Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Pyknosis

A

irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing apoptosis

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2
Q

Karyorrhexis

A

destructive fragmentation of a dying cell (cell undergoing apoptosis); irreversible

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3
Q

Karyloysis

A

Dissolution of the chromatin/Fading of the nucleus of a dying cell; part of apoptosis; irreversible

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4
Q

Apoptosis vs Necrosis

A

Apoptosis–>no inflammation; form apoptotic bodies, which are phagocytosed
Necrosis –> swelling and inflammation; intracellular components extravasate

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5
Q

Cell injury that’s reversible with oxygen:

A
  • decreased ATP synthesis
  • Cellular swelling (ie no ATP –> impaired Na/K pump)
  • Nuclear chromatin clumping
  • decreased glycogen
  • fatty change
  • ribosomal detachment (decreased protein synthesis)
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6
Q

Cell injury that’s irreversible

A
  • Nuclear pyknosis, karyolysis, karyhorrhexis (all processes involved in apoptosis)
  • Calcium influx–> caspase activation
  • plasma membrane damage
  • lysosomal rupture
  • mitochondiral permeability (ie with intrinsic pathway of apoptosis)
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7
Q

Areas that are susceptible to hypoxia:

A
  • Watershed areas –> Splenic flexure and ACA/MCA
  • Subendocardial tissue of heart
  • Proximal Tubule in cortex of Kidney
  • Thick Ascending limb in medulla of kidney
  • Neurons
  • Area around central vein of liver
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8
Q

Red vs Pale Infarcts

A

Red = hemorrhagic; happens in tissues with loose collaterals, like liver, lungs, intestine; or, after reperfusion of an area

Pale happen in solid tissues with old one blood supply (like heart, kidney, spleen)

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9
Q

What causes reperfusion injury?

A

Damage by free radicals

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10
Q

Hypovolemic/Cardiogenic Shock vs Septic Shock findings:

A

Hypovolemic/Cardiogenic:

  • LOW-output failure
  • increased TPR
  • Low cardiac output
  • Cold, Clammy pt

Septic Shock:

  • HIGH-output failure
  • decreased TPR
  • dilated arterioles, high venous return
  • Hot patient
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11
Q

Mediators of fluid exudation in inflammation:

A
  • Histamine
  • Serotonin
  • Bradykinin
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12
Q

Acute phase cytokines associated with inflammation?

A

IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha

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13
Q

Metalloproteinases:

A

Enzymes involved in remodeling of ECM following injury

–> require ZINC! this is why Zinc deficiencies result in delayed wound healing!

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14
Q

Why is vitamin C important for wound healing?

A

–>fibrosis, need collagen for deposition of ECM; need vitamin C for collagen!

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15
Q

Two supplements given to pts who are healing:

A
  • Vitamin C (for collagen)

- Zinc (for metalloproteinases)

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16
Q

5 steps of Leukocyte Extravasion:

A

1) Rolling (E- and P-Selectins and Sialyl Lewis leukocyte)
2) Tight binding (ICAM and Integrin)
3) Diapedesis (PECAM)
4) Migration (Bacterial products and chemotactic signals = C5a, IL-8, LTB4, Kallikrein)
5) Phagocytosis

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17
Q

signals for neutrophil chemotaxis?

A

C5a
IL-8
Leukotriene B4
Kallikrein

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18
Q

Delayed separation of umbilicus, and abnormal integrin:

A

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

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19
Q

Which vitamins are anti-oxidants (can eliminate free radicals)?

A

A, C, E

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20
Q

3 phases of wound healing: When does each phase occur? which cells are the mediators? characteristics?

1) Inflammatory
2) Proliferative
3) Remodeling

A

1) Inflammatory:
- ->occurs immediately
- ->Mediators: platelets, neutrophils, macrophages
- ->form clot, neutrophils go into tissue, macrophages clean up

2) Proliferative:
- ->2-3 days after wound
- ->Mediators: fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells, keratinocytes
- ->granulation tissue, collagen, angiogenesis, epithelial cell proliferation, dissolve clot, wound contraction

3) Remodeling:
- ->1 week after wound
- -> Mediators: Fibroblasts
- -> Type I collagen replaces type III collagen (type I is for late wound repair; type III is for granulation/early wound repair)

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21
Q

Type of collagen involved in early wound healing? late wound healing?

A

-Early wound healing –> granulation tissue –> Collagen Type III
Late wound repair –> Scar tissue –> Type I collagen (stronger)

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22
Q

Pathogenesis of granuloma formation:

A

Th1 cells secrete IFN-gamma –> activate macrophages –> macrophages secrete TNF-alpha –> induces and maintains granuloma formation

***If give pt with a granuloma an anti-TNF drug –> drug can break down granulomas, leading to disseminated disease

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23
Q

Transudate vs Exudate:

A
  • Transudate:
  • Hypocellular
  • Protein poor
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24
Q

What is the ESR?

A
  • -> Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  • -> inflammatory products, like fibrinogen, coat RBCs, causing them to aggregate. So, when put in test tube, aggregated RBCs fall at a faster rate….
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25
Q

3 conditions with DECREASED ESR?

A
  • Sickle Cell (weird RBC shape!)
  • Polycythemia (too many RBCs!)
  • CHF (not sure why…)
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26
Q

5 states in which have increased ESR?

A
  • inflammation
  • infection
  • cancer
  • pregnancy
  • SLE
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27
Q

Bence Jones

A

=amyloid seen in multiple myeloma; derived from Ig light chains

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28
Q

Beta-amyloid

A

amyloid protein in Alzheimer’s deases

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29
Q

Beta-2-microglobulin

A

protein seen in dialysis-associated amyloidosis

*note: have B2-microglobulin on MHC I; this amyloid is derived from MHC-I proteins

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30
Q

Transthyretin

A

protein seen in senile cardiac amyloidosis

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31
Q

A-CAL protein

A

protein seen in Medullary Carcinoma of the thyroid

–>derived from Calcitonin

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32
Q

Carcinoma in situ =

A

Pre-invasive

  • ->cells have not yet invaded basement membrane, but neoplastic cells encompass entire thickness
  • ->have high nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio and clumped chromatin
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33
Q

What enzymes do neoplastic cells use to invade the basement membrane?

A

Collagenases and Hydrolases (metalloproteinases)

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34
Q

Hamartoma =

A

mass of MATURE tissue ENDOGENOUS to site from where it originates (similar to hyperplasia…)

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35
Q
Hyperplasia = 
Metaplasia = 
Dysplasia = 
Anaplasia = 
Neoplasia = 
Desmoplasia = 

Which of these processes are reversible? irreversible?

A

Hyperplasia–> increased # of cells

Metaplasia–> one adult type replaced by another

Dysplasia–> abnormal growth, loss of cellular orientation, shape, size; commonly pre-neoplastic

Anaplasia–>abnormal cells, lack differentiation; very primitive; little/no resemblance to tissue of origin

Neoplasia–> uncontrolled, excessive, clonal proliferation of cells

Desmoplasia–> fibrous tissue formation in response to neoplasm

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36
Q

Features of Anaplastic cells:

A
  • high nucleus:cytoplasm ratio
  • prominent nucleoli
  • nuclear chromatin clumpin
  • lots of mitotic figures
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37
Q

Are mature teratomas benign or malignant?

A

in women–> benign

in men–> malignant

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38
Q

Hemangioma

A

benign tumor of blood vessels; usually affect infants, then disappear spontaneously in the months following birth

39
Q

Angiosarcoma

A

malignant tumor of blood vessels; chronic lymphedema is a predisposing factor (ie following a radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection to treat breast cancer)

40
Q

Rhabdomyoma and Rhabdoymyosarcoma

A

benign and malignant tumors of skeletal muscle

41
Q

Fibroma

A

benign tumor of connective tissue

42
Q

Cachexia

A

loss of weight, muscle atrophy, fatigue –> occurs in chronic disease
-mediated by: TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma, IL-6

43
Q

Neoplasms associated with Down Syndrome?

A
  • ALL

- AML

44
Q

Neoplasms associated with Tuberus Sclerosis (facial angiofibroma, seziures, MR, ash leaf spots)?

A
  • Cardiac rhabdomyoma (about 2/3rds of TS pts)
  • Astrocytoma
  • Angiomyolipoma
45
Q

Neoplasm associated with Barrett’s esophagus?

A

-Esophageal adenocarcinoma

46
Q

Neoplasm associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome (atrophic glossitis, esophageal webs, anemia; all d/t iron deficiency)?

A

-Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus

47
Q

Neoplasm associated with Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Colonic adenocarcinoma

48
Q

Neoplasm associated with autoimmune diseases (ie Hashimoto’s, Myasthenia gravis)?

A

Lymphoma

49
Q

Neoplasmas associated with radiation exposure?

A
  • Sarcoma

- Papillary thyroid cancer

50
Q

Neoplasm associated with Sjogren’s?

A

B-cell lymphoma

51
Q

Neoplasm associated with Cirrhosis (alcoholic, hepatitis B/C)

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

52
Q

Neoplasms associated with Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  • secondary osteosarcoma

- fibrosarcoma

53
Q

Homer-Wright Pseudorosettes:

A

Neuroblastoma

54
Q

abl gene

A

CML

–>tyrosine kinase

55
Q

c-myc

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

–>transcription factor

56
Q

bcl-2

A

follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas

–>anti-apoptotic molecule

57
Q

erb-B2

A

Breast, ovarian, gastric carcinomas

–>tyrosine kinase

58
Q

ras

A

Colon carcinoma

–>GTPase

59
Q

L-myc

A

Lung tumor

–>transcription factor

60
Q

N-myc

A

Neuroblastoma (childhood adrenal medulla tumor)

–>transcription factor

61
Q

ret

A

MEN 2a and 2B

–>tyrosine kinase

62
Q

c-kit

A

Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor

–>cytokine receptor

63
Q

Rb

A
  • Retinoblastoma

- Osteosarcoma

64
Q

p53

A
  • Li-Fraumeni syndrome

- various cancers

65
Q

BRCA1 and 2

A
  • ->DNA repair protein

- ->Breast and ovarian (1), just breast (2)

66
Q

p16

A

melanoma

67
Q

APC

A

colorectal cancer (associated with FAP and Gardner’s syndrome)

68
Q

WT1

A

Wilm’s tumor

69
Q

NF1

A

Neurofirbomatosis I

70
Q

NF-2

A

Neurofibromatosis 2

71
Q

DPC

A

Pancreatic cancer

72
Q

DCC

A

Colon Cancer

73
Q

PSA

A

Prostate-specific antigen

–>used to screen for prostate carcinoma

74
Q

CEA

A

nonspecific tumor marker for colorectal and pancreatic cancers; also gastric, breast, medullary thyroid carcinomas

75
Q

alpha-fetoprotien = tumor marker for:

A
  • Hepatocellular carcinomas

- also for yolk sac tumors

76
Q

Beta-hCG = tumor marker for:

A

“HCG”

  • Hydatidoform moles
  • Choriocarcinomas
  • Gestational trophoblastic tumors
77
Q

CA-125 = tumor marker for:

A

-ovarian tumors

78
Q

S-100 = tumor marker for:

A
  • melanoma
  • Scwannomas

(both are derived from neural crest)

79
Q

Alkaline Phosphatase = tumor marker for?

A
  • metastases to bone
  • Paget’s disease of bone
  • obstructive biliary disease
80
Q

TRAP = tumor marker for?

A

= Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase
–>marker for Hairy cell leukemia (B-cell neoplasm)
“TRAP the Hairy animal!”

81
Q

CA-19 = tumor marker for?

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

82
Q

Calcitonin = tumor marker for?

A

Medullary thryoid carcinoma

83
Q

Cancer associated with HIV (not with HIV-associated conditions; just with HIV)?

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

84
Q

Cancer associated with H. pylori?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma

85
Q

Cancer associated with Aflatoxins (aspergillus)?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

86
Q

cancer associated with vinyl chloride?

A

Angiosarcoma

87
Q

Cancer associated with Nitrosamines (smoked food)?

A

Gastric cancer

88
Q

4 cancers associated with smoking?

A
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Squamous cell and small cell carcinoma
  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • Transitional cell carcinoma
89
Q

2 cancers associated with asbestos

A
  • Mesothelioma

- Bronchogenic carcinoma

90
Q

2 cancers associated with Arsenic?

A
  • Squamous cell carcinoma

- Angiosarcoma

91
Q

Cancer associated with Naphthalene/Aniline dyes?

A

Transitional Cell Carcinoma of bladder

92
Q

Cancer associated with alkylating agents?

A

Leukemia

93
Q

Cancer associated with radon (coal mines, basements)?

A

Lung cancer

94
Q

Psammoma bodies: found in?

A

“PSMM”

  • Papillary cancer of thyroid
  • Serous cancer of ovary
  • Meningioma
  • Malignant mesothelioma