pseudopolyps.
d. Deep fissures and fistula tracts.
c. Pseudopolyps.
278- Which of the following colonic polyps is precancerous?
a. Juvenile polyp.
b. Adenomatous polyp
c. Hyperplastic polyp
d. Bilharzial polyp
b. Adenomatous polyp
279- Which of the following hepatitis viruses may predispose to fulminant hepatitis during pregnancy?
a. HBV.
b. HCV.
c. HDV.
d. HEV
d. HEV
280- Regarding liver cirrhosis, all of the following is true EXCEPT:
a. The color of the liver is yellow in nutritional cirrhosis
b. The liver is formed of regenerating nodules surrounded by fibrous septae.
c. The size of the liver is always increased
d. In Primary biliary cirhosis serum antimitochondrial antibodies are detected.
c. The size of the liver is always increased
281- Microscopic picture of chronic viral hepatitis shows:
a. Inflammation.
b. Necrosis
c. Fibrosis
d. All of the above
282- Hepatic steatosis is commonly seen in:
a. Hepatitis A.
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.
d. Hepatitis E.
283- 40 years old lady suffering from obesity presents with right hypochondrial pain.US examination reveal multiple gall bladder stones. Which type of stones is most commonly seen:
a. Cholesterol stones
b. Pigment stones
c. Mixed stones
d. Calcium carbonate stones
a. Cholesterol stones
284- Acute pancreatitis is characterized by the following:
a. Alcohol & gall stones are the most common causes
b. Serum amylase & lipase are decreased
c. It results in hypercalcemia
d. Death always occurs.
a. Alcohol & gall stones are the most common causes
285- Councilman bodies are found:
a- Wilson’s disease
b- Autoimmune hepatitis.
c- Acute viral hepatitis.
d- Alcoholic hepatitis.
c- Acute viral hepatitis.
286- Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of squamous carcinoma of the tongue:
a- Leukoplakia
b-Tobacco chewing.
c- Human papilloma virus HPV 16 & 18.
d- Epstein barr virus infection
d- Epstein barr virus infection
287- Pleomorphic Adenoma of salivary glands is
a- Locally malignant tumor.
b- Formed of mixture of epithelial and myoepithelial cells.
c- Completely capsulated
d- May undergo malignant transformation
d- May undergo malignant transformation
288- The nature of lesion in Barrett’s oesophagus is:
a- Congenital anomaly.
b- Inflammatory disease
c- Metaplastic process
d- Neoplastic lesion
c- Metaplastic process
289- The most common site for peptic ulcers is:
a- Stomach.
b- 1st part of the duodenum
c- Distal part of duodenum.
d- Lower esophagus
b- 1st part of the duodenum
290- Signet ring carcinoma of the stomach:
a- Characterized by excess extracellular mucin.
b- Presented grossly as linitis plastica.
c- Is intestinal type adenocarcinoma of the stomach,
d- Has definite precursor lesion.
b- Presented grossly as linitis plastica.
291- Ulcerated peyer’s patches are seen in the following disease:
a- Amoebiasis
b- Shigellosis.
c- Typhoid fever.
d- Bilharziasis.
c- Typhoid fever.
292- Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome is:
a- Neoplastic polyposis syndrome
b- Doesn’t associated extraintestinal manifestations
c- Associated with decreased risk of several malignancies
d- Hamartomatous polyposis syndrome
d- Hamartomatous polyposis syndrome
293- Which of the following is a cause of Melena:
a- Colonic polyps.
b- Piles (hemorrhoids)
c- Peptic ulcers,
d- Ankylostomiasis.
c- Peptic ulcers,
294-The following hepatotropic virus is a DNA virus:
a- HAV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- HEV
b- HBV
295- Primary billiary cirrhosis has the following features EXCEPT:
a- Serum anti-mitochondrial antibodies are detected In 95% of cases.
b- Micronodular cirrhosis
c- The condition is more common in men.
d- The disease has autoimmune origin.
c- The condition is more common in men.
296- Risk factors implicated in the etiology of cholesterol gallstones include the following EXCEPT:
a- Hypercholesterolemia
b- Obesity.
c. Haemolytic anaemia.
d- Diabetes.
c. Haemolytic anaemia.
297- One of the following is true for classic hepatocellular carcinoma:
a-Found in young
b- Not preceded by cirrhosis
c- The most common primary liver malignancy
d- Good prognosis than fibrolamellar HCC
c- The most common primary liver malignancy
298- All are true about acute pancreatitis EXCEPT:
a- An acute medical emergency.
b- Marked elevation of serum amylase.
c- Death due to shock.
d- Hypercalcemia.
d- Hypercalcemia.
299- Majority of pancreatic cancers arise in:
a- The body of the gland.
b- The head of the gland.
c- The tail of the gland.
d-All of the above.
b- The head of the gland.
300- The following is NOT a predisposing factor for hepatocellular carcinoma
a- Aflatoxin.
b- Hepatitis C virus infection,
c- Hepatitis B virus infection.
d- Smoking.
d- Smoking.
301- The major site of Peptic Ulcer Disease is:
a- The ileum.
b- The duodenum.
c- The jejunum.
d- ‘The caecum.
b- The duodenum.
302- The following is true about bacillary dysentery:
a- The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,
b- It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica
c- It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
d- There is no blood in stools.
c- It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
303- Juvenile polyp of the colon is:
a- A hamartomatous polyp,
b- A bilharzial polyp.
c- A carcinoma
d- An adenoma.
a- A hamartomatous polyp
304- The following is true about Barrett’s esophagus:
a- It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma
b- It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),
c- Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus
d- Microscopically, it is formed of squamous epithelium.
b- It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),
305- Causes of hematemesis include all of the following EXCEPT:
a- Esophageal varices
b- Peptic ulcer disease
c- Carcinoma of the colon.
d- Gastric tumors
c- Carcinoma of the colon.
306- The following is true about carcinoma of the tongue:
a- Leukoplakia is a predisposing factor.
b- Commonest site is anterior 2/3 of the tongue
c- It is a squamous cell carcinoma.
d-All of the above
d-All of the above
307- Ground glass appearance of hepatocytes is commonly seen in:
a- Hepatitis A.
b- Hepatitis B.
c- Hepatitis C.
d- Hepatitis E.
b- Hepatitis B.
308- The principal cell type involved in scar deposition in the liver is:
a- Hepatic sinusoidal endothelial cells.
b- Hepatic stellate cells,
c- Kupffer cells.
d- Hepatocytes
b- Hepatic stellate cells,
309- All the following is true about Cholangiocarcinoma EXCEPT
a. It is more common in females
b. It forms single or multiple masses grossly
c. It shows bile secretion.
d. It is an adenocarcinoma.
c. It shows bile secretion.
310- Ulcerative colitis:
a. It is an autoimmune reaction resulting firom eating gluten
b. Is characterized by inflammation of all layers of the colon
c. Affects the ileum and colon
d. Is characterized by bloody mucoid diarrhea
d. Is characterized by bloody mucoid diarrhea
311- The following is true about Amebic dysentery:
a. It is caused by Shigella organism
b. It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
c. The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,
d. There is no blood in stools.
c. The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,
312- The part of the colon which is more prone to volvulus is:
a. Cecum
b. Ascending colon.
c. Descending colon
d. Sigmoid
d. Sigmoid
313- The following is true about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD):
a. It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma
b. It is the protrusion of part of the stomach into the thorax.
c. It can complicate by Barrett’s esophagus
d. Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus
c. It can complicate by Barrett’s esophagus
314- Causes of Melena include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Esophageal varices
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Carcinoma of the colon
d. Gastric tumors
c. Carcinoma of the colon
315- The major site of Peptic Ulcer Disease is:
a. The ileum.
b. The duodenum
c. The jejunum
d. The caecum
b. The duodenum
316- The following is true about salivary glands tumors:
a. Up to 80% occur in the parotids
b. Benign tumors are more common than malignant ones.
c. Pleomorphic adenoma is the commonest.
d. All ofthe above.
d. All ofthe above.
317- Steatosis of hepatocytes is commonly seen in:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.
c. Hepatitis C.
318- The following is true about gall stones:
a. Cholesterol stones are dark blackish
b. Pigment stones are the commonest type
c. Mixed stones are always single.
d. They predispose to cholecystitis
d. They predispose to cholecystitis
319- All the following is true about hepatocellular carcinoma EXCEPT:
a. It is more common in females
b. The malignant cells are arranged in trabeculae that are one cell thick.
c. It shows bile secretion
d. It is an adenocarcinoma arising from bile ducts.
c. It shows bile secretion
320- Which of the following is characterized microscopically by intestinal metaplasia?
a- Barrett’s esophagus
b- Acute esophagitis
c- Esophageal diverticulum
d- Achalasia
a- Barrett’s esophagus
321- The most common cause of chronic gastritis is:
a- Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
b- Helicobacter pylori infection
c- Chronic stress
d- Autoantibodies against parietal cells
b- Helicobacter pylori infection
322- Complications of duodenal peptic ulcer do NOT include:
a- Bleeding
b- Perforation
c- Fibrosis and stricture
d- Malignant transformation
d- Malignant transformation
323- Crohn’s disease is characterized by:
a- Pseudomembranous colitis
b- Rectal ulcers and pseudopolyps
c- Skip lesions and serpentine ulcers
d- Flask shaped ulcers in colonic mucosa
c- Skip lesions and serpentine ulcers
324- Which of the following is a predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue?
a-HPV6 & 11
b- Leukoplakia
c- Primary syphilis
d- HIV
b- Leukoplakia
325- Which of the following is considered a hamartomatous intestinal polyp?
a- Peutz-Jeghers polyp
b- Tubular adenoma
c- Bilharzial polyp
d- Villous adenoma
a- Peutz-Jeghers polyp
326- Acute viral hepatitis is:
a. Characterized by dense portal fibrosis
b. Commonly caused by HAV
c. Characterized by shrunken liver
d. Usually associated with interface hepatitis
b. Commonly caused by HAV
327- Which of the following is a metabolic cause of liver cirrhosis?
a- Budd-Chiari syndrome
b- Laennec’s cirrhosis
c- Wilson’s disease
d- Cryptogenic cirrhosis
c- Wilson’s disease
328- The most common site of pancreatic carcinoma is:
a- Head of pancreas
b- Pancreatic tail
c- Main pancreatic duct
d- Body of the pancreas
a- Head of pancreas
329- Acute allergic rhinitis, is an immune reaction mediated by:
a. IgG.
b. IgE.
c. Ig M.
d. None of the above
b. IgE.
330- The following is a a type type of dilatation in bronchiectasis:
a. Saccular
b. Fusiform
c. Cylindrical
d. All the above
d. All the above
331- The following are predisposing factors for lung cancer; Except:
a. Cigarette smoking
b. Air pollution
c. Pneumoconiosis.
d. Barrett’s disease.
d. Barrett’s disease.
332- The histological findings in bronchial asthma includes:
a. Thinning of the basement membrane
b. Mucous gland hypertrophy.
c. Smooth muscle atrophy.
d. Numerous neutrophils
b. Mucous gland hypertrophy.
333- General causes of Epistaxis include:
a. Trauma
b. foreign bodies
c. Tumors: angiofibroma
d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency
d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency
334- The Commonest Cause of multiple Lung abscesses include:
a. Aspiration lung abscess.
b. Bronchial obstruction with bronchogenic carcinoma.io
c. Pyemic absesses
d. Spread of infection from adjacent
c. Pyemic absesses
335- Restrictive lung disease includes
a. Bronchiectasis
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
d. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
336- The commonest microscopic type of bronchogenic carcinoma:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Hemangioma
c. Broncho-alveolar carcinoma
d. Fibrosarcoma
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
337- Causative Organisms of Bronchopneumonia include:
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria
c. Tubercle Bacilli
d. Rota virus.
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
338- Empyema refers to:
a Permanent over distension of air spaces
b. Collection of pus in the pleural cavity
c. Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity.
d. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
b. Collection of pus in the pleural cavity
339- Empyema refers to:
a) Permanent over distension of air spaces
b) Collection of pus in the pleural cavity
c) Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity
d) Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
b) Collection of pus in the pleural cavity
340- The most common fate of lobar pneumonia is:
a) Empyema
b) Abscess formation
c) Resolution
d) Fibrosis
c) Resolution
341- The following are predisposing factors for lung cancer; EXCEPT:
a) Cigarette smoking
b) Air pollution
c) Pneumoconiosis
d) Lung congestion
d) Lung congestion
342- Diphtheria is a type of:
a) Catarrhal inflammation
b) Diffuse suppurative inflammation
c) Pseudomembranous inflammation
d) Allergic inflammation
c) Pseudomembranous inflammation
343- The following are causes of granulomatous inflammation of the lung EXCEPT
a) Tuberculosis
b) Fungal diseases
c) Pneumonia
d) Sarcoidosis
c) Pneumonia
344- The histological findings in bronchial asthma includes:
a) Thinning of the basement membrane
b) Mucous gland hypertrophy
c) Smooth muscle atrophy
d) Numerous neutrophils
b) Mucous gland hypertrophy
345- Pancoast tumors are characterized by:
a) Located in the base of the lung
b) May invade the branchial or cervical sympathetic plexus
c) Benign in nature
d) Spread early by blood
b) May invade the branchial or cervical sympathetic plexus
346- The most common site of Laryngeal carcinoma:
a) Glottic
b) Supraglottic
c) Infraglottic
d) Epiglottis
a) Glottic
347- Acute suppurative otitis media can be complicated by:
a) Amyloidosis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Brain abscess
d) Acute tonsillitis
c) Brain abscess
348- Mikulicz cells are pathognomonic for:
a) Allergic Rhinitis
b) Rhinoscleroma
c) Allergic nasal polyp
d) Sarcoidosis
b) Rhinoscleroma
349- Red hepatization is associated with:
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Lobar pneumonia
c. Bronchopneumonia
d. Pulmonary infarction
b. Lobar pneumonia
350- Restrictive lung disease includes
a. Bronchiectasis
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
351- The commonest microscopic type of bronchogenic carcinoma:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Hemangioma.
c. Broncho-alveolar carcinoma
d. Fibrosarcoma.
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
352- The Commonest Cause of multiple Lung abscesses include:
a. Aspiration lung abscess
b. B ronchial obstruction with bronchogenic carcinoma.
c. Pyemic abscesses
d. Spread of infection from adjacent
c. Pyemic abscesses
353- Causative Organisms of Bronchopneumonia include:
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria
c. Tubercle Bacilli.
d. Rota virus.
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
354- General causes of Epistaxis include:
a. Trauma
b. Foreign bodies
c. Tumors: angiofibroma
d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency
d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency
355- One statement is correct about Juvenile Angiofibroma
a. A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx.
b. It is a locally malignant tumor.
c. It is formed of anaplastic fibroblasts
d. It is not vascular
a. A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx.
356- One of the following about Rhinoscleroma is correct:
a. Grossly, the lesions appear as small soft pink polyp.
b. Microscopically, there is an acute inflammatory infiltrate involving the submucosa.
c. The inflammatory cells comprise: Mikulicz cells, Plasma cells and Russel bodies.
d. Complications include lymphatic spread
c. The inflammatory cells comprise: Mikulicz cells, Plasma cells and Russel bodies.
357- Features of Adenoids include:
a. Adenoids denote hypoplastic lymphoid tissue at the posterior wall of the nasopharynx
b. It can occur in any lymph node
c. It is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria in infants and children.
d. Adenoid face is characterized by opened mouth, short upper lip, protruding upper incisors narrow nasal openings, absent nasolabial folds.
d. Adenoid face is characterized by opened mouth, short upper lip, protruding upper incisors narrow nasal openings, absent nasolabial folds.
358- Diphtheria is characterized by:
a. Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria.
b. Common in adults
c. Common sites are, serous membranes.
d. Grossly, it appears as multiple abscesses.
a. Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria.
359- All the following are Para neoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer EXCEPT:
a) Cushing syndrome
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Excess ADH
b) Hypocalcemia
360- A medical student has been complaining of frequent sneezing and watery eyes during the past several weeks, with a frequent episode during spring and summer. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be increased?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Neutrophils
a) Eosinophils
361- One statement is CORRECT about Juvenile Angiofibroma:
a) A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx
b) It is a locally malignant tumour
c) It occurs exclusively in old males.
d) It is formed of anaplastic fibroblasts
a) A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx
362- Malignant mesothelioma is characterized by:
a) Occurs in patients with Tuberculosis
b) Grossly presents as a central globular lung mass
c) Microscopically showed a biphasic malignant cells (Epithelial -+ sarcomatous)
d) Prognosis is excellent
c) Microscopically showed a biphasic malignant cells (Epithelial -+ sarcomatous)
363- Concerning Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, which type gives better results with irradiation:
a) Keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
b) Non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
c) undifferentiated carcinoma with excess lymphocytes in the stroma [lymphoepithelioma]
d) Adenocarcinoma
c) undifferentiated carcinoma with excess lymphocytes in the stroma [lymphoepithelioma]
364- Complications of Acute Tonsillitis include:
a) Peritonsillar abscess (Quinzy)
b) Lymphatic spread to intestinal lymph nodes
c) Rheumatoid arthiritis
d) Chronicity: Tuberculous tonsillitis
a) Peritonsillar abscess (Quinzy)
365- All the following are causes of hemoptysis EXCEPT:
a) Bronchitis, bronchiectasis, pneumonia, lung abscess
b) Chronic fibrocaseous tuberculosis
c) Chronic venous congestion of the lung
d) Vitamin D deficiency
d) Vitamin D deficiency
366- Causes of granulomatous inflammation of the lung include:
a) Acute Lung abscess
b) Diphtheria
c) Tuberculosis
d) Peumothorax
c) Tuberculosis
367- One statement is NOT a complication of diphtheria:
a) Asphyxia
b) Bacteraemia
c) Toxic myocarditis and acute heart failure
d) Haemorrhage and necrosis of supra-renal cortex
b) Bacteraemia
368- One statement is CORRECT about nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
a) It is a locally malignant tumour.
b) It occurs exclusively in children
c) It is formed of anaplastic fibroblasts
d) It is a rare malignant neoplasm linked to EBV
d) It is a rare malignant neoplasm linked to EBV
370- One of the following is NOT a cause of lung abscess:
a) Aspiration lung abscess
b) Post pneumonic abscess
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Pyemic abscess
c) Bronchial asthma
371- Mikulicz cells are pathognomonic for:
a) Rhinosporidosis
b) Rhinoscleroma
c) Allergic nasal polyp.
d) Sarcoidosis.
b) Rhinoscleroma
372- Acute suppurative otitis media can be complicated by:
a) Amyloidosis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Brain abscess
d) Acute tonsillitis
c) Brain abscess
373- In emphysema, there is an excess of:
a) Alpha 1 anti-trypsin
b) Elastase.
c) Anti-elastase
d) None of the above
b) Elastase.
374- Mesothelioma is a tumor of:
a) Larynx
b) Pleura
c) Ovary
d) Salivary gland.
b) Pleura
375- The most common site of laryngeal carcinoma:
a) Glottic
b) Supraglottic
c) Infraglottic
d) Epiglottis.
b) Supraglottic
376- Secondary lung tumors:
a) Are less common than primary tumors
b) Reach the lung by blood spread only.
c) Appear as discrete nodules scattered throughout the lung
d) Have a good prognosis
c) Appear as discrete nodules scattered throughout the lung
