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4th Year Revision > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the clinical features of acute periradicular periodontitis? (4)

A
  • history of pain
  • grossly carious
  • previous trauma
  • nothing on radiograph
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2
Q

What are the treatment options for acute periradicular periodontitis? (2)

A
  • extraction

- endodontic treatment

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3
Q

What is the histopathology of an acute periapical abscess?

A

In the centre is pus, then there is neutrophils around and then there is a surrounding membrane of capillaries and fibroblasts

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4
Q

What are the clinical features of chronic periradicular periodontitis? (3)

A
  • non vital tooth
  • minimal symptoms
  • apical radiolucent lesion
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5
Q

What can a periapical granuloma transform to? (2)

A
  • abscess

- radicular cyst

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6
Q

What is the histopathology of a periapical granuloma? (4)

A
  • inflamed granulation tissue
  • proliferation of cell rests of malassez
  • haemosiderin and cholesterol deposits
  • resorption of adjacent bone +/- tooth
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7
Q

What are the layers of the enamel organ? (4)

A
  • inner enamel epithelium
  • outer enamel epithelium
  • stellate reticulum
  • stratum intermedium
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8
Q

What are the types of inflammatory odontogenic cysts? (2)

A
  • radicular cyst

- inflammatory collateral cysts (paradental cyst and mandibular buccal bifurcation cyst)

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9
Q

What progresses into a radicular cyst?

A

Epithelial proliferation of the cell rests of malassez within some periapical granulomas progress into a radicular cyst

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10
Q

What is a lateral radicular cyst?

A

A radicular cyst arising from a lateral root canal branch of a non vital tooth

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11
Q

What are the clinical features of a mandibular buccal bifurcation cyst? (2)

A
  • often painless swelling

- associated tooth usually tilted buccal with deep perio pocket

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12
Q

What do odontogenic keratocysts arise from?

A

Remnants of the dental lamina

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13
Q

Name 8 developmental odontogenic cysts

A
  • odontogenic keratocyst
  • dentigerous cyst
  • eruption cyst
  • lateral periodontal cyst
  • glandular odontogenic cyst
  • gingival cyst
  • calcifying odontogenic cyst
  • orthokeratinised cyst
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14
Q

Where does a glandular odontogenic cyst occur?

A

Anterior mandible

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15
Q

What is the appearance of gingival cysts in adults? (2)

A
  • painless dome shaped swelling in gingiva

- may be superficial erosion of underlying alveolar bone

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16
Q

Name 5 soft tissue cysts

A
  • salivary mucocele
  • epidermoid cyst
  • dermoid cyst
  • lymphoepithelial cyst
  • thyroglossal cyst
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17
Q

Name 5 localised soft tissue hyperplasias

A
  • epulides
  • pyogenic granuloma
  • fibroepithelial polyp
  • denture irritation hyperplasia
  • papillary hyperplasia of the palate
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18
Q

What is the name for a pedunculate or sessile firm mass on gingiva often between two teeth? It is pink in colour

A

Fibrous epulis

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19
Q

What is the name for a soft purplish gingival swelling which is mostly on gum of teeth anterior to molars?

A

Giant cell epulis

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20
Q

What is the name for a variant of a fibroepithelial polyp which is often seen on the gingivae?

A

Giant cell fibroma

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21
Q

Name 5 types of soft tissue neoplasms

A
  • tumours of fibrose tissue
  • tumours of adipose tissue
  • tumours of vascular tissue
  • tumours of peripheral nerves
  • tumours of muscle
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22
Q

Name 4 tumours of vascular tissue

A
  • haemangioma
  • lymphangioma
  • kaposis sarcoma
  • angiosarcoma
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23
Q

What are the 4 variants of kaposis sarcoma?

A
  • classic
  • endemic
  • AIDS associated
  • iatrogenic
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24
Q

Name 4 tumours of peripheral nerves

A
  • neurofibroma
  • neurilmmona
  • traumatic neuroma
  • malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours
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25
Q

What is the name for a benign peripheral nerve sheath tumour that arises from a mixture of cell types? It affects the tongue, gingivae, salivary glands or rarely intraosseous

A

Neurofibroma

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26
Q

What is the name for a reactive lesion after nerve damage, not a tumour? It is a smooth nodule

A

Traumatic neuroma

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27
Q

What is the name for a pink polypoid mass on the alveolus of new borns?

A

Congenital epulis

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28
Q

What are the causes of sialadenitis? (5)

A
  • bacterial
  • viral
  • trauma
  • irradiation
  • allergic reactions
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29
Q

What are the treatment options for chronic bacterial sialadenitis? (3)

A
  • stimulate saliva flow
  • sialogogues
  • removal of the stone, gland or duct
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30
Q

What are the causes of salivary calculi formation? (4)

A
  • xerostomia
  • stasis of saliva
  • mucous plug
  • duct stricture
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31
Q

What is necrotising sialometaplasia?

A

An inflammatory condition causing a tumour like lesion

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32
Q

What are the causes of sialadenosis? (6)

A
  • malnutrition
  • anorexia
  • bulimia
  • alcoholism
  • liver cirrhosis
  • hormonal disturbances
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33
Q

What are the tumours of the salivary glands? (4)

A
  • malignant tumours
  • benign tumours
  • non neoplastic epithelial lesions
  • haematolymphoid tumours
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34
Q

What are the types of white patches? (8)

A
  • developmental
  • normal variation
  • hereditary
  • traumatic
  • dermatological
  • infective
  • idiopathic
  • neoplastic
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35
Q

Name an idiopathic white patch

A

Leukoplakia

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36
Q

What can lichen planus be confused with? (4)

A
  • lichenoid reaction to drugs/restorative material
  • lupus erythematous
  • graft versus host disease
  • lichenoid inflammation associated with dysplasia
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37
Q

What are the types of red patches? (4)

A
  • infective
  • associated with dermatological disorders
  • idiopathic
  • neoplastic
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38
Q

Where is median rhomboid glossitis found?

A

Median rhomboid glossitis is a rhomboid red patch on midline of posterior aspect of anterior 2/3 of dorsal tongue

39
Q

What is oral submucosa fibrosis associated with?

A

Betel quid/areca nut

40
Q

What are the clinical features of oral sub mucous fibrosis? (3)

A
  • clinically pale coloured mucosa, firm to palpate
  • trismus
  • fibrous bands which affect buccal mucosa, soft palate and labial mucosa
41
Q

What types of exogenous oral pigmentation can you get> (5)

A
  • superficial staining of mucosa e.g tobacco
  • black hairy tongue
  • foreign bodies e.g amalgam tattoo
  • heavy metal poisoning
  • drugs, NSAIDs, antimalarials, chlorohexidine
42
Q

What is an amalgam tattoo associated with?

A

Collagen and elastic fibres and basement membranes

43
Q

What types of endogenous oral pigmentation can you get? (4)

A
  • racial pigmentation
  • melanotic macule
  • peutz jeghers syndrome
  • smokers melanosis
44
Q

What are the features of ulcers? (3)

A
  • ulceration with loss of surface epithelium
  • inflamed fibrinoid exudate
  • inflamed granulation tissue
45
Q

What happens in pemphigus?

A

Autoantibodies to desmosomal protein are produced

46
Q

What is the location of mucous membrane pemphigoid?(7)

A
  • oral mucosa
  • eyes
  • nose
  • larynx
  • pharynx
  • oesophagus
  • genitalia
47
Q

What is epidermolysis bullosa?

A

Formation of skin bullae which heal with scarring

48
Q

What are the inherited forms of epidermolysis bullosa? (3)

A
  • simplex
  • junctional
  • dystrophic
49
Q

What is epidermolysis bullosa acquits?

A

An acquired blistering dermatosis with sub epithelial bullae

50
Q

What are the histological features of epithelial dysplasia? (3)

A
  • nuclear and cellular pleomorphism
  • alteration in nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
  • prominent nucleoli
51
Q

How do you manage epithelial dysplasia? (3)

A
  • modify risk factors
  • anti fungal treatment
  • biopsy to assess dysplasia
52
Q

What are the oral cancer detection test? (4)

A
  • toludene blue
  • autofluorescence
  • chemiluminescence
  • vizilite plus
53
Q

What are the core data items included in the pathology report? (4)

A
  • maximum diameter of tumour
  • maximum depth of invasion
  • degree of differentiation
  • pattern of invasion
54
Q

What is verrucous carcinoma?

A

An uncommon distinctive low grade variant of SCC

55
Q

Name a odontogenic carcinoma

A

Ameloblastic carcinoma

56
Q

Name a odontogenic sarcoma

A

Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma

57
Q

What are the clinical features of an ameloblastoma? (3)

A
  • swelling
  • radiolucent lesion on imaging
  • slow growing, locally aggressive
58
Q

What are the clinical features of an adenomatoid odontogenic tumour? (3)

A
  • associated with unerupted permanent teeth
  • unilocular radiolucency may mimic dentigerous cyst
  • most are asymptomatic
59
Q

What is a odontoma?

A

Painless slow growing lesion that are developmental malformations of dental tissues

60
Q

What is an odontoma complex type?

A

An irregular mass of hard and soft dental tissues, haphazard arrangement with no resemblance to a tooth and often forming a cauliflower like mass

61
Q

Name a benign mesenchymal odontogenic tumour

A

Cementoblastoma

62
Q

What are the clinical features of a cementoblastoma? (3)

A
  • painful swelling
  • tooth remains vital
  • well defined radiopaque or mixed density lesion
63
Q

Name a malignant maxillofacial bone and cartilage tumour

A

Chrondrosarcoma

64
Q

Name a benign maxillofacial bone and cartilage tumour

A

Chondroma

65
Q

Name a giant cell lesion and bone cyst

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst

66
Q

Name a haematolymphoid tumour

A

Solitary plasmacytoma of bone

67
Q

What is an osteoma?

A

A benign slow growing tumour consisting of well differentiated mature bone

68
Q

What is gardeners syndrome?

A

Rare AD disorder and features include multiple osteomas, polyposis coli and multiple fibrous tumours and epidermal/sebaceous cysts of the skin

69
Q

What are cancellous type osteomas?

A

Interconnecting trabecular enclosing fatty or fibrous marrow

70
Q

What is a melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy?

A

A locally aggressive rapidly growing pigmented mass which is most frequently in the anterior maxillary alveolus

71
Q

What cell populations does a neuroectodermal tumour of infancy have? (2)

A
  • neuroblastic cells

- pigmented epithelial cells

72
Q

What are fibro osseous lesions histologically characterised by?

A

Replacement of normal bone by cellular fibrous tissue within which islands and trabecular of metaplastic bone develop

73
Q

What is an ossifying fibroma?

A

Slow, painless expansion of bone, jaws and craniofacial skeleton

74
Q

Where does a cemento ossifying fibroma occur?

A

Exclusively in the tooth bearing regions of the jaws

75
Q

What is fibrous dysplasia of bone? What is it due to?

A

Fibre osseous lesion of growing bones. Due to GNAS1 mutations

76
Q

What does monostotic fibrous dysplasia give rise to?

A

Painless bony swelling and facial asymmetry

77
Q

What are the features of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia? (2)

A
  • affects several bones

- skin pigmentation and endocrine abnormalities

78
Q

What is albright syndrome?

A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, skin pigmentation and sexual precocity

79
Q

What is an osteochondroma?

A

Bony projection with a cap of cartilage

80
Q

What is the histopathology of a central giant cell granuloma? (3)

A
  • large numbers of mudltinucleate, osteoclast like giant cells
  • set in a vascular fibrous stroma
  • areas of haemorrhage and haemosiderin
81
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Hereditary disease characterised by impairment of collagen maturation

82
Q

What are the clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta? (3)

A
  • easily fractured, osteoporotic bone
  • affected teeth appear as in dentinogenesis imperfecta
  • malocclusion may be a problem
83
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

A group of rare genetic diseases in which there is a marked increase in bone density

84
Q

What is osteopetrosis due to?

A

Failure of normal osteoclast activity and absence of normal modelling resorption

85
Q

What is the result of osteopetrosis? (2)

A
  • cortices are thickened and sclerosis of cancellous bone

- anaemia is common due to marrow space deficiency

86
Q

What is a recognised complication of osteopetrosis?

A

Osteomyelitis

87
Q

What is cleidocranial dysplasia characterised by?

A

Defective formation of the clavicles, delayed closure of the fontanelles and retrusion of the maxilla

88
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

An abnormality of endochondrial ossification. The head and neck is of normal size but limbs are excessively short

89
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Bone is of normal composition but is reduced in quantity

90
Q

What are the dental defects of rickets and osteomalacia? (2)

A
  • hypo calcification of dentine and enamel hypoplasia

- delay in tooth eruption

91
Q

What is the dental presentation of acromegaly? (2)

A
  • jaw is enlarged and protrusive with increased spacing between teeth
  • thickening of facial soft tissues
92
Q

What are the clinical features of pagets disease? (2)

A
  • affected bones are thickened but weaker and pathological fractures can occur
  • narrowing of foramina can cause cranial nerve defects
93
Q

What is the treatment of pagets disease? (2)

A
  • calcitonin

- bisphosphonates

4th Year Revision (12 decks)

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