Pathology and inflammation Flashcards

1
Q

hyperplasia

A

increase in number of cells in response to increased stimulation or stress; may be pathological (menopausal endometrial hyperplasia, skin warts) or physiological (breast hyperplasia during puberty and pregnancy, wound healing); reversible, but may increase cancer risk

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2
Q

hypertrophy

A

increase in size of existing cells in response to increased stimulation or stress, particularly trophic or mechanical triggers; includes enlarged nuclei and an increase in proteins and organelles in the cells; often leads to an increase in the size of the corresponding organ; may be pathological (hypertensive cardiac hypertrophy) or physiological (increased muscle mass in response to exercise)

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3
Q

atrophy

A

decrease in size of existing cells; includes decreased protein synthesis, increased degradation, decreased cell function (NOT cell death); may be pathological (muscle atrophy due to peripheral nerve damage) or physiological (menopausal endometrial atrophy)

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4
Q

metaplasia

A

change in cell/tissue type via reprogramming of stem cells in response to increased stimulation or stress; may increase cancer risk

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5
Q

ischemia

A

reduced or absent blood flow to a particular tissue

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6
Q

necrosis

A

form of cell death due to irreversible cell injury; features include increased eosinophilia, nuclear shrinkage/fragmentation/disappearance, breakdown of plasma membrane

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7
Q

hydropic change/vacuolar degeneration

A

form of reversible cell injury; cells swell and exhibit membrane blebs, as well as vacuoles corresponding to distended endoplasmic reticulum; results from failure of membrane pumps to maintain homeostasis; example: acute tubular necrosis due to reperfusion injury

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8
Q

fatty change

A

form of reversible cell injury due to toxic or hypoxic stress; appearance of lipid vacuoles in cell cytoplasm; primarily in cells dependent on fat metabolism, when fatty acid transport systems are intact but degradative enzymes are damaged/deficient; example: fatty liver disease due to alcohol use or obesity

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9
Q

liquefactive necrosis

A

necrotic pattern caused by bacterial/fungal infection or brain infarct; features include complete tissue digestion/semi-liquid consistency, presence of PMNs, pus/abscesses, no residual tissue architecture

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10
Q

coagulative necrosis

A

necrotic pattern caused by hypoxic or anoxic injury due to ischemia; features include persistence of dead cells, intact outlines/tissue architecture, loss of cellular details; common in solid organs (except the brain); generally presents as wedge shape that points to the infarct

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11
Q

caseous necrosis

A

necrotic pattern characteristic of tuberculosis infection; features include cheese-like appearance, fragmented/coagulated cells with loss of tissue architecture/cell outlines, surrounded by granuloma

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12
Q

gangrenous necrosis

A

necrotic pattern describing ischemic coagulative necrosis of extremities or GI organs; “dry” when strictly ischemic, “wet” when also infected (shows liquefactive characteristics); features similar to coagulative necrosis, include black discoloration of tissue

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13
Q

fat necrosis

A

necrotic pattern caused by injury/trauma to fatty tissue, which causes lipase release, liberation of fatty acids, and subsequent calcium saponification; features include chalky white appearance of tissue; typical of acute pancreatitis or trauma to the breast

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14
Q

fibrinoid necrosis

A

necrotic pattern caused by deposition of immune complexes along vascular walls; features include fibrin-like, bright pink, amorphous appearance; typical of vasculitis

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15
Q

antigen

A

a molecule that stimulates an adaptive immune response

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16
Q

epitope

A

specific region of a macromolecular antigen to which lymphocyte receptors bind

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17
Q

immunogen

A

a molecule that induces an immune response (may or may not include a lymphocyte response)

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18
Q

labile cells

A

continuously-dividing cells (examples: hematopoietic cells, surface epithelia)

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19
Q

stable/quiescent cells

A

tissues that normally have minimal/no replicative activity, but are capable of proliferation in response to injury (examples: solid organ parenchyma, endothelial cells, fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells)

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20
Q

permanent cells

A

non-proliferative tissues, even in the presence of cell stress/injury (examples: neurons, cardiac muscle cells)

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21
Q

reperfusion injury

A

tissue damage caused by sudden rapid increase of ROS production due to reperfusion following ischemia, as well as accompanying inflammation induced by ROS injury

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22
Q

lipofuscin

A

indigestible material resulting from lipid peroxidation; “wear and tear” pigment, increases with aging; visible in heart, liver, and brain

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23
Q

anthracosis

A

carbon pigment that accumulates in lung tissue/lymph nodes; inhaled in air, then phagocytosed by alveolar macrophages and carried to lymph nodes; common in city-dwellers, coal miners, and smokers

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24
Q

hemosiderin

A

hemoglobin-derived pigment containing iron (yellow to golden brown), present in tissue where there has been hemorrhage, systemic deposition present with increased iron absorption, some anemias, transfusions, and some hereditary conditions

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25
Q

dystrophic calcification

A

calcification of non-viable, damaged, or dying tissues in the presence of normal serum calcium levels; tissue is basophilic on H&E; examples include atheromas, aortic valves in the elderly, lymph nodes with long-standing TB

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26
Q

metastatic calcification

A

calcification of normal tissues due to increased serum calcium levels (i.e. elevated parathyroid hormone, destruction of bone, vitamin D intoxication, renal failure); common in interstitial tissues of lung, kidney, and gastric mucosa

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27
Q

Barrett’s esophogus

A

metaplasia of the distal esophagus in which esophageal squamous epithelium (normal) changes into glandular epithelium similar to that of the gastric mucosa in response to chronic acid reflux; protects the esophagus from damage by stomach acid, but predisposes for glandular carcinoma

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28
Q

myositis ossificans

A

ossification of muscle due to trauma or injury

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29
Q

type I diabetes

A

Type IV autoimmune disease caused by production of pathogenic T-cells against pancreatic islet antigens; characterized by impaired glucose metabolism and vascular disease

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30
Q

IPEX

A

immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked; autoimmune disease caused by mutations in Foxp3/loss of T-regs, affects infant boys; characterized by inflammatory bowel disease, severe eczema, food allergies, T1DM, thyroiditis, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, hypergammaglobulinemia, very high IgE levels; lethal if not treated aggressively

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31
Q

celiac disease

A

gluten enteropathy in which gladden in food is altered upon binding to tissue-transglutaminase to become immunogenic; possible molecular mimicry between tissue-transglutaminase and intestinal wall mediates Ab response

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32
Q

CH50

A

total complement activity; used to test for complement defects; if result is low, then individual component testing should be ordered

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33
Q

dihydrorhodamine test

A

diagnostic test for chronic granulomatous disease; DHR is oxidized by PMNs when stimulated with forbid myristate acetate, oxidized form is fluorescent, absence of fluorescence = positive for CGD

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34
Q

chronic granulomatous disease

A

usually presents by age 2; caused by functional absence of respiratory burst in neutrophils and monocytes (mutation in any of four subunits in NADPH oxidase), though hypomorphic protein may be able to handle most microbes; may be X-linked; pts present with pneumonia, adenopathy/abscesses (hepatic abscess common), sepsis, osteomyelitis, infection with catalase (+) bacteria; Dx req’s DHR or NBT (DHR preferred)

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35
Q

leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

caused by mutation in LAD-1/Mac-1 (common integrin beta chain for CD18), LAD-2 (only in middle east), or other integrins, which leads to impaired leucocyte chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and margination; pts present with recurrent pyogenic infections, delayed umbilical cord detachment, leucocytosis, inability to form pus; infections require aggressive Abx treatment, bone marrow transplant in severe cases

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36
Q

CBC with differential

A

complete blood count that includes specific counts of neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils

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37
Q

ANC

A

absolute neutrophil count - important to diagnose neutrophil defects, including chronic granulomatous disease, congenital/cyclic neutropenia, and leukocyte adhesion deficiency

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38
Q

delayed-type hypersensitivity

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, T-cell mediated, leads to macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammation, cell lysis

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39
Q

DiGeorge syndrome

A

AKA 22q11.2 deletion syndrome; caused by a micro deletion in chromosome 22q11.2 on the TBX1 gene (homeobox); clinical syndrome characterized by CATCH22 (cardiac defects, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcemia, 22nd chromosome); also commonly exhibit immunodeficiency/autoimmunity; Dx req’s FISH, chromosomal microarray/DNA duplication test

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40
Q

common variable immunodeficiency

A

most common clinically-significant Ab deficiency; onset at any age (>2 y.o.), no known monogenic cause; characterized by low IgG and low IgA or IgM, lymphocyte levels generally normal; pts present with frequent URI/GI infections and bronchiectasis/interstitial lung disease, often die of pulmonary disease, cancer, autoimmune complications, liver disease, or infection; Dx based on Ig count, absent isohemagglutinins, poor vaccine response (pneumavax)

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41
Q

agammaglobulinemia

A

presents within first year of life, often X-linked (XLA); X-linked form caused by mutation in Btk gene (part of surrogate light chain signaling pathway), leading to lack of B cells (failure to differentiate) and panhypoglobulinemia; pts present with recurrent otitis, sinusitis, pneumonia, untreated may lead to bronchiectasis and infection with encapsulated bacteria or mycoplasma spp.; also have severe enteroviral infections (vaccine-related polio); Dx req’s quantitative Ig (IgG, IgA, IgM), flow cytometry; Tx with IV globulin

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42
Q

complement deficiency

A

may present at any age; early complement (C2, C4) defects present with sinopulmonary infections, increased susceptibility to S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae, autoimmune disease (such as SLE or glomerulonephritis); late complement (C5-C9) defects present with increased susceptibility to Neisserial infections (generally present with first infection at ~17 y.o.); C3 defects are very rare and present with severe pyogenic infections; diagnostic testing includes CH50 (only complement deficiency if CH50 = 0 - if it’s low, then it’s a consumption issue, like lupus)

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43
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Type III autoimmune disease caused by antibody production against sDNA, histones, and other nuclear proteins, which leads to immune complex deposition; characterized by anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) production, nephritis, rash (malaria, discoid), and vasculitis; complement defects lead to early onset

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44
Q

TREC (T-cell receptor excision circles)

A

nonreplicating circular pieces of DNA in naive T-cells generated in the process of making a T-cell receptor; measured via real-time qPCR; low levels diagnostic of SCID

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45
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

Type IV autoimmune disease caused by T-cell-mediated (likely B-cell also) inflammation of the joints/reactivity to joint antigens; pathology includes pants formation, aggregates of mononuclear cells; oligoclonal T-cells release IL-1, IL-6, and TNF, which activate macrophages/inflammation; B-cells aggregate in synovium

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46
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

Type IV autoimmune disease caused by production of pathogenic T cells agains myelin proteins; characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system by T-cells and macrophages, sensory and motor dysfunction

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47
Q

X-linked SCID

A

severe combined immunodeficiency; most common etiology of SCID, caused by a mutation in the gamma-chain of the IL-2 receptor, which prevents both T-cell survival and B-cell activation by T-cells (gamma chain is also a shared component for other IL receptors); presents within first year of life, usually around 3 m.o.; pts lack T cells and NK cells (though they may possess mom’s T-cells if they crossed the placenta during birth), B cells are present but nonfunctional; characterized by pneumocystis pneumonia, otitis media, thrush, intractable diarrhea, FTT; 100% mortality w/o bone marrow transplant; Dx req’s CBC, lymphocyte enumeration (should lack naive T-cells)

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48
Q

APECED

A

autoimmune polyendocrinopathy candidiasis ectodermal dystrophy - an autoimmune adrenal and parathyroid disease caused by a defect in the AIRE gene (transcription factor directing expression of self antigens in the thymus); features include hypothyroidism, hypogonadism, vitiligo, pernicious anemia, fungal infections

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49
Q

autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)

A

autoimmune disease caused by mutations in Fas or Fas-L, leads to failed central tolerance; characterized by lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, autoimmune cytopenias, elevated IgG, IgA, and IgM, elevated double-negative T-cells

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50
Q

T-regulatory cells

A

express transcription factor Foxp3, generated by self antigens in thymus, activated by IL-2, inhibit mature T-cells via contact-dependent (CTLA-4, surface-bound TGF-beta, perforin and granzyme) and contact-independent (secreted TGF-beta and IL-10) mechanisms

51
Q

JONES criteria (O=heart)

A

mnemonic describing major diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever: joints, heart, nodules, erthema marginatum, sydenham’s chorea; diagnosis requires two major criteria or one major and two minor criteria (minor: fever, arthralgia, elevated acute phase reactants, prolonged PR interval)

52
Q

rheumatic fever

A

diagnosed by the JONES criteria (req’s two major or one major and two minor), complication of S. pyogenes infection expressing M proteins that are structurally similar to heart muscle; type II hypersensitivity reaction, caused by production of antibodies to myosin

53
Q

IgA deficiency

A

most common Ab deficiency; characterized by extremely low IgA, normal IgG and IgM, normal T-cell function; vast majority of pts are asymptomatic, may have more frequent sinopulmonary/GI infections, atopic disease, celiac disease, autoimmune disease; may be associated with production of heterophiles Abs (causes false neg/pos diagnostic tests)

54
Q

specific antibody deficiency

A

pts have normal IgG, IgA, IgM, and T-cell function, but exhibit abnormal specific antibody responses to immunization (esp. polysaccharide antigens); may be a developmental delay in Ab response (kids often only need IV IgG for one year)

55
Q

acute inflammation

A

short-term (minutes to hours) inflammatory response characterized by neutrophil infiltrate; generally mild/self-limiting, though may have prominent systemic signs (incl. fever, leukocytosis, etc.); stimulated by infection, physical trauma, chemical agents, tissue necrosis, foreign bodies, and hypersensitivity reactions

56
Q

chronic inflammation

A

long-term (days) inflammatory response characterized by monocyte/macrophage and lymphocyte infiltrate; often severe and progressive, though signs and symptoms may be subtle; often involves active inflammation, tissue injury, and healing occurring at the same time, as well as angiogenesis and fibrosis; stimulated by persistent infections, prolonged exposure to toxic agents, and immune-related inflammatory diseases

57
Q

cardinal signs of inflammation

A

calor (heat), rubor (redness), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), functio lasea (loss of function)

58
Q

diapedesis

A

movement of leukocytes through vessel wall

59
Q

chemotaxis

A

movement of a cell toward an injury site (or other stimulus) due to a concentration gradient of soluble chemotactic factors

60
Q

transudate

A

extracellular fluid that accumulates due to increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure or decreased colloid osmotic pressure; low protein content, low specific gravity

61
Q

exudate

A

extracellular fluid that accumulates due to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability under inflammatory conditions; high protein content, high specific gravity; when rich in leukocytes (particularly neutrophils), is termed “pus”

62
Q

abscess

A

central area of necrotic tissue surrounded by preserved neutrophils, dilated vessels, and fibroblastic proliferation

63
Q

ulcer

A

local defect on the surface of an organ or tissue characterized by sloughing of surface covering and necrotic inflammatory tissue

64
Q

granuloma

A

locus of granulomatous inflammation characterized by prominent activated macrophages with epithelioid appearance, multinucleated giant cells (stimulated by IFN-gamma), collar of lymphocytes and plasma cells, surrounding fibrosis; develops in due to specific infections, inert foreign bodies, and autoimmune reactions

65
Q

pyrogen

A

a molecule that induces a fever; includes LPS, IL-1, TNF; these mediators ultimately stimulate prostaglandin (esp. PGE2) production, which resets the hypothalamus

66
Q

acute phase reaction

A

AKA systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), characterized by fever, elevated acute-phase proteins (c-reactive protein, fibrinogen, serum amyloid A protein; synthesized by the liver, stimulated by IL-6), and leukocytosis

67
Q

allergen vs. irritant

A

allergens elicit IgE-mediated immune reactions that require prior sensitization to develop and are not dose-dependent; irritants stimulate an adverse inflammatory response in all individuals that is not mediated by IgE and is dose-dependent

68
Q

tryptase

A

enzyme released by mast cells from pre-formed stores; exists in two forms, alpha is constitutively released, beta is only released with mast cell activation, remains identifiable in the serum for up to 4 hours after release, causes remodeling of connective tissue matrix; mast cells are only source

69
Q

IL-5

A

produced by Th2 cells (differentiate due to presence of IL-4), mediates allergic response, esp. eosinophil activation/conversion to hypodense phenotype, augments beta2 integrin-mediated adhesion and transendothelial migration

70
Q

IL-4

A

stimulates differentiation of Th2 cells via expression of GATA-3 transcription factor; also produced by Th2 cells, mediates allergic response, esp. IgE class switching

71
Q

IL-13

A

produced by Th2 cells, induces IgE class switching

72
Q

eotaxin

A

CCL11; found at sites of allergic inflammation

73
Q

leukotrienes

A

lead to eosinophil migration, smooth muscle contraction, vascular permeability, and mucus hypersecretion

74
Q

MBP

A

major basic protein, secreted by eosinophils, causes mast cell activation, helminthotoxic

75
Q

hypersensitivity

A

immune response against an otherwise inert environmental stimulus

76
Q

eosinophils

A

prominent in type I hypersensitivity/allergic reactions; elevated by NAACP (neoplasia, asthma, allergy, connective tissue disease, parasitic disease); possess CCR3, the only known receptor for eotaxin; possess crystalloid granules that contain very basic proteins; secretes IL-5, GM-CSF (promotes own survival), ROS, leukotrienes, PAF, and charcot-leyden crystal protein (sign of degranulation)

77
Q

immediate vs. late-phase reactions

A

immediate reaction occurs immediately (within 15-30 minutes) after second exposure to an antigen and involves mast cell release of histamine, tryptase, LTC4, PGD2, IL-4, and other cytokines; late-phase reaction occurs 4-6 hours after exposure and involves recruitment of eosinophils, Th2 cells, and basophils, as well as release of prostaglandins (PGD2, PGE2, PGF2a), kinins, histamine, MBP (major basic protein), ECP (eosinophil cationic protein), EDN (eosinophil-derived neurotoxin), and leukotrienes (LTB4, LTC4)

78
Q

histamine

A

released from mast cells, basophils, and platelets in connective tissue near vessels in response to IL-1, trauma, complement, etc.; induces vasodilation and increased vascular permeability via endothelial cell contraction (leads to erythema, warmth, and edema/swelling); released immediately from pre-formed stores

79
Q

allergic rhinitis

A

nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, rhinitis, nasal and ocular pruritis, and conjunctivitis due to type I hypersensitivity reaction (cross-linking of IgE in nasal mucosa and ocular conjunctiva with specific antigen exposure)

80
Q

asthma

A

wheezing, shortness of breath (difficulty exhaling), increased mucus secretion and plugging of the airways due to IgE-mediated disease in the lower airways; inflammatory cell infiltrate includes eosinophils and lymphocytes; long-term effects include denudation of airway epithelium, mucus gland hyperplasia/hypersecretion, smooth muscle cell hyperplasia, submucosal edema, vascular dilation, and fibrin deposition/airway remodeling

81
Q

anaphylaxis

A

type I hypersensitivity reaction characterized by warmth, itchy palms/soles, racing heart, wheezing/difficulty breathing, fainting; mediated by histamine, leukotrienes, and nitric oxide

82
Q

serum sickness

A

systemic reaction from injection of large quantities of foreign proteins; occurs 7-10 days after exposure to antigen (to allow class switching from IgM to IgG), characterized by flu-like symptoms with urticarial rash, arthritis, and glomerulonephritis; repeat exposures require much shorter time until onset of symptoms

83
Q

Goodpasture syndrome

A

type II hypersensitivity reaction in which Abs are made against type IV collagen in basement membranes of glomeruli and lung alveoli; characterized by nephritis and lung hemorrhages

84
Q

contact dermatitis

A

type IV hypersensitivity reaction in which chemical compounds exposure to the skin causes binding of compounds with self proteins; generates immune response; macrophage-mediated inflammation

85
Q

antihistamine

A

lowers the threshold of mast cell release

86
Q

corticosteroids

A

induce rapid apoptosis of eosinophils, inhibit IL-5 production, inhibit AP-1 and NF-kB

87
Q

epinephrine

A

temporarily alleviates type I hypersensitivity reaction/anaphylactic shock

88
Q

bradykinin

A

plasma protein produced in response to endothelial injury; induces vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and sensitization to pain

89
Q

TNF

A

pro-inflammatory cytokine released by innate immune cells in response to activation of TLRs by extracellular microbes, activates endothelium and leads to adhesion molecule expression; only cytokine that exists as a preformed mediator

90
Q

IL-1

A

pro-inflammatory cytokine released by innate immune cells due to activation of the inflammasome by products of dead cells and some microbes; promotes recruitment of leukocytes and secretion of more cytokines

91
Q

selectins

A

adhesion molecules located on endothelial cells, platelets, and leukocytes; only expressed upon stimulation by mediators (histamine, thrombin, etc.); aid in loose attachments

92
Q

integrins

A

adhesion molecules located on leukocytes; expressed upon stimulation by chemokines secreted by endothelial cells; ligands on endothelial cells expressed upon stimulation by TNF and IL-1 from macrophages; aid in stable attachment of leukocytes to endothelium

93
Q

platelet activating factor

A

attracts eosinophils and other leukocytes; activates eosinophils, neutrophils, and platelets

94
Q

regeneration

A

growth of cells and tissues to replace lost structures; usual response of skin, liver, intestine to injury; no scar remains

95
Q

healing (and repair)

A

occurs when complete restitution is not possible (severe damage, persistent/chronic damage, permanent tissue); requires remnants of injured tissue, endothelial cells, and fibroblasts; parenchyma also requires supporting stroma; generally involves collagen deposition; steps include angiogenesis –> fibroblast migration/proliferation –> extracellular matrix deposition –> maturation/remodeling of fibrous tissue; driven by TGF-beta, PDGF, and FGF

96
Q

angiogenesis

A

branching/generation of new blood vessels from preexisting blood vessels using angioblasts (endothelial precursor cells) from bone marrow; driven by NO, VEGF, and FGF

97
Q

granulation tissue

A

specialized tissue seen in tissue healing/scar formation; present by 3-5 days post-injury, contains new vessels, inflammatory cells, and fibroblasts; high in collagen, appears purple on H&E (indicative of ongoing healing/repair); precedes mature scar formation

98
Q

extracellular matrix

A

made up of interstitial matrix (3D amorphous gel, made by fibroblasts) and basement membrane (made by mesenchyme and epithelium), synthesized largely of collagen and elastin; provides mechanical support, regulates cell proliferation, provides scaffold for healing, stores growth factors, and creates “microenvironment”

99
Q

healing by primary intention

A

when a wound closes by approximation of clean-cut wound margins (i.e. placement of a graft, surgical incision with stitches/staples); applies to acute wounds within 24 hours of injury (before granulation tissue); may result in scar formation beneath wound site; wound clots –> neutrophils/re-epithelialization –> macrophages/granulation tissue –> increased granulation tissue/collagen deposition –> scar formation (total process: weeks)

100
Q

healing by secondary intention

A

when a wound is left open, often due to having large opening or irregular edges, and allowed to close by epithelialization, granulation tissue, and wound contraction; commonly used in management of infected wounds; characterized by more intense inflammatory response, large fibrin clot, more necrotic material, larger amount of granulation tissue, substantial scar formation and thinned epidermis

101
Q

embryonic stem cells

A

totipotent/pluripotent stem cells in an embryo that can differentiate into all tissues

102
Q

adult stem cells

A

lineage-specific stem cells present in labile and stable tissues; some tissues contain multipotent progenitor cells that retain broad differentiation capabilities (i.e. bone marrow)

103
Q

acute retroviral syndrome

A

sickness that presents 1-4 weeks post-HIV exposure, usually lasts less than 2 weeks; symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, rash, joint pain, etc.; usually occurs during acute infection/window period, in which HIV virions are detectable in the blood but no antibodies are yet present

104
Q

anti-retroviral therapy

A

anti-HIV drugs that target various stages in the viral replication cycle: CCR5 antagonists, fusion inhibitors, NNRTI/NRTIs, integrase inhibitors, protease inhibitors

105
Q

vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

A

secreted by mesenchymal cells; induces angiogenesis in injury and in tumors

106
Q

fibroblast growth factor (FGF)

A

secreted by macrophages, mast cells, endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and others; induces angiogenesis, promotes migration of fibroblasts, epithelial cells, and macrophages

107
Q

platelet-derived growth factor

A

secreted by platelets, macrophages, endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, and epithelial cells; induces fibroblast, smooth muscle cell, and endothelial cell proliferation and migration; stimulates production of extracellular matrix

108
Q

transforming growth factor beta

A

secreted by platelets, endothelium, epithelium, lymphocytes, macrophages, smooth muscle cells, and fibroblasts; suppresses endothelial proliferation/migration and acute inflammation; stimulates production of extracellular matrix proteins

109
Q

graft vs. host disease

A

inflammatory process in context of a bone marrow transplant in which pre-transplant conditioning causes tissue damage/inflammation and upregulation of cytokines, which activates host APCs; upon graft completion, ACPs activate donor T-cells, which recognize host tissue as foreign and attack it (CD8+, macrophages, NK cells); commonly-affected tissues include skin, GI tract, and liver

110
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

genetic defect in collagen synthesis or structure; may be caused by one of several collagen mutations (classic is deficient production of type V collagen); symptoms include hyperextensible/fragile skin, hypermobile joints, rupture of internal organs and large arteries, and poor wound healing

111
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

genetic mutation affecting fibrillin; symptoms include degeneration of aorta (aneurysm and dilation), dislocated lens, abnormalities of aortic and mitral valves, long legs/arms/fingers, and hyperextensible joints

112
Q

matrix metalloproteinase

A

zinc-containing enzymes that participate in scar remodeling/maturation; degrade collagen and other extracellular matrix proteins, ultimately assist in contraction of the scar; synthesized/secreted by fibroblasts, macrophages, neutrophils, and others; regulated by growth factors and cytokines

113
Q

allograft

A

implantation of a tissue from a genetically distinct individual of the same species

114
Q

human immunodeficiency virus

A

virus specific for human CD4+ cells; enters body via blood or mucous membranes via infected blood, semen, vaginal secretions, breast milk, CSF, synovial/pleural/pericardial/peritoneal fluid, or amniotic fluid; infects CD4+ cells, gets carried to lymph nodes to establish reservoir; diagnosed via antibody testing (not accurate in acute infections), RNA testing, or p24 antigen testing; fourth-generation EIA testing tests for both Abs and p24 Ag

115
Q

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

A

syndrome characterized by HIV infection and a CD4+ count of 250 or less

116
Q

alloantigens

A

allogenic MHC molecules (major) and other allogenic proteins possessing genetic polymorphisms (minor); allogenic MHC often resembles peptide-loaded self MHC molecules; immune system also reacts to allogenic MHC directly

117
Q

hyperacute rejection

A

rejection of a xenogeneic graft due to presence of pre-formed Abs; occurs within minutes of transplantation

118
Q

acute cellular rejection

A

rejection of an allogeneic graft due to activation of recipient cell-mediated immune responses against alloantigens (can also occur as acute humoral rejection, in which humoral systems are activated); in immunocompetent individuals, occurs within days to weeks; in immunocompromised individuals, occurs within months to years

119
Q

chronic rejection

A

rejection of an allogeneic graft that involves a chronic inflammatory response against the graft; occurs within months to years, is the major cause of graft failure; involves vascular changes, interstitial fibrosis, loss of parenchyma, ischemia, atrophy, etc.

120
Q

fibrillin

A

protein component of the extracellular matrix that, together with elastin, forms elastic fibers that allow for recoil properties; abundant in aorta, lens, and ligaments

121
Q

fibronectin

A

adhesive glycoprotein, major component of interstitial ECM

122
Q

laminin

A

major protein component of basement membranes

123
Q

keloid

A

raised epithelialized scar due to excess collagen deposition, possibly due to increased activity of TGF-beta and IL-1

124
Q

fibrosis

A

wound healing that occurs in response to chronic/persistent injury or inflammation, involves destruction and regeneration of ECM, collagen deposition, nodule formation; examples include liver cirrhosis, interstitial lung disease, rheumatoid arthritis, chronic pancreatitis