Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the leading cause of death in the United States?

A

Myocardial Incfarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is characterized by incomplete expansion of the lungs or collapse of previously inflated lungs?

A

Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following involves separation of the diaphragmatic crura and widening of the space between the muscular crura and the esophageal wall?

A

Hiatal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder marked by accumulation of toxic levels of copper in many tissue and organs, mostly in the liver, brain and the eye?

A

Wilson disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is a cancer of the connective tissue that usually spreads via the blood stream?

A

Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

WHich of the following is a cancer of the epithelial tissue that usually spreads via the lymphatic system?

A

Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following cells is produced predominately by an inflammatory response to Salmonella?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What organism is the most common opportunist to infect AIDS patients?

A

pneumocystis carni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following presents with a positive HLA-B-27 and increased risk of deformity?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Toxic megacolon is a complication of which of the following?

A

ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ship lesions are a characteristic of which of the following?

A

krohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aschoff bodies are characteristic of which of the following?

A

rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pseydohypertrophy is most common in which of the following muscle disorders?

A

duchanne’s dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The most threatening effect of Guillian Barre is on which of the following muscles?

A

respiratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dry eyes and dry mouth are symptoms of which of the following autoimmune diseases?

A

Sjogen’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vascular tumors originate in which cell type?

A

endothelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sequestra frequently accompany what condition?

A

Pyogenic osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the primary mechanism of inflammatory edema?

A

Increased permeability of the capillary wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The most common sites for cardiac valvular vegitations are which of the following valves?

A

aortic and mitral valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Coccidiomycosis most commonly affects which organs?

A

Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who is considered the father of pathology?

A

Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What characteristic is least suggestive of malignancy in a growing tumor?

A

Fibrous capsule (usually benign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following secrete both heparin and histamine?

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Carcinoma is least likely to metastasize where?

A

skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following affects both salivary and lacrimal ducts?

A

Sjogen’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is a common site for cardiac valvular vegitations?

A

Aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which leukemia has the philadelphia chromosome?

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following leads to decreased bone density?

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A female with gonorrhea may pass it via delivery by which of the following?

A

Opthalmia Neonatorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following has the best prognosis?

A

AStrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is the most common malignant tumor of the intestines?

A

Adenosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is a common site for cardiac valvular vegitations?

A

mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a neoplasm?

A

It cannot return to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where are neoplasms most commonly formed?

A

Epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Multiple myofibromas and cafe-au-lait spots are associated with which of the following?

A

Von Recklinghausen’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which part of the spinal cord is most affected by myotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

Anterior horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following are findings in a patient with tetralogy of fallot?

A

Pulmonary stenosis and R ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What describes thrombophlebitis?

A

Venous inflammation and thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What describes right sided heart failure?

A
  • Distention of Neck veins
  • Dependent Edema
  • Liver enlargement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Systemic fibrosis is seen in which of the following?

A

Scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What organism is most responsible for pneumonia in AIDS patients?

A

Pneumocystic Carni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins are associated with a Type II response?

A

IgG and IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of R sided heart failure?

A

L sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pernicious anemia is due to a lack of which of the following?

A

Intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following disorders affects myoneural junction

A

Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which arteries are involved in giant cell arteritis?

A

Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T-helper cells are seen in which types of immunity?

A

Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Presenile dementia is seen in which of the following?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A female with gonorrhea may pass it to the child when?

A

During delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which leukemia is involved with the philadelphia chromosome?

A

CML (chronic myelocytic leukemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

a person with galactosemia should avoid which of the following?

A

Lactose (milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pernicious anemia and lack of Vit B12 results in _______

A

Spinal cord degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following causes pitting edema?

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What causes edema of flanks and fatty changes in the liver?

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following causes a cyanotic condition?

A

Dextroposition of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The philadelphia chromosome is a risk factor for which leukemia?

A

Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of the following is a periosteal encasement of necrotic tissue?

A

Sequestrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are patients with asbestosis predisposed to?

A

Mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A periosteal reaction described radiographically as a sunburst rxn is most common in which of the following?

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following is a degenerative disease that affects the cranial nerve nuclei?

A

Progressive Bulbar Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Circulatory levels of which of the following increase during an acute inflammatory response?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which disease presents with Chronic rheumatoid arthritis and splenomegally?

A

Felty’s syndrome (S.A.N.T.A) - remember this from arthridities with Korvatko?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is another name for Marie Strumpell’s Disease?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following affects the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia and results in resting tremors?

A

Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is caused by which vitamin deficiency?

A

Vit B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for an infant who develops projectile vomiting in the 1st 3 weeks of life?

A

Pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the spine?

A

Hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What causes hoarseness associated with a carcinoma in the apex of the lung?

A

Laryngeal nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following substances is produced in the cells and increases inflammation due to tissue injury?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What happens to a cell as a result of thyroid goiter?

A

Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following types of thyrotoxicosis is the most common in patients under 40?

A

Graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the 4 steps associated with thrombus?

A
  1. Dissolving
  2. Recanalization
  3. Obstruction
  4. Embolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following does a lesion that has caseous necrosis in the center surrounded by endothelial macrophages characterize?

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The release of histamine into the skin following cutaneous trauma causes which of the following?

A

Vasodilation of arterioles (redness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following occurs in a Keloid?

A

Hypertrophic enlargement of scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following is classified as a benign neoplasm?

A

Lipoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following is a systemic immune complex reaction?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A deficiency in Vitamin C will most affect what tissue?

A

Connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Chronic alcoholism, which will lead to Werneike-Korsakoff Syndrome, causes what type of Vitamin deficiency?

A

B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of Lyme’s Disease?

A

Bulls eye rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following is associated with Kleinfelter’s syndrome?

A

XXY chromosome abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the following is the most common degenerative disease of the joints?

A

OA (aka DJD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following is associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Pannus Formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

WHich of the following is responsible for post-infectious glomerulonephritis?

A

B-Hemolytic Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Who is most likely to have entrapment neuropathy of the median nerve?

A

Pregnant Females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the definition of cardiac temponade?

A

Fluid in the pericardial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which of the following is a primary immunodeficiency disease?

A

Bruton’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which of the following results from hyperparathyroidism?

A

Osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What type of collagen can be found at the end of the wound healing?

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What type f collagen is found 1st (earliest) in a wound?

A

Type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What type of collagen is located in the basement membrane?

A

Type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A deficiency in which of the following trace elements results in tetani, which can be seen similarly and will accompany hypocalcemia?

A

Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A patient with a yolk cell tumor of the testes likely has an elevation in which of the following blood serum levels?

A

Alph-fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Tensile strength is the proteinaceous deposition of ______ in a healing wound

A

Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A cancer that has not invaded the basement membrane or the tissue of origin is called _____

A

Carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Thombosis and embolism of which of the following vessels can cause a transmural infarction of the small intestine?

A

Superior mesenteric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Which of the following diseases produces symptoms due primarily to demyelinization of peripheral motor nerve axons?

A

Post-indections polyradiculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Generalized muscle weakness, poor intestinal tone and resultant bloating, heart abnormalities, weakening of respiratory muscles are characteristic of which of the following deficiencies?

A

Calcium deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Coccidiomyocosis most commonly affects which of the following arteries?

A

LUNG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Epidural hemorrhage most likely results from laceration to which of the following arteries?

A

Middle meningeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Synovial thickening and secondary inflammation with edema but NO pannus formation is seen in which of the following conditions?

A

Gouty arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Ischemic necrosis as a consequence of cardiac muscle damage is which type of necrosis?

A

Coagulative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which of the following causes localized edema, which accompanies filariasis?

A

Lymph Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which joints do Heberden nodes affect?

A

Distal interphalangeal (DIPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the most common cause of Cirrhosis of the liver?

A

Chronic alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurisms in the elderly?

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the 1st sign of artherosclerosis?

A

Fatty streaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which of the following causes lobar pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the mechanism that allows the Herpes Virus to stay in the body after the original infection?

A

Sequestering of the Virus Genome in the Sensory Neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where does a pulmonary embolus most commonly originate?

A

LE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Where can the initial symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis be observed?

A

Ocular muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Pitting edema is typically caused by what?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What condition is probably present when the median groove of the prostate cannot be palpated?

A

prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Which of the following would cause the prostate to feel boggy upon palpation?

A

Prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What exudative lesion is caused by mycobacterial tuberculosis and contains caseous necrosis?

A

Ghon Lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which disease is Brodie’s Abscess associated with?

A

Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Which disease is associated with TB of the spine?

A

Pott’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is another name for Juvenile RA?

A

Still’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Pyknosis is characterized by nuclear ______

A

condensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Which of the following is a vasospastic disorder, which affects small arteries and arterioles of the extremities?

A

Raynaud’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What would a hemorrhage in the reticular formation of the brain likely result in?

A

Coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is a localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from immunologically induced necrotizing vasculitis?

A

Arthus phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Which of the following is associated with subluxation of the lens, laxity of ligaments and cystic medial necrosis of the aorta?

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

In most types of allergic reactions which of the following mediates the immediate transient phase of vascular permeability?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Ischemic necrosis as a consequence of cardiac muscle damage is which type of necrosis?

A

Coagulative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What causes localized edema, which accompanies filariasis?

A

Lymphatic obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Which joints do Heverden’s Nodes affect?

A

Interphalangeal Joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Which of the following may lead to Megaloblastic Anemia?

A

Atrophic Gastric Mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Antibodies against double stranded DNA are most characteristic of which of the following?

A

SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which of the following clsses of immunoglobulins most commonly cause autoimmune diseases?

A

IgG and IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What will a protein deficient diet produce?

A

Kwashiorkor

133
Q

Dermatitis, dementia, and diarrhea are characteristic of which of the following?

A

Niacin (B3) Deficiency

134
Q

Which vitamin deficency causes beri beri?

A

Thiamine (B1) Deficiency

135
Q

Delayed healing of wounds and rapid mobilization of Vitamin A in the liver may be due to what type of deficiency?

A

Zinc

136
Q

Avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis is called _________

A

Legg Calve Perthe’s

137
Q

Which of the following is most likely to accompany Otto’s Pelvis?

A

Osteomalacia

138
Q

Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of Osteoid Osteoma?

A

Pain that is most severe at night and is relieved by aspirin

139
Q

What are bone spurs and lipping of vertebral bodies characteristic of?

A

DJD

140
Q

What is the most common fracture of the wrist?

A

Colle’s fracture (fracture distal radius of the forearm, with posterior displacement of the wrist)

141
Q

A common source of lytic metastasis to bone in females is the ________

A

Lungs (lungs are always lytic)

142
Q

Which of the following is most likely to develop into ankylosis?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

143
Q

Which of the following is the primary side of pathology in Osteoarthritis?

A

Articular cartilage

144
Q

Which of the following causes excessive release of Ach?

A

Tetanus

145
Q

Which of the following is the most common benign tumor in the adult?

A

Astrocytoma

146
Q

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is due to which of the following?

A

B12 deficiency

147
Q

Which of the following syndromes is a form of polyposis characterized by polyps in the entire GI tract?

A

Peutz Jegher’s Disease

148
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma occurs in approximately 1/3 of the patients with which of the following conditions?

A

AIDS

149
Q

Which of the following represents Type II hypersensitivity?

A

Goodpasture syndrome (basement membrane of type IV collagen attacked by Ab)

150
Q

X linked gammaglobulinemia of Bruton is characterized by which of the following?

A

B-cell deficiency

151
Q

Which of the following develops from an IgE mediated immune reaction?

A

Panacinar Emphysema

152
Q

Neonatal hyaline membrane disease is due to which of the following?

A

Absence of surfactant

153
Q

Which of the following is a genetic defect that causes multiple neuromas?

A

Von Recklinhausen’s Disease

154
Q

The primary biochem requirement for the Dx of Gout is which of the following?

A

Uric acid levels in the blood

155
Q

What is Podagra?

A

Gout of the big toe

156
Q

A fine lateral webbing of the neck would indicate which of the following?

A

Turner’s syndrome

157
Q

Which of the following reactions is an example of Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Arthus

158
Q

Episodes of temporary blindness and weakness of the dorsiflexors is a characteristic of which of the following?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

159
Q

Which fo the following has the greatest potential of degenerating the dorsal columns of the spinal cord?

A

Tertiary Syphilis

160
Q

Which is a poly neuropathy that follows a viral infection?

A

Giullian Barre

161
Q

Coagulation necrosis results form which of the following?

A

Ischemia

162
Q

Which of the following characterizes Amylordosis?

A

Interstitial Glycogen Deposits

163
Q

Which of the following is a reversible cell change?

A

Metaplasia

164
Q

The absence of ganglion cells of the myenteric plexus is characteristic of which of the following?

A

Hirshprung’s Disease (congenital megacolon)

165
Q

Which of the following occurs when histamine is released in the skin as a result of cutaneous trauma?

A

Vasodilation of the affected area

166
Q

New capillaries infiltrate the periphery of a hematoma by producing collagen during a process known as ______

A

Organization

167
Q

The circulating level of which blood cell is increased during the body’s response to bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils

168
Q

Eosinophils are increased by the presence of which of the following?

A

Virus

169
Q

Which cell is present in an area of chronic inflammation and has many nuclei scattered in its cytoplasm?

A

Foreign Body Giant Cell

170
Q

A patient who presents with a severe HA and hard painful superficial temporal artery probably has which of the following?

A

Temporal Arteritis

171
Q

Which tumor is characterized by excessive production of Catacholemine?

A

Neuroblastoma of the Adrenal Medulla

172
Q

Which condition features dilated, elongated, torturous alteration of the superficial veins?

A

Varicosity

173
Q

Which is the most common area of the brain to find an aneurysm?

A

Subarachnoid

174
Q

Which of the following does not accompany acute inflammation?

A

Formation of Granulation tissue

175
Q

An abscess of an appendicular head generally contains which type of exudate?

A

Pyogenic

176
Q

SI joints are usually affected in what condition?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

177
Q

Which is the most common hepatic malignancy?

A

Metastasis from the breast or lung

178
Q

Which is the most common histological pattern in Bronchogenic Carcinoma?

A

Squamous cell

179
Q

Which of the following are Parkinson’s inclusion bodies?

A

Lewy bodies

180
Q

What area of the body does Mallory Weiss Syndrome affect?

A

Esophagus

181
Q

What causes demyelination of the peripheral nerves?

A

Guillian Barre Syndrome

182
Q

What causes demyelination of the CNS?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

183
Q

What is the most common nephrotic tumor in children?

A

Wilm’s Tumor

184
Q

What is the msot common leukemia in children?

A

ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia)

185
Q

What is the most common muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchenne’s

186
Q

Black tarry stools are seen in which of the following?

A

Peptic Ulcer (first part of the small intestine or occasionally the lower esophagus)

187
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the heart?

A

Myxoma

188
Q

What is the most common cancer of the testes?

A

Seminoma

189
Q

Over 2/3 of the cases are idiopathic in which deficiency?

A

Aplastic Anemia

190
Q

Which of the following organisms is most commonly found in adult cases of meningitis?

A

Strep pneumoniae

191
Q

Which of the following can cause asthma in kids?

A

2nd hand smoke

192
Q

A true hermaphrodite has which of the following?

A

Both M and F tissues

193
Q

What can cause a fat embolism in dealing with skeletal structures?

A

Fracture of the shaft of a long bone

194
Q

Which of the following is the atheromatous calcification of the aorta that occurs with normal serum calcium levels?

A

Dystrophic Calcification

195
Q

Increased secretion from the anterior pituitary gland following closure of the epiphyseal plates could produce which of the following?

A

Acromegaly

196
Q

A deficiency, in which of the following trace elements results in tetani similar to that, which accompanies hypocalcemia?

A

Magnesium

197
Q

Who is the most infectious member of the family?

A

School age children

198
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by T-cell deficiency due to lack of development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches, deficiency of the hearts great vessels, mouth, ears, and fauces?

A

Di Georges syndrome (look up for more info on this) Deletion of chromosome 22

199
Q

INtercranial calcification occurs most commonly in which of the following?

A

Oligodendroglioma

200
Q

Which of the following is a primary immunodeficiency?

A

Burtons Agammaglobulinemia

201
Q

Almost all pathological changes of SLE involve which of the following?

A

Increased Immune cells

202
Q

WHich of the following is an autosomal glucocerebral disease with Hepato-Splenomegaly?

A

Gaucher’s

203
Q

Which of the following is a pigment found in regressive cells such as old age pigment?

A

Lipofusion

204
Q

Metastatic osteoblastic tumor in a malignancy most likely originates from which of the following?

A. Breast –> 80% osteolytic, 20% osteoblastic
B. Lung –> always LYTIC
C. Prostate –> 80% osteoblastic, 20% osteolytic

A

Prostate –> 80% osteoblastic, 20% osteolytic

205
Q

Which of the following is classified as a benign neoplasm?

A

Lipoma

206
Q

Which of the following is a systemic immune complex reaction?

A

RA

207
Q

Which of the following substances is produced in the cells and increases inflammation due to tissue damage?

A

Histamine

208
Q

What is the result in the cell as a consequence of thyroid goiter?

A

Hyperplasia (increased # of cells)

209
Q

Which of the following types of thyrotoxicosis is most common in patients under 40?

A

Graves Disease

210
Q

Which of the following is characterized by Recanalization?

A

Thrombus (restores flow)

211
Q

Which of the following Vitamin deficiencies causes megaloblastic anemia?

A

Vit B12 (cobalamin)

212
Q

The most common neoplasm in AIDS patients is which of the following?

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma (best answer)

If this is not on there, the 2nd best answer is Non-Hidgkin’s lymphoma [second best]

213
Q

Which of the following is a periosteal encasement of necrotic tissue?

A

Sequestrium

214
Q

Which of the following is a degenerative disease that affects the cranial nerve nuclei?

A

Progressive Bulbar Palsy

215
Q

Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, HTN and weakness of the upper limbs with decreased lower limb pulse occurs in which patient?

A

Patient with Coartication of the aorta (stricture)

216
Q

What cells are increased during viral infections?

A

Lymphocytes

217
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a congenital absence of P/S ganglia in the colon subsequent constipation and dilation of the colon?

A

Hirshprung’s Disease

218
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by he presence of a 45x Karyotype?

A

Turner’s syndrome

219
Q

Which of the following causes cretinism?

A

Hypothyroidism

220
Q

Which of the following involves malformation of the anterior end of the neural tube?

A

Anacephaly

221
Q

Which of the following involves failure of the caudal portion of the neural tube to close?

A

Spina Bifida

222
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

223
Q

Which of the following is an inherited autosomal dominant disease characterized by progressive movement disorder and dementia?

A

Huntington Disease

224
Q

Which of the following causes the tunica media of medium sized arteries to calcify?

A

Monkeberg’s Sclerosis

225
Q

Which of the following affects the temporal arteries and is associated with long standing HTN?

A

Temporal Arteritis

226
Q

Which of the following is also known as the “pulseless disease”?

A

Takayasu arteritis

227
Q

Which of the following is associated with granulomatous inflammation of the aortic arch?

A

Takayasu arteritis

228
Q

When there is a degeneration of the lateral cells, which of the following is affected?

A

Autonomic Function

229
Q

A starry sky appearance of lymphoid tissue is characteristic of which of the following?

A

Burkett’s Lymphoma

230
Q

Which of the following causes hypoxia without ischemia?

A

Anemia

231
Q

Path consolidation of the lung is characteristic of which of hte following?

A

Bronchopneumonia

232
Q

Giant cell arthritis primarily affects the ______ artery

A

temporal

233
Q

A genetic defect in the conversion of Phenylalanine to Tyrosine int he liver would result in which of the following?

A

Mental retardation (phenylketonuria)

234
Q

A young male from Central africa has a rapidly expanding mass in the jaw area. What is the dx?

A

Burkett’s lymphoma

235
Q

A pulmonary embolus most commonly originates where?

A

LE

236
Q

Where would the initial symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis be observed?

A

Extraocular muscles

237
Q

What type of disease is Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Autoimmune

238
Q

Which of the following characterizes Pyknosis?

A

Nuclear condensation

239
Q

Mask-like face, claq-like fingers, HTN, and fibrosis of the esophagus are characteristics of which of the following diseases?

A

Scleroderma

240
Q

What is a functional vasospastic disorder, which affects small arteries and arterioles of the extremities?

A

Dyspnea

241
Q

Mature cells of atypical size, shape and organization are characteristic of which of what?

A

Dysplasia

242
Q

Antibody synthesis is a primary function of which of the following?

A

Plasma cells

243
Q

Ischemic necrosis as a consequence of cardiac muscle damage is which type of necrosis?

A

Coagulation

244
Q

What is the most common location for a Chondroma?

A

Sacrum [this is a benign cartilagenous tumor]

245
Q

Reed Sternberg cells are associated with which of the following?

A

Hodgkin’s Disease

246
Q

Which heart valve does Rheumatic Fever affect?

A

Mitral

247
Q

Which heart valve does Syphilis affect?

A

Tricuspid

248
Q

What is not a characteristic of Osteoarthritis (DJD)?

A

Joint Swelling

249
Q

Which of the following describes smoker’s cell transfromation?

A

Columnar metaplasia

250
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes diarrhea, dementia and dermatitis?

A

Niacin (B3)

251
Q

Osteomalacia is due to which of the following?

A

Calciferol (Vitamin D) Deficiency

252
Q

Granulation is associated with which of the following?

A

Chronic Inflammation

253
Q

Which of the following is also known as “joint mice disease”?

A

OA

254
Q

Which of the following is most important in wound healing?

A

Vit C

255
Q

What is the most common primary malignancy of bone?

A

Multiple Myeloma

256
Q

Which of the following causes atrophy of the villi?

A

Celiac sprue

257
Q

Which of the following causes destruction of the synovial capsule?

A

RA

258
Q

Liquafactive Necrosis is associated with which of the following?

A

CNS

259
Q

Which of the following is a tumor of the skeletal muscle?

A

Rhabdomyoma

260
Q

Which of the following would cause loss of motor control and trouble walking?

A

Cerebellar Lesion

261
Q

Which of the following causes Microcytic hypochromic anemia?

A

Chronic Iron deficiency

262
Q

Which of the following causes lymphocytosis

A

Viral infection

263
Q

WHich of the following would result in sensitivity to gluten?

A

Celiac disease

264
Q

Which of the following causes total bone marrow destruction?

A

Aplastic anemia

265
Q

Which of the following can be classified as systemic fibrosis?

A

scleroderma

266
Q

A teratoma involves which of the following?

A

All 3 germ layers

267
Q

Right heart failure would cause which the following?

A

Liver and spleen dysfunction

268
Q

Which of the following is the most common myocardial infarct?

A

Descending Branch of the LCA

269
Q

Which of the following is a sign of Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Increased NACL in sweat

270
Q

Increased clastic and blastic activity is associated with _____

A

Paget’s Disease

271
Q

Which of the following describes intusseption?

A

Telescoping of the Intestines

272
Q

Which of the following would be suspected in a 25 y/o female with post-coital bleeding?

A

Endometriosis

273
Q

Hypogonadism is a common finding in which of the following?

A

Kleinfelter’s syndrome

274
Q

Normal lower GI tract ucosa separated by severely inflamed segments would indicate which of the following?

A

Crohn’s disease

275
Q

Which of the following has the least favorable prognosis?

A

Carcinoma of the Pancreas

276
Q

Which of the following initiates an enzyme cascade that produces bradykinin?

A

Hagman factor

277
Q

Which of the following is a benign tumor of the uterus?

A

Leiomyoma

278
Q

Dermal sclerosis, thermal dysfunction of the distal extremities and elongation of the distal hand bones would indicate which of the following?

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

279
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor in adolescents?

A

Osteosarcoma

280
Q

If lateral plating processes fail to join at the midline, it results in what?

A

Cleft palate

281
Q

Death due to acute poliomyelitis is from which of the following?

A

Respiratory paralysis

282
Q

A 30 year old with coughing, fever, and night sweats has which of the following?

A

TB

283
Q

What is the most common site for a fungal infection?

A

Skin

284
Q

Haygarth’s nodes are associated with which type of arthritis?

A

RA

285
Q

Which of the following affects the diaphysis?

A

Ewing sarcoma

286
Q

Which of the following is the most common benign tumor of the hands and feet?

A

Enchondroma

287
Q

A cerebral infarct causes which type of necrosis?

A

Liquifactive

288
Q

Tabes doraslis is associated with which of the following?

A

Syphilis

289
Q

Which of the following causes cavitation in the spinal cord?

A

Syringomyelia

290
Q

Which of the following causes adult Acromegaly?

A

Hyperpituitarism

291
Q

Atherosclerosis affects which blood vessel layer?

A

Tunica intima

292
Q

Which condition is characterized by an imbalance of osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity?

A

Osteoporosis

293
Q

Which of the following is associated with transplant rejection?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

294
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a malignant neoplasm?

A

Infiltration

295
Q

What is granulomatous tissue made up of?

A

Capillaries and fibroblasts

296
Q

Hansen’s disease is known as _______

A

leprosy

297
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of celiac disease?

A

Atrophy of intestinal Villi

298
Q

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that is sex-linked?

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

299
Q

Myxedema is also called _____

A

Hypothyroidism

300
Q

Which of the following is associated with burn victims?

A

Hypovolemic shock

301
Q

Which type of necrosis is most common in the pancreas?

A

Enzymatic

302
Q

Systemic thrombosis is most apt to lodge where?

A

Periphery of the lungs

303
Q

Which of the following is the 1st to be involved in Duchanne’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Pelvic girdle

304
Q

A decrease in Vit K is most apt to cause which of the following?

A

Bleeding and bruising

305
Q

Fissures in the articular cartilage and a loss of proteoglycans are associated with which of the following conditions?

A

OA

306
Q

Which of the following are associated with Reiter’s Syndrome?

A

Arthritis, Conjunctivitis, Urethritis

307
Q

Elephantitis is a result of which of the following?

A

Lymphatic Obstruction

308
Q

Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of the _______

A

Plasma cells

309
Q

AIDS has an affinity for _____ cells.

A

CD4

310
Q

Pyogenic Osteomyelitis most commonly affects which of the following?

A

Metaphysis of Long bones

311
Q

What is the most common malignancy in men between 40 & 60 years of age?

A

Lung cancer

312
Q

What pathology affects the basal ganglia?

A

parkinson’s disease

313
Q

An excess of uric acid in the blood stream is associated with which of the following?

A

Gouty arthritis

314
Q

Monosodium urate crystals in a joint result in _____

A

Tophi

315
Q

WHich of the following is a neoplasm derived from multiple tissue?

A

Teratoma

316
Q

Raynaud’s disease is characterized by ______

A

Digital vasospasm

317
Q

What is the most common location for osteosarcoma?

A

mataphysis

318
Q

What is clubbing of the fingers most commonly associated with?

A

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

319
Q

An upper and lower motor neuron lesion is a significant finding in which neurological disorder?

A

Lou Gehrig’s disease (ALS - Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)

320
Q

Which type of hemophilia is associated with factor 8 deficiency?

A

Hemophilia A

321
Q

What does the migration of Leukocytes toward an injury describe?

A

Chemotaxis

322
Q

Smoking is a major causative factor in which of the following?

A

Thromboangitis Obliterans

323
Q

Which of the following has been implicated as a causative agent in cervical cancer?

A

Herpes Papilioma Virus (HPV)

324
Q

What sign is most common in Kwashiorkor?

A

Edema

325
Q

The presence of eosinophils indicated what type of infection?

A

Fungal

326
Q

The presense of lymphocutes indicates what type of infection?

A

viral

327
Q

The presense of neutrophils indicates what type of infection?

A

bacterial

328
Q

Wool Sorter’s Disease is an infection of the _____

A

Respiratory system