Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Increase in size of cells resulting in increased size of organ.

A

Hypertrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Increase in number of cells.

A

Hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypertrophy of hyperplasia?Uterus during pregnancy

A

Both Estrogen stimulated SM hyperthrophy and hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypertrophy or hyperplasia?Wound healing

A

Hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type of cell death characterized by nuclear dissolution, without complete loss of membrane integrity.

A

Apoptosis(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type of cell death which is energy-dependent, tightly regulated, and associated with normal cellular functions.

A

Apoptosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type of cell death which results from a pathologic cell injury.

A

Necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type of cell death associated with inflammation.

A

Necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It is the irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing necrosis or apoptosis.

A

Pyknosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is the destructive fragmentation of the nucleus of a dying cell.

A

Karyorrhexis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

It is the complete dissolution of the chromatin of a dying cell.

A

Karyolysis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is the first manifestation of almost all forms of injury to cells.

A

Cellular swelling(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Small clear vacuoles within the cytoplasm, representing pinched-off segments of the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

Hydropic change or Vacuolar degeneration (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Appearance of lipid vacuoles in the cytoplasm.

A

Fatty Change(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Surface blebs, increased eosinophilia of the cytoplasm, cellular swelling.

A

Reversible/ Early Ischemic Injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cell injury with loss of nuclei, cellular fragmentation and leakage of cellular contents.

A

Irreversible/ Necrotic cellular injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

These are chemical species with a single unpaired electron in the outer orbital.

A

Free radicals(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common cause of cell injury in clinical medicine.

A

Ischemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Composed of membrane-bound vesicles of cytosol and organelles seen in programmed-cell death.

A

Apoptotic Bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Restoration of blood flow to ischemic but otherwise viable tissue paradoxically results in exacerbated and accelerated injury.

A

Ischemia-Reperfusion Injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pathway of apoptosis trigerred by loss of survival signals, DNA damage and accumulation of misfolded proteins. Inhibited by Anti-apoptotic members of the Bcl family.

A

Mitochondrial / Intrinsic Pathway(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pathway of apoptosis responsible for elimination of self-reactive lymphocytes and damage by cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Initiated by TNF receptors.

A

Death Receptor / Extrinsic Pathway(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Refers to any abnormal accumulation of triglycerides within parenchymal cells. Most often seen in the liver but can also occur in the heart, sk m., and kidneys.

A

Fatty Change(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Other name for macrophages in contact with lipid debris of necrotic cells or abnormal forms of lipoproteins. Filled with minute, membrane-bound vacuoles of lipid, imparting a foamy appearance to their cytoplasm.

A

Foam cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Presence of cholesterol-filled macrophages in subepithelial connective tissue of skin or tendons.

A

Xanthomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hypertrophy or hyperplasia?Cardiomegaly due to hypertension

A

Hypertrophy Due to increased workload(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most common exogenous pigment?

A

Carbon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

“Wear and Tear pigment”?

A

Lipofuschin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pigment produced by tyrosinase-catalyzed oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine.

A

Melanin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hemoglobin-derived granular pigment that is golden-yellow to brown in color. Accumulates in excess of iron.

A

Hemosiderin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Histochemical reaction used to identify hemosiderin.

A

Prussian blue test(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Abnormal calcium deposition occuring in the absence of calcium metabolic derangements.

A

Dystrophic calcification.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Calcium deposition in normal tissues occuring in the presence of hypercalcemia.

A

Metastatic calcification (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Grossly seen as fine white granules or clumps, often felt as gritty deposits. Histologically, intra/extracellular basophilic deposits.

A

Calcium salts(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A result of a progressive decline in the proliferative capacity and lifespan of cells.

A

Cellular aging(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.29

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Appears as round or oval masses with intensely eosinophilic cytoplasm, nuclei with various stages of chromatin condensation and aggregation, karyorrhexis.

A

Apoptotic cell(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Membrane bound vesicles of cytosol and organelles quickly extruded and phagocytosed without eliciting inflammatory response.

A

Apoptotic bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Clear vacuoles within parenchymal cells, displacing the nucleus to the cell periphery.

A

Fatty change (TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Focal, intracellular fat deposits creating alternating bands of yellowed myocardium with alternating bands of darker red-brown uninvolved heart or “tigered effect”.

A

Fatty change of the heart(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Rounded, eosinophilic accumulation of newly synthesized immunoglobulins in the rough ER of plasma cells.

A

Russel bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in liver cells composed of aggregated intermediate filaments which resist degradation. Seen in patients woth alcoholic liver disease.

A

Mallory body / “alcoholic hyalin”(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Aggregated protein inclusions that contain microtubule-associated proteins and neurofilaments, reflecting disrupted neuronal cytoskeleton.

A

Neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer’s disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

An insoluble brownish-yellow granular intracellular material that accumulates as a function of age and atrophy. Appears as perinuclear electron-dense granules on electron microscopy.

A

Lipofuschin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A form of tissue necrosis in which the component cells are dead but the basic tissue architecture is preserved. The affected tissues take on a firm texture.

A

Coagulative necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Refers to focal areas of fat destruction, typically resulting from release of activated pancreatic lipases into the substance of the pancreas and the peritoneal cavity. The foci of necrosis contain shadowy outlines of necrotic fat cells with basophilic calcium deposits, surrounded by an inflammatory reaction.

A

Fat necrosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A special form of necrosis usually seen in immune reactions involving blood vessels. Deposits of immune complexes, together with fibrin that has leaked out of vessels, result in a bright pink and amorphous appearance in H&E stains, called “fibrinoid” (fibrin-like) by pathologists.

A

Fibrinoid necrosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Seen in focal bacterial or, occasionally, fungal infections, because microbes stimulate the accumulation of inflammatory cells and the enzymes of leukocytes digest the tissue.

A

Liquefactive necrosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This term is usually applied to a limb, generally the lower leg, that has lost its blood supply and has undergone coagulative necrosis involving multiple tissue layers.

A

Gangrenous necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

It is a protective response intended to eliminate the initial cause of cell injury as well as the necrotic cells and tissues resulting from the original insult.

A

Inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Inflammation which is characterized by plasma protein exudation and a predominantly neutrophilic leukocyte accumulation.

A

Acute inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Inflammation typified by influx of lymphocytes and macrophages associated with vascular proliferation and fibrosis.

A

Chronic inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Heat (calor)redness (rubor)swelling (tumor)pain (dolor)loss of function (functio laesa)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Initial vascular response to injury?

A

Vasoconstriction.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

An ultrafiltrate of blood which contains little protein. Results from arteriolar vasodilation and increased blood flow.

A

Transudate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Results from increased vascular permeability, leading to leakage of protein into tissues.

A

Exudate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fluid accumulation in extravascular space.

A

Edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

State the molecule in the endothelium responsible for this stage of vascular inflammatory response:Rolling

A

Selectins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

State the molecule in the lymphocyte responsible for this stage of vascular inflammatory response:Firm adhesion

A

Integrins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

State the molecule in the endothelium responsible for this stage of vascular inflammatory response:Transmigration

A

PECAM-1/CD 31(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

State the endothelial adhesion molecule responsible for this stage of vascular inflammatory response:Intercellular adhesion

A

ICAM -1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

State the lymphocytic adhesion molecule counterpart of the following endothelial receptors:E-Selectin

A

Sialyl-Lewis X modified glycoprotein(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

State the lymphocytic adhesion molecule counterpart of the following endothelial receptors:P-Selectin

A

Sialyl-Lewis X-Modified glycoprotein(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

State the lymphocytic adhesion molecule counterpart of the following endothelial receptors:ICAM-1

A

Integrins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

State the lymphocytic adhesion molecule counterpart of the following endothelial receptors:CD-31

A

CD-31(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The process of luekocyte accumulation at the periphery of blood vessels is called ______.

A

Margination(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Arrange the following steps in the inflammatory response:A. Recruitment of leukocytesB. Regulation of responseC. Recognition of injurious agentD. Removal of agentE. Resolution

A

C, A, D, B, E(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Arrage the steps in leukocyte recruitment:A. TransmigrationB. Rolling C. MarginationD. Firm adhesion

A

C, B, D, A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Process of coating microorganisms with proteins that facilitate phagocytosis.

A

Opsonization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A lymphocyte with ingested microorganism fused with lysosome is called _______.

A

Phagolysosome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The most important lysosomal enzyme involved in bacterial killing.

A

Elastase(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Process of leukocyte migration toward sites of infection or injury along a chemical gradient.

A

Chemotaxis(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The most important lysosomal enzyme involved in bacterial killing.

A

Elastase(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A peptide Leukocyte granule constituent which kills microbes by creating holes in their membranes.

A

Defensins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Predominant form of leukocyte during the first 6 - 24 hours of inflammation?

A

Neutrophils(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Predominant form of leukocyte during 24-48 hrs after the onset of inflammation?

A

Monocytes(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Substances responsible for leukocyte-induced tissue injury?

A

Lysosomal enzymes, reactive oxygen and nitrogen species.(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Defective synthesis of CD 18 B-subunit of leukocyte integrins LFA-1 and Mac-1 leading to impaired leukocyte adhesion and migration through endothelium.

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Caused by a defect in fucose metabolism resulting in absence of sialyl-lewis X, the oligosaccharide on leukocytes that binds to selectins on activated endothelium.

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Results from a defect in the protein involved in membrane docking and fusion.

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

NADPH deficiency or defect resulting in decreased oxidative burst.

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Type of acute inflammation characterized by the outpouring of watery, relatively protein-poor fluid derived from the serum or endothelial lining of peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities.

A

Serous inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Fluid in a serous cavity is called ______.

A

Effusion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

This type of inflmmation results from greater vascular permeability that allows larger molecules to pass the endothelial barrier.

A

Fibrinous inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Histologically, appears as an eosinophilic meshwork of threads or sometimes an amorphous coagulum.

A

Fibrinous inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

This type of inflammation is manifested by the presence of large amounts of purulent exudate consisting of neutrophils, necrotic cells, and edema fluid.

A

Suppurative (purulent) inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Focal collections of pus that may be caused by seeding pyogenic organisms into a tissue or by secondary infections of necrotic foci.

A

Abscess(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

It is an excavation of the surface of an organ or tissue that is produced by necrosis of cells and sloughing of inflammatory necrotic tissue.

A

Ulcer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Vasoactive amines that are preformed molecules in secretory granules of mast cells, basophils and platelets.

A

Serotonin, Histamine(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Complement fragments which are anaphylotoxins.

A

C3a, C5a (A for anaphylotoxin)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Complement fragment which aids in opsonization.

A

C3b (b for binding)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Membrane attack complex

A

C5b, C6-9(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

It is the cytolytic endproduct of the complement cascade, which forms a transmembrane channel causing osmotic lysis of target cells.

A

Membrane attack complex (C5b,C6-9)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Enzyme blocked by NSAIDS.

A

Cyclooxygenase 1 and 2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.47

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Enzyme inhibited by glucocorticoids

A

Phospholipase A2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.47

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Polypeptide products of many cell types that function as mediators of inflammation and immune response.

A

Cytokines(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

They are a family of small structurally related proteins that act primarily as chemoattractants for different subsets of leukocytes.

A

Chemokines(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Major cytokines in acute inflmmation.

A

TNF and IL-1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A short-lived, soluble, free-radical gas produced by endothelial cells causing smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation.

A

Nitric oxide(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.49

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

This component of the coagulation cascade initiates four systems involved in the inflammatory response, namely the kinin, clotting, fibrinolytic and complement systems.

A

Activated Hageman Factor / Factor XIIa(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Inflammation characterized by infiltration with mononuclear cells, tissue destruction and repair involving angiogenesis and fibrosis.

A

Chronic Inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Macrophages in the liver

A

Kupffer cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Macrophages in the spleen and lymph nodes

A

Sinus histiocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Macrophages in the CNS

A

Microglial cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Macrophages in the lungs

A

Alveolar Macrophages(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A focus of epiheloid cells, rimmed by fibroblasts, lymphocytes, histiocytes, occasional giant cells.

A

Noncaseating tubercle, Tuberculosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Central amorphous granular debris, loss of all cellular detail, acid-fast bacilli

A

Caseating tuberculosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Acid-fast bacilli in macrophages, noncaseating granulomas

A

Leprosy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Microscopic to visible lesion, enclosing wall of histiocytes, plasma cell infiltrates, necrotic central cells without loss of cellulr outline

A

Gumma (Syphilis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Rounded or stellate granuloma containing central granular debris and recognizable neutrophils, giant cells uncommon.

A

Cat-scratch Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Noncaseating granulomas with abundant activated macrophages

A

Sarcoidosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Occasional noncaseating granulomas in intestinal walls, with dense chronic inflammatory infiltrate

A

Chron disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Cells with pink, granular cytoplasm with indistinct boundaries.

A

Epitheloid cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

40-50 um in size, consisting of a large mass of cytoplasm and many nuclei.

A

Giant cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Necrotic material which appears amorphous, structureless, granular debris, with complete loss of cellular details.

A

Caseous necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Cytokines which stimulate prostaglandins in the hypothalamus, producing fever.

A

TNF, IL-1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.57

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Cells of these tissues are continuously being lost and replaced by maturation from stem cells and by proliferation of mature cells. Can readily regenerate after injury as long as the pool of stem cells is preserved.

A

Labile tissues(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cells of theses tissues are quiescent and have only minimal replicative activity in their normal state. Capable of proliferating in response to injury or loss of tissue mass.

A

Stable tissues(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Cells of these tissues are considered to be terminally differentiated and nonproliferatvie in postnatal life.

A

Permanent tissues(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.62

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Bone marrow

A

Labile(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Vaginal epithelium

A

Labile(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Salivary glands

A

Labile(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Liver parenchyma

A

Stable(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Endothelium

A

Stable(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Smooth muscle cells

A

Stable(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Neurons

A

Permanent(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.62

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Cardiac muscle

A

Permanent(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.62

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Type of collagen found in basement membrane

A

Type IV collagen(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Type of collagen found in basement membrane

A

Type IV collagen(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

This is the most abundant glycoprotein in basement membrane.

A

Laminin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.68

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

The pink, soft, granular tissue seen beneath the scab of a skin wound.

A

Granulation tissue(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Maturation and reorganization of fibrous tissue

A

Remodeling(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Healing of a clean, uninfected surgical incision approximated by surgical sutures

A

Healing by first intention / Primary Union(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.74

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Type of healing wherein tissue is allowed to heal by itself before suturing. Used in large wounds, in the presence of abscess, or ulceration.

A

Healing by secondary intention / secondary union(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.76

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Wound strength reaches 70 - 80 % of normal in ______ months.

A

3 months(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Single most important cause of delay in wound healing.

A

Infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

True or false: Complete restoration can occur only in tissues composed of stable and labile cells.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Refers to the restoration of tissue architecture and function after an injury.

A

Repair (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

True or false:Injury to tissues composed of permanent cells does not result to scarring.

A

False. Injury to tissues composed of permanent cells, inevitably results to scarring.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Process of replacing damaged components of a tissue, returning to a normal state.

A

Regeneration (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Migration and proliferation of fibroblasts with deposition of ECM.

A

Scar formation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Maturation and reorganization of fibrous tissue

A

Remodeling(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.73

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

The pink, soft, granular tissue seen beneath the scab of a skin wound.

A

Granulation tissue(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.73

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Arrange the steps in cutaneous wound healing:A. Formation of granulation tissueB. ECM remodelingC. Inflammation

A

C, A, B(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

It consists of a series of steps at which the cell checks for the accuracy of replication and mitosis and instructs itself to proceed to the next step.

A

Cell cycle(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

In the cell cycle, this is called the presynthetic growth phase.

A

G1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

In the cell cycle, this is also called the premitotic growth phase.

A

G2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

These steps in the cell cycle prevents DNA replication or mitosis of damaged cells and either transiently stop the cell cycle to allow repair, or eliminate irreversibly damaged cells by apoptosis.

A

Checkpoint control(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

These enzymes promote DNA replication and various aspects of mitosis. They are required for cell cycle progression. Forms complexes with cyclin.

A

Cyclin-deoendent kinases (CDK)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

This cytokine is released from activated macrophages, and is mitogenic for keratinocytes and fibroblasts. It also stimulates keratinocyte migration and granulation tissue formation.

A

Epidermal Growth Factor (EGF)(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

This cytokine increases vascular permeability and is mitogenic for endothelial cells.

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.71

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Pattern of extracellular signaling wherein the target cell is itself.

A

Autocrine(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Pattern of extracellular signaling wherein the target cell is adjacent to the secretory cell.

A

Paracrine(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Pattern of extracellular signaling wherein the target cell is distant to the secretory cell.

A

Endocrine(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Synthesized by mesenchymal cells, present in the spaces between cells in connective tissue, between epithelium and supportive vascular and smooth muscle structures.

A

Interstitial Matrix(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Component of ECM which confers tensile strength and recoil.

A

Fibrous proteins s.a. Collagen and elastin(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Component of ECM that permits resilience and lubrication.

A

Proteoglycans, hyaluronan(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Component of ECM that connect the elements to one another and to the cells.

A

Adhesive glycoproteins(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Extravasation of fluid into interstitial spaces due to increases in vascular volume or pressure, decreases in plasma protein content or alterations in endothelial function.

A

Edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.81

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

It is a severe and generalized edema with profound subcutaneous tissue swelling.

A

Anasarca(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.81

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The edema fluid occuring with volume or pressure overload or under conditions of reduced plasma protein.

A

Transudate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Edema secondary to increased vascular permeability and inflammation.

A

Exudate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

The serum protein most responsible for maintaining intravascular colloid osmotic pressure.

A

Albumin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

In breast cancer, infiltration and obstruction of superficial lymphatics can cause edema of the overlying skin, called _______ appearance.

A

Peau d’ orange(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Microscopically, it is reflected primarily as a clearing and separation of the extracellular matrix elements with subtle cell swelling.

A

Edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Diffuse edema usually more prominent in certain body areas as a result of the effects of gravity.

A

Dependent edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

True or false:Dependent edema is a prominent feature of left-sided heart failure.

A

False.Dependent edema is a feature of right-sided HF, while pulmonary congestion is a feature of left-sided HF.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Edema due to renal dysfunction which manifests disproportionately in tissues with loose connective tissue matrix, e.g. Eyelids.

A

Periorbital edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Finger pressure over significantly edematous subcutaneous tissue displacing the interstitial fluid, leaving a finger-shaped depression on the skin.

A

Pitting edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Condition wherein the lungs weigh 2-3x the normal, and on sectioning reveals frothy, sometimes blood-tinged mixture of air, fluid and extravasated red cells.

A

Pulmonary edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Condition wherein the brain is grossly swollen, with narrowed sulci and distended gyri showing signs of flattening against the underlying skull.

A

Brain edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

It is an active process resulting from augmented blood flow due to arteriolar dilation.

A

Hyperemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

The affected tissue is redder than normal, because of engorgement with oxygenated blood.

A

Hyperemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

It is a passive process resulting from impaired venous rturn out of a tissue.

A

Congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Tissue has a blue-red color due to accumulation of hemoglobin in the affected tissue.

A

Congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Characterized by alveolar capillaries engorged with blood, with associated alveolar septal edema or focal minute intra-alveolar hemorrhage.

A

Acute pulmonary congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Pulmonary septa are thickened and fibrotic, with hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveolar spaces.

A

Chronic pulmonary congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Hemosiderin- laden macrophages

A

Heart- failure cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

The central vein and sinusoids of the liver are distended with blood, with central hepatocyte degeneration. The periportal hepatocytes are better oxygenated.

A

Acute hepatic congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

The central regions of the hepatic lobules are grossly red-brown and slightly depressed and are accentuated against the surrounding zones of uncongested tan, sometimes fatty liver (nutmeg liver).

A

Chronic passive congestion of the liver(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Presence of centrilobular necrosis with hepatocyte drop-out, hemorrhage and hemosirin-laden macrophages

A

CPC of the liver(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Extravasation of blood from vessels into the extravasclar space.

A

Hemorrhage(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Accumulation of blood within a tissue.

A

Hematoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

1-2mm hemorrhages into skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces.

A

Petechiae(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

3-5mm hemorrhages which can occur with trauma, vascular inflammation, or increased vascular fragility.

A

Purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

1-2cm subcutaneous hematomas/bruises.

A

Ecchymoses (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

It is a consequence of tightly regulated processes that maintain blood in a fluid, clot-free state in normal vessels while inducing the rapid formation of a localized hemostatic plug at the site of vascular injury.

A

Normal hemostasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Pathologic form of hemostasis.

A

Thrombosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

It occurs after an initial injury, as a result of reflex neurogenic mechanisms.

A

Arteriolar vasoconstriction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

A potent endothelium-derived vasocontrictor.

A

Endothelin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Receptors responsible for platelet adhesion.

A

GpIb receptors- plateletVon Willebrand factor - endothelium(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Deficiency of GpIb receptors.

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Deficiency of GpIb receptors.

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Deficiency of GpIIb-IIIa receptors.

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Deficiency of Factor VIII.

A

Von Willebrand Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

It is a membrane-bound procoagulant glycoprotein synthesized by endothelium, which becomes exposed at the site of injury.

A

Thromboplastin/Factor III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Formation of a hemostatic plug due to platelet aggregation

A

Primary hemostasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Hemostasis characterized by activation of thrombin through the coagulation cascade.

A

Secondary hemostasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

True or false:The primary aggregation of platelets is irreversible.

A

FalseReversible(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Two substances essential for the formation of a primary hemostatic plug.

A

ADP and TXA2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

True or false:Activation of the coagultion cascade and subsequent thrombin formation is reversible.

A

FalseIrreversible(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Substance that activates the coagulation proteins.

A

Calcium(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Substance that medites further platelet aggregation and degranulation.

A

ADP(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Substance that increases platelet activation and causes vasoconstriction. Synthesized by activated platelets.

A

TXA2(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Most important initiator of the coagulation cascade.

A

Tissue factor(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

A protein found on endothelial cells involved in the breakdown of blood clots which catalyzes conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) and Urokinase(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Components of Virchow’s triad?

A

Endothelial injuryStasisHypercoagulability(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

It is a major contributor to the development of VENOUS thrombi.

A

Stasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.94

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Type of blood flow found in normal blood vessels, wherein platelets flow centrally in the vessel lumen, separated from the endothelium by a slow moving clear zone of plasma.

A

Laminar flow(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.94

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

This contirbutes to arterial and cardic thrombisis by causing endothelial injury or dysfunction as well as formation of countercurrents and local pockets of stasis.

A

Turbulence(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.94

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Any alteration of the coagulation pathway that predisposes to thrombosis.

A

Hypercoagulability(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

A detached, intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass that is carried by the blood distal to its point of origin.

A

Embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Apparent laminations seen in a thrombus, representing pale platelet and fibrin layers alternating with darker erythrocyte-rich layers.

A

Lines of Zahn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Significance of Lines of Zahn?

A

Represents thrombosis in the setting of blood flow, seen in antemortem clots.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Thrombi occuring in heart chambers or aortic lumen

A

Mural thrombi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Gelatinous thrombi with a dark red dependent portion where red cells have settled by gravity with a yellow “chicken fat” supernatant. Usually unattached to underlying wall.

A

Postmortem thrombi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Thrombi on heart valves.

A

Vegetations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Sterile, verrucous endocartidis occuring in patients with SLE.

A

Limban-Sacks endocartidis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Thrombi occuring in heart chambers or in aortic lumen.

A

Mural thrombi(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Vegetations occuring in the presence of non - infected valves in hypercoagulable states.

A

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Fate of a thrombus wherein the thrombus accumulates additional platelets and fibrin, eventually causing vessel obstruction.

A

Propagation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Fate of a thrombus wherein it may dislodge or fragment and transported elsewhere in the vasculature.

A

Embolization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Fate of a thrombus as a result of of fibrinolytic activity leading to rapid shrinkage and even total lysis of recent thrombi.

A

Dissolution(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Fate of a thrombus wherein it may induce inflammation and fibrosis and establish some degree of blood flow.

A

Organization and recanalization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

True or false:Therapeutic administration of fibrinolytic agents is generally effective only within a few hours of thrombus formation.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Most common site of venous thrombosis.

A

Superficial or deep veins of the leg(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Most common sequelae of deep venous thrombosis.

A

Pulmonary embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Tumor-associated procoagulant release largey responsible for the increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena seen in disseminated cancers.

A

Migrating thrombophlebitis or Trousseau’s syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Hardening or thickening of the arteries as a result of the accumulation of fatty materials, macrophages, platelets and other inflammatory mediators.

A

Atherosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Fates of a thrombus (4)

A

PropagationResolution/DissolutionOrganization and recanalizationEmbolization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Embolus occluding a bifurcation in the pulmonary tree.

A

Saddle embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

True or false:A patient who has had one pulmonary embolus has a decreased risk of developing another embolus.

A

False.The patient is at risk of developing more pulmonary emboli.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

A venous embolus which entered the systemic circulation through an interarterial or interventricular defect.

A

Paradoxical embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Most common symptom of pulmonary embolism.

A

None/ Asymptomatic (60-80%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Right Ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension.

A

Cor pulmonale(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Emboli in the arterial circulation.

A

Systemic thromboembolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Most common origin of systemic thrombi.

A

Intracardiac mural thrombi (80%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Major site of arteriolar embolization.

A

Lower extremities (75%)Brain (10%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Microscopic fat globules found in the circulation after fractures of long bones or after soft-tissue trauma.

A

Fat embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Symptoms of pulmonary insufficiency, neurologic symptoms, anemia, and thrombocytopenia characterize what syndrome?

A

Fat embolism syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Gas bubbles within the circulation obstructing vascular flow and causes distal ischemic injury.

A

Air embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Amount of air in the circulation which produces clinical effects of air embolism.

A

> 100 mL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

This occurs when individuals are exposed to sudden changes in atmospheric pressure (e.g. Deep sea divers, scuba divers).

A

Decompression sickness(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

The rapid formation of gas bubbles within skeletal muscles and supporting tissues in and around joints causing pain.

A

Bends(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Gas bubbles in the lung vasculture causing edema, hemorrhages, focal atelectasis and emphysema.

A

Chokes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

More chronic form of decompression sickness where persistence of gas emboli in the bones leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis.

A

Caisson disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Treatment of choice for decompression sickness.

A

Hyperbaric compression chamber(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Underlying cause of amniotic fluid embolism.

A

Entry of amniotic fluid into the maternal circulation through a tear in the placetal membranes and rupture of uterine veins.(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Underlying cause of amniotic fluid embolism.

A

Entry of amniotic fluid into the maternal circulation through a tear in the placetal membranes and rupture of uterine veins.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Presence of marked pulmonary edema, diffuse alveolar damage, and presence of squamous cells in the pulmonary circulation shed from fetal skin, lanugo hair, fat and mucin.

A

Amniotic fluid embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

White or red infarct?Venous occlusion

A

Red infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

White or red infarct?Lung infarction

A

Red infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

White or red infarct?Intestinal infarct

A

Red infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

White or red infarct?Myocardial infarction

A

White infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

White or red infarction?Splenic infact

A

White infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

White or red infarction?Wedge infarct

A

White infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

The dominant histologic characteristic of infarction.

A

Ischemic coagulative necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Histologic characteristic of brain infarcts.

A

Liquefactive necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

This occurs when bacterial vegetations from a heart valve embolize or when microbes seed an area of necrotic tissue.

A

Septic infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Most common sequalae of septic infarcts.

A

Abscess(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Major determinants of the eventual outcome of an infarct. (4)

A

Nature of vascular supplyRate of development of occlusionVulnerability to hypoxiaOxygen content of blood(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Neurons undergo irreversible damage when deprived of their blood supply for _______.

A

3-4 minutes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Myocardial cells undergo irreversile damage after ______ minutes of ischemia.

A

20-30 minutes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

It is the final common pathway for severe hemorrhage, extensive trauma, burns, large MI, pulmonary embolism and sepsis.

A

Shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

End results of shock (3)

A

HypotensionImpaired tissue perfusionHypoxia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

This type of shock results from failure of the cardic pump which maybe caused by MI, ventricular arrythmias, cardiac tamponade or outflow obstruction.

A

Cardiogenic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

This type of shock results from loss blood or plasma volume.

A

Hypovolemic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

This type of shock is caused by microbial infection, caused by gram negative and gram positive bacteria and fungi

A

Septic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

True or false:Systemic bacteremia must be present to induce septic shock.

A

FalseHost inflammatory response to local extravascular infections may be sufficient to induce septic shock.(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Type of shock which occurs in the setting of an anesthetic accident or spinal cord injury as a result of loss of vascular tone and peripheral pooling of blood.

A

Neurogenic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

This type of shock represents systemic vasodilation and increased vascular permeability caused by IgE hypersensitivity reaction.

A

Anaphylactic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Septic shock caused by gram negative bacilli.

A

Endotoxic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.103

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Criteria for SIRS.

A

Temp 38 CelciusHR >90 bpmRR >20 or PaCO2 12,000 cells/mm3 or 10% bands(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.103

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Adrenal changes in shock.

A

Cortical cell lipid depletion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Kidney changes in shock.

A

Acute tubular necrosis resulting in oliguria, anuria, and electrolyte disturbances.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Gastrointestinal changes in shock.

A

Focal mucosal hemorrhage and necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Lung changes in shock.

A

Diffuse alveolar damage if due to bacterial sepsi and trauma.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

These agents cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.

A

Prions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 321

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Infected cells show distinct nuclear and ill-defined cytoplasmic inclusions.

A

CMV infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 322

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Infected cells show glassy nuclear inclusions, frequently with a surrounding halo.

A

Herpesvirus infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 322

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Infected hepatocytes show diffuse granular (ground-glass) cytoplasm.

A

Hepatitis B viral infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 322

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Sexually transmitted protozoan that can colonize the vagina and male urethra.

A

Trichimonas vaginalis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 325

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Protozoan acquired either by contact with oocyte-shedding kittens or by consumption of cyst-ridden undercooked meat.

A

Toxoplasma gondii(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 325

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Size of microorganisms for them to be inhaled directly into the alveoli.

A

5 um(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

These microorganisms grow in contaminated food and releases powerful enterotoxins that cause food poisoning symptoms without any bacterial multiplication in the gut.

A

Staphylococcal strains(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Intestinal helminth that cause disease when present in large numbers or cause obstruction of the gut.

A

Ascaris lumbricoides(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 326

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Helminth that causes iron deficiency anemia by chronic loss of blood.

A

Hookworms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Helminth that depletes vitamin B12 giving rise to an illness resembling pernicious anemia.

A

Diphyllobotrium latum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Placentofetal route as a mode of transmission is also referred to as ________.

A

Vertical transmission(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 329

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

The ability of bacteria to cause disease.

A

Virulence(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 331

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Bacterial surface molecules that bind to host cells.

A

Adhesins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 332

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Filamentous proteins on gram negative bacteria which allow exchange of genes between bacteria, and also involved in adherence.

A

Fimbriae/pili(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 332

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Clostridium perfringens produces this toxin that disrupts plasma membranes resulting in digestion of host tissues and collagen.

A

Alpha toxin (lecithinase)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Bacterial toxins with the capacity to stimulate large populations of T lymphocytes, functionally resulting in a “cytokine storm”.

A

Superantigens(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Examples of antigen presenting cells.

A

Dendritic cellsMacrophagesB-cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

A superantigen secreted by S. aureus which causes inflammation, fever and shock. Found in the vagina of menstruating women.

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

Collection of neutrophils which gives rise to localized liquefactive necrosis.

A

Abscess(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

High risk agents of bioterrorism which are easily disseminated and has high potential for mortality. An example is smallpox.

A

Category A(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

A distinctive form of mononuclear inflammation usually evoked by infectious agents that resist eradication, but are capable of stimulating strong T cell mediated immunity. Characterized by epitheloid cells which may fuse to form giant cells.

A

Granulomatous inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 335

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Agents that are relatively easy to disseminate and produces moderate morbidity and low mortality. An example is E.coli O157:H7 which can cause HUS.

A

Category B(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Includes emerging pathogens that have the potential for mass dissemination with high morbidity and mortality. Examples are Nipah virus and Hanta virus.

A

Category C(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

This term refers to protection against infections.

A

Immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

It is the collection of cells and molecules that are responsible for defending against pathogenic microbes.

A

Immune system(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Type of immunity mediated by neutrophils, macrophages and natural killer cells and includes epithelial barriers of the skin, GIT and respiratory tract.

A

Innate immunity (natural/native)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

Type of immunity mediated by lymphocytes and their products, and is normally silent and responds to the presence of microbes by becoming active, expanding and generating potent mechanisms for neutralizing and eliminating microbes.

A

Adaptive immunity (acquired/specific)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Type of adaptive immunity mediated by soluble antibody proteins that are produced by B lymphocytes.

A

Humoral immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Type of adaptive immunity mediated by T lymphocytes.

A

Cell-mediated or cellular immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Mediated by antibodies and is effective against extracellular microbes.

A

Humoral immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Reaction of T-lymphocytes, designed to combat cell-associated microbes (e.g. Phagocytosed microbes and microbes in the cytoplasm of infected cells).

A

Cell-mediated immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Reaction of immune system against one’s own cells.

A

Autoimmunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.119

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Results from activation of TH2 CD4+ helper T cells by environmental antigens, leading to the production of IgE antibodies, which become attached to mast cells.

A

Type I Hypersensitivity (immediate)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

Caused by antibodies that bind to fixed tissue or cell surface antigens and promote phagocytosis and destruction of the coated cells or trigger pathologic inflammation in tissues.

A

Type II Hypersensitivity (Antibody-mediated)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Caused by antibodies binding to antigens to form complexes that circulate and may deposit in vascular beds and stimulate inflammation, secondary to complement activation.

A

Type III Hypersensitivity (immune complex mediated)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Cell-mediated immune responses in which T lymphocytes cause tissue injury, either by producing cytokines that induce inflammation and activate macrophages, or by directly killing cells.

A

Type IV Hypersensitivity (T-cell mediated/Delayed)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:SLE

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Multiple sclerosis

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Transplant rejection

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Anaphylaxis

A

Type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Goodpasture syndrome

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Serum sickness

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Arthus reaction

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Allergies

A

Type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Type I DM

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Tuberculosis

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Bronchial asthma

A

Type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Acute rheumatic fever

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Poststreptococcal glumerulonephritis

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Polyarteritis nodosa

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Inflammatory bowel disease

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Tuberculin reaction

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Reactive arthritis

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Graves disease

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Acute rheumatic fever

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Myasthenia gravis

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Insulin resistant DM

A

Type II (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Pernicious anemia

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

A special form of graft rejection occuring in the setting where preformed antidonor antibodies are present in the circulation of the host before transplant. Occurs within minutes to a few hours after transplantation.

A

Hyperacute rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Rejection which occurs within days to weeks of transplantation in a nonimmunosuppressed host. Caused by both cellular and humoral immune mechanisms.

A

Acute rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Acute rejection most commonly seen within the first months after transplantation, typically accompanied by signs of renal failure. Extensive CD4+ and CD8+ T-cell infiltration with edema and mild interstitial hemorrhage.

A

Acute cellular rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Acute rejection caused by antidonor antibodies. May take the form of necrotizing vasculitis with endothelial cell necrosis, neutrophilic infiltration, deposition of antibody, complement, and fibrin, and thrombosis.

A

Acute humoral rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

Rejection which present clinically months to years after transplantation with a progressive rise in serum creatinine levels. Dominated by arteriosclerosis, interstitial fibrosis and loss of renal parenchyma.

A

Chronic rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

A multisystem autoimmune disease which principally affects the skin, kidneys, serosal membranes, joints and heart. Associated with autoantibodies including ANAs.

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.139

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

SOAP BRAIN MD mnemonic for SLE stands for?

A

SerositisOral ulcersArthritisPhotosensitivityBloodRenal disorderANA positiveImmunologic disorderNeurologic disorderMalar rashDiscoid rash(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

How many symptoms must be present in a patient for her/him to be diagnosed as having SLE?

A

4 out of 11 symptoms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Most serious and most common form of renal lesion in SLE. “Wire-loop” appearance of glomerular capillary walls.

A

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (Class IV)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.142

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Cardiac manifestation of SLE, which occurs as nonspecific mononuclear infiltrates and the presence of irregular 1-3mm warty deposits on either surface of the leaflets.

A

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.144

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

A systemic, chronic inflammatory disease affecting many tissues but principally attacking the joints to produce a nonsuppurative proliferative synovitis that frequently progress to destroy articular cartilage and underlying bone with resulting disabling arthritis.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Characteristic lesion in RA, formed by proliferating synovial-lining cells admixed with inflammatory cells, granulation tissue and fibrous connective tissue.

A

Pannus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.146

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Cytokine which plays a central role in the pathogenesis of RA.

A

TNF(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.146

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

A clinicopathologic entity with a triad of dry eyes, dry mouth and arthritis.

A

Sjogren syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.148

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

Characterized by progressive fibrosis involving the skin, GIT and other tissues. May be a result of activation of fibroblasts by cytokines produced by T cells.

A

Systemic sclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.149

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

A vascular disorder characterized by reversible vasospasm of the arteries. Typically the hands turn white due to vasospasm, then blue due to cyanosis, then red due to reactive hyperemia.

A

Raynaud phenomenon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.151

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

One of the more common forms of primary immune deficiency characterized by absent or markedly decreased numbers of B-cells in the circulation, with depressed serum levels of all classes if immunoglobulin.

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.152

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Most common of all the primary immune deficiencies characterized by recurrent sinopulmonary infections and diarrhea.

A

Isolated IgA deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.154

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

A constellation of genetically distinct syndromes with common feature of defects in both humoral and cell-mediated immune responses, making affected infants susceptible to severe recurrent infections by bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, and opportunistic infections.

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.154

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Autosomal recessive form of SCID is due to deficiency of what enzyme?

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.154

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

An X-linked recessive disease characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and marked vulnerability to recurrent infection ending in early death.

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.155

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

HIV viral surface proteins essential for viral entry into cells.

A

gp41 and gp120(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.157

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

A form of pneumonia in HIV patients caused by a yeast-like fungus.

A

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

Main cellular target of HIV.

A

CD4+ helper T cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.158

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

P.carinii pneumonia occurs in AIDS patients with CD4+ T cell count of ______.

A

Less than 200 cells/uL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.163

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

Most common secondary infection of the CNS in patients with AIDS.

A

Toxoplasmosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.163

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

Most common neoplasm in AIDS patients, caused by HHV8. Characterized by cutaneous lesions with or without internal involvement.

A

Kaposi sarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.164

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

A disorder of protein misfolding, causing extracellular deposition of pink or red colored deposits stained with Congo red, with apple-green birefringence in polarized light.

A

Amyloidosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.166

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

This term literally means “new growth”.

A

Neoplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

An abnormal mass of tissue the growth of which exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of the normal tissues and persists in the same excessive manner after the cessation of stimuli which evoked the change.

A

Neoplasm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Study of tumors.

A

Oncology(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

Benign or malignant?Localized

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

Benign or malignant?Amenable to surgical removal

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

Benign or malignant?Invades and destroys adjacent tissues.

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

What are the two basic components of tumors?

A

Parenchyma and Stroma(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

Benign or malignant?Metastasis

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

This component of tumors largely determines its biologic behavior.

A

Parenchyma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

This component of tumors determines the name of the growth.

A

Parenchyma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

This component of tumors is crucial to the growth of neoplasms since it carries the blood supply and provides support to the growth of cells.

A

Stroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Benign or malignant?Fibroma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

Benign or malignant?Chondroma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

Benign or malignant?Adenoma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

Benign or malignant?Hepatoma

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

Benign or malignant?Papilloma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

Malignant neoplasms arising in mesenchymal tissue or its derivatives.

A

Sarcomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

Benign tumor arising in fibrous tissue is called?

A

Fibroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

A benign cartilagenous tumor is called?

A

Chondroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

This is a benign epithelial neoplasm which produces glandular patterns or neoplasms derived from glands but not necessarily exhibit glandular patterns

A

Adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

These are benign epithelial neoplasms, growing on any surface that produce microscopic or macroscopic finger-like fronds.

A

Papillomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

A mass that projects above a mucosal surface to form a macroscopically visible structure.

A

Polyps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

A cancer of fibrous tissue origin.

A

Fibrosarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin.

A

Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

Carcinoma of squamous cell origin.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
391
Q

Carcinoma of squamous cell origin.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
392
Q

Benign or malignant?Lymphoma

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
393
Q

Benign or malignant?Seminoma

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
394
Q

The extent to which neoplastic cells resemble their normal forebears morphologically and functionally.

A

Differentiation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
395
Q

This is considered a hallmark of malignancy, which literally means “to form backward”.

A

Anaplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.177

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
396
Q

These cells display marked pleomorphism, nuclei are variable and bizzare in size and shape. Chromatin is course and clumped. Mitoses are often numerous and distinctly atypical.

A

Anaplastic cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.177

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
397
Q

This term is defined by disorderly but non-neoplastic proliferation of cells, described as a loss in uniformity of individual cells and in their architectural orientation.

A

Dysplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.178

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
398
Q

Defined as dysplactic changes which involve the entire thickness of the epithelium.

A

Carcinoma -in - situ(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.178

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
399
Q

True or false?Dysplasia always progress to cancer.

A

False(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.178

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
400
Q

True or false?Lack of capsule in a neoplastic growth indicates malignancy.

A

FalseSome benign tumors are not encapsulated.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.179

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
401
Q

This term describes the development of secondary implants discontinuous with the primary tumor, in remote tissues.

A

Metastasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.179

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
402
Q

Next to metastasis, this is the most reliable feature that distinguishes malignant from benign tumors.

A

Local invasiveness(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.179

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
403
Q

Methods of dissemination of malignant neoplasms? (3)

A

SeedingLymphatic spreadHematogenous spread(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
404
Q

This is the mode of dissemination of cancers of the ovary and CNS.

A

Spread by seeding(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
405
Q

This is the mode of dissemination more typical of carcinomas.

A

Lymphatic spread(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
406
Q

This is the mode of dissemination more typical of sarcomas.

A

Hematogenous spread(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
407
Q

It is defined as the first lymph node in a regional lymphatic basin that receives lymph flow from a primary tumor.

A

Sentinel lymph node(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
408
Q

What are the most common sites of metastasis involved in hematogenous dissemination of cancer?

A

Liver and lungs(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.181

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
409
Q

This substance is a byproduct of metal smelting, a component of alloys, electrical and semiconductor devices which could cause cancer of the lungs and skin and hemangiosarcomas.

A

Arsenic and its compounds(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
410
Q

This substance was formerly used for fire-resistant textiles and construction materials which could cause lung cancer and more prominently malignant mesothelioma

A

Asbestos(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
411
Q

This substance is commonly used as a solvent in paint, rubber, dry cleaning, adhesives and detergents which could cause leukemias and Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

Benzene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
412
Q

This substance is used as hardener for metal alloys used in aerospace applications and nuclear reactors which is commonly associated with cancer of the lung.

A

Beryllium and its compounds(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
413
Q

This substance is used in solders, batteries and metal alloys commonly associated with cancers of the prostate.

A

Cadmium and its compounds(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
414
Q

This substance is a refrigerant and used as adhesive for plastics, which causes hepatic angiosarcoma.

A

Vinyl chloride(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
415
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndromeRB gene :__________

A

Retinoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
416
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndromep53 : ______________

A

Li Fraumeni Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
417
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome__________ : Familial Adenomatous Polyposis / Colon CA

A

APC Gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
418
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome_________ : Breast on Ovarian Tumors

A

BRCA 1 gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
419
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome_________ : Breast Cancer only

A

BRCA 2 gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
420
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndromeRET gene : _________

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1 and 2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
421
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome__________ : Colon cancer

A

kras gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
422
Q

Normal cellular genes whose products promote cell proliferation.

A

Proto-oncogenes(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
423
Q

Normal cellular genes whose products promote cell proliferation.

A

Proto-oncogenes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.188

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
424
Q

It is a naturally occurring carcinogenic agent produced by some strains of Aspergillus, a mold that grows on improperly stored grains and nuts.

A

Aflatoxin B(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.209

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
425
Q

There is a strong correlation between the dietary level of Aflatoxin and what type of cancer?

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.209

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
426
Q

These substances require metabolic conversion to be carcinogenic.

A

Indirect - acting carcinogens(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.209

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
427
Q

These substances stimulate proliferation of the mutated cells.

A

Promoters(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.210

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
428
Q

How does ionizing radiation cause cancer?

A

Through chromosome breakage, translocations and point mutations leading to genetic damage and carcinogenesis.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.210

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
429
Q

What is the mechanism of action of UV rays in the formation of neoplastic cells?

A

UV rays induce formation of pyrimidine dimers within DNA leading to mutations.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.210

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
430
Q

This is the only retrovirus that has been demonstrated to cause cancer in humans.

A

Human T-cell Leukemia Virus -1 (HTLV-1)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.211

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
431
Q

HPV strains which has been implicated in the genesis of cervical and anorectal cancer.

A

HPV 16, 18(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.212

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
432
Q

EBV has been implicated in the pathogenesis of the following cancers except:A. Burkitt lymphomaB. Lymphoma in HIV patientsC. Nasopharyngeal carcinomaD. Hodgkin lymphomaE. None of the above

A

E. none of the above(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.212

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
433
Q

Which hepatitis virus leads to hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV, HCV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.213

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
434
Q

This is the first bacterium to be classified as a carcinogen.

A

Helicobacter pylori(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.213

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
435
Q

What type of cancer can be caused by H.pylori?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma Gastric MALT lymphomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.214

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
436
Q

These are benign epithelial neoplasms, growing on any surface that produce microscopic or macroscopic finger-like fronds.

A

Papillomas(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
437
Q

Tumor antigens are presented on the cell surface by MHC Class I molecules to which type of T lymphocytes?

A

CD8+ T lymphocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.215

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
438
Q

These disorders are derived from one’s parents, transmitted through gametes through the generations, and are therefore familial.

A

Hereditary disorders(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
439
Q

This term literally means “present at birth”.

A

Congenital(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
440
Q

This term refers to permanent changes in the DNA.

A

Mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
441
Q

This type of mutation results from the substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base, resulting in the replacement of one amino acid by another.

A

Missense mutation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
442
Q

This type of mutation results in the replacement of one amino acid by a stop codon, resulting in chain termination.

A

Nonsense mutation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
443
Q

Missense, nonsense and silent mutations are examples of ________ mutations, wherein only one base pair is replaced.

A

Point mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
444
Q

This type of mutation occur when the insertion or deletion of one or two bse pairs alters the reading frame of the DNA strand.

A

Frameshift mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
445
Q

These mutations are characterized by amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides.

A

Trinucleotide repeat mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
446
Q

Disease characterized by CGG trinucleotide repeats.

A

Fragile X Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
447
Q

This is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to cognitive decline and psychiatric problems.

A

Huntington’s disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
448
Q

Genetic mutation in Huntington’s disease?

A

CAG trinucleotide repeats(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
449
Q

This disorder is a chronic, slowly progressing inherited genetic disorder characterized by muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, endocrine changes and myotonia.

A

Myotonic Dystrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
450
Q

Genetic mutation found in myotonic dystrophy?

A

CTG Trinucleotide repeats(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
451
Q

A point mutation wherein a single base pair is replaced but codes for the same amino acid, therefore has no effect on the functioning of the protein.

A

Silent mutation(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
452
Q

An example of point mutation wherein a purine base is replaced by another purine base or a pyrimidine base is replaced by another pyrimidine base.

A

Transition(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
453
Q

A point mutation wherein a purine is replaced by a pyrimidine or vice versa.

A

Transversion(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
454
Q

Diseases caused by single gene defects are called?

A

Mendelian Disorders(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
455
Q

A condition wherein both dominant and recessive alleles of a gene pair may be fully expressed in the heterozygote.

A

Codominance(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
456
Q

The presence of many allelic forms of a single gene is called _______.

A

Polymorphism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
457
Q

This occurs when one gene influences or leads to multiple phenotypic traits.

A

Pleiotropy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
458
Q

A phenomenon wherein a single phenotype or genetic disorder may be caused by mutations of several genetic loci or allele.

A

Genetic heterogeneity Note: compare with pleiotropy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
459
Q

A transmission pattern of inheritance which is manifested in the heterozygous state, wherein at least one parent of an index case is usually affected, both males and females are affected and both can transmit the condition.

A

Autosomal dominant (AD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
460
Q

This pattern of inheritance occur when BOTH of the alleles at a given gene locus are mutants, wherein the parents are not affected, but offspring have 1 in 4 chance (25%) of being affected.

A

Autosomal recessive(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
461
Q

Pattern of inheritance wherein the disorder is transmitted by heterozygous female carriers only to 50% of the sons. An affected male does not transmit the disorder to sons but all daughters are carriers.

A

X-linked disorders(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
462
Q

An autosomal dominant disorder of connective tissues characterized by abnormally long legs, arms and fingers, joint hyperextensibility, pectus excavatum, lens subluxation and increased risk of aortic dissection.

A

Marfan Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.230

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
463
Q

Integral component of elastic fibers defective in Marfan Syndrome.

A

Fibrillin 1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.230

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
464
Q

Fibrillin 1 is encoded by what gene?

A

FBN1 gene (chromosome 15q21)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.230

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
465
Q

A collection of disorders caused by defects in collagen synthesis or structure, characterized by hyperextensible skin and joint hypermobility, rupture of internal organs and poor wound healing.

A

Ehlers-Danlos SyndromesThere are 6 variants to Ehlers-Danlos (nice to know)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.231

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
466
Q

This autosomal recessive inborn error of metabolism is characterized by inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine, strong mousy or musty odor of urine and sweat, decreased pigmentation of hair and skin, eczema, seizures and mental retardation.

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
467
Q

This autosomal dominant disorder is caused by a mutation in the gene that specifies the receptor for LDL, impairing the intracellular transport and catabolism of LDL.

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.232

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
468
Q

Enzyme deficient in classic PKU.

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.234

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
469
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder of galactose metabolism characterized by jaundice, liver damage, cataracts, neural damage, vomiting and diarrhea.

A

Galactosemia(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
470
Q

Deficiency of this enzyme can also cause symptoms of phenylketonuria due to decreased synthesis of a cofactor in the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine.

A

Dihydrobiopteridine reductase (DHPR)Enzyme responsible for the reduction of Dihydrobiopterin (BH2) to Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4).(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.234

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
471
Q

Enzyme deficient in galactosemia.

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.235

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
472
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of glucosylceramidase.

A

Gaucher disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
473
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of B-Hexosaminidase A.

A

Tay-Sachs disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
474
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of a-Galactosidase A.

A

Fabry disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
475
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of Sphingomyelinase.

A

Niemann-Pick disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
476
Q

Lysosomal storage disease common among Ashkenazi Jews characterized by motor weakness, mental retardation, blindness, neurologic dysfunction and death.

A

Tay-Sachs disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
477
Q

Lysosomal storage disease characterized by accumulation of glucosylceramide in mononuclear phagocytic cells, which enlarge, forming “wrinkled tissue paper” cytoplasmic appearance.

A

Gaucher disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.238

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
478
Q

What do you call the pathognomonic cell characterized by “wrinkled tissue paper” cytoplasmic appearance.

A

Gaucher cell(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.238

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
479
Q

These disorders result from the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in many tissues including the liver, spleen, heart, blood vessels, brain, cornea and joints. Affected patients have coarse facial features.

A

Mucopolysaccharidoses(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.238

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
480
Q

Mucopolysaccharidosis characterized by corneal clouding, coronary arterial and valvular depositions, which occurs due to deficiency of a-L-iduronidase, leading to accumulation of dermatan and heparan sulfate.

A

Hurler syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.239

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
481
Q

An X-linked mucopolysaccharidosis which is due to a deficiency of L-iduronate sulfatase. Symptoms are similar to Hurler sundrome, but without corneal clouding.

A

Hunter syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.239

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
482
Q

Glycogen storage disease characterized by hepatomegaly, renomegaly, hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia and hyperuricemia, leading to gout and skin xanthomas.

A

von Gierke’s disease (Type I)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
483
Q

von Gierke’s disease is due to a deficiency of what enzyme?

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
484
Q

Glycogen storage disease characterized by accumulation of glycogen in skeletal muscles leading to painful cramps during strenuous exercise and myoglobinuria.

A

McArdle syndrome (type V)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
485
Q

Glycogen storage disease characterized by mild hepatomegaly, cardiomegaly, muscle hypotonia, and may lead to cardiorespiratory failure.

A

Pompe disease (type II)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
486
Q

Enzyme deficient in McArdle syndrome.

A

Muscle phosphorylase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
487
Q

These disorders may result from alterations in the number or structure of chromosomes and may affect autosomes or sex chromosomes.

A

Cytogenetic disorders(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
488
Q

These disorders may result from alterations in the number or structure of chromosomes and may affect autosomes or sex chromosomes.

A

Cytogenetic disorders(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.241

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
489
Q

It is a term used to describe the presence of two or more populations of cells in the same individual.

A

Mosaicism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.242

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
490
Q

This refers to a lack of one chromosome of the normal complement (e.g. XO).

A

Monosomy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
491
Q

This refers to the presence of three copies of a particular chromosome, instead of two.

A

Trisomy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
492
Q

This mechanism occurs due to the failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during meiosis stage 1 or 2.

A

Nondisjunction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.243

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
493
Q

This mechanism implies transfer of a part of one chromosome to another chromosome.

A

Translocation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.243

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
494
Q

This mechanism involves loss of a portion of a chromosome.

A

Deletion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.243

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
495
Q

Patients with this syndrome have severe mental retardation, flat facial profile, epicanthic folds, cardiac malformations, increased risk of leukemia, and premature development of Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Down syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
496
Q

Down syndrome is also called _________

A

Trisomy 21(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
497
Q

Trisomy 18 is also called ________ syndrome.

A

Edwards syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
498
Q

Trisomy 13 is also called _________ syndrome.

A

Patau syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
499
Q

Syndrome characterized by a prominent occiput, low set ears, micrognathia, rocker-bottom feet, renal malformation, mental retardation and heart defects.

A

Edwards syndrome / trisomy 18(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
500
Q

Syndrome characterized by mental retardation, microcephaly, micropthalmia, polydactyly, cleft lip and palate, cardiac and renal defects, umbillical hernia and rocker-bottom feet.

A

Patau syndrome/Trisomy 13(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
501
Q

Syndrome characterized by thymic hypoplasia with diminished T-cell immunity and parathyroid hypoplasia with hypocalcemia.

A

DiGeorge syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
502
Q

Syndrome characterized by congenital heart disease affecting outflow tracts, facial dysmorphism and developmenta delay.

A

Velocardiofacial syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
503
Q

Deletion of genes from this chromosome gives rise to DiGeorge and velocardiofacial syndromes.

A

22q11.2Remember mnemonic CATCH22(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
504
Q

The q from 22q11.2 refers to ________.

A

“Long arm” of chromosome 22.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
505
Q

Syndrome defined as male hypogonadism that develops when there are at least two X chromosomes and one or more Y chromosomes.

A

Klinefelter syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
506
Q

Syndrome manifested by a eunochoid body habitus, reduced facial, body and pubic hair, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, decreased serum testorerone and incresed urinary gonadotropin levels. It is the most common cause of hypogonadism in males.

A

Klinefelter syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
507
Q

Most common chromosomal derangement in Klinefelter syndrome.

A

47XXY(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
508
Q

Syndrome which results from the partial or complete monosomy of the short arm of the X chromosome.

A

Turner syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.247

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
509
Q

Inheritance associated with mitochondrial DNA.

A

Maternal inheritance(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
510
Q

Neurodegenerative disease which manifests as progressive bilateral loss of central vision that leads to blindness. This is the prototypical disorder of mutations in mitochondrial genes.

A

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
511
Q

Inheritance associated with mitochondrial DNA.

A

Maternal inheritance(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.247

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
512
Q

An epigenetic process wherein certain genes are differentially “inactivated” during paternal and maternal gametogenesis.

A

Genomic imprinting(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.252

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
513
Q

This refers to transcriptional silencing of the maternal allele.

A

Maternal imprinting(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
514
Q

Refers to the transcriptional silencing of the paternal allele.

A

Paternal imprinting(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
515
Q

Syndrome characterized by mental retardation, short stature, hypotonia, obesity, small hands and feet, and hypogonadism. Paternal imprinting.

A

Prader-Willi syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
516
Q

Syndrome manifested as mental retardation, ataxic gait, seizures and inappropriate laughter. Also called the “happy puppet syndrome”. Maternal imprinting.

A

Angelman syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
517
Q

These represent primary errors of morphogenesis due to an intrinsically abnormal developmental process.

A

Malformations(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
518
Q

These represent primary errors of morphogenesis due to an intrinsically abnormal developmental process.

A

Malformations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
519
Q

These result from secondary destruction of an organ or body region that was previously normal in development, due to an extrinsic disturbance in morphogenesis.

A

Disruptions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
520
Q

These are due to generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biomechanical forces, for example uterine constraint.

A

Deformations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
521
Q

This refers to multiple congenital anomalies that result from secondary effects of a single localized aberration in organogenesis. The initiating event may be a malformation, deformation or disruption.

A

Sequence(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
522
Q

This refers to the presence of several defects that cannot be explained on the basis of a single localizing initiating error in morphogenesis.

A

Malformation syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.253

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
523
Q

Elements of the TORCH complex.

A

TOxoplasmaTreponema pallidumRubellaCytomeglovirusHerpesvirus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.256

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
524
Q

Most common cause of neonatal mortality.

A

Congenital anomalies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.253

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
525
Q

Second most common cause of neonatal mortality.

A

Prematurity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.257

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
526
Q

Lungs of infants with this disease are normal size but are heavy and relatively airless. They have a mottled purple color, with poorly developed atelectatic alveoli.

A

Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome / Hyaline Membrane Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.257

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
527
Q

Characteristic eosinophilic membranes line the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and random alveoli, which contain necrotic epithelial cells admixed with extravasated plasma proteins.

A

Hyaline Membrane Disease / Neonatal RDS(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.257

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
528
Q

Two well known complications of high concentration ventilator administered oxygen in infants suffering from RDS.

A

Retrolental fibroplasia / retinopathy of prematurityBronchopulmonary dysplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
529
Q

Characteristic lesion in the retina of infants suffering from retrolental fibroplasia?

A

Neovascularization or retinal vessel proliferation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
530
Q

Main component of pulmonary surfactant.

A

Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC) ~40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
531
Q

Characteristic abnormality in bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

A

Alveolar hypoplasia or a decrease in the number of mature alveoli.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
532
Q

What is the fundamental abnormality in neonatal RDS?

A

Insufficient pulmonary surfactant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
533
Q

This condition occurs more commonly in very-low-birth-weight infants, as a result of intestinal ischemia, bacterial colonization of gut and formula milk feeding.

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
534
Q

Microscopic features of NEC.

A

Presence of submucosal gas bubbles, transmural coagulative necrosis, ulceration and bacterial colonization.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.259

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
535
Q

Defined as the sudden death of an infant under 1 year of age which remains unexplained after a thorough investigation.

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome / SIDS(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.260

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
536
Q

Multiple petechiae of the thymus, visceral and parietal pleura and epicardium, congested lungs with vascular engorgement with or without pulmonary edema.

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.260

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
537
Q

Results from antibody-induced hemolytic disease in the nnewborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus, leading to edema fluid accumulation.

A

Immune Hydrops(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.261

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
538
Q

Erythroid precursors with large homogenous, intranuclear inclusions and a surrounding peripheral rim of residual chromatin can be seen in the bone marrow aspirate of an infant infected with this virus. This leads to development of non-immune hydrops.

A

Parvovirus B19(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
539
Q

Isolated postnuchal fluid accumulation in fetuses with hydrops.

A

Cystic hygroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.261

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
540
Q

A lethal condition characterized by generalized edema of the fetus.

A

Hydrops fetalis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.261

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
541
Q

Increased hematopoietic activity leading to the presence of large number of immature red cells, including reticulocytes, normoblasts and erythroblasts. Characteristic finding in fetal anemia-associted hydrops.

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
542
Q

Primary gene defect in cystic fibrosis.

A

Abnormal CFTR (CF transmembrane conductance regulator) Chromosome 7q31.2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.262

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
543
Q

Lungs with extensive mucous plugging and dilated tracheobronchial tree. Pancreatic ducts dilated and plugged with eosinophilic mucin, atrophic parenchymal glands replaced by fibrous tissue. Hepatic steatosis, Azoospermia and infertility are some of the features of this disease.

A

Cystic fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.262

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
544
Q

Patients with cystic fibrosis are prone to developing infections caused by these three organisms.

A

S. aureusH. InfluenzaeP. aeruginosa(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.266

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
545
Q

How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed?

A

Persistently elevated sweat chloride concentration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
546
Q

Most common tumors of infancy.

A

Hemangioma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
547
Q

Microscopically normal cells or tissues that are present in abnormal locations.

A

Heterotopia or choristoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
548
Q

Port wine stains are associted with these syndromes. (2)

A

von Hippel-Lindau Sturge-Weber syndromes(TOPNOTCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
549
Q

This refers to an excessive but focal overgrowth of cells and tissues native to the organ in which it occurs.

A

Hamartoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
550
Q

Large, flat to elevated, irregular, red-blue masses in the skin.

A

Port wine stains(Large hemangiomas)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
551
Q

These represent the lymphatic counterpart of hemangiomas characterized as cystic and cavernous spaces lined by endothelial cells and surrounded by lymphoid aggregates,usually containing pale fluid.

A

Lymphangiomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.268

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
552
Q

What do you call the rosettes found in neuroblastomas?

A

Homer-Wright pseudorosettes(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
553
Q

Most common germ cell tumors of childhood,associated with meningocoele and spina bifida.

A

Sacrococcygeal teratomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.268

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
554
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla composed of small, primitive-appearing cells with dark nuclei, scant cytoplasm, and poorly defined cell borders growing in solid sheets within a finely fibrillar matrix. Rosettes can be found in which tumor cells are concentrically arranged about a CENTRAL SPACE FILLED with neuropil.

A

Neuroblastomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.269

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
555
Q

This is used in the screening of patients with neuroblastoma.

A

Urinary vanillylmandelic acid and homovanillic acid (VMA/HVA)(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
556
Q

Differentiated lesions containing more large cells with vesicular nuclei and abundant eoinophilic cytoplasm, in the absence of neuroblasts, usually accompanied by mature spindle shaped Schwann cells.

A

Ganglioneuroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.270

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
557
Q

Disseminated neuroblastoma with multiple cuteaneous metastases with deep blue discoloration to the skin.

A

“Blueberry muffin baby”(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.270

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
558
Q

This tumor is composed of small, round cells with large hyperchromatic nuclei and scant cytoplasm, with characteristic structures consisting of clusters of cuboidal or short columnar cells arranged around a CENTRAL LUMEN. The nuclei are displaced away from the lumen, which appears to have a limiting membrane.

A

Retinoblastoma(Differentiate with neuroblastoma)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
559
Q

Rosettes in retinoblastoma are called _______.

A

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
560
Q

Clinicial findings include poor vision, strabismus, whitish hue to the pupils (“cat’s eye reflex”), pain and tenderness to the eye.

A

Retinoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
561
Q

Most common primary tumor of the kidney in children.

A

Wilm’s tumor / Nephroblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
562
Q

Components of the WAGR syndrome.

A

Wilm’s tumorAniridiaGenital abnormalitiesMental retardation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
563
Q

Presents grossly as a large, solitary, well-circumscribed mass. On cut-section, tumor is soft, homogenous, and tan to gray, with occasional foci of hemorrhage, cystic degeneration and necrosis.

A

Wilm’s tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
564
Q

Microscopically, a combination of blastemal, stromal and epithelial cell types is observed. (Triphasic combination) Blastemal components described as sheets of small blue cells with few distinctive features. Stromal cells are fibrocytic or myxoid in nature. Epithelial cells take the form of abortive tubules or glomeruli.

A

Wilm’s tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
565
Q

Associated with inactivation of the WT1 gene of chromosome 11p13.

A

WAGR syndrome and Denys-Drash syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
566
Q

A gas formed by sunlight-driven reactions involving nitrogen oxides. Together with oxides and fine particulate matter, it forms “smog”.

A

Ozone(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 282

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
567
Q

A nonirritating , colorless, tasteless, odorless gas produced bu the imperfect oxidation of carbonaceous materials. Binds to hemoglobin with high affinity causing systemic asphyxiation and CNS depression.

A

Carbon monoxide(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 282

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
568
Q

Carbon monoxide in the blood is called _______.

A

Carboxyhemoglobin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 282

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
569
Q

Acute poisoning of carbon monoxide produces this characteristic color of the skin and mucous membranes.

A

Cherry red color(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 283

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
570
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia, with basophilic stippling of erythrocytes, peripheral demyelinating neuropathy which manifests as footdrop and wristdrop, colic characterized by extremely severe, poorly localized abdominal pain, and chronic renal damage are the features of poisoning with this heavy metal.

A

Lead(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 283

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
571
Q

Main source of exposure to this heavy metal are contamintaed fish and dental amalgams, causing tremor, gingivitis and bizarre behavior.

A

Mercury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
572
Q

Consumption of fish contaminated with methyl mercury causing cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness, and major CNS defects in children exposed in utero.

A

Minamata disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
573
Q

Antidote for mercury poisoning.

A

Thimerosal(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
574
Q

Chronic exposure with this heavy metal results in hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis which may develop into basal or squamous cell carcinomas.

A

Arsenic(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
575
Q

This heavy metal is used mainly in batteries and fertilizers, which can contaminate soil. Can cause obstructive lung disease and kidney damage.

A

Cadmium(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
576
Q

Disease caused by cadmium in Japan, presenting as a combination of osteoporosis and osteomalacia, associated with renal disease.

A

Itai-itai disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
577
Q

May be released from combustion of fossil fuels, burning of coal and gas, and also present in tar and soot. Among the most potent carcinogens, implicated in lung and bladder cancer.

A

Polycyclic hydrocarbons(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
578
Q

Synthetic products that resist degradation and are lipophilic, typically used as pesticides, with anti-estrogenic and anti-androgenic activity, and causes neurologic toxicity.

A

Organochlorines (e.g. DDT)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
579
Q

These can cause skin disorders such as folliculitis and chloracne, consisting of acne, cyst formation, hyperpigmentation, and hyperkeratosis, around the face and behind the ears.

A

Dioxins and Polychlorinatedbiphenyls (PCB)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
580
Q

It is the most preventable cause of human death.

A

Smoking(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
581
Q

Components of cigarette smoke that are potent carcinogens in animals and are most likely involved in the causation of lung carcinomas in humans.

A

Polycyclic hydrocarbons and nitrosamines(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 288

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
582
Q

A long acting tetracycline which can cause a diffuse blue-gray pigmentation of the skin.

A

Minocycline(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
583
Q

Chronic alcoholics are at an increased risk of developing this type of cancer as a result of liver injury.

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 290

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
584
Q

These refer to untoward effects of drugs that are given in conventional therapeutic settings.

A

Adverse drug reactions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 291

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
585
Q

A long acting tetracycline which can cause a diffuse blue-gray pigmentation of the skin.

A

Minocycline(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 293

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
586
Q

Oral contraceptives have a protective effect against these cancers.

A

Endometrial and ovarian CA(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
587
Q

Oral contraceptives may increase the risk of developing this type of cancer in women.

A

Cervical CA(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
588
Q

Prolonged use of oral contraceptives is associated with the development of this rare benign tumor especially in older women.

A

Hepatic adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
589
Q

Toxic metabolite of paracetamol or acetaminophen.

A

NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
590
Q

Toxic dose for acetaminophen.

A

15-25 grams/day(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
591
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen poisoning.

A

N-acetylcysteine(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
592
Q

Manifested by headache, dizziness, tinnitus, difficulty of hearing, mental confusion, drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, with CNS changes that can progress to convulsions and coma.

A

Salicylism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
593
Q

Adult toxic dose of aspirin.

A

10-30 grams(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
594
Q

Mixtures of aspirin and phenacetin, or its active metabolite acetaminophen, when taken over several years can cause tubulointerstitial nephritis and renal papillary necrosis called _______.

A

Analgesic nephropathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
595
Q

This drug of abuse can precipitate lethal arrythmias, hyperpyrexia, seizures, amd respiratory arrest during acute overdose. Causes nasal septal perforation, decrease in lung diffusing capacity in those who inhale smoke and dilated cardiomyopathy during chronic use.

A

Cocaine or “crack” (cocaine derivative)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 295

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
596
Q

Addictive opiod derived from the poppy plant which can cause euphoria, hallucinations, somnolence, sedation, and increased risk of sudden death.

A

Heroin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 296

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
597
Q

Drug made from the leaves of Cannabis sativa plant which can cause distortion of sensory perception and impairs motor coordination.

A

Marijuana(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 297

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
598
Q

Psychoactive substance found in marijuana.

A

Delta 9- Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 297

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
599
Q

Mechanism of action of aspirin.

A

Irreversibly blocks the enzyme cyclooxygenase.(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 297

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
600
Q

A wound produced by scraping or rubbing resulting in removal of superficial layer of the skin.

A

Abrasion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
601
Q

A wound usually produced by a blunt object, characterized by damage to blood vessels and extravasation of blood into tissues.

A

Contusion (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
602
Q

A tear or disruptive stretching of tissue caused by the application of force by a blunt object, causing jagged and irregular edges to the skin.

A

Laceration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
603
Q

A wound inflicted by a sharp instrument, wherein bridging blood vessels are severed.

A

Incision(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
604
Q

A wound caused by a long, narrow instrument.

A

Puncture wound(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
605
Q

Burn classification which involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis, with loss of thermal appendages.

A

Full thickness burn (3rd and 4th degree)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
606
Q

Burn classification wherein the thermal appendages are spared but involves at least the deeper portions of the skin.

A

Partial thickness burn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
607
Q

Partial thickness burn that involves both the epidermis and superficial dermis.

A

Second degree burn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
608
Q

Partial thickness burn that involves the epidermis only.

A

First degree burn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
609
Q

Grossly, these burns are white or charred and anesthetic due to nerve ending destruction.

A

Full thickness burns(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
610
Q

These burns are pink or mottled with blisters and are painful.

A

Second degree burn (partial thickness)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
611
Q

Histologic change in the skin during burns.

A

Coagulative necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
612
Q

Leading cause of death in burn patients.

A

Organ system failure secondary to burn sepsis.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
613
Q

Cramping of voluntary muscles in association with vigorous exercise as a result of electrolyte loss via sweating.

A

Heat cramps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
614
Q

Most common hyperthermic syndrome. A sudden onset of prostration and collapse, resulting from failure of the cardiovascular system to compensate for hypovolemia, secondary to water depletion.

A

Heat exhaustion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
615
Q

Associated with high ambient temperatures and high humidity. Thermoregulatory mechanisms fail, sweating ceases and core body temperature rises. Due to marked generalized peripheral vasodilation with peripheral pooling of blood and decreased effective circulating volume.

A

Heat stroke(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
616
Q

Two types of injuries caused by electricity.

A

BurnsVFib or cardiac and respiratory center failure(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
617
Q

This may injure cells directly or indirectly by generating free radicals from water or molecular oxygen, damages DNA and rapidly dividing cells. Exposure may predispose to neoplastic transformation, vascular damage, sclerosis and tissue fibrosis.

A

Ionizing radiation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
618
Q

Malnutrition caused by lack of nutrients from the diet.

A

Primary malnutrition(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 304

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
619
Q

Malnutrition caused by malabsorption, impaired nutrient utilization or storage, excess losses or increased nutrient needs.

A

Secondary or conditioned malnutrition(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 304

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
620
Q

Protein energy malnutrition which occurs when protein deprivation is relatively greater than reduction in total calories. Associated with generalized edema, flaky paint appearance of the skin, alternating bands of pale and dark hair, enlarged fatty liver, apathy, listlessness and loss of appetite.

A

Kwashiorkor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 305

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
621
Q

Protein energy malnutrition caused by a decrease in both protein and calorie intake, and weight falls below 60% of normal for sex, height and age. Serum albumin is normal or slightly reduced.

A

Marasmus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 305

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
622
Q

Self-induced starvation, resulting in marked weight loss.

A

Anorexia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 306

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
623
Q

A condition wherein a patient binges on food and then induces vomiting.

A

Bulimia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 306

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
624
Q

Deficiency of this vitamin causes night blindness, xerophthalmia, keratomalacia, Bitot spots and eventually corneal ulceration.

A

Vitamin A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 307

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
625
Q

Condition in children as result of vitamin D deficiency causing the following signs and symptoms: frontal bossing of the head, rachitic rosary, pigeon breast deformity, lumbar lordosis and bow legs.

A

Rickets (children)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 309

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
626
Q

Deficieny of this vitamin causes impaired collagen formation, leading to gum bleeding, easy bruisability, and impaired wound healing.

A

Vitamin C (Scurvy)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 312

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
627
Q

Symptoms of cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis, dermatitis and corneal vascularization results from deficiency of this vitamin.

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 314

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
628
Q

Symptoms of cheilosis, glossitis, dermatitis, and peripheral neuropathy.

A

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 314

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
629
Q

In these arteries, elastic fibers alternate in layers with smooth muscle cells. Examples are the common carotid artery, iliac arteries and pulmonary arteries.

A

Large or elastic arteries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 340

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
630
Q

In these arteries, tunica media is composed primarily of smooth muscle cells, with elastin limited to the internal and external elastic lamina. Examples are the coronaries and renal arteries.

A

Medium-sized or muscular arteries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 340

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
631
Q

These are the principal control points for regulation of physiologic resistance to blood flow.

A

Arterioles(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 340

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
632
Q

These vessels are approximately the diameter of an RBC, have an endothelial cell lining but no media.

A

Capillaries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
633
Q

Diameter of an RBC.

A

7-8 um(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
634
Q

These are thin-walled, endothelium lined channels that drain excess interstitial tissue fluid, returning it to blood via the thoracic duct.

A

Lymphatics(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
635
Q

These are small spherical dilatations, typically in the circle of Willis.

A

Developmental/berry aneurysms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
636
Q

These are abnormal, typically small, direct connections between arteries and veins that bypass the intervening capillaries.

A

Arteriovenous fistulas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
637
Q

Focal, irregular thickening of the walls of medium and large muscular arteries. Segments of the vessel wall are focally thickened by combination of irregular medial and intimal hyperplasia and fibrosis, causing luminal stenosis.

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
638
Q

Literally means hardening of the arteries, term reflecting arterial wall thickening and loss of elasticity, affecting small arteries and arterioles.

A

Arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 343

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
639
Q

Characterized by calcific deposits in muscular arteries, typical in persons older than 50 yrs old. The radiographically visible, palpable calcifications do not encroach on the vessel lumen, and are not clinically significant.

A

Mockenberg medial calcific sclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 343

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
640
Q

Characterized by intimal lesions called atheromas that protrude into vascular lumina.

A

Atherosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 343

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
641
Q

Three principal components of an atheromatous plaque.

A
  1. Cells (SM cells, macrophages, T cells)2. Extracellular matrix (collagen, elastic fibers, proteoglycans)3. Intracellular and extracellular lipidFibrous cap, central lipid core, neovascularization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 344
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
642
Q

Non-modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis. (4)

A

Increasing ageMale genderFamily historyGenetic abnormalities(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 344

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
643
Q

Composed of lipid-filled foam cells but are not significantly raised and thus do not cause any disturbance in blood flow. Can appear as early as 1 year, and present in virtually all children older than 10 years old.

A

Fatty streaks(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
644
Q

Composed of lipid-filled foam cells but are not significantly raised and thus do not cause any disturbance in blood flow. Can appear as early as 1 year, and present in virtually all children older than 10 years old.

A

Fatty streaks(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 349

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
645
Q

Arrange in descending order, based on which blood vessel is most extensively involved in development of atherosclerosis.Popliteal arteries, internal carotid arteries, circle of Willis, coronaries, abdominal aorta

A

Abdominal aorta > coronaries > popliteal arteries > internal carotid arteries > circle of Willis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 350

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
646
Q

Fate of an atheromatous plaque wherein the luminal surface exposes the bloodstream to highly thrombogenic substances and induces thrombus formation.

A

Rupture, ulceration or erosion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
647
Q

Fate of an atheromatous plaque due to rupture of the overlying fibrous cap or the thin-walled vessels in the areas of neovascularization.

A

Hemorrhage(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
648
Q

Fate of an atheromatous plaque causing discharge of debris into the bloodstream, producing microemboli composed of plaque contents.

A

Atheroembolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
649
Q

Fate of an atherosclerotic plaque due to increased pressure or ischemic atrophy of the underlying media, with loss of elastic tissue, leading to weakness of the vessel wall.

A

Aneurysm formation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
650
Q

Most common cause of hypertension.

A

Idiopathic (essential hypertension)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 355

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
651
Q

This vascular lesion consists of a homogenous pink hyaline thickening of the walls of arterioles with loss of underlying structural detail and with narrowing of the lumen. A major morphologic characteristic in benign nephrosclerosis.

A

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 356

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
652
Q

Characteristic of malignant hypertension, associated with “onion-skin” concentric, laminated, thickening of the walls of arterioles with luminal narrowing. These laminations consist of smooth muscle cells and thickened duplicated basement membrane.

A

Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 356

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
653
Q

It is a localized abnormal dilation of a blood vessel or heart.

A

Aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
654
Q

It is a localized abnormal dilation of a blood vessel or heart.

A

Aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
655
Q

Aneurysm which involves all three layers of the arterial wall, or the attenuated wall of the heart.

A

True aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
656
Q

A breach in the vascular wall leading to an extravascular hematoma that freely communicates with the intravascular space.

A

False aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
657
Q

Arises when blood enters the wall of an artery, as a hematoma dissecting between its layers. Often, but not always aneurysmal in origin.

A

Arterial dissection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
658
Q

Aneurysms which are spherical outpouchings, involving only a portion of the vessel wall, varying in size from 5-20cm in diameter and often contain thrombi.

A

Saccular aneurysms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
659
Q

Aneurysms which involve diffuse, circumferential dilation of a long vascular segment, varies in diameter and length, and can involve extensive portions of the aortic arch, abdominal aorta,and iliacs.

A

Fusiform aneurysms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
660
Q

Two most important causes of aortic aneurysms.

A

AtherosclerosisCystic medial degeneration of the arterial media(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
661
Q

Infection of a major artery that causes weakness to its wall.

A

Mycotic aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
662
Q

This disease can more commonly affects men >50 years old. Lesion usually positioned below the renal arteries and above the aortic bifurcation. Can be saccular or fusiform.

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
663
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm characterized by dense periaortic fibrosis containing abundant lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate with manybmacrophages and often giant cells.

A

Inflammatory AAA(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
664
Q

Atherosclerotic lesions infected by lodging of circulating microorganisms in the wall, particularly in the setting of bacteremia from a Salmonella gastroenteritis. Suppuration further destroys the media, potentiating rapid dilation and rupture.

A

Mycotic abdominal aortic aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
665
Q

Small blood vessels and vasa vasorum show luminal narrowing and obliteration (obliterative endarteritis), scarring of the vessel wall and a dense surrounding rim of lymphocytes and plasma cells that may extend into the media. Characteristic of the tertiary stage of syphilis.

A

Syphilitic aortitis(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 359

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
666
Q

Most common point of origin of an aortic dissection.

A

Ascending aorta, 10 cms from the aortic valve(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 360

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
667
Q

Most frequent pre-existing histologically detectable lesion in aortic dissection, characterized by elastic tissue fragmentation and separation of the elastic and smooth muscle cell elements of the media by cystic spaces filled with amorphous proteoglycan-rich extracellular matrix.

A

Cystic medial degeneration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 361

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
668
Q

Classification of aortic dissection involving either them ascending aorta only or both the ascending and descending aorta.

A

Type A dissections (proximal) Type I DeBakey - ascending aorta only Type II DeBakey - ascending and descending aorta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 361

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
669
Q

Classification of aortic dissections involving the descending aorta only, usually distal to the subclavian artery.

A

Type B dissection / type III DeBakey(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 361

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
670
Q

Granulomatous inflammation frequently involving the temporal artery, occuring in patients >50 years old, associated with polymyalgia rheumatica.

A

Giant cell (Temporal) arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 363

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
671
Q

Granulomatous inflammation usually occuring in patients younger than 50 years old. Classically involves the aortic arch, with intimal hyperplasia and irregular thickening of the vessel wall. Origin of great vessels are obliterated causing weakness of peripheral pulses.

A

Takayasu arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 364

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
672
Q

Used to distinguish between giant cell arteritis and takayasu arteritis of the aorta.

A

Age of patient40 Giant cell arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 364

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
673
Q

In this disease, affected blood vessels develop nodular intimal thickening, granulomatous inflammation within the inner media centered on the internal elastic membrane, and fragmentation of the internal elastic lamina. Typically involves temporal and ophthalmic arteries.

A

Giant - cell/Temporal arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 364

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
674
Q

A systemic vasculitis causing transmural necrotizing inflammation of small to medium sized vessels, with mixed infiltvrate of neutrophils, eosinophils, and mononuclear cells, frequently accompanied by fibrinoid necrosis.Typically involves renal arteries but spares pulmonary vessels.

A

Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 365

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
675
Q

Arteritis associated with mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, which usually occurs in children. Coronary arteries can be involved with aneurysm formation or thrombosis. Fibrinoid necrosis usually less prominent.

A

Kawasaki disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 366

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
676
Q

Granulomatous inflammation involving the respiratory tract and necrotizing vasculitis affecting small vessels, including cresencteric glomerulonephritis. Associated with c-ANCA.

A

Wegener granulomatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 367

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
677
Q

A necrotizing vasculitis that generally affects capillaries, arterioles and venules, with few or no immune deposits. Necrotizing glomerulonephritis and pulmonary capillaritis are common. Associated with p-ANCA.

A

Microscopic polyangiitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 368

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
678
Q

Eosinophil-rich and granulomatous inflammation involving the respiratory tract and necrotizing vasculitis affecting small vessels. Associated with asthma and blood eosinophilia. Associated with p-ANCA.

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 368

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
679
Q

Characterized by sharply segmental avute and chronic vasculitis of medium sized and small arteries, predominantly of the extremities. There is acute and chronic inflammation accompanied by luminal thrombosis, containing microabscess composed of neutrophils surrounded by granulomatous inflammation. Stromg relationship with cigarette smoking.

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 368

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
680
Q

Results from an exaggerated vasoconstriction of digital arteries and arterioles, inducing paroxysmal pallor or cyanosis of the digits of the hands and feet.

A

Raynaud phenomenon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 369

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
681
Q

Reflects an exaggeration of central and local vasomotor responses to cold or emotion. Structural changes in the arterial walls are absent except late in course when intimal thickening can appear.

A

Primary Raynaud phenomenon (Raynaud disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 369

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
682
Q

Reflects vascular insufficiency of the extremities in the context of arterial disease caused by other entities including SLE, Buerger disease, or atherosclerosis.

A

Secondary Raynaud phenomenon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
683
Q

Abnormally dilated, tortous veins produced by prolonged increase in intraluminal pressure and loss of vessel wall support. Veins show wall thinning at the points of maximal dilation with smooth muscle hypertrophy and intimal fibrosis. Focal thrombosis and venous valve deformities are common.

A

Varicose veins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
684
Q

Most common blood vessels involved in development of varicose veins.

A

Superficial veins of the upper and lower leg(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
685
Q

Three sites of varices produced in the presence of portal hypertension.

A

GEJ (Esophageal varices)Rectum (Hemorrhoids)Periumbillical veins (Caput medusae)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
686
Q

Common and serious complication of of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

A

Pulmonary embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 371

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
687
Q

The acute inflammation elicited when bacterial infections spread into and through the lymphatics.

A

Lymphangitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 371

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
688
Q

These are bright red to blue lesions, that vary from a few millimeters tomseveral centimeters in diameter. Unencapsulated aggregates of closely packed, thin-walled capillaries, usually blood-filled and lined by flattened endothelium. Vessels are separated by scant connective tissue stroma.

A

Capillary hemangiomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 372

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
689
Q

Appears as red-blue, soft, spongy masses 1-2 cm in diameter, which can affect large subcutaneous areas of the face, extremities, and othe body regions. Mass is sharply defined but not encapsulated, composed of large, cavernous, blood-filled spaces.

A

Cavernous hemangioma(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 372

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
690
Q

This form of capillar hemangioma is a rapidly growing peduncular red nodule on the skin, gingival, or oral mucosa, bleeds easily and is often ulcerated.

A

Pyogenic granuloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 373

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
691
Q

These are round, slightly elevated, red-blue firm nodules, less than 1 cm diameter that can resemble a minute focus of hemorrhage UNDER THE NAIL. Histologically, these are aggregates, nests, and masses of tumor cells intimately associated with branching vascular channels.

A

Glomus tumor (Glomangioma)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 373

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
692
Q

A specialized arteriovenous structure involved in thermoregulation.

A

Glomus body(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 373

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
693
Q

This lesion is the ordinary “birthmark” and is the most common form of ectasia. Characteristically a flat lesion on the head or neck, ranging in color from light pink to deep purple.

A

Nevus flammeus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 374

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
694
Q

This non-neoplastic vascular lesion grossly resembles a spider. There is radial, often pulsatile array of dilated subcutaneous arteries or arterioles about a central core, that blanches when pressure is applied to its center.

A

Spider telangiectasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 374

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
695
Q

An opportunistic infection in immunocompromised persons that manifest as vascular proliferations involving skin, bone, brain and other organs. Characterized grossly by red papules and nodules, or rounded subcutaneous masses. Histologically, there is capillary proliferation with prominent epitheloid EC’s showing nuclear atypia and mitoses. Lesions contain stromal neutrophils, nuclear dust nd purplish granular material.

A

Bacillary angiomatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 374

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
696
Q

Common in patients with AIDS, caused by HHV 8, causing skin lesions ranging from patches, plaques to nodules.

A

Kaposi sarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 375

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
697
Q

These are malignant endothelial neoplasms, with varying histology from plump, anaplastic but recognizable endothelial cells producing vascular channels to widely undifferentiated tumors having solid, spindle cell appearance and producing nondefinite blood vessels.

A

Angiosarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 376

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
698
Q

The morphologic and clinical effects of this condition primarily result from progressive damming of blood within the pulmonary circulation. The left ventricle is hypertrophied and dilated, with secondary left atrial dilation. The lungs are heavy and boggy, with perivascular and interstitial transudate, alveolar septal edema, and intra-aleolar edema. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages are present.

A

Left sided heart failure(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
699
Q

Hemosiderin laden macrophages are also called _______

A

Heart failure cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
700
Q

This is usually the earliest and most significant compaint of patients in Left sided HF.

A

Dyspnea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
701
Q

Most common cause of right sided HF.

A

Left sided HF(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
702
Q

This is a particularly dramatic form of breathlessness, awakening patients from sleeo with attacks of extreme dyspnea bordering on suffocation.

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
703
Q

Isolated right sided HF occuring in patients with intrinsic lung disease that result in chronic pulmonary hypertension.

A

Cor Pulmonale(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
704
Q

Long standing severe right-sided HF leads to fibrosis of centrilobular areas, creating this condition.

A

Cardiac cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
705
Q

The liver is increased in size and weight, a cut section reveals congested red centers of liver lobules surrounded bybpaler, sometimes fatty peripheral regions.

A

Nutmeg liver (CPC of the liver)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
706
Q

Right-sided HF produces a tense, enlarged spleen, achieving weights of 300-500 grams. Sinusoidal dilation present.

A

Congestive splenomegaly(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
707
Q

This is a hallmark of right sided HF.

A

Pedal and pretibial edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 382

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
708
Q

Generalized, massive edema is called ______.

A

Anasarca(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 382

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
709
Q

Most congenital heart disease arise from faulty embryogenesis during what AOG?

A

3 - 8 weeks AOG(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 382

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
710
Q

An abnormal communication between chambers of the heart or blood vessels.

A

Shunt(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 383

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
711
Q

These a typically smooth-walled defects near the foramen ovale, usually without associated cardiac abnormalities. Accompanied by right atrial and ventricular dilation, right ventricular hypertrophy and dilation of the pulmonary artery.

A

Ostium secundum ASD(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
712
Q

Reversal of blood flow through a prolonged (left-to-right shunt) due to pulmonary hypertension, yielding right-sided pressures that exceed those on the left side. This causes unoxygenated blood to go into circulation, causing cyanosis.

A

Eisenmenger syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 383

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
713
Q

These occur at the lowest part of the atrial septum and can extend to the mitral and tricuspid valves. Abnormalities of the AV Valves are usually present, forming a cleft in the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve or septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve.

A

Ostium primum ASD(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 384

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
714
Q

Incomplete closure of the ventricular septum leading to left-to-right shunting. The right ventricle is hypertrophied and often dilated. Diameter of pulmonary artery is increased because of the increased volume by the right ventricle.

A

Ventricular Septal Defect(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
715
Q

This arises from the left pulmonary artery and joins the aorta just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery.

A

Ductus arteriosus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
716
Q

In this condition, some of the oxygenated blood flowing from the left ventricle is shunted back to the lungs. Proximal pumonary arteries, left atrium and ventricle can become dilated.

A

Patent ductus arteriosus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
717
Q

The most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease. Heart is large and “boot shaped” as a result of right ventricular hypertrophy.

A

Tetralogy of Fallot(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
718
Q

Components of Tetralogy of Fallot.

A

Pulmonary valve stenosisOverriding of aortaRight ventricular hypertrophyVentricular septal defect(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 386

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
719
Q

It is a discordant connection of the ventricles to their vascular outflow. The defect is an abnormal formation of the truncal and aortopulmonary septa. Right ventricular hypertrophy becomes prominent, while the left ventricle becomes somewhat atrophic.

A

Transposition of the Great Arteries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 386

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
720
Q

Predominant manifestation of TGA?

A

Early cyanosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 387

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
721
Q

Characterized by tubular narrowing of the aortic segment between the left subclavian artery and the ductus arteriosus. DA is usually patent and is the main source of blood to the distal aorta. RV is hypertrophied and dilated, pulmonary trunk is also dilated.

A

Preductal “infantile” coarctation of the aorta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 387

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
722
Q

Aorta is sharply constricted by a ridge of tissue at or just distal to the ligamentum arteriosum. Constricted segment is made of smooth muscle and elastic fibers that are continuous with the aortic media, and lined by thickened intima. Ductus arteriosus is closed. Proximally, the aortic arch and its vessels are dilated, LV is hypertrophic.

A

Postductal “adult” coarctation of the aorta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 387

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
723
Q

There is upper extremity hypertension, due to poor perfusion of the kidneys, but weak pulses and low blood pressure in the lower extremities. Claudication and coldness of the lower extremities also present. Enlarged intercostal and internal mammary arteries due to collateral circulation, seen as rib “notching” on xray.

A

Postductal coarctation of the aorta (without a PDA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
724
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?Atrial septal defect

A

Left-to-right(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
725
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?TOF

A

Right-to-Left(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
726
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?VSD

A

Left-to-right(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
727
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?Eisenmenger syndrome

A

Right-to-Left (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
728
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?Transposition of great arteries

A

Right-to-Left(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
729
Q

A condition wherein ischemia causes pain but is insufficient to lead to death of myocardium.

A

Angina pectoris(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
730
Q

A condition wherein ischemia causes pain but is insufficient to lead to death of myocardium.

A

Angina pectoris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
731
Q

A condition wherein the severity or duration of ischemia is enough to cause cardiac muscle death.

A

Acute Myocardial Infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
732
Q

This refers to progressive cardiac decompensation (heart failure) following myocardial infarction.

A

Chronic Ischemic Heart Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
733
Q

This can result from a lethal arrythmia following myocardial ischemia.

A

Sudden Cardiac Death(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
734
Q

How many percent should the lumen of a blood vessel be obstructed for it to be symptomatic, in the setting of increased demand?

A

70-75% (critical stenosis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 389

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
735
Q

How many percent should the lumen of a blood vessel be obstructed for it to be symptomatic at rest?

A

90%(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 389

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
736
Q

Episodic chest pain associated with exertion or some other form of increased myocardial oxygen demand. Pain described as crushing or squeezing substernal sensation which can radiate to left arm. Relieved by rest or vasodilators.

A

Stable angina(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 390

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
737
Q

Increasing frequency of pain, precipitated by progressively less exertion, episodes tend to be more intense and longer lasting.

A

Unstable angina(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 390

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
738
Q

Angina occuring at rest due to coronary artery spasm.

A

Variant or Prinzmetal angina(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 390

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
739
Q

Infarct involving >= 50% of the myocardial wall thickness.

A

Transmural infarcts(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 391

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
740
Q

Most common blood vessel involved in myocardial infarction?

A

Left anterior descending artery (40-50%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 392

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
741
Q

Electron microscope findings 30 minutes after an ischemic event.

A

Microfibril relaxation, glycogen loss and mitochondrial swelling(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
742
Q

An infarct can be readily identified by a reddish blue discoloration after how many hours after MI?

A

12-24 hours(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 393

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
743
Q

Coagulation necrosis ensues how many hours after MI?

A

4-12 hrs after an irreversible injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 394

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
744
Q

Injury to infarcts mediated in part by oxygen free radicals generated by increased number of infiltrating leukocytes facilitated by reperfusion.

A

Reperfusion injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 394

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
745
Q

Cardiac enzymes that become detectable 2-4 hours post-infarct peaks at 48 hours and remains elevated for 7-10 days.

A

Troponin I and Troponin T(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 395

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
746
Q

This cardiac enzyme is detectable in the blood within 2-4 hrs of MI, peaks at 24-48 hrs and returns to normal within approximately 72 hrs.

A

CKMB(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 395

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
747
Q

Myocardial rupture may occur how many days after MI?

A

3-7 days after infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 397

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
748
Q

This occurs within 2-3 days of a transmural infarct and typically resolves within time. It is the epicardial manifestation of the underlying myocardial inflammation.

A

Pericarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 397

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
749
Q

A late complication of MI, most commonly results from a large transmural anteroseptal infarct that heals with formation of a thin scar tissue.

A

Ventricular aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 397

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
750
Q

This type of hypertrophy develops in pressure-overloaded ventricles, with an increase in wall thickness, and reduced cavity diameter.

A

Concentric hypertrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 399

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
751
Q

Type of hypertrophybthat develops in patients with volume overload such as aortic valve insufficiency. Characterized by hypertrophy associated with ventricular dilation.

A

Eccentric hypertrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 399

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
752
Q

In this disease the left ventricle may exceed 2.0cm in thickness and the heartvmay weigh >500 grams. Microscopically, myocyte diameter increases, associated with irregular nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia (“box-car nuclei”), and increased interstitial fibrosis.

A

Sytemic Hypertensive heart disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 399

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
753
Q

It is the failure of a valve to open completely, obstructing forward flow.

A

Stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 401

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
754
Q

This results from failure of a valve to close completely, thereby allowing reversed flow.

A

Insufficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 401

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
755
Q

The hallmark of this disease is heaped-up calcified masses on the outflow side of the cusps, which protrude intonthe sinuses of Valsalva and mechanically impede valve opening. Cusps may become secondarily fibrosed and thickened.

A

Calcific aortic stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 401

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
756
Q

This is characterized by ballooning or hooding of the mitral leaflets. Affected leaflets are enlarged, redundant, thick and rubbery. The tendinous cords are elongated, thinned and occasionally ruptured. Histologically, there is thinning of the fibrosa layer of the valve, accompanied by expansion of the middle spongiosa layer with increased deposition of mucoid material.

A

Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 402

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
757
Q

Patients with this disease may complain of palpitations, dyspnea or atypical chest pain. Auscultation shows a midsystolic click associated with a regurgitant murmur.

A

Mitral valve prolapse(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 402

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
758
Q

Pathognomonic sign for rheumatic fever,consisting of of a cental zone of degenerating, hypereosinophilic ECM infiltrated by lymphocytes, ocassional plasma cells and plump, activated macrophages.

A

Aschoff bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 402

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
759
Q

These cells have abundant cytoplasm and central nuclei with chromatin arrayed in a slender, wavy ribbon (caterpillar cells) which can be found in all three layers of the heart in rheumatic fever. A component of Aschoff bodies.

A

Anitschkow cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 403

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
760
Q

Characterized by organization and subsequent scarring, as a sequelae of rheumatic fever. The mitral (or tricuspid) valve is involved, with leaflet thickening, commisural fission and shortening, thickening and fusiong of the chordae tendinae. Fibrous bridging across valvular commisures create “fishmouth” or “ buttonhole” deformity.

A

Chronic Rheumatic Heart Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 403

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
761
Q

Most common valve involved in RHD.

A

Mitral valve (upto 70% of cases with RHD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 405

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
762
Q

Major components Jones Criteria for RF.

A

CarditisMigratory polyarthritisSubcutaneous nodulesErythema marginatumSyndenham chorea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
763
Q

Minor components Jones criteria for RF

A

FeverArthralgiaElevated acute phase reactants (e.g. CRP)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
764
Q

How many major and/or minor manifestations are needed to diagnose RF?

A

Remember: 20122 major 0 minor or1 major 2 minor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
765
Q

Endocarditis of previously normal valves, the most common causative agent is S. aureus.

A

Acute bacterial endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
766
Q

Serious infection characterized by microbial invasion of heart valves or mural endocardium, often with destruction of the underlying cardiac tissues. The heart valves are friable, bulky and potentially destructive.

A

Infective endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
767
Q

Endocarditis affecting previously damaged or abnormal valves, commonly caused by viridans Streptococci.

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
768
Q

Most consistent sign of infective endocarditis.

A

Fever(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 407

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
769
Q

Characterized by deposition of sterile, non-inflammatory, nondestructive and small (1mm) masses of fibrin, platelets and other blood components on cardiac valves, along the line of closure of leaflets or cusps.

A

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 407

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
770
Q

Sterile vegetations thatvcan develop on the valves of patients with SLE. These are small, granular, pinkish vegetations 1-4mm in diameter and can be located on the undersurface of AV valves, on the cords or endocardium.

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 408

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
771
Q

The lesions of this disease are distinctive, glistening white intimal plaquelike thickenings on the endocardial surfaces of the cardiac chambers and valve leaflets seen in patients with carcinoid tumors. The lesions are composed of muscle cells and sparse collagen fibers embedded in an acid mucopolysaccharide-rich matrix.

A

Carcinoid heart disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 408

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
772
Q

Cardiomyopathy which is characterized by progressive cardiac dilation and contractile dysfunction. The heart is characteristically enlarged and flabby, with dilation of all chambers,the ventricular thickness may be less than, equal to or greater than normal.

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 411

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
773
Q

Alcohol intake and infection with coxsackie B virus are some of the causes of this cardiomyopathy.

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 411

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
774
Q

Characterized by myocardial hypertrophy, abnormal diastolic filling and ventricular outflow obstruction. The heart is thick-walled, heavy and hypercontracting. There is an assymetrical septal hypertrophy described as “banana-like”. Histologically, there is severe myocyte hypertrophy and disarray with interstitial fibrosis.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 412

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
775
Q

Mechanism of heart failure in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

A

Diastolic dysfunction (impaired compliance)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 412

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
776
Q

A common cause of sudden death in young athlethes.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 412

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
777
Q

The ventricles are of approximately normal size or slightly enlarged, the cavities not dilated, and the myocardium is firm. Biatrial dilation is common. Microscopically, there is interstitial fibrosis, varying from minimal to patchy to extensive and diffuse.

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 413

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
778
Q

Mechanism of heart failure in restrictive cardiomyopathy.

A

Diastolic dysfunction or impaired compliance(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 413

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
779
Q

Inflammation of the myocardium.

A

Myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
780
Q

Most common type of myocarditis wherein lymphocytes infiltrate the interstitium. This may resolve or heal by progressive fibrosis.

A

Lymphocytic myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
781
Q

Myocarditis that has interstitial and perivascular infiltrates composed of lymphocytes, macrophages and a high proportion of eosinophils.

A

Hypersensitivity myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
782
Q

Myocarditis characterized by widespread inflammatory infoltrates containing multinucleated giant cells interspresed with lymphocytes, eosinophils and plasma cells. Poor prognosis.

A

Giant-cell myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
783
Q

Myocarditis distinctive by virtue of parasitization of scattered myofibers by trypanosomes accompanied by an inflammatory infiltrate of neutrophils, lymphocytes, macrophages and occasional eosinophils.

A

Chagas myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
784
Q

Viruses which account for most cases of myocarditis.

A

Coxsackie A and B(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
785
Q

Type of pericarditis found in patients with uremia or viral infection. The exudate imparts an irregular apperance to the pericardial surface (bread and butter pericarditis).

A

Fibrinous pericarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 416

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
786
Q

Bacterial pericarditis manifests with this type of exudate.

A

Fibrinopurulent (suppurative)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 416

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
787
Q

Heart is completely encased by dense fibrosis that it cannot expand normally during diastole.

A

Constrictive pericarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 416

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
788
Q

Normal amount of pericardial fluid in pericardial sac.

A

30 - 50 mL of thin, straw-colored fluid(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
789
Q

Serous pericardial effusion can be caused by _________

A

CHF, hypoalbuminemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
790
Q

Chylous pericardial fluid can be caused by _______

A

Mediastinal lymphatic obstruction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
791
Q

Rapidly developing collections of fluid within the pericardial sac can restrict diastolic cardiac filling producing this fatal sequelae.

A

Cardiac tamponade(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
792
Q

The most common tumor of the heart.

A

Metastatic tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
793
Q

Most common primary tumor of the adult heart.

A

Myxoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
794
Q

Major clinical manifestations of this cardiac tumor are due to valvular “ball-valve” obstruction, embolization or a syndrome of constitutional symptoms.

A

Myxoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 418

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
795
Q

The most frequent primary tumor of the heart in infants and children. These are generally small gray-white myocardial masses composed of a mixed population of cells, the most characteristic of which are large, rounded or polygonal cells containing numerous glycogen-laden vacuoles separated by strands of cytoplasm, so-called spider cells.

A

Rhabdomyomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 418

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
796
Q

Serosanguinous pericardial effusion can be caused by ________

A

Blunt chest trauma, malignancy, ruptured MI, aortic dissection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 418

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
797
Q

Average volume per cell, expressed in femtoliters.

A

Mean cell volume (MCV)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
798
Q

A reduction in the oxygen-transporting capacity of blood.

A

Anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 422

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
799
Q

The average content of hemoglobin per red cell, expressed in picograms.

A

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
800
Q

The average concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of packed red cells, expressed in g/dL.

A

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
801
Q

The coefficient of variation of red cell volume.

A

Red cell distribution width (RDW)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
802
Q

Anemia of acute blood loss is described as ______.

A

Normocytic, normochromic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
803
Q

Life span of a normal red cell.

A

120 days(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
804
Q

Anemia characterized by an increased rate of cell destruction, a compensatory increase in erythropoeisis that results in reticulocytosis, and retention of products of cell destruction, including iron.

A

Hemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
805
Q

A circulating protein that binds and clears free hemoglobin.

A

Haptoglobin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
806
Q

Hemolysis that can result from mechanical trauma, or biochemical or physical agents that damage the red cell membrane.

A

Intravascular hemolysis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
807
Q

Hemolysis which takes place largely within phagocytic cells of the spleen and liver.

A

Extravascular hemolysis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
808
Q

This disorder is characterized by an intrinsic defect in the red cell membrane, that renders the cells spheroidal, less defomable and vulnerable to splenic sequestration and destruction.

A

Hereditary spherocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
809
Q

Small, dark nuclear remnants seen within red cells in PBS of hereditary spherocytosis.

A

Howell-Jolly bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 425

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
810
Q

On PBS, red cells are spherical which lack central pallor, and they show increased osmotic fragility when placed in hypotonic salt solutions.

A

Hereditary spherocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 425

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
811
Q

Structural proteins that are defective in hereditary spherocytosis.

A

Spectrin and ankyrin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 425

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
812
Q

This results from substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position of the B-chain, producing HbS.

A

Sickle cell anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 426

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
813
Q

Bizarre, elongated, spindled or boat-shaped cells on PBS.

A

Sickel cell anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 427

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
814
Q

Prominent cheekbones and changes in skull resembling a “crew-cut” skull x-ray.

A

Sickle cell anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 427

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
815
Q

Patients with sickle cell disease are predisposed to infections caused by these type of bacteria.

A

Encapsulated bacteria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
816
Q

Treatment for sickle cell disease by increasing levels of HbF.

A

Hydroxyurea(TOPNOTCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
817
Q

Treatment for sickle cell disease by increasing levels of HbF.

A

Hydroxyurea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
818
Q

Feared complication of sickle cell disease which can be trigerred by pulmonary infections or fat emboli from necrotic marrow that secondarily involve the lung.

A

Acute chest syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
819
Q

Major complication of sickle cell disease which occurs in the setting of acute chest syndrome, causing ischemic injury to the CNS.

A

CNS stroke(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
820
Q

Represents a sudden but usually temporary cessation of erythropoeisis, usually trigerred by parvovirus B19 infections in patients with sickle cell disease.

A

Aplastic crises(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
821
Q

In beta thalassemia, an individual who inherits one abnormal allele (out of 2) has this asymptomatic to mildly symptomatic condition.

A

B- Thalassemia minor/trait(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 429

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
822
Q

Individuals with B-thalassemia who inherit two abnormal alleles, with severe anemia requiring regular blood tranfusions.

A

B- Thalassemia major(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 429

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
823
Q

Red cells with a central, dark-red puddle due to collection of hemoglobin.

A

Target cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
824
Q

Target cells are often seen in this condition.

A

B-thalassemia minor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
825
Q

In the PBS of this condition, nucleated red cells (normoblasts) are seen, which reflect underlying erythropoeisis.

A

B-thalassemia major(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
826
Q

Anemia of beta thalassemia.

A

Microcytic, hypochromic(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
827
Q

Disease caused by deletion of 3 alpha globin genes.

A

Hemoglobin H disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 431

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
828
Q

Condition caused by deletion of 1 alpha globin gene.

A

Silent carrier(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 431

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
829
Q

Condition caused by deletion of 2 alpha globin genes.

A

Alpha thalassemia trait(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 431

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
830
Q

Condition caused by deletion of all four alpha globin genes.

A

Hydrops fetalis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 429

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
831
Q

Precipitates of denatured globin seen in RBC’s.

A

Heinz bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
832
Q

Heinz bodies are seen in the blood smear of this condition.

A

G6PD Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

833
Q

Bite cells are seen in ________.

A

G6PD Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

834
Q

A rare disorder of unknown etiology, causes hemolytic anemia which results from an acquired membrane defect secondary to a mutation that affects myeloid stem cells. Hemolysis occurs during sleep.

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

835
Q

Hemolysis caused by IgG or IgA antiodies that are active at 37 degC, which results in opsonization of red cells by the autoantibodies.

A

Warm antibody immunohemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

836
Q

Anemia caused by low-affinity IgM which bind to red cell membranes only at temp <30degC, commonly experienced by distal parts of the body.

A

Cold antibody immunohemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

837
Q

Anemia observed in a variety of pathologic states, in which small vessels become particularly obstructed.(e.g. DIC, malignant HTN, SLE, etc.)

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

838
Q

Schistiocytes, burr cells, helmet cells, triangle cells are seen in this condition.

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

839
Q

X-linked disorder in which red cells are unusually susceptible to damage cause by oxidants.

A

G6PD Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

840
Q

Red blood cells in iron deficiency anemia.

A

Microcytic, hypochromic(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 436

841
Q

Diagnostic criteria for iron deficiency anemia:____ Ferritin____Serum iron level____Transferrin saturation____Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)

A

Low ferritinLow serum iron levelsLow transferrin saturationIncreased TIBC(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 435

842
Q

Diagnostic criteria for anemia of chronic disease:____ Ferritin____Serum iron level____Transferrin saturation____Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)

A

Increased ferritinLow serum iron levelsLow transferrin saturationDecreased TIBCNormocytic, normochromic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 435

843
Q

Principal causes of megaloblastic anemia.

A

Folate deficiencyVitamin B12 deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 437

844
Q

Bone marrow is markedly hypercellular as a sult of increased number of megaloblasts, which are large cells that have delicate, finely reticulated nuclear chromatin and abundant basophilic cytoplasm.

A

Megaloblastic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 437

845
Q

PBS finding in neutrophils and red cells of patients with megaloblastic anemia.

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils, large, egg-shaped macro-ovalocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 437

846
Q

Difference between megloblastic and pernicious anemia.

A

Presence of neurologic abnormalities in pernicious anemia.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

847
Q

Deficiency in folate causes this type of anemia.

A

Megaloblastic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

848
Q

Deficiency in Vitamin B12 causes this type of anemia.

A

Pernicious anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

849
Q

Etiology of pernicious anemia.

A

1.Vitamin B12 malabsorption secondary to autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor which is needed in its absorption.2. Gastrectomy or ileal resection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

850
Q

Principal neurologic lesion in pernicious anemia.

A

Demyelination of posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 439

851
Q

Bone marrow is markedly hypocellular, with >90% of the intertrabecular space being occupied by fat.

A

Aplastic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 439

852
Q

Tear drop cells are also called __________.

A

Dacrocytes(TOPNOTCH)

853
Q

Tear drop cells are also called __________.

A

Dacrocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 440

854
Q

Dacrocytes are found in peripheral blood of patients with this type of anemia.

A

Myelophthisic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 440

855
Q

Increase in blood concentration of red cells, with an increase in Hgb concentration.

A

Polycythemia or erythrocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

856
Q

Polycythemia secondary to reduced plasma volume.

A

Relative polycythemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

857
Q

Polycythemia secondary to abnormal proliferation of myeloid stem cells and low erythropoeitin levels.

A

Primary polycythemia (Absolute)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

858
Q

Polycythemia secondary to increased erythropoeitin levels due to lung disease, high-altitude living, cyanotic heart disease and EPO secreting tumors.

A

Secondary polycythemia (Absolute)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

859
Q

Total white cell count is reduced to 1000 cells/uL. Affected persons are extremely susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections.

A

Neutropenia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

860
Q

A self-limited disease of adolescents and young adults that is causd by B lymphocytotropic EBV characterized by fever, sore throat and generalized lymphadenitis, an increase of atypical lymphocytes in blood and an antibody and T cell response to EBV.

A

Infectious mononucleosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 442

861
Q

Cells with abundant cytoplasm 12-16um in diameter that contains azurophilic granules, and an oval, indented or folded nucleus.

A

Atypical lymphocytes (Infectious mononucleosis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 442

862
Q

Inflamed nodes are swollen, gray-red and engorged. There are large germinal centers containing numerous mitotic figures. Affected nodes are tender and fluctuant if with extensive abscess formation.

A

Acute nonspecific lymphadenitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

863
Q

This pattern is associated with infections or inflammatory processes that activate B cells which create a follicular or germinal center reaction. Lymph node architecture is preserved, lymphoid nodules vary in shape and size, mixed lymphocytic infiltrates with prominent phagocytic and mitotic activity within germinal centers.

A

Follicular hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

864
Q

Reactive pattern characterized by distention and prominence of the lymphatic sinusoids, due to marked hypertrophy of lining endothelial cells and an infiltrate of histiocytes. Encountered in lymph nodes draining cancers.

A

Sinus histiocytosis(TOPNOTCH)

865
Q

Characterized by reactive changes within T-cell regions of the lymph node, usually encountered during viral infections, following certain vaccinations, and immune reactions induced by certain drugs.

A

Paracortical hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

866
Q

Formation of sarcoid-like ganulomas that undergo central necrosis associated with neutrophil accumulation. This irregular stellate necrotizing granuloma is seen in patients presenting with a raised inflammatory node, vesicle or eschar at site of injury. History of exposure to cats.

A

Cat scratch disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

867
Q

Causative agent for cat scratch disease(TOPNOTCH)

A

Bartonella henselae(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

868
Q

Lymphoblasts with irregular nuclear contours, condensed chromatin , small nucleoli and scant agranular cytoplasm. Blasts compose >25% of marrow cellularity. Most common childhood leukemia.

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 447

869
Q

Frequent small “cleaved” cells mixed with large cells, growth pattern nodular, centroblasts present. Occurs in older adults, usually involves nodes, marrow, spleen. Associated with t(14;18).

A

Follicular lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 451

870
Q

Small to intermediate-sized irregular lymphocytes growing in a diffuse pattern, no centroblasts and proliferation centers. Occurs mainly in older males, GI tract commonly affected. Associated with t(11;14).

A

Mantle cell lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 452

871
Q

Plasma cells in sheets, with prominent nucleoli or inclusion containing Ig. Presents as disseminated bone disease, with destructive lytic lesions.

A

Plasmacytoma / plasma cell myeloma(TOPNOTCH)

872
Q

Intermediate-sized round lymphoid cells with 2-5 prominent nucleoli. Nuclear remnants phagocytosed by interspersed macrophages with abundant clear cytoplasm, “starry sky pattern”

A

Burkitt lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 453

873
Q

Sheets of small, round lymphocytes and scattered ill-defined foci of larger, actively dividing cells diffusely efface involved LN. A foci of mitotically active cells called proliferation centers are pathognomonic.

A

Small lymphocytic leukemia (SLL) / Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 450

874
Q

Fragile neoplastic lymphocytes that are frequently disrupted during smear preparation.

A

Smudge cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 450

875
Q

Smudge cells are seen in this type of leukemia.

A

CLL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 450

876
Q

Tumor cells have large nuclei with open chromatin and prominent nucleoli. Most important type of lymphoma in adults, accounting to ~50% of adult NHL.

A

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 452

877
Q

Multifocal destructive bone lesions seen as punched-out defects in bone radiographs.

A

Multiple myeloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 455

878
Q

Excess lightvor heavy chains along with complete Igs synthesized by neoplastic plasma cells.

A

Bence-Jones proteins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 454

879
Q

Cells with two mirror-image nuclei or nuclear lobes, each containing a large acidophilic nucleolus surrounded by a distinctive clear zone, imparting a n owl-like appearance.

A

Reed-Sternberg cell(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 456

880
Q

A distinctive groups of neoplasms that arise almost invariably in a single lymph node or chain of lymph nodes and spread characteristically in a stepwise fashion to anatomically contiguous nodes.

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 456

881
Q

Most common form of Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by a large cell which has a single multilobate nucleus with small nucleoli and an abundant pale-staining cytoplasm called lacunar cells.

A

Nodular sclerosis HL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 457

882
Q

Most common form of HL in patients greater than 50 years old, with male predominance, plentiful RS cells and heterogenous cellular infiltrates.

A

Mixed cellularity HL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 458

883
Q

Cells found in adult T-cell lymphoma which appear to have multilobulated nuclei.

A

Cloverleaf or flower cell(TOPNOTCH)

884
Q

Subgroup of HL characterized by a large number of small resting lymphocytes admixed with a variable number of benign histiocytes. Variant RS cells described as multilobed, puffy nucleus Which appears like a “popcorn”. Excellent prognosis.

A

Lymphocyte-predominance HL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 458

885
Q

Cells with fiery red cytoplasm.

A

Flame cells(TOPNOTCH)

886
Q

Cells with pink globular cytoplasmic inclusions.

A

Russell bodies(TOPNOTCH)

887
Q

Cells with blue globular nuclear inclusions.

A

Dutcher bodies(TOPNOTCH)

888
Q

Multiple nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and cytoplasmic droplets containing Ig.

A

Bizarre, multinucleated cells(TOPNOTCH)

889
Q

Bizarre multinucleated cells, flame cells, Russel bodies and Dutcher bodies are all seen in what disease?

A

Multiple myeloma(TOPNOTCH)

890
Q

Bone marrow aspirate shows hypercellular martow packed with myeloblasts and azurophilic needle-like material called Auer rods.

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 462

891
Q

Leukemia of children most responsive to chemotherapy.

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 461

892
Q

Mature B-cell tumor in the elderly, where cells have fine hair-like projections (hairy cells).

A

Hairy cell leukemia(TOPNOTCH)

893
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma subgroup most commonly associated with EBV infection.

A

Lymphocyte depleted(TOPNOTCH)

894
Q

Mature B-cell tumor in the elderly, where cells have fine hair-like projections (hairy cells).

A

Hairy cell leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 459

895
Q

t(9;22) is also called ______.

A

Philadelphia chromosome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 465

896
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma subgroup with highest count of RS cells.

A

Mixed cellularity type(TOPNOTCH)

897
Q

This correlates with good prognosis in Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

High Lymphocyte : Reed-Sternberg cell ratio(TOPNOTCH)

898
Q

Hodgin lymphoma subgroup not associated with EBV.

A

Nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominant(TOPNOTCH)

899
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma subgroup with poorest prognosis.

A

Lymphocyte depleted HL(TOPNOTCH)

900
Q

Tumor of the thymus associated with myastheni gravis and pure red cell aplasia.

A

Thymoma(TOPNOTCH)

901
Q

Pentalaminar tubules, often with a dilated terminal end (tennis racket-like appearance).

A

Birbeck granules(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

902
Q

Proliferative disorder of the dendritic cells which has birbeck granules.

A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

903
Q

Pathology behind polycythemia vera.

A

Mutation in tyrosine kinase JAK2, which acts in signalling pathways of the erythropoeitin receptors, rendering them hypersensitive to erythropoeitin.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 466

904
Q

Treatment for polycythemia vera.

A

Phlebotomy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 466

905
Q

Collection of aggressive tumors that are comprised of immature myeloblasts which replace the marrow and suppress normal hematopoiesis.

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

906
Q

Myeloid tumor arising from a pluripotent stem cell associated with mutatios of the BCR-ABL gene. If untreated, may progress to a blast crisis.

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

907
Q

Most common myelodysplastic syndrome. A myeloid tumor in which abnormal megakaryocytes stimulate marrow fibroblasts to release collagen, replacing the marrow space, leading to pancytopenia and extramedullary hematopoeisis.

A

Myeloid metaplasia with Myelofibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

908
Q

Other name for acute disseminated Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

A

Letterer-Siwe disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 468

909
Q

Caused by a systemic activation of coagulation pathways, leading to formation of thrombi throughout the microcirculation.

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 469

910
Q

Characterized by spontaneous bleeding, prolonged bleeding time, and normal PT and PTT.

A

Thrombocytopenia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 471

911
Q

Drug-induced disorder caused by IgG antibodies that bind to platelet factor IV on platelet surfaces, which activates platelets and induce their aggregation.

A

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

912
Q

Associated with pentad of fever, thrombocytopenia, microangipathic hemolytic anemia, transient neurologic deficits and renal failure.

A

Thrombotic thrombocytic purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

913
Q

Associated with childhood onset microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure. No neurologic symptoms.

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

914
Q

Caused by antiplatelet antibodies directed against glycoproteins IIb-IIIa, Ib-IX.

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

915
Q

Decreased gp Ib leads to defective platelet adhesion, associated with decreased platelet count.

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)

916
Q

Caused by deficiency of ADAMTS13, a vWF metalloprotease.

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

917
Q

Caused by shiga-like toxin in EHEC (E. coli O157:H7) from improperly cooked burgers.

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

918
Q

Decreased gp IIb-IIIa leads to defective platelet aggregation, associated with normal platelet count.

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia(TOPNOTCH)

919
Q

Most common bleeding disorder.

A

vWF disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

920
Q

Most common hereditary disease associated with life threatening bleeding,

A

Hemophilia A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

921
Q

An X-linked recessive disorder caused by reduction in factor VII activity.

A

Classic Hemophilia/ Hemophilia A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

922
Q

An X-linked disorder caused by deficiency of Factor IX, or Christmas factor. Bleeding time is normal, PTT is prolonged.

A

Hemophilia B/ Christmas Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

923
Q

A state associated with excessive removal of formed elements of blood, resulting in anemia, leukopenia or thrombocytopenia.

A

Hypersplenism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 476

924
Q

Loss of lung volume cause by inadequate expansion of airspaces, resulting in shunting of inadequately oxygenated blood from pulmonary arteries into veins.

A

Atelectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 480

925
Q

Atelectasis which occurs when an obstruction prevents air from reaching distal airways.

A

Resorption atelectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 480

926
Q

Atelectasis usually associated with accumulation of fluid, blood, or air within the pleural cavity, which mechanically collapse the adjacent lung.

A

Compression atelectasis (aka passive or relaxation atelectasis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 481

927
Q

Atelectasis which occurs when either local or generalized fibrotic changes in the lung or pleura hamper expansion and increase elastic recoil during expiration.

A

Contraction or cicatricial atelectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 481

928
Q

Lungs are dark red, firm, airless and heavy. There is capillary congestion, necrosis of alveolar epithelial cells, interstitial and intra-alveolar edema and hemorrhage and neutrophils in capillaries. Hyaline membrane is also characteristic, lining the alveolar ducts.

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 482

929
Q

Diffuse pulmonary disease characterized by limitation of airflow, usually resulting from an increase in resistance caused by partial or complete obstruction atvany level.

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

930
Q

Diffuse pulmonary disease characterized by reduced expansion of lung parenchyma accompanied by decreased total lung capacity.

A

Restrictive lung disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

931
Q

Lung volumes in obstructive lung disease:FEV1FVCFEV1:FVC ratio

A

FEV1 - decreasedFVC - normal / increasedFEV1:FVC ratio - decreased(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

932
Q

Lung volumes in restrictive lung diseaseFEV1FVCFEV1:FVC ratio

A

FEV1 - normal/decreasedFVC - decreasedFEV1:FVC ratio - near normal(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

933
Q

Characterized by abnormal permanent enlargement of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls without obvious fibrosis. There is thinning oof the alveolar walls and loss of elastic tissue.

A

Emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 485

934
Q

Type of emphysema involving the central or proximal parts of the acini, formed by respiratory bronchioles, while distal parts are spared. Lungs deep pink and less voluminous, affecting the upper 2/3 of the lungs. Occurs in smokers.

A

Centriacinar (centrilobular) Emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 485

935
Q

Type of emphysema wherein the acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli. Occurs more commonly in the lower lung zones. Occurs in a-antitrypsin deficiency.

A

Panacinar (panlobular) emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 485

936
Q

Type of emphysema wherein only the distal part is primarily involved. Lesion is adjacent to the pleura along the lobular connective tissue septa and at the lobe margins. More severe at the upper half of the lungs, forming bullae.

A

Distal acinar (paraseptal) emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 486

937
Q

Barrel-chested, dyspneic, prolonged expiration, sits forward in a hunched-over position, adequate oxygenation of oxygen. “Pink puffers”.

A

COPD predominantly emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

938
Q

History of recurrent infections with purulent sputum, less prominent dyspnea and respiratory drive, becomes hypoxic and are pften cyanotic and obese. “Blue bloaters”.

A

COPD predominantly chronic bronchitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

939
Q

Defined as persistent productive cough for at least 3 consecutive months in at least 2 consecutive years.

A

Chronic bronchitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

940
Q

Mucosal lining of the larger airways is usually hyperemic and swollen with edema fluid, often covered by a layer of mucinous or mucopurulent secretions. Trachea and bronchi have enlarged mucus-secreting glands.

A

Chronic bronchitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

941
Q

Characterized by goblet cell metaplasia, mucus plugging, inflammation and fibrosis, and sometimes complete obliteration of the lumen due to fibrosis.

A

Chronic bronchiolitis (small airway disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

942
Q

Most important underlying risk factor for chronic bronchitis.

A

Cigarette smoking(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

943
Q

Triad of 1.intermittent and reversible airway obstruction2.chronic bronchial inflammation with eosinophils3.bronchial smooth muscle cell hypertrophy and hyperreactivity

A

Asthma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

944
Q

Collections of crystalloids made up of eosinophil proteins.

A

Charcot-Leyden crystals(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 492

945
Q

Whorls of shed epithelium found in mucus plugs.

A

Curschmann spirals(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 492

946
Q

Curshmann spirals and Charcot-Leyden crystals are found histologically in this disease.

A

Asthma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 492

947
Q

Permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles caused by destruction of theuscle and elastic supporting tissue, resulting from chronic necrotizing infections.

A

Bronchiectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 493

948
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder frequently associated with bronchiectasis and sterility in males.

A

Kartagener syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 493

949
Q

Refers to a pulmonary disorder of unknown etiology characterized patchy interstitial fibrosis. Grossly, pleural surfaces of the lung have the appearance of cobblestones because of retraction scars along the interlobular septa.

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 495

950
Q

A thrombus that lodges astride a pulmonary artery bifurcation, which causes pulmonary hypertension, which can lead to hypoxia and cor pulmonale.

A

Saddle embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 505

951
Q

Most common symptom of pulmonary embolism.

A

None, asymptomatic 60-80% of the time.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 506

952
Q

Mean pulmonary pressures reach one-fourth or more of systemic pressures.

A

Pulmonary hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 506

953
Q

Encountered in young persons, more commonly in women, marked by fatigue, syncope, dyspnea on exertion, and sometimes chest pain. Cause of increased pulmonary pressures is unknown.

A

Primary pulmonary hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 506

954
Q

Clinical features of this disease reflect the underlying disease, with accentuation of respiratory insufficiency and right-sided heart strain.

A

Secondary pulmonary hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 507

955
Q

Pneumonia with a patchy distribution of inflammation involving more than one lobe.

A

Bronchopneumonia(TOPNOTCH)

956
Q

Pneumonia with a patchy distribution of inflammation involving more than one lobe.

A

Bronchopneumonia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 509

957
Q

Four stages of pneumococcal pneumonia.

A

Congestion, red hepatization, gray hepatization, resolution(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 510

958
Q

Affected areas are red-blue, congested and subcrepitant. Inflammatory reaction is largely confined within the walls of the alveoli. Septa widened and edematous, with mononuclear infiltrates of lymphocytes, histiocytes and plasma cells. Alveolar spaces are free of cellular exudate.

A

Atypical pneumonia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 513

959
Q

A localized area of suppurative necrosis within the pulmonary parenchyma, resulting in the formation of one or more large cavities.

A

Lung abscess(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 515

960
Q

Pulmonary abscess resulting from aspiration of infective material are much more common on the left or right side?

A

Right side since it’s shorter and more vertical.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 515

961
Q

Form of tuberculosis that develops in a previously unexposed, unsensitized person.

A

Primary tuberculosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

962
Q

Implantation of the inhaled M. tuberculosis bacilli in the distal airspaces of the lungs, causes the formation of this 1 - 1.5 cm area of gray-white inflammatory consolidation.

A

Ghon focus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

963
Q

Ghon focus + nodal involvement = ________

A

Ghon complex(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

964
Q

Radiographically detectable calcified Ghon complex.

A

Ranke complex(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

965
Q

Pattern of disease that arises in previously sensitized host to M. tuberculosis.

A

Secondary or reactivation TB(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 520

966
Q

Occurs when TB bacilli drain through the lymphtics into lymphatic ducts, which eventually empty into the rightside of the heart and into pulmonary circulation. Individual lesions are small, visible foci of yellow-white consolidation scattered through the parenchyma.

A

Miliary TB(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 520

967
Q

The most frequent form of extrapulmonary TB.

A

TB Lymphadenitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 521

968
Q

TB lymphadenitis of the cervical LN.

A

Scrofula(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 521

969
Q

Round to oval small yeast forms measuring 2-5 um in diameter.

A

Histoplasma capsulatum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 523

970
Q

Thick walled non-budding spherules 20-60 um diameter, often filled with small endospores.

A

Coccidiodomycosis immitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 523

971
Q

Round to oval and larger fungi, which reproduce by broad-based budding.

A

Blastomycosis dermatitidis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 523

972
Q

Cells infected by this virus exhibit gigantism of the cell and nucleus. An enlarged inclusion surrounded by a clear halo “owl’s eye” is seen. It is the most common opportunistic viral pathogen in AIDS.

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 524

973
Q

Opportunistic infection of the lungs having a characteristic intra-alveolar foamy, pink-staining exudate “cotton candy exudate”, with thickened septa and mononuclear infiltrate.

A

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 526

974
Q

Most frequent disease-causing fungus.

A

Candida albicans(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 526

975
Q

The fungus is a 5-10 um yeast, has a thick, gelatinous capsule and reproduces by budding. Most likely acquired through bird droppings. Visualized by India ink or Giemsa stain.

A

Cryptococcus neoformans(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 527

976
Q

Which type of lung cancer is treated by chemotherapy only? Why?

A

Small cell lung carcinomaIt is an aggressive tumor which usually have metastasized at the time of diagnosis.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 529

977
Q

Lung carcinoma best treated with surgery since they respond poorly to chemotherapy.

A

Non-small cell lung carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 529

978
Q

Types of lung cancer with strongest association with tobacco exposure.

A

Squamous cell carcinomaSmall-cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 530

979
Q

Lung cancer which are peripherally located, most common type of lung cancer in women and nonsmokers. Grows slowly and metastasize early. Assumes a variety of forms, incliding acinar, papillary and solid types.

A

Adenocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

980
Q

Lung cancer which are peripherally located, most common type of lung cancer in women and nonsmokers. Grows slowly and metastasize early. Assumes a variety of forms, incliding acinar, papillary and solid types.

A

Adenocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 531

981
Q

Lung carcinoma which typically have large, prominent nucleoli, and a moderate amount of cytoplasm, with minimal glandular or squamous differentiation.

A

Large-cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

982
Q

Lung carcinoma which typically have large, prominent nucleoli, and a moderate amount of cytoplasm, with minimal glandular or squamous differentiation.

A

Large-cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 531

983
Q

Lung carcinoma which appear as pale gray, centrally located masses. Nests and cords of polygonal cells with scant cytoplasm, granular chromatin and inconspicuous nuclei. FNAB shows nuclear molding of adjacent cells. Associated with several paraneoplastic syndromes.

A

Small cell lung carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

984
Q

Other name for small cell lung carcinoma.

A

Oat cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

985
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with oat cell carcinoma.

A

Cushing syndromeSIADH Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

986
Q

Hypercalcemia due to excessive production of PTH related protein is usually seen in patients with this type of lung carcinoma.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

987
Q

Form of lung cancer that is thought to arise from neuroendocrine cells, called Kulchitsky cells, that line the bronchial mucosa and resemble intestinal carcinoids. Nests of small, rounded, uniform cells with “salt and pepper” chromatin.

A

Bronchial carcinoids(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 534

988
Q

Presence of fluid in the pleural space.

A

Pleural effusion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

989
Q

Air or other gas in the pleural sac.

A

Pneumothorax(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

990
Q

A collection of whole blood in the pleural cavity.

A

Hemothorax(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

991
Q

A pleural collection of a milky lymphatic fluid containing microglobules of lipid.

A

Chylothorax(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

992
Q

A rare cancer seen in patients who work in shipyards, miners and insulators. Lesion is preceeded by extensive pleural fibrosis and plaque formation. May be epithelial, sarcomatoid or biphasic in morphology.

A

Malignant mesothelioma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 536

993
Q

Rare neoplasm with strong links to EBV and high frequency among the Chinese population. Characterized by large epithelial cells having indistinct borders (syncitial growth) and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli.

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 537

994
Q

Smoothe, hemispherical protrusions located on the true vocal cords, composed of fibrous tissue and covered by stratified squamous mucosa.

A

Vocal cord nodules(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 537

995
Q

A benign neoplasm usually on the true vocal cords that forms a soft, raspberry-like excresence rarely more then 1 cm in diameter. Consists of multiple, slender, finger-like projections.

A

Laryngeal papilloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 537

996
Q

A glomerular syndrome dominated by the acute onset of usually grossly visible hematuria, mildly moderate proteinuria, azotemia, edema and hypertension.

A

Acute nephritic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 542

997
Q

A glomerular syndrome characterized by heavy proteinuria, hypoalbunemia, severe edema, hyperlipidemia and lipiduria.

A

Nephrotic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 542

998
Q

Characterized by bacteriuria and pyuria, which may be asymptomatic.

A

Urinary tract infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 542

999
Q

Most common type of collagen found in glomerular basement membrane.

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 543

1000
Q

Most frequent cause nephrotic syndrome in children. Under light microscope, the glomerular basement membrane appears normal, but on electrin microscopy, GBM shows uniform and diffuse effacement of foot processes of the podocytes. Good response to corticosteroid therapy.

A

Minimal change disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 550

1001
Q

A lesion characterized histologically by sclerosis affecting some but not all glomeruli and involving only segments of each affected glomerulus.

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 550

1002
Q

Slowly progressive disease characterized by the presence of subepithelial immunoglobulin-containing deposits along the glomerular basement membrane. Histologically, there is diffuse thickening of the BM. (+) spike and dome pattern on electron microscopy. Often resistant to steroid therapy.

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis (Membranous Nephropathy)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 551

1003
Q

Characterized by discrete SUBENDOTHELIAL electron-dense deposits in irregular granular pattern.

A

Type I MPGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 553

1004
Q

GBM is thickened, showing a “tram-track” appearance on PAS stains. There is proliferation of mesangial and endothelial cells as well as infiltrating leukocytes.

A

MPGN(Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 553

1005
Q

MPGN wherein the lamina densa and the SUBENDOTHELIAL space of the GBM are transformed into an irregular, ribbon-like extremely electron dense structure.

A

Type II MPGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 554

1006
Q

Caused by glomerular deposition of immune complexes resulting in diffuse proliferation and swelling of resident glomerular cells. There is uniformly increased cellularity of glomerular tufts. Electron microscopy show subepithelial “humps” against the GBM, with granular deposits of IgG and complement.

A

Acute postinfectious (poststreptococcal) Glomerulonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 555

1007
Q

Most common cause of recurrent microscopic or gross hematuria and is the most common glomerular disease revealed by renal biopsies.

A

IgA Nephropathy (Berger disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 555

1008
Q

Pathologic hallmark of this disease is the deposition of IgA in the mesangium.

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger Disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 556

1009
Q

Nephritis accompanied by nerve deafness, lens dislocation, posterior cataracts and corneal dystrophy.

A

Alport syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 556

1010
Q

Caused by mutations in genes encoding GBM collagen, manifest as hematuria and slowly progressing proteinuria and declining renal function. GBM has “basket-weave” appearance due to splitting and lamination of the lamina densa.

A

Hereditay nephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 557

1011
Q

A clinical syndrome characterized by rapid and progressive lossof renal function with features of nephritic syndrome,often with severe oliguria. Histologic feature is the presence of crescents.

A

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (Crescentic GN)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 557

1012
Q

CrGN characterized by linear deposits of IgG and C3 on the GBM. anti-GBM Ab also bind to pulmonary alveolar capillary basement membranes to produce pulmonary hemorrhages associated with renal failure.

A

Anti-Glomerular Basement Membrance Antibody (Type I) CrGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 557

1013
Q

CrGN which are immune complex-mediated disorders, as a complication of any of the IC nephritides including PSGN, IgA Nephropathy and HSP. There is segmental necrosis and characteristic granular pattern of the underlying immune complex disease.

A

Immune Complex-Mediated (Type II) CrGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 558

1014
Q

CrGN defined by the lack of anti-GBM Ab and immune complex deposition. Glomeruli show segmental necrosis, negative immunofluorescence.

A

Pauci-immune (Type III) CrGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 558

1015
Q

An important cause of end-stage renal disease presenting as chronic renal failure. Kidneys are symmetrically contracted, surfaces are red-brown and diffusely granular. Glomeruli are obliterated with marked interstitial fibrosis.

A

Chronic glomerulonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 559

1016
Q

A common suppurative inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis caused by bacterial infection, either by hematogenous spread or through ascending infection.

A

Pyelonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 560

1017
Q

Hallmark of this disease is scarring involving the pelvis or calyces, or both, leading to papillary blunting and marked calyceal deformities.

A

Chronic pyelonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 562

1018
Q

Nephritis with prominent eosinophilic and mononuclear inflitrate, with pronounced edema.

A

Acute Drug-Induced Interstitial Nephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 563

1019
Q

A clinicopatholigic entity characterized by damaged tubular epithelial cells and clinically by acute suppression of renal function.Most common cause of acute renal failure.

A

Acute tubular necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 564

1020
Q

Characterized by necrosis of short segments of the tubules, seen in the straight portions of the PCT and TALOH. There is a variety of tubular injuries, associated with proteinaceous casts in the distal tubules and collecting ducts.

A

Ischemic ATN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1021
Q

ATN characterized by necrosis and injury of the PCT with sparing of the tubular membranes.

A

Toxic ATN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1022
Q

Phase of ATN lasting about 36 hrs, dominated by the inciting medical, surgical or obstetric event. Slight decline in renal output and a rise in serum creatinine.

A

Initiation phase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1023
Q

Phase of ATN where urine output falls markedly, between 50-400mL/day. Dominated by signs and symptoms of uremia and fluid overload.

A

Maintenance phase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1024
Q

Phase of ATN characterized by a steady increase in urine volume, electrolyte imbalance and increased vulnerability to infection.

A

Recovery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1025
Q

Chronic interstitial nephritis associated with renal papillary necrosis. The necrotic papillae appear yellowish-brown, showing coagulative necrosis associated with loss of cellular detail with preservation of tubular outlines.

A

Analgesic nephropathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 564

1026
Q

T-cell mediated immune reaction of the kidneys to an offending agent, characterized by interstitial inflammation, with abundant eosinophils and edema.

A

Drug-induced interstitial nephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 564

1027
Q

Renal changes in benign hypertension, associated with hyaline arteriolosclerosis, appearing as homogenous, pink hyaline thickening of arterial walls. Larger blood vessels show fibroelastc hyperplasia.

A

Benign nephrosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1028
Q

Acute renal injury assiciated with malignant hypertension. The kidneys show small, pinpoint petechial hemorrhages, “flea-bitten” appearance. Concentric arrangement of cells, described as “onion-skin” lesions cause marked narrowing of arterioles and small arteries.

A

Malignant nephrosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 567

1029
Q

Characterized by widespread thrombosis and presence of fibrin thrombi in glomeruli and small vessels resulting in acute renal failure. Consequence of childhood HUS and TTP.

A

Thrombotic microangiopathies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 568

1030
Q

One of the main causes of acute renal failure in children.

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 568

1031
Q

Innocuous lesions of the kidney, 1-5cm in diameter, translucent, lined by a gray, glistening, smooth membrane, filled with clear fluid. Composed of a single layer of cuboidal or flattened cuboidal epithelium, usually confined to the cortex.

A

Simple renal cyst(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1032
Q

Autosomal dominant. Kidneys are enlarged, composed solely of cysts without intervening parenchyma. Cysts are filled with clear or turbid fluid. Cysts may arise at any level of the nephron, with variable, often atrophic lining.

A

Adult polycystic kidney disease (APKD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1033
Q

What is the pathology behind APKD?

A

Defective gene PKD1,which codes for polycystin-1.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1034
Q

Function of policystin-1?

A

Protein that is involved in cell-cell or cell-matrix adhesion.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1035
Q

Autosomal recessive. There are numerous small cysts in the cortex and medulla, giving the kidney a “sponge-like” appearance. Cysts have uniform cuboidal epithelium. Associated with multiple cysts in the liver.

A

Childhood Polycystic Kidney Disease (CPKD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 570

1036
Q

An under-recognized vause of chronic kidney disease in children and young adults, associated with mutations in several genes that encode neohrocystins that may be involved in ciliary function. Kidneys are contracted and contain multiple cysts.

A

Medullary cystic disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 571

1037
Q

Calculus formation at any level of the urinary collecting system.

A

Urolithiasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 571

1038
Q

Most common composition of kidney stones. Precipitates in the presence of alkaline urine.

A

Calcium oxalate and/or calcium phosphate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 571

1039
Q

Most important cause of kidney stone formation.

A

Supersaturation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1040
Q

Kidney stones occuring in patients with alkaline urine due to UTI, particularly Proteus vulgaris and Staphylococci.

A

Struvite stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1041
Q

Component of struvite stones.

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1042
Q

Kidney stones seen in patients with gout and leukemias. Urine pH is decreased.

A

Uric acid stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1043
Q

Kidney stones associated with a defect in the renal transportation of certain amino acids. Forms in acidic urine.

A

Cystine stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1044
Q

Branching structures which create a cast of the renal pelvis and calyceal system.

A

Stagnorn calculi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1045
Q

Most common composition of staghorn calculi.

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (Struvite)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1046
Q

Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces, accompanied by atrophy of the renal parenchyma, caused by obstruction to urine outflow.

A

Hydronephrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1047
Q

Dilation of the ureters secondary to obstruction.

A

Hydroureter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 573

1048
Q

Most common malignant tumor of the kidney.

A

Renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 573

1049
Q

Tumors derived from renal tubular epithelium, located primarily at the cortex. With three common forms, clear cell, papillary renal cell and chromophobe renal carcinomas.

A

Renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 573

1050
Q

Most common form of renal cell carcinoma.

A

Clear cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1051
Q

Renal carcinoma, usually solitary and large, spherical masses reaching up to 15cms in diameter. Cut surface show yellow orange to gray-white, with prominent areas of cystic softening and hemorrhage. Cells appear vacuolated or may be solid.

A

Clear cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1052
Q

Renal carcinoma exhibiting varying degrees of papilla formation with fibrovascular cores. Cells have clear to pink cytoplasm.

A

Papillary renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1053
Q

Renal cell carcinoma which tends to be tan-brown, cells have clear, flocculent cytoplasm with very prominent, distinct cell membranes. Nuclei surrounded by halos of cleared cytoplasm.

A

Chromophobe-type renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1054
Q

Tumor of the urinary bladder, characterized as small, frond-like structures having delicate fibrovascular core covered by multilayered, well-differentiated transitional epithelium.

A

Benign papilloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 575

1055
Q

Dominant clinical presentation of bladder carcinoma.

A

Painless hematuria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 575

1056
Q

Protozoa associated with increased risk of bladder carcinoma.

A

Schistosoma haematobium(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 576

1057
Q

Chemotherapeutic agent associated with development of hemorrhagic cystitis and increased risk of bladder carcinoma.

A

Cyclophosphamide(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 576

1058
Q

Electron Microscopy: Subepithelial humps

A

PSGN (TOPNOTCH)

1059
Q

Light Microscopy: Hyalinized glomeruli

A

Chronic Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1060
Q

Electron Microscopy: Subepithelial deposits

A

Membranous glomerulopathy (TOPNOTCH)

1061
Q

Electron Microscopy: Loss of foot processes

A

Minimal Change Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1062
Q

Electron Microscopy: Subendothelial deposits

A

MPGN Type 1 (TOPNOTCH)

1063
Q

Flourescence Microscopy: Linear IgG and C3

A

Goodpasture’s disease (TOPNOTCH)

1064
Q

Light Microscopy: Normal, with lipid in tubules

A

Minimal Change Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1065
Q

What is the most common type of Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)?

A

Clear cell RCC (TOPNOTCH)

1066
Q

What are the 3 classic diagnostic features of RCC?

A
  1. Costovertebral Pain (TOPNOTCH)2. Palpable Mass3. Hematuria
1067
Q

Among the 3 classic diagnostic features of RCC, which feature is the most reliable?

A

Hematuria (TOPNOTCH)

1068
Q

RCC morphology: pale eosinophilic cells, often with a perinuclear halo, arranged in solid sheets with a concentration of the largest cells around the blood vessels

A

Chromophobe RCC (TOPNOTCH)

1069
Q

RCC morphology: rounder or polygonal shape and have abundant clear or granular cytoplasm with stains with glycogen and lipid

A

Clear Cell RCC (TOPNOTCH)

1070
Q

RCC morphology: arise from DCT and are typically hemorrhagic and cystic

A

Papillary RCC (TOPNOTCH)

1071
Q

RCC morphology: irregular channels lined by highly atypical epithelium with a hobnail pattern.

A

Collecting Duct Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1072
Q

RCC morphology: Interstitial foam cells and psamomma bodies

A

Papillary Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1073
Q

Urolithiasis: most common type

A

Calcium Oxalate stones (TOPNOTCH)

1074
Q

Urolithiasis: staghorn calculi

A

Triple stones/ struvite stones/ Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate stones (TOPNOTCH)

1075
Q

Urolithiasis: caused by genetic defects in the renal absorption of amino acids

A

Cystine stones (TOPNOTCH)

1076
Q

Urolithiasis: associated with urea-splitting bacteria

A

Triple stones/ struvite stones/ Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate stones (TOPNOTCH)

1077
Q

Urolithiasis: radiolucent

A

Uric Acid Stones (TOPNOTCH)

1078
Q

Urolithiasis: common in patients with leukemia

A

Uric Acid Stones (TOPNOTCH)

1079
Q

What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis?

A

Occlussion by an atheromatous plaque at the origin of the renal artery (TOPNOTCH)

1080
Q

What is the most common type of Fibromuscular Dysplasia; intimal, medial, or adventitial?

A

Medial (TOPNOTCH)

1081
Q

Gross morphology: flea bitten appearance of the kidneys

A

Malignant Hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

1082
Q

What are the two histological alterations in the blood vessels of patients with malignant hypertension?

A
  1. Fibrinoid Necrosis of arterioles2. Onion-skinning (TOPNOTCH)
1083
Q

What are the 3 complications of acute pyelonephritis?

A
  1. Papillary Necrosis2. Pyonephrosis3. Perinephric Abscess (TOPNOTCH)
1084
Q

Among the 3 complications of acute pyelonephritis, which one is mainly seen in diabetics and in those with urinary tract obstruction?

A

Papillary necrosis (TOPNOTCH)

1085
Q

Morphology: acute neutrophilic exudate within tubules and the renal substance

A

Acute pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1086
Q

ATN morphology: focal tubular epithelial necrosis at multiple points along the nephron, with large skip areas in between

A

Ischemic ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1087
Q

ATN morphology: manifested by acute tubular injury with non specific tubular necrosis

A

Toxic ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1088
Q

ATN morphology: Eosinophilic hyaline casts containing Tamm Horsfall protein

A

Ischemic ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1089
Q

ATN morphology: severely injured cells that are not yet dead might contain large acidophilic inclusions

A

Mercuric Chloride ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1090
Q

ATN morphology: accumulation of neutral lipids in injured cells

A

Carbon Tetrachloride poisoning (TOPNOTCH)

1091
Q

ATN morphology: marked ballooning and hydrophic or vacuolar degeneration of proximal convulated tubules and often times calcium oxalate crystals are seen in the lumen

A

Ethylene Glycol ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1092
Q

Morphology: patchy interstitial suppurative inflammation, intratubular aggregates of neutrophils, and tubular necrosis

A

Acute pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1093
Q

Gross morphology: irregularly scarred; if bilateral, the involvement is asymmetric

A

Chronic pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1094
Q

Gross morphology: kidneys are diffusely and symmetrically scarred

A

Chronic glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1095
Q

Morphology: hallmark is the coarse, discrete, corticomedullary scar overlying a dilated, blunted, or deformed calyx

A

Chronic pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1096
Q

What is the main cause of renal dysfunction in Multiple Myeloma?

A

Bence Jones protein (TOPNOTCH)

1097
Q

Morphology: bence jones tubular casts appear as pink to blue amorphous masses, sometimes concentrically laminated, often with fractured and angulated appearance, filling and idstending the lumens

A

Multiple Myeloma (TOPNOTCH)

1098
Q

Morphology: narrowing of the lumens of arterioles and small arteries, caused by thickening and hyalinization of the walls (hyaline arteriolosclerosis)

A

Benign nephrosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

1099
Q

Morphology: classic diagnostic finding is enlarged hypercellular glomeruli

A

PSGN (TOPNOTCH)

1100
Q

Gross morphology: wedge-shaped lesions, with base against the cortical surface and the apex pointing toward the medulla

A

Renal infarcts (TOPNOTCH)

1101
Q

What is the most common cause of clinical pyelonephritis?

A

Ascending infection (TOPNOTCH)

1102
Q

What is the first step in the pathogenesis of ascending infection that leads to pyelonephritis?

A

Colonization of the distal urethra and introits by coliform bacteria (TOPNOTCH)

1103
Q

Morphology: “fibrin caps” and “capsular drops”

A

Diabetic kidney (TOPNOTCH)

1104
Q

Morphology: diffuse increase in mesangial matrix and characteristic PAS positive nodules

A

Diabetic glomerulosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

1105
Q

Flourescence microscopy: deposition of IgA, sometimes with IgG and C3, in the mesangial region

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpura (TOPNOTCH)

1106
Q

Morphology: “tram track” “double contour” glomerular capillary walls

A

Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1107
Q

Morphology: collapsed glomerular tufts and the crescent shaped mass of proliferating cells and leukocytes internal to Bowman capsule

A

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1108
Q

Gross morphology: wedge-shaped lesions, with base against the cortical surface and the apex pointing toward the medulla

A

Renal infarcts (TOPNOTCH)

1109
Q

What is the most common cause of clinical pyelonephritis?

A

Ascending infection (TOPNOTCH)

1110
Q

What is the first step in the pathogenesis of ascending infection that leads to pyelonephritis?

A

Colonization of the distal urethra and introits by coliform bacteria (TOPNOTCH)

1111
Q

Morphology: “fibrin caps” and “capsular drops”

A

Diabetic kidney (TOPNOTCH)

1112
Q

Morphology: diffuse increase in mesangial matrix and characteristic PAS positive nodules

A

Diabetic glomerulosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

1113
Q

Flourescence microscopy: deposition of IgA, sometimes with IgG and C3, in the mesangial region

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpura (TOPNOTCH)

1114
Q

Morphology: “tram track” “double contour” glomerular capillary walls

A

Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1115
Q

Morphology: collapsed glomerular tufts and the crescent shaped mass of proliferating cells and leukocytes internal to Bowman capsule

A

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1116
Q

Morphology: glomeruli show thickening and sometimes splitting of capillary walls, due largely to endothelial and subendothelial swelling, and deposits of fibrin-related materials in the capillary lumens, subendothelially, and in the mesangium.

A

Childhood Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)

1117
Q

Gross morphology: flea bitten appearance of the kidney

A

Malignant hypertension(TOPNOTCH)

1118
Q

Gross morphology: fine, leathery granularity of the surface of the kidney

A

nephrosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)

1119
Q

What is the emerging viral pathogen that causes pyelonephritis in kidney allografts?

A

Polyoma virus(TOPNOTCH)

1120
Q

Morphology: enlarged tubular epithelial cells with nuclear inclusions

A

Polyoma kidney (TOPNOTCH)

1121
Q

Flourescence microscopy: deposition of IgA, sometimes with IgG and C3, in the mesangial region

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpura (TOPNOTCH)

1122
Q

Electron microscopy: irregular thickening of the BM of the glomerulus, lamination of the lamina densa, and foci of rarefaction

A

Alport Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

1123
Q

Morphology: lamina densa of the GBM is transformed into an irregular, ribbon like, extremely electron dense structure

A

Dense Deposti Disease or Type II MPGN (TOPNOTCH)

1124
Q

ESRD is defined as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

5%(TOPNOTCH)

1125
Q

Renal failure is defined as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

20%-25%(TOPNOTCH)

1126
Q

In renal insufficiency is defined as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

20%-50%(TOPNOTCH)

1127
Q

Diminished renal reserve is define as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

50%(TOPNOTCH)

1128
Q

Lesion of the female vulva characterized by thinning of the epidermis and disappearance of rete pegs, hydropic degeneration of basal cells, superficial hyperkeratosis, dermal fibrosis with scant perivascular, mononuclear inflammatory cell infiltrate. Occurs most commonly in postmenopausal women.

A

Lichen sclerosus(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1129
Q

This disorder of the vulva is marked by epithelial thickening, expansion of the stratum granulosum, significant surface hyperkeratosis and pronounced leukocytic infiltrate. Appears clinically as an area of leukoplakia.

A

Lichen simplex chronicus(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1130
Q

These are flat, moist, minimally elevated lesions that occur in secondary syphilis.

A

Condyloma lata(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1131
Q

Lesions of the anogenital area which may be papillary and distinctly elevated or may be somewhat flat and rugose. Characteristic cellular morphology is the presence of cytoplasmic vacuolization with nuclear angular polymorphism and koilocytosis. Hallmark of HPV infection.

A

Condyloma acuminata(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1132
Q

Red, scaly plaque, microscopically characterized by the spread of malignant cells within the epithelium, occasionally with invasion of underlying dermis. May have underlying carcinoma of a vulvar or perineal gland.

A

Paget disease of the Vulva(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 715

1133
Q

A soft polypoid mass, which is a rare form of primary vaginal cancer. Usually encountered in infants and children less than 5 y/o.

A

Sarcoma botryoides (embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma)(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 716

1134
Q

Most commonly develops in the transformation zone of the cervix. Produces a “barrel cervix” if the tumor encircles the cervix and invades the underlying stroma.

A

Invasive carcinoma of the cervix(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 719

1135
Q

Protruding polypoid masses which are inflammatory in origin, soft, yields to palpation, and have a smooth, glistening surface with underlying cystically dilated spaces filled with mucinous secretion.

A

Endocervical polyp(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 721

1136
Q

Refers to the growth of the basal layer of the endometrium down to the myometrium. Nests of endometrial stroma, glands or both are found in the myometrium, in between muscle bundles.

A

Adenomyosis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 721

1137
Q

Characterized by the presence of endometrial glands and stroma in a location outside the endomyometrium. Undergoes cyclic bleeding. Also called “chocolate cysts”.

A

Endometriosis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 722

1138
Q

These are sharply circumscribed, firm, gray-white masses of the uterus, with “whorled” cut surface.

A

Leiomyoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 721

1139
Q

Solitary tumors of the uterus which arise de novo from the mesenchymal cells of the myometrium. Characterized byvtche presence of tumor necrosis, cytologic atypia and mitotic activity.

A

Leiomyosarcomas(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 725

1140
Q

Type of endometrial carcinoma associated with estrogen excess and endometrial hyperplasia.

A

Endometroid carcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 727

1141
Q

Type of endometrial carcinoma which occurs in older women and is usually associated with endometrial atrophy.

A

Serous carcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 727

1142
Q

Small, fluid-filled cysts which originate from the unruptured graafian follicles or in follicles that have ruptured and immediately sealed.

A

Follicle and luteal cysts(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 728

1143
Q

Triad of oligomenorrhea, infertility and obesity in young women secondary to excessive production of estrogens and androgens.

A

Polycystic ovaries(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 728

1144
Q

Other name for polycystic ovary syndrome?

A

Stein-Leventhal syndrome(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 728

1145
Q

Two most important risk factors for development of ovarian cancer.

A

Nulliparity and family history(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 729

1146
Q

Mutation of this gene is associated in the development of both ovarian and breast cancers.

A

BRCA 1(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 729

1147
Q

Mutation of this gene is associated with the development of breast cancer only,

A

BRCA 2(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 729

1148
Q

Benign lesion of the ovary most commonly seen in women 30-40 years old. Most frequent of the ovarian tumors. Serosal covering is smooth and glistening. Characterized histologically by tall, columnar epithelium and the presence of Psammoma bodies.

A

Serous tumor of the ovary(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 730

1149
Q

Large, multilocular tumors of the ovaries, without psammoma bodies. Composed of mucin-producing epithelial cells.

A

Mucinous Tumors (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1150
Q

Metastasis of mucinous tumor of the gastrointestinal tract to the ovaries is called?

A

Krukenberg tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1151
Q

A rare, solid, unilateral ovarian tumor consisting of an abundant stroma containing nests of transitional-like epithelium resembling that of the urinary tract.

A

Brenner Tumor (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1152
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor composed of sheets or cords of large cleared cells separated by scant fibrous strands. Stroma may contain lymphocytes and occasional granuloma. Usually occur on the 2nd-3rd decade of life.

A

Dysgerminoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1153
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor which occur during the 1st 3 decades of life. Characterized by small, hemorrhagic focus with syncitiothrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. Metastasize early.

A

Choriocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1154
Q

Sex cord tumor seen most commonly in postmenopausal women. Lesions may be tiny or large, gray to yellow (with cystic spaces). Produce large amounts of estrogen. (+) Call-Exner bodies

A

Granulosa-thecal cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1155
Q

Sex cord tumor characterized by solid gray fibrous cells to yellow (lipid-laden) plump thecal cells. Most hormonally inactive.

A

Thecoma-fibroma tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1156
Q

Sex cord tumor seen as small, gray to yellow-brown, and solid lesions. May resemble development of testis with tubules, or cords and plump pink Sertoli cells. May be masculinizing or defeminizing.

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1157
Q

On transection, filled with sebaceous secretion and matted hair, bonw and cartilage, nests of bronchial or gastrointestinal epithelium, and other recognizable lines of development are also present.

A

Benign (Mature) Cystic Teratomas / Dermoid Cyst(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1158
Q

Microscopically, the distinguishing feature is a variety of immature or barely recognizable areas of differentiation toward cartilage, bone, muscle, nerve, and other structures. Found early in life.

A

Immature Malignant Teratomas (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1159
Q

Tumor of the ovary composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue. May hyperfunction and produce hyperthyroidism. Appear as small, solid, unilateral brown ovarian masses

A

Struma ovarii (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1160
Q

A voluminous mass of swollen, sometimes cystically dilated, chorionic villi, appearing grossly as grapelike structures.

A

Hydatidiform Mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 735

1161
Q

This type of H. mole shows hydropic swelling of chorionic villi and virtual absence of vascularization of villi. No fetal parts seen.

A

Complete mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1162
Q

This type of H. mole shows villous edema that involves only some of the villi and the trophoblastic proliferation is focal and slight, with characteristic irregular scalloped margin. Fetal parts/embryo may be seen.

A

Partial mole(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1163
Q

These are complete moles that are more invasive locally but do not metastasize. Microscopically, the epithelium of the villi is marked by hyperplastic and atypical changes, with proliferation of both cuboidal and syncytial components.

A

Invasive Mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1164
Q

Appear as very hemorrhagic, necrotic masses within the uterus. The tumor is purely epithelial, composed of anaplastic cuboidal cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, chorionic villi are not formed. High propensity for metastasis.

A

Choriocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 737

1165
Q

A cystic dilation of an obstructed duct that arises during lactation.

A

Galactocele (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1166
Q

Multifocal, bilateral blue-brown cysts (“blue dome cysts”) of the breast, measuring 1-5 cm diameter, filled with serous turbid fluid. Occurs normally in the menstrual cycle.

A

Simple fibrocystic change of the breast(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1167
Q

Term used to describe hyperplasia that cytologically resemble lobular carcinoma in situ, but the cells do not fill or distend more than 50% of the acini within a lobule.

A

Atypical lobular hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1168
Q

The lumen of the ducts, ductules, or lobules of the breast is filled with a heterogeneous population of cells of different morphologies. Irregular slit-like fenestrations are prominent at the periphery.

A

Epithelial Hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1169
Q

These lesions are characterized by proliferation of lining epithelial cells and myoepithelial cells in small ducts and ductules, yielding masses of small gland patterns within a fibrous stroma. The acini are arranged in a swirling pattern, and the outer border is usually well circumscribed.

A

Sclerosing Adenosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 741

1170
Q

A nonbacterial chronic inflammation of the breast associated with inspissation of breast secretions in the main excretory ducts.

A

Mammary duct ectasia (periductal or plasma cell mastitis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1171
Q

The lesion is small, often tender, rarely more than 2 cm in diameter, and sharply localized, with a central focus of necrotic fat cells surrounded by neutrophils and lipid-filled macrophages. Caused by some antecedent trauma to the breast.

A

Traumatic fat necrosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1172
Q

The most common benign neoplasm of the female breast.

A

Fibroadenoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1173
Q

A discrete, usually solitary, freely movable nodule, 1 to 10 cm in diameter, easily “shelled out” lesion of the breast. Histologically there is a loose fibroblastic stroma containing ductlike, spaces lined by a layer of epithelium that are regular and have a well-defined, intact basement membrane.

A

Fibroadenoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1174
Q

Small lobulated and cystic lesion of the breast that may grow rapidly. Exhibit “leaflike” clefts and slits on gross section.

A

Phyllodes Tumor (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 743

1175
Q

A neoplastic papillary growth within a duct, usually solitary and less than 1 cm in diameter, consisting of delicate, branching growths within a dilated duct or cyst.

A

Intraductal Papilloma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 743

1176
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast that tends to fill, distort, and unfold involved lobules and thus appears to involve ductlike spaces.

A

Ductal Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 745

1177
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast expands but does not alter the underlying lobular architecture. cells are monomorphic with bland, round nuclei and occur in loosely cohesive clusters in ducts and lobules. Tend to be bilateral, and increases risk for development of breast CA.

A

Lobar Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 746

1178
Q

Caused by the extension of DCIS up to the lactiferous ducts and into the contiguous skin of the nipple.

A

Paget disease of the nipple (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 746

1179
Q

This type of cancer produces a desmoplastic response, replacing normal breast fat and forms a hard, palpable mass. Advanced cancers may cause dimpling of the skin, retraction of the nipple, or fixation to the chest wall.

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1180
Q

Breast cancer defined by the clinical presentation of an enlarged, swollen, erythematous breast, usually without a palpable mass. The blockage of numerous dermal lymphatic spaces by carcinoma results in the clinical appearance (e.g peau d’ orange)

A

Inflammatory carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1181
Q

Breast cancer which consists of cells morphologically identical to the cells of LCIS. Occasionally they surround cancerous or normal-appearing acini or ducts, creating a so-called “bull’s-eye pattern.”

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1182
Q

A rare subtype of carcinoma consisting of sheets of large anaplastic cells with pushing, well-circumscribed borders, with a pronounced lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.

A

Medullary carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1183
Q

A rare subtype of carcinoma which appear grossly as a soft and gelatinous mass which abundant quantities of extracellular mucin that dissects into the surrounding stroma.

A

Colloid (mucinous) carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1184
Q

Usually present as irregular mammographic densities. Microscopically, the carcinomas consist of well-formed tubules with low-grade nuclei. Lymph node metastases are rare, and prognosis is excellent.

A

Tubular carcinomas (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1185
Q

Grossly, appears as a button-like, subareolar swelling. in bilateral breasts of males.

A

Gynecomastia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 750

1186
Q

Large, multilocular tumors of the ovaries, without psammoma bodies. Composed of mucin-producing epithelial cells.

A

Mucinous Tumors (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1187
Q

Metastasis of mucinous tumor of the gastrointestinal tract to the ovaries is called?

A

Krukenberg tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1188
Q

A rare, solid, unilateral ovarian tumor consisting of an abundant stroma containing nests of transitional-like epithelium resembling that of the urinary tract.

A

Brenner Tumor (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1189
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor composed of sheets or cords of large cleared cells separated by scant fibrous strands. Stroma may contain lymphocytes and occasional granuloma. Usually occur on the 2nd-3rd decade of life.

A

Dysgerminoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1190
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor which occur during the 1st 3 decades of life. Characterized by small, hemorrhagic focus with syncitiothrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. Metastasize early.

A

Choriocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1191
Q

Sex cord tumor seen most commonly in postmenopausal women. Lesions may be tiny or large, gray to yellow (with cystic spaces). Produce large amounts of estrogen. (+) Call-Exner bodies

A

Granulosa-thecal cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1192
Q

Sex cord tumor characterized by solid gray fibrous cells to yellow (lipid-laden) plump thecal cells. Most hormonally inactive.

A

Thecoma-fibroma tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1193
Q

Sex cord tumor seen as small, gray to yellow-brown, and solid lesions. May resemble development of testis with tubules, or cords and plump pink Sertoli cells. May be masculinizing or defeminizing.

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1194
Q

On transection, filled with sebaceous secretion and matted hair, bonw and cartilage, nests of bronchial or gastrointestinal epithelium, and other recognizable lines of development are also present.

A

Benign (Mature) Cystic Teratomas / Dermoid Cyst(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1195
Q

Microscopically, the distinguishing feature is a variety of immature or barely recognizable areas of differentiation toward cartilage, bone, muscle, nerve, and other structures. Found early in life.

A

Immature Malignant Teratomas (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1196
Q

Tumor of the ovary composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue. May hyperfunction and produce hyperthyroidism. Appear as small, solid, unilateral brown ovarian masses

A

Struma ovarii (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1197
Q

A voluminous mass of swollen, sometimes cystically dilated, chorionic villi, appearing grossly as grapelike structures.

A

Hydatidiform Mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 735

1198
Q

This type of H. mole shows hydropic swelling of chorionic villi and virtual absence of vascularization of villi. No fetal parts seen.

A

Complete mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1199
Q

This type of H. mole shows villous edema that involves only some of the villi and the trophoblastic proliferation is focal and slight, with characteristic irregular scalloped margin. Fetal parts/embryo may be seen.

A

Partial mole(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1200
Q

These are complete moles that are more invasive locally but do not metastasize. Microscopically, the epithelium of the villi is marked by hyperplastic and atypical changes, with proliferation of both cuboidal and syncytial components.

A

Invasive Mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1201
Q

Appear as very hemorrhagic, necrotic masses within the uterus. The tumor is purely epithelial, composed of anaplastic cuboidal cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, chorionic villi are not formed. High propensity for metastasis.

A

Choriocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 737

1202
Q

A cystic dilation of an obstructed duct that arises during lactation.

A

Galactocele (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1203
Q

Multifocal, bilateral blue-brown cysts (“blue dome cysts”) of the breast, measuring 1-5 cm diameter, filled with serous turbid fluid. Occurs normally in the menstrual cycle.

A

Simple fibrocystic change of the breast(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1204
Q

Term used to describe hyperplasia that cytologically resemble lobular carcinoma in situ, but the cells do not fill or distend more than 50% of the acini within a lobule.

A

Atypical lobular hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1205
Q

The lumen of the ducts, ductules, or lobules of the breast is filled with a heterogeneous population of cells of different morphologies. Irregular slit-like fenestrations are prominent at the periphery.

A

Epithelial Hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1206
Q

These lesions are characterized by proliferation of lining epithelial cells and myoepithelial cells in small ducts and ductules, yielding masses of small gland patterns within a fibrous stroma. The acini are arranged in a swirling pattern, and the outer border is usually well circumscribed.

A

Sclerosing Adenosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 741

1207
Q

A nonbacterial chronic inflammation of the breast associated with inspissation of breast secretions in the main excretory ducts.

A

Mammary duct ectasia (periductal or plasma cell mastitis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1208
Q

The lesion is small, often tender, rarely more than 2 cm in diameter, and sharply localized, with a central focus of necrotic fat cells surrounded by neutrophils and lipid-filled macrophages. Caused by some antecedent trauma to the breast.

A

Traumatic fat necrosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1209
Q

The most common benign neoplasm of the female breast.

A

Fibroadenoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1210
Q

A discrete, usually solitary, freely movable nodule, 1 to 10 cm in diameter, easily “shelled out” lesion of the breast. Histologically there is a loose fibroblastic stroma containing ductlike, spaces lined by a layer of epithelium that are regular and have a well-defined, intact basement membrane.

A

Fibroadenoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1211
Q

Small lobulated and cystic lesion of the breast that may grow rapidly. Exhibit “leaflike” clefts and slits on gross section.

A

Phyllodes Tumor (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 743

1212
Q

A neoplastic papillary growth within a duct, usually solitary and less than 1 cm in diameter, consisting of delicate, branching growths within a dilated duct or cyst.

A

Intraductal Papilloma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 743

1213
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast that tends to fill, distort, and unfold involved lobules and thus appears to involve ductlike spaces.

A

Ductal Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 745

1214
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast expands but does not alter the underlying lobular architecture. cells are monomorphic with bland, round nuclei and occur in loosely cohesive clusters in ducts and lobules. Tend to be bilateral, and increases risk for development of breast CA.

A

Lobar Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 746

1215
Q

Caused by the extension of DCIS up to the lactiferous ducts and into the contiguous skin of the nipple.

A

Paget disease of the nipple (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 746

1216
Q

This type of cancer produces a desmoplastic response, replacing normal breast fat and forms a hard, palpable mass. Advanced cancers may cause dimpling of the skin, retraction of the nipple, or fixation to the chest wall.

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1217
Q

Breast cancer defined by the clinical presentation of an enlarged, swollen, erythematous breast, usually without a palpable mass. The blockage of numerous dermal lymphatic spaces by carcinoma results in the clinical appearance (e.g peau d’ orange)

A

Inflammatory carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1218
Q

Breast cancer which consists of cells morphologically identical to the cells of LCIS. Occasionally they surround cancerous or normal-appearing acini or ducts, creating a so-called “bull’s-eye pattern.”

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1219
Q

A rare subtype of carcinoma consisting of sheets of large anaplastic cells with pushing, well-circumscribed borders, with a pronounced lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.

A

Medullary carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1220
Q

A rare subtype of carcinoma which appear grossly as a soft and gelatinous mass which abundant quantities of extracellular mucin that dissects into the surrounding stroma.

A

Colloid (mucinous) carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1221
Q

Usually present as irregular mammographic densities. Microscopically, the carcinomas consist of well-formed tubules with low-grade nuclei. Lymph node metastases are rare, and prognosis is excellent.

A

Tubular carcinomas (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1222
Q

Grossly, appears as a button-like, subareolar swelling. in bilateral breasts of males.

A

Gynecomastia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 750

1223
Q

Morphology: large macrophages with granular PAS positive cytoplasm and several dense, round Michaelis Gutmann bodies.

A

Malacoplakia (TOPNOTCH)

1224
Q

In gonococcal infection of the female reproductive system, inflammatory changes will appear about how many days after the inoculation of the organism?

A

2-7 days (TOPNOTCH)

1225
Q

These cells are distinguised by a clear separation “halo” from the surrounding epithelial cells and a finely granular cytoplasm containing mucopolysaccharide that stains with PAS, Alcian Blue, and Mucicarmine

A

Paget cells (TOPNOTCH)

1226
Q

What is the probable precursor of vaginal adenocarcinoma?

A

Vaginal adenosis (TOPNOTCH)

1227
Q

What do you call the glandlike structures filled with an acidophilic material similar to immature follicles that are seen in Granulosa Theca Cell tumors?

A

Call Exner bodies (TOPNOTCH)

1228
Q

Presence of these structures characterize serous tumors of the ovaries

A

Psammoma bodies (TOPNOTCH)

1229
Q

These tumors are distinguished from serous and mucinous tumors of the ovaries by the presence of tubular glands that resemble the endometrium

A

Endometriod tumor (TOPNOTCH)

1230
Q

Morphology: whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles and well differentiated spindle shaped smooth muscle cells

A

Leiomyoma (TOPNOTCH)

1231
Q

A key factor in the development of endometrial hyperplasia and related cancers is the inactivation of what tumor suppressor gene?

A

PTEN (TOPNOTCH)

1232
Q

What is the most common location of vaginal adenocarcinoma?

A

Anterior wall of the upper third of Vagina (TOPNOTCH)

1233
Q

This is a condition in which glandular columnar epithelium of mullerian type either appears beneath the squamous epithelium or replaces it

A

Vaginal Adenosis (TOPNOTCH)

1234
Q

What are the 4 cardinal histologic features of Lichen Sclerosus of the Vulva or Chronic atrophic vulvitis?

A

Atrophy of the epidermis with disappearance, of the rete pegs, hydrophic degeneration of the basal cells, replacement of the underlying dermis by dense collagenous fibrous tissue, and monoclonal band like lymphocytic infiltrate (TOPNOTCH)

1235
Q

Morphology: acanthosis of the vulvar squamous epithelium frequently with hyperkeratosis

A

Lichen SImplex Chronicles (TOPNOTCH)

1236
Q

Morphology: presence of large tumor cells lying singly or in small lusters within the epidermis and its appendages

A

Extra mammary Paget Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1237
Q

Morphology: tumor cells resemble tennis racket with small protrusions of cytoplasms from one end

A

Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1238
Q

Clustering of tumor cells in a so called “Cambium Layer” is seen in what type of rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1239
Q

On histological examination of the cervix, epithelial spongiosis is associated with what type of infection?

A

T. vaginal infection (TOPNOTCH)

1240
Q

On histological examination of the cervix, epithelial ulcers with intranuclear inclusions within the epithelial cells and lymphocytic infiltration is associated with what type of infection?

A

HSV (TOPNOTCH)

1241
Q

Morphology: these are composed of dense fibrous stroma covered with endocervical columnar epithelium

A

Endocervical polyp (TOPNOTCH)

1242
Q

What is considered the most important agent in cervical oncogenesis?

A

HPV (TOPNOTCH)

1243
Q

Koilocytic atypia is considered what type of CIN lesion?

A

CIN I (TOPNOTCH)

1244
Q

What is the most common pattern seen in invasive cervical carcinoma?

A

Fungating (TOPNOTCH)

1245
Q

On histological examination of the endometrium, what is the earliest morphological evidence of ovulation?

A

Basal vacuolation (TOPNOTCH)

1246
Q

Morphology: ectopic endometrial glands and stroma with numerous macrophages containing hemosiderin

A

Endometriosis (TOPNOTCH)

1247
Q

Morphology: hydrophic swelling of most chorionic villi and virtual absence or inadequate development of vascularization of villi

A

Complete mole (TOPNOTCH)

1248
Q

The combination of ovarian tumor, hydrothorax, and ascites is designated as

A

Meigs Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

1249
Q

What type of ovarian cancer is best considered as the counterpart of the seminoma of the testes?

A

Dysgerminoma (TOPNOTCH)

1250
Q

About 1% of the dermoids undergo malignant transformation of any one of the component elements present, but most commonly, they differentiate into what type of carcinoma?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1251
Q

Morphology: epithelial component consists of nests of transitional cells resembling the lining of the urinary bladder

A

Brenner Tumor (TOPNOTCH)

1252
Q

Morphology: characterized by a lining of tall columnar epithelial cells with apical mucin and the absence of cilia, resembling cervical or intestinal epithelium

A

Mucinous tumors (TOPNOTCH)

1253
Q

Morphology: lined by a rim of bright yellow luteal tissue containing luteinized granulosa cells

A

Luteal cyst (TOPNOTCH)

1254
Q

Morphology: characterized chiefly by dilations of ducts, inspissation of breast secretions, and marked periductal and interstitial chronic granulomatous reaction

A

Mammary Duct Ectasia (TOPNOTCH)

1255
Q

What are the 3 principal patterns of morphologic changes seen in Fibrocystic Changes of the breast?

A
  1. Cyst formation with apocrine metaplasia2. Fibrosis3. Adenosis (TOPNOTCH)
1256
Q

Morphology: “leaflike” architecture

A

Phyllodes Tumor (TOPNOTCH)

1257
Q

Morphology: proliferation of intralobular stroma surrounding and often pushing and distorting the associated epithelium. The border is sharply delimited from the surrounding tissue

A

Fibroadenoma (TOPNOTCH)

1258
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor useful as a predictive factor for the response of therapy in patients with breast cancer?

A

Presence of estrogen and progesterone receptors (TOPNOTCH)

1259
Q

In breast cancer, what is the most important prognostic factor for invasive carcinoma in the absence of distant metastases?

A

Lymph node metastases (TOPNOTCH)

1260
Q

Morphology: tumor cells are prsent as small clusters within large pools of mucin

A

Mucinous colloid carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1261
Q

Morphology: characterized by solid syncytium like sheets occupying 75% of the tumor , prominent lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate and a non inflitrative border

A

Medullary carcinoma of the breast (TOPNOTCH)

1262
Q

The histologic hallmark of this tumor is the pattern of single infiltrating tumor cells, often only one cell in width, or in loose clusters or sheets

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1263
Q

This is a rare manifestation of breast cancer and presents as a unilateral erythematous eruption with a scale crust

A

Paget disease (TOPNOTCH)

1264
Q

These are stellate lesions characterized by a central nidus of entrapped glands in a hyalinized stroma

A

Complex Sclerosing Lesion or Radial Scar (TOPNOTCH)

1265
Q

Morphology: composed of multiple branching fibrovascular cores, each having a connective tissue axis lined by luminal and myoepithelial cells

A

Papillomas (TOPNOTCH)

1266
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of breast disease

A

Pain (TOPNOTCH)

1267
Q

The principal mammographic signs of breast carcinoma

A

densities and calfications (TOPNOTCH)

1268
Q

Morphology: the main histologic feature is keratinizing squamous epithelium extending to an abnormal depth into the orifices of the nipple ducts

A

Periductal mastitis (TOPNOTCH)

1269
Q

Mammographic appearance: Large lobulated “popcorn” calcifications

A

Fibroadenoma (TOPNOTCH)

1270
Q

Morphology: characterized by solid sheets of pleomorphic cells with high-grade nuclei and central necrosis detected mamographically as clusters or linear and branching microcalcifications

A

Comedocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1271
Q

Morphology: Terminal ducts (without lobule formation) are lined by a multilayered epithelium with small papillary tufts and surrounding periductal hyalinization and fibrosis.

A

Gynecomastia (TOPNOTCH)

1272
Q

Morphology: terminal duct lobular unit is enlarged, and the acini are compressed and distorted within the lumens. Calcifications are often present within the lumens.

A

Sclerosing adenosis(TOPNOTCH)

1273
Q

Morphology: central fibrovascular core extends from the wall of a duct. The papillae arborize within the lumen and are lined by myoepithelial and luminal cells

A

Intraductal papilloma(TOPNOTCH)

1274
Q

Cellular proliferation resembling ductal carcinoma in situ or lobular carcinoma in situ but lacking sufficient qualitative or quantitative features for a diagnosis of carcinoma in situ

A

Atypical hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1275
Q

Refers to a proliferation of cells identical to those of LCIS but the cells do not fill or distend more than 50% of the acini within a lobule.

A

Atypical Lobular hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1276
Q

Recognized by its histologic resemblance to ductal carcinoma in situ, including a monomorphic cell population, regular cell placement, and round lumina. However, the lesions are characteristically limited in extend, and the cells are not completely monomorphic in type or they fail to completely fill ductal spaces

A

Atypical hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1277
Q

What are the two major risk factors for breast carcinoma?

A

Hormonal and Genetics/family history(TOPNOTCH)

1278
Q

This is a subtype of DCIS which is recognized by bulbous protrusions without a fibrovascular core, often forming complex intraductal patents.

A

Micropapillary DCIS(TOPNOTCH)

1279
Q

Small, painful, rounded superficial erosions of the mouth, covered with a gray-white exudate and having an erythematous rim.

A

Aphthous ulcers (canker sores)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1280
Q

Extremely common infection caused by herpes simplex virus type 1.

A

Herpetic stomatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1281
Q

Test used to identify HSV infection.

A

Tzanck test(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1282
Q

Glassy, intranuclear acidophilic inclusion bodies.

A

Herpes simplex virus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1283
Q

Adherent white, curd-like, circumscribed plaque within the oral cavity. The pseudomembrane can be scraped off revealing an underlying granular erythematous inflammatory base.

A

Oral candidiasis /”thrush”(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1284
Q

An oral lesion seen in patients with HIV. White confluen patches with “hairy” or corrugated surface with marked epithelial thickening.

A

Hairy leukoplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1285
Q

Hairy leukoplakia is caused by what infectious agent?

A

Epstein-Barr virus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1286
Q

A whitish, well-defined mucosal patch or plaque caused by epidermal thickening or hyperkeratosis, commonly seen in the vermillion border of the lower lip, buccal mucosa, hard and soft palates.

A

Leukoplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1287
Q

Oral lesion showing a corrugated surface caused by excessive hyperkeratosis. Recurring and spreads insiduously, resulting in a warty-type lesion.

A

Verrucous leukoplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 582

1288
Q

Red, velvety, granular, circumscribed lesions of the mouth with poorly defined, irregular boundaries. High malignant transformation rate.

A

Erythroplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 582

1289
Q

Most frequent site of oral cavity carcinomas.

A

Vermillion border of the lateral margins of the lower lip(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 582

1290
Q

Pearly white to gray, circumscribed thickenings of the oral mucosa, which grows in exophytic pattern to produce a visible and palpable nodular, eventually fungating lesions.

A

Oral cavity carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1291
Q

Most common lesion of the salivary glands resulting from blockage or rupture of a salivary gland duct.

A

Mucocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1292
Q

Inflammation of the salivary glands.

A

Sialadenitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1293
Q

Salivary and lacrimal gland inflammatory enlargement presenting as painless lesions, and dry mouth. Can be caused by sarcoidosis, leukemia, and lymphoma.

A

Mikulicz syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1294
Q

Incomplete relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter in response to swallowing.

A

Achalasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1295
Q

Destruction of the myenteric plexus of the esophagus, duodenum, colon and ureter caused by a flagellate protozoa.

A

Chagas disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1296
Q

Causative agent for Chagas disease.

A

Trypanosoma cruzi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1297
Q

Adult with progressive dysphagia to solids and eventually to all foods, caused by a narrowing of the lower esophagus, usually as a result of chronic inflammatory disease.

A

Stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1298
Q

A congenital defect which causes the esophagus to end in a blind-ended pouch.

A

Esophageal atresia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1299
Q

Most common type of esophageal atresia.

A

Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula(Type C)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1300
Q

Thin membranes of normal esophageal tissue consisting of mucosa and submucosa that can partially obstruct the esophagus.

A

Esophageal web(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1301
Q

Congenital esophageal webs commonly appear in which segment of the esophagus?

A

Middle and inferior third of the esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1302
Q

A diverticulum of the mucosa of the pharynx just above the cricopharyngeal muscle.

A

Zenker’s diverticulum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1303
Q

A triangular area in the pharyngeal wall where a Zenker’s diverticulum may develop.

A

Killian’s triangle(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1304
Q

Protrusion of the stomach above the diaphragm, creating a bell-shaped dilation, bounded below by the diaphragmatic narrowing.

A

Sliding hernia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1305
Q

Hernia wherein a portion of the stomach, usually along the greater curvature, enters the thorax through the widened space between the muscular crura.

A

Paraesophgeal (rolling) hernia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1306
Q

Longitudinal tears along the gastroesophageal junction seen in chronic alcoholics after a bout of retching or vomiting.

A

Mallory-Weiss tears(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1307
Q

Tortuous dilated veins lying within the submucosa of the distal esophagus and proximal stomach due to increased portal pressure, usually due to cirrhosis. May cause massive hemorrhage if ruptured.

A

Esophageal varices(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 587

1308
Q

Presence of eosinophils in the epithelial layer, basal zone hyperplasia and elongation of lamina propria papillae are histologic findings in this condition.

A

Reflux esophagitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 588

1309
Q

Defined as the replacement of the normal distal stratified squamous mucosa by metaplastic columnar epithelium containing goblet cells. A complication of long-standing GERD.

A

Barrett esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1310
Q

Esophageal lesion at risk of developing adenocarcinoma:Reflux esophagitis or Barrett esophagus?

A

Barrett esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 589

1311
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus commonly occur at which segment of the esophagus?

A

Proximal 2/3 of the esophagusAdenocarcinoma- distal 1/3(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1312
Q

Most common symptoms of esophageal cancer.

A

Dysphagia and odynophagia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1313
Q

Mucin-producing glandular tumors of the distal esophagus showing intestinal-type features.

A

Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1314
Q

Presence of chronic inflammatory changes in the mucosa of the stomach eventually leading to mucosal atrophy and epithelial metaplasia.

A

Chronic gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1315
Q

Most important etiologic association with chronic gastritis. A non-invasive, non-spore forming S-shaped gram negative rod.

A

Helicobacter pylori(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1316
Q

Gastritis resulting from production of autoantibodies to the gastric gland parietal cells, leading to gland destruction and mucosal atrophy with loss of acid and intrinsic factor.

A

Autoimmmune gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1317
Q

Refers to the replacement of gastric epithelium with columnar and goblet cells of intestinal variety.

A

Intestinal metaplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1318
Q

A acute mucosal inflammatory process of the stomach, marked by mucosal edema and inflammatory infiltrate of neutrophils and chronic inflammatory cells. Regenerative replication of cells in the gastric pit is prominent.

A

Acute gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1319
Q

One of the major causes of hematemesis, especially in alcoholics.

A

Acute gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1320
Q

A breach in the mucosa that extends through the muscularis mucosae into the submucosa or deeper.

A

Ulcers(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1321
Q

Breach in the epithelium of the gastrointestinal mucosa only.

A

Erosions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1322
Q

Chronic, solitary lesions that occur in any portion of the GIT exposed to the aggressive action of acidic peptic juices.

A

Peptic ulcers(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 594

1323
Q

Major cause of peptic ulcer disease in patients without H. pylori disease.

A

NSAID use(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 595

1324
Q

Histologic layers in a chronic, nonperforated, open ulcer.

A

From luminal surface:NecrosisInflammationGranulation tissueScar(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1325
Q

Chief complication of peptic ulcer.

A

Bleeding(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1326
Q

Increases risk of developing gastric adenocarcinoma:Acute gastritis vs. peptic ulcer disease?

A

Acute gastritisPUD is NOT a premalignant lesion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1327
Q

Acute gastric ulceration which occurs in the presence of extensive burns.

A

Curling ulcer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1328
Q

Acute gastric ulceration which occurs in the presence of injury to the CNS.

A

Cushing ulcer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1329
Q

Composed of hyperplastic gastric mucosal epithelium and an inflamed edematous stroma. A mass lesion arising from the mucosa.

A

Gastric polyp(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 597

1330
Q

Most common site of gastric carcinoma within the stomach.

A

Pylorus and antrum (50-60%), along the lesser curvatureCardia (25%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 598

1331
Q

What are the two most important factors in the genesis of colonic diverticula?

A

Focal weakness in the colonic wall and increased intraluminal pressure(TOPNOTCH)

1332
Q

Morphologic feature of gastric carcinomas with greatest impact on prognosis.

A

Depth of invasion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1333
Q

Gastric carcinoma confined to the mucosa and submucosa, regardless of the presence or absence of perigastric LN metastasis.

A

Early gastric carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1334
Q

Gastric carcinoma which has extended below the submucosa into the muscular wall.

A

Advanced gastric carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1335
Q

Three macroscopic growth patterns of gastric carcinoma.

A

Exophytic - protrusion of mass into lumenFlat or depressed - no obvious tumor mass within the mucosaExcavated - a shallow or deeply eroded crater(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1336
Q

Rigid and thickened stomach, secondary to extensive malignant infiltration.

A

Linitis plastica(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1337
Q

Histologic classification of gastric carcinoma composed of malignant cells forming neoplastic intestinal glands resembling colonic adenocarcinoma. Associated with H. pylori induced chronic gastritis.

A

Intestinal variant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1338
Q

Histologic classification of gastric carcinoma composed of gastric-type mucous cells that do not form glands but permeate the mucosa and wall as “signet-ring” cells in an infiltrative growth pattern.

A

Diffuse variant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1339
Q

A malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a gastric adenocarcinoma.

A

Krukenberg tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1340
Q

Complete failure of development of the intestinal lumen.

A

Atresia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1341
Q

Narrowing of the intestinal lumen with incomplete obstruction.

A

Stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1342
Q

Most common intestinal anomaly which results from the failure of involution of the omphalomesenteric duct, leaving a persistent blind-ended tubular protrusion as long as 5-6cm.

A

Meckel diverticulum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1343
Q

A congenital defect of the periumbillical abdominal musculature that creates a membranous sac, into which intestines herniate.

A

Omphalocoele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1344
Q

Extrusion of the intestines caused by lack of formation of a portion of the abdominal wall.

A

Gastroschisis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1345
Q

Condition that prevents the intestines from assuming their normal intra-abdominal positions.

A

Malrotation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1346
Q

Critical lesion in the development of Hirschprung disease.

A

Lack of ganglion cells in the muscle wall and submuco lf the affected segment.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1347
Q

Ischemic lesion of the intestines which extends only up to the muscularis mucosae.

A

Mucosal infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1348
Q

Ischemic lesion of the intestines involving the mucosa and submucosa, sparing the muscular wall.

A

Mural infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1349
Q

Ischemic lesion of the intestines involving all of the visceral layers.

A

Transmural infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1350
Q

Most common cause of transmural infarction of the intestines.

A

Acute occlusion of a major mesenteri artery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 602

1351
Q

Development of sudden abdominal pain out of proportion to the physical signs. Sometimes accomplanied by bloody diarrhea. May progress to shock and vascular collapse within hours.

A

Ischemic bowel injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 602

1352
Q

A weakness or defect in the wall of the peritoneal cavity, which permits protrusion of a pouch-like serosa lined sac of peritoneum.

A

Hernia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 603

1353
Q

A blind pouch that communicates with the lumen of the gut. Histologically describes as small, flask-like or spherical outpouchings, usually 0.5 to 1 cm diameter.

A

Diverticula(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 602

1354
Q

Telescoping of a proximal segment of a bowel into the immediately distal segment

A

Intussusception(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 604

1355
Q

Refers to twisting of a loop of bowel or other structure about its base of attachment, constricting venous outflow and sometimes the arterial supply.

A

Volvulus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 604

1356
Q

Characterized by transmural inflammation of the bowel, associated with noncaseating granulomas and fistula formation. Intestinal walls are rubbery and thick. (+) skip lesions, creeping fat mesentery

A

Chron’s disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 613

1357
Q

An ulceroinflammatory disease of the colon which is limited to the mucosa and submucosa. No granulomas, no skip lesions. High risk of carcinoma development.

A

Ulcerative colitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 614

1358
Q

Small, nipple-like, hemispherical, smooth protrusions of the intestinal mucosa. May occur singly or multiple.contains abundant crypts luned by well-differentiated goblet or epithelial cells separated by scant lamina propria.

A

Hyperplastic polyps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 617

1359
Q

Hamartomatous proliferations mainly of lamina propria, enclosing widely spaced, dilated cystic glands. Occur most frequently in children younger than 5 years old.

A

Juvenile polyps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1360
Q

Most common type of intestinal adenoma, which are tubular glands with slender stalks and raspberry-like heads composed pf neoplastic epithelium forming branching glands lined by tall, hyperchromatic cells.

A

Tubular adenomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1361
Q

Larger, more ominous intestinal epithelial polyp. Tends to occur in older persons at the rectum or rectosigmoid. Sessile, velvety and cauliflower-like mass projecting 1-3cm above the surrounding mucosa. Frondlike villiform extensions covered by dysplastic columnar epithelium.

A

Villous adenomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1362
Q

Composed of broad mix of tubular and villous areas, an intermediated between tubular and villous lesions.

A

Tubulovillous adenomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1363
Q

Uncommon autosomal dominant disorder with propensity for malignant transformation. Patients with this disease typically develop 500 to 2500 colonic adenomas that carpet the mucosal surface.

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 619

1364
Q

Uncommon hamartomatous polyps associated with melanotic mucosal and cutaneous pigmentation. Caused by germ-line mutations in LKB1 gene.

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 619

1365
Q

Polypoid, exophytic masses that extend along the wall of capacious cecum and ascending colon. Symptoms of fatigue, weakness and iron deficiency anemia.

A

Right sided colorectal carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 623

1366
Q

Annular, encircling lesions, “napkin-ring” constrictions of the bowel and narrowing of the lumen. Symptoms pf occult bleeding, changes in bowel habit or crampy left lower quadrant discomfort.

A

Left-sided colorectal carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 623

1367
Q

Tumor of the small intestines, showing spindle cells with elongated nuclei with fine chromatin and eosinophilic fibrillar cytoplasm. (+) c-KIT gene mutation

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 628

1368
Q

Most common site of carcinoid tumors.

A

Appendix(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 627

1369
Q

Tumors arising from endocrine cells along the GIT. Solid, yellow-tan appearance on transection. Neoplastic cells have a scant, pink granular cytoplasm and a round-to-oval stippled nucleus.

A

Carcinoid tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 627

1370
Q

What is the most common ectopic tissue rests seen in the esophagus?

A

Ectopic Gastric Mucosa seen in the upper third of the esophagus (TOPNOTCH)

1371
Q

What is the most common location of Mallory Weiss Tears?

A

Esophagogastric junction or in the proximal gastric (TOPNOTCH)

1372
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Barret Esophagus is made when what type of cells is seen in the columnar mucosa?

A

Intestinal Goblet Cells(TOPNOTCH)

1373
Q

What type of esophagitis presents with punched out linear ulcers with nuclear inclusions seen in degenerating epithelial cells?

A

Herpesvirus esophagitis(TOPNOTCH)

1374
Q

What type of esophagitis presents with linear ulcerations of the esophageal mucosa with histologic findings of intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions?

A

CMV esophagitis(TOPNOTCH)

1375
Q

98% of Peptic Ulcers are located in what part of the GIT?

A

First portion of the anterior part of the duodenum(TOPNOTCH)

1376
Q

What is the most common location of gastric ulcer?

A

Lesser curvature (TOPNOTCH)

1377
Q

What is the most common location of gastric carcinoma is?

A

Pylorus and antrum > Cardia > body and fundus(TOPNOTCH)

1378
Q

What is the morphologic feature of gastric carcinoma that has the greatest impact on the clinical outcome?

A

Depth of invasion(TOPNOTCH)

1379
Q

What is the most common primary source of gastric metastasis?

A

Systemic lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)

1380
Q

What is the usual organism that cause spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

A

E. coli(TOPNOTCH)

1381
Q

In bacterial peritonitis, approximately how many hours from the time of initiation before there is loss of the gray, glistening quality of the peritoneal surface and it becomes dull and lusterless?

A

2-4 hours(TOPNOTCH)

1382
Q

What is the histologic criterion for the diagnosis of acute appendicitis?

A

Presence of neutrophilic infiltration of the muscularis propria.(TOPNOTCH)

1383
Q

What is the most common site of gut carcinoid tumors?

A

Appendix(TOPNOTCH)

1384
Q

What is the most important prognostic indicator of colorectal carcinoma?

A

The extent of the tumor at the time of diagnosis or the stage(TOPNOTCH)

1385
Q

Morphology: a type of adenoma that has frondlike villiform extensions of the mucosa, covered by dysplastic, sometimes very disorderly columnar epithelium

A

Villous adenomas(TOPNOTCH)

1386
Q

These structures represent islands of inflamed regenerating mucosa surrounded by ulceration

A

Inflammatory or pseudopolyps(TOPNOTCH)

1387
Q

Most adenomas are seen in what part of the GIT?

A

Ampulla of Vater(TOPNOTCH)

1388
Q

Most tubular adenomas are found in what part of the GIT?

A

Colon(TOPNOTCH)

1389
Q

Gross morphology: small, flask like or spherical outpouchings, usually 0.5 to 1 cm and located in the sigmoid colon

A

Colonic diverticula(TOPNOTCH)

1390
Q

Morphology: thin wall composed of flattened or atrophic mucosa, compressed submucosa, and attenuated or totally absent muscularis propria.

A

Colonic diverticula(TOPNOTCH)

1391
Q

What are the two most important factors in the genesis of colonic diverticula?

A

Focal weakness in the colonic wall and increased intraluminal pressure(TOPNOTCH)

1392
Q

What is the most common site of angiodysplasia?

A

Cecum(TOPNOTCH)

1393
Q

Morphology: these are tortuous dilations of submucosal and mucosal blood vessels

A

Angiodysplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1394
Q

What area of the GIT is at greatest risk of ischemic injury?

A

Splenic flexure(TOPNOTCH)

1395
Q

Morphology: diffuse active inflammation with crypt abscess and glandular architectural distortion

A

Ulcerative Colitis(TOPNOTCH)

1396
Q

What is the earliest lesion seen in Crohn Disease?

A

Focal neutrophilic infiltration into the epithelial layer, particularly overlying mucosal lymphoid aggregates(TOPNOTCH)

1397
Q

What is the hallmark of inflammatory bowel disease, both CD and UC?

A

Chronic mucosal damage(TOPNOTCH)

1398
Q

Gross morphology: narrowing of lumen, bowel wall thickening, serosal extension of mesenteric fat, and linear ulceration of the mucosal surface

A

Crohn disease(TOPNOTCH)

1399
Q

What are the two key pathogenic abnormalities seen in Idiopathic Inflammatory Bowel disease?

A

Strong immune response against normal flora and defects in epithelial barrier function(TOPNOTCH)

1400
Q

Gross morphology: intestinal wall is rubbery and thick, as a consequence of edema, inflammation, fibrosis and hypertrophy of the muscularis propria

A

Crohn disease(TOPNOTCH)

1401
Q

Morphology: small intestinal mucosa laden with distended macrophages in the lamina propria which are PAS positive and contains numerous bacilli and diastase resistant granules

A

Whipple disease(TOPNOTCH)

1402
Q

Intestinal lipodystrophy is associated with what disease entity?

A

Whipple disase(TOPNOTCH)

1403
Q

Morphology: diffuse severe atrophy and blunting of villi, with a chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria

A

Celiac disease(TOPNOTCH)

1404
Q

Morphology: focal crypt cell necrosis or apoptosis with minimal to absent inflammatory cell response in the lamina propria

A

Acute GVHD(TOPNOTCH)

1405
Q

Morphology: marked blunting of the small intestinal villi with a mixed inflammatory infiltrate resembling the atrophic stage of celiac disease

A

Giardiasis(TOPNOTCH)

1406
Q

Morphology: superficial erosion of the mucosa and an adherent pseudomembrane of fibrin, mucus, and inflammatory debris

A

Pseudomembranous colitis(TOPNOTCH)

1407
Q

Morphology: small intestinal mucosa usually exhibits modestly shortened villi and infiltration of the lamina propria by lymphocytes

A

Viral gastroenteritis(TOPNOTCH)

1408
Q

What virus affecting the GIT can produce a flat mucosa resembling celiac sprue?

A

Rotavirus(TOPNOTCH)

1409
Q

Morphology: characterized by the absence of ganglion cells and ganglia in the muscle wall and submucosa of the affected segment

A

Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon(TOPNOTCH)

1410
Q

Stercoral ulcers are seen in what disease entity?

A

Congenital aganglionic megacolon(TOPNOTCH)

1411
Q

The majority of these tumors are positive for c-KIT (CD 117)

A

Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor(TOPNOTCH)

1412
Q

What is the most common site of gastric carcinoma?

A

Pylorus and anthrum 50%-60%(TOPNOTCH)

1413
Q

What is the most favored site of gastric carcinoma?

A

lesser curvature of the anthropyloric region(TOPNOTCH)

1414
Q

What is the morphologic feature of gastric carcinoma that has the greatest impact on clinical outcome?

A

Depth of invasion(TOPNOTCH)

1415
Q

This is a variant of gastric carcinoma composed of neoplastic intestinal glands resembling those of colonic adnocarcinoma and the neoplastic cells contain apical mucin vacuoles and abundant mucin may be present in gland lumens

A

Intestinal type(TOPNOTCH)

1416
Q

This is a variant of gastric carcinoma which is composed of gastric type mucous cells, which generally do not form glands, but rather permeate the mcosa and wall as scattered individual cells or small clusters in an infiltrative growth pattern

A

Diffuse type(TOPNOTCH)

1417
Q

What is the most common type of gastric polyp?

A

Hyperplastic polyp(TOPNOTCH)

1418
Q

In gastritis, histologically, what signifies an active inflammation?

A

Presence of neutrophils above the basement membrane.(TOPNOTCH)

1419
Q

H. pylori infection in duodenal ulcers is present in about how many percent of patients?

A

Virtually ALL (70% in patients with gastric ulcer(TOPNOTCH)

1420
Q

Marked cell enlargement with irregularly clumped cytoplasm showing large, clear spaces.

A

Ballooning degeneration (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p633

1421
Q

Multiple tiny fat droplets that do not displace the nucleus which appear in such conditions as alcoholic liver disease, Reye syndrome, and acute fatty liver of pregnancy.

A

Microvesicular steatosis Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p633

1422
Q

A single large fat droplet that displaces the nucleus seen in alcoholic liver disease or in the livers of obese or diabetic individuals.

A

Macrovesicular steatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p633

1423
Q

Diffuse, foamy, swollen appearance to the hepatocyte caused by retained biliary material.

A

Feathery degeneration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p633

1424
Q

Poorly stained mummified hepatocytes.

A

Coagulative necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p633

1425
Q

Isolated hepatocytes become shrunken, pyknotic, and intensely eosinophilic.

A

Apoptosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p633

1426
Q

Hepatocyte necrosis is distributed immediately around the central vein, extending into the midzonal area in the setting of ischemia and several drug and toxic reactions.

A

Centrilobular necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p633

1427
Q

A pattern of nonrhythmic, rapid extension-flexion movements of the head and extremities, best seen when the arms are held in extension with dorsiflexed wrists, seen in patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

A

Asterixis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p635

1428
Q

A diffuse process characterized by bridging fibrous septa, in the form of delicate bands or broad scars around multiple adjacent lobes, and the conversion of normal liver architecture into structurally abnormal nodules, encircled by fibrotic bands. Liver architecture is disrupted.

A

Liver Cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p635

1429
Q

Presence of “ground-glass” hepatocytes, a finely granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm and “sanded” nuclei, shown by electron microscopy

A

Hepatitis B infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p645

1430
Q

Necrotic cells appear to have “dropped out,” with collapse of the sinusoidal collagen reticulin framework where the cells have disappeared; scavenger macrophage aggregates mark sites of dropout.

A

Hepatocyte cytolysis (in viral hepatitis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p647

1431
Q

Hepatocytes shrink, become intensely eosinophilic, and have fragmented nuclei; effector T cells may be present in the immediate vicinity.

A

Hepatocyte apoptosis (in viral hepatitis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p647

1432
Q

The hallmark of serious liver damage.

A

Fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p647

1433
Q

May occur as solitary or multiple lesions, ranging from millimeters to massive lesions, many centimeters in diameter. They are generally produced by gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella sp.

A

Pyogenic (bacterial) hepatic abscesses (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p648

1434
Q

Liver is enlarged (4-6kg), soft, yellow and greasy.

A

Hepatic Steatosis (Fatty Liver)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p649

1435
Q

Lipid accumulates to the point of creating large clear macrovesicular globules, compressing and displacing the nucleus to the periphery of the hepatocyte.

A

Hepatic Steatosis (Fatty Liver)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p649

1436
Q

Eosinophilic, cytoplasmic inclusions characteristic of alcoholic hepatitis.

A

Mallory bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p650

1437
Q

Almost always accompanied by a brisk sinusoidal and perivenular fibrosis; occasionally periportal fibrosis may predominate.

A

Alcoholic hepatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p650

1438
Q

Liver is yellow-tan, fatty, and enlarged, usually weighing over 2 kg. Over the span of years it is transformed into a brown, shrunken, nonfatty organ, sometimes weighing less than 1 kg.

A

Alcoholic Cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p650

1439
Q

Pattern of cirrhosis in viral hepatitis.

A

Macronodular(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p650

1440
Q

Pattern of cirrhosis in alcoholic hepatitis.

A

Micronodular(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p650

1441
Q

The liver may shrink to 500 to 700 gm and become transformed into a limp, red organ covered by a wrinkled, overly large capsule. Necrotic areas have a muddy red, mushy appearance with blotchy bile staining. Complete destruction of hepatocytes in contiguous lobules leaves only a collapsed reticulin framework and preserved portal tracts.

A

Massive hepatic necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p653

1442
Q

Characterized by deposition of hemosiderin in the following organs: liver, pancreas, myocardium, pituitary, adrenal, thyroid and parathyroid glands, joints, and skin; cirrhosis; and pancreatic fibrosis

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p655

1443
Q

Golden-yellow granules in the cytoplasm of periportal hepatocytes, which stain blue with the Prussian blue stain.

A

Hemosiderin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p655

1444
Q

Green to brown deposits of copper in Descemet membrane in the limbus of the cornea.

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p656

1445
Q

Excessive copper deposition in the liver causing hepatic changes ranging from mild fatty change to massive liver necrosis. In the brain, injury affects the basal ganglia, demonstrating atrophy and cavitation. Kayser-Fleischer rings are characteristic.

A

Wilson disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p655

1446
Q

Hepatocytes with round to oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions which are strongly positive in a periodic acid-Schiff stain. By electron microscopy they lie within smooth, and sometimes rough, endoplasmic reticulum.

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p657

1447
Q

A rare disease characterized by microvesicular fatty change in the liver and encephalopathy. Microscopy of hepatocellular mitochondria reveals pleomorphic enlargement and electron lucency of the matrices, with disruption of cristae and loss of dense bodies.

A

Reye syndrome / “mitochondrial hepatopathies” (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p658

1448
Q

A chronic, progressive, and often fatal cholestatic liver disease, characterized by a nonsuppurative destruction of small and medium-sized intrahepatic bile ducts (“florid duct lesion”). On cut surface, the liver is hard, with a finely granular appearance, with extraordinary yellow-green pigmentation.

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p659

1449
Q

A chronic cholestatic disorder, characterized by progressive fibrosis and destruction of extrahepatic and large intrahepatic bile ducts. Affected portal tracts show concentric periductal “onion-skin” fibrosis and a modest lymphocytic infiltrate. Progressive atrophy of the bile duct epithelium leads to obliteration of the lumen, leaving behind a solid, cordlike fibrous scar.

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p660

1450
Q

Liver is slightly enlarged, tense, and cyanotic, with rounded edges. Microscopically, there is congestion of centrilobular sinusoids. With time, centrilobular hepatocytes become atrophic, resulting in markedly attenuated liver cell cords. Liver fibrosis mostly “centrilobular”.

A

Passive congestion of the liver secondary to right-sided heart failure.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p660

1451
Q

Hepatocytes in the central region of the lobule undergo ischemic necrosis. The liver takes on a variegated mottled appearance, reflecting hemorrhage and necrosis in the centrilobular regions, alternating with pale midzonal areas, known traditionally as the “nutmeg” liver.

A

Passive congestion of the liver secondary to left-sided heart failure.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p661

1452
Q

A rare condition wherein there is primary dilation of sinusoids, impeding hepatic blood efflux. Associated with exposure to anabolic steroids, OCP’s and danazol.

A

Peliosis hepatis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p661

1453
Q

Results from the thrombosis of two or more major hepatic veins and is characterized by hepatomegaly, weight gain, ascites, and abdominal pain. The liver is swollen, is red-purple, and has a tense capsule. The affected hepatic parenchyma reveals severe centrilobular congestion and necrosis.

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p662

1454
Q

Caused by toxic injury to sinusoidal endothelium. Damaged endothelial cells slough off and create emboli that block blood flow. Accompanied by passage of red blood cell into the space of Disse, proliferation of stellate cells, and fibrosis of terminal branches of the hepatic vein.

A

Sinusoidal Obstruction Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p662

1455
Q

Well-demarcated but poorly encapsulated lesion, consisting of hyperplastic hepatocyte nodules with a central fibrous scar. Appears in noncirrhotic livers and may reach up to many centimeters in diameter. It occurs in response to local vascular injury.

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p664

1456
Q

These appear in cirrhotic livers, are larger than surrounding cirrhotic nodules but do not display atypical features. Contains more than one portal tract, have an intact reticulin framework, and do not seem to be precursors of malignant lesions.

A

Macroregenerative nodules (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p664

1457
Q

These are lesions larger than 1 mm in diameter that appear in cirrhotic livers. Considered to be precursors of hepatocelluar cancers, are often monoclonal, and may contain chromosome aberrations similar to those present in liver cancers.

A

Dysplastic nodules (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p664

1458
Q

May appear grossly as (1) a unifocal, usually massive tumor, (2) a multifocal tumor made of nodules of variable size or (3) a diffusely infiltrative cancer, permeating widely and sometimes involving the entire liver, blending imperceptibly into the cirrhotic liver background.

A

Primary Hepatocellular Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p665

1459
Q

A distinctive variant of HCC, which occurs in young male and female adults (20-40 years of age) of equal incidence, no association with cirrhosis or other risk factors. usually consists of a single large, hard “scirrhous” tumor with fibrous bands coursing through it. Composed of well-differentiated polygonal cells growing in nests or cords and separated by parallel lamellae of dense collagen bundles.

A

Fibrolamellar carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p665

1460
Q

Gallbladder stones that are mostly radiolucent, ovoid and firm; can occur singly but most often there are several, with faceted surfaces resulting from apposition to one another. They are pale yellow but w/ increasing proportions of CaCO3, phosphates and bilirubin, they turn gray-white to black and radiopaque.

A

Cholesterol stones (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p668

1461
Q

May arise anywhere in the biliary tree and are trivially classified as black and as brown. Contain calcium salts of unconjugated bilirubin and lesser amounts of other calcium salts, mucin glycoproteins, and cholesterol.

A

Pigment stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p668

1462
Q

A type of pigment stone found in sterile gallbladder bile, usually small and present in large quantities and crumble easily. 50% to 75% are radiopaque.

A

Black pigment stones (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p668

1463
Q

A type of pigment stone found in infected intrahepatic or extrahepatic ducts. Tends to be single or few in number and are soft with a greasy, soaplike consistency that results from the presence of retained fatty acid salts released by the action of bacterial phospholipases on biliary lecithins. Contains calcium soaps, and are radiolucent.

A

Brown pigment stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p668

1464
Q

Gallbladder is usually enlarged (twofold to threefold) and tense, and it assumes a bright red or blotchy, violaceous to green-black discoloration, imparted by subserosal hemorrhages. The gallbladder lumen is filled with a cloudy or turbid bile that may contain fibrin, blood, and frank pus.

A

Acute cholecystitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p669

1465
Q

Condition wherein the exudate contained in the gallbladder is composed virtually of pure pus.

A

Empyema of the gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p669

1466
Q

Severe cholecystitis wherein the GB is transformed into a green-black necrotic organ.

A

Gangrenous cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p669

1467
Q

The gallbladder may be contracted, of normal size, or enlarged. Presence of stones in the absence of inflammation is diagnostic.

A

Chronic cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p669

1468
Q

Defined as a complete obstruction of bile flow caused by destruction or absence of all or part of the extrahepatic bile ducts.

A

Biliary atresia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p670

1469
Q

Appears as a poorly defined area of diffuse thickening and induration of the gallbladder wall that may cover several square centimeters or involve the entire gallbladder, scirrhous and very firm in consistency.

A

Infiltrating pattern of gallbladder carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p671

1470
Q

This pattern of GB carcinoma grows into the lumen as an irregular, cauliflower mass, but at the same time it invades the underlying wall.

A

Exophytic pattern of gallbladder carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p671

1471
Q

Appear typically with an abundant fibrous stroma (desmoplasia) explaining their firm, gritty consistency Most exhibit clearly defined glandular and tubular structures lined by somewhat anaplastic cuboidal to low columnar epithelial cells. Bile pigment and hyaline inclusions are not found within the cells.

A

Cholangiocarcinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p672

1472
Q

Morphology: Characterized by fibrosing cholangitis of bile ducts, with a lymphocytic infiltrate, and progressive atrophy of the bile duct epithelium, and obliteration of the lumen

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis(TOPNOTCH)

1473
Q

Morphology: Concentric periductal fibrosis or Onion-Skin fibrosis with solid, cordlike fibrous scar.

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis(TOPNOTCH)

1474
Q

“Beading” of barium column in radiographs of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary tree

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis(TOPNOTCH)

1475
Q

Morphology: Panlobular giant cell transformation of hepatocytes and formation of hepatocyte “rosettes”

A

Neonatal Cholestasis(TOPNOTCH)

1476
Q

What is the histological hallmark of irreversible liver damage?

A

Deposition of fibrous tissue(TOPNOTCH)

1477
Q

“Ground Glass Hepatocytes” are seen in what type of Viral Hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis B(TOPNOTCH)

1478
Q

What type of viral hepatitis frequently show lymphoid aggregates within portal tracts?

A

Hepatitis C(TOPNOTCH)

1479
Q

A characteristic feature of this type of viral hepatitis is the high mortality rate among pregnant women, approaching 20%

A

Hepatitis E(TOPNOTCH)

1480
Q

A distinctive variant of hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs in young adults and has no association with HBV or cirrhosis risk factors.

A

Fibrolamellar Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

1481
Q

What is the most common liver tumor of young childhood?

A

Hepatoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

1482
Q

What are the most common benign neoplasm in the liver?

A

Hemangiomas(TOPNOTCH)

1483
Q

These benign neoplasms tend to occur in young women who have used oral contraceptives and regress on discontinuance of their use.

A

Liver cell Adenoma(TOPNOTCH)

1484
Q

Rokitansky- Aschoff sinuses are structures seen in what organ?

A

Gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)

1485
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the gallbladder?

A

Presence of Phrygian Cap (folded fundus)(TOPNOTCH)

1486
Q

What is the tetralogy of cholesterol stone formation?

A
  1. Supersaturation of bile with cholesterol2. Gallbladder hypomotility3. Cholesterol nucleation4. Hypersecretion of GB mucus(TOPNOTCH)
1487
Q

AKA Strawberry Gallbladder

A

Cholesterolosis(TOPNOTCH)

1488
Q

Acute calculous cholecystitis is most commonly precipitated by what condition?

A

Obstruction of the neck or cystic duct by a Gallbladder stone(TOPNOTCH)

1489
Q

Morphology: Prominence of Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

A

Chronic Cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)

1490
Q

What is the most common cause of cholangitis?

A

Choledocholithiasis(TOPNOTCH)

1491
Q

True or False. Gallstones are seen in 60%-90% of Carcinoma of the Gallbladder.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)

1492
Q

What is the most common growth pattern of Gallbladder carcinoma? Infiltrating or Exophytic?

A

Infiltrating(TOPNOTCH)

1493
Q

These are tumors arising from the part of the common bile duct between the cystic duct junction and the confluence of the right and left hepatic ducts at the liver hilus

A

Klatskin tumors(TOPNOTCH)

1494
Q

Morphology: feathery degeneration and focal detergent dissolution of hepatocytes, giving rise to bile lakes filled with cellular debris and pigment

A

Cholestasis(TOPNOTCH)

1495
Q

What does unrelieved cholestasis lead to?

A

Portal tract fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)

1496
Q

What is the outcome of 85% of Acute Hepatitis infection?

A

Chronic Hepatitis(TOPNOTCH)

1497
Q

These inclusions are a characteristic but not specific feature of alcoholic liver disease.

A

Mallory bodies(TOPNOTCH)

1498
Q

Morphology: macrovesicular steatosis, involving most regions of the hepatic lobule. The intracytoplasmic fat is seen as clear vacuoles.

A

Alcoholic liver disease(TOPNOTCH)

1499
Q

What zone of the liver if particularly vulnerable of ischemic injury and number of drug and toxic reactions?

A

Centrilobular zone(TOPNOTCH)

1500
Q

What zone of the liver is particularly affected in eclampsia?

A

Periportal zone(TOPNOTCH)

1501
Q

At least how many percent of the liver must be damaged before hepatic failure ensues?

A

at least 80%(TOPNOTCH)

1502
Q

What are the 4 major consequences of portal hypertension?

A

Ascites, formation of portosystemic venous shunts, congestive splenomegaly, and hepatic encephalopathy(TOPNOTCH)

1503
Q

Ascites becomes clinically detectable at what amount?

A

500 ml(TOPNOTCH)

1504
Q

Morphology: portal tract expansion with inflammatory cells and fibrous tissue and interface hepatitis with spillover of inflammation into the adjacent parenchyma. Lymphoid aggregates can also be seen.

A

Chronic Viral Hepatitis C(TOPNOTCH)

1505
Q

Morphology: hepatocytes show diffuse granular cytoplasm, so called ground glass hepatocytes

A

Hepatitis B viral infection(TOPNOTCH)

1506
Q

Morphology: liver biopsy shows steatosis, multifocal parenchymal inflammation, Mallory hyaline, hepatocyte death, and sinusoidal fibrosis

A

Steatohepatitis or Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis(TOPNOTCH)

1507
Q

In Hemochromatosis, what is the most common site of hemosiderin deposition?

A

Liver(TOPNOTCH)

1508
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of Hemochromatosis?

A

Deposition of hemosiderin, cirrhosis, and pancreatic fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)

1509
Q

Morphology: characterized by the presence of round to oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions in hepatocytes, which in routine H and E stains are acidophilic and indistinctly demarcated from the surrounding cytoplasm

A

A1 antitrypsin deficiency(TOPNOTCH)

1510
Q

Morphology: Panlobular giant cell transformation of hepatocytes and formation of hepatocyte “rosettes”

A

Neonatal Cholestasis(TOPNOTCH)

1511
Q

Morphology: characterized by coarse fibrous septae that subdivide the liver in a jigsaw like pattern

A

Secondary biliary cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)

1512
Q

Morphology: florid duct lesion

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)

1513
Q

The combination of hypoperfusion and retrograde congestion acts synergistically to generate what type of necrosis in the liver?

A

Centrolobular hemorrhagic necrosis(TOPNOTCH)

1514
Q

Morphology: periportal sinusoids contain fibrin deposits with hemorrhage into the space of Disse, leading to periportal hepatocellular coagulative necrosis

A

Pre-Eclampsia/Eclampsia(TOPNOTCH)

1515
Q

Type of liver transplant rejection : severe obliterative arteritis of small and larger arterial vessels results in ischemic changes in the liver parenchyma

A

Chronic Rejection(TOPNOTCH)

1516
Q

Type of liver transplant rejection: infiltration of a mixed population of inflammatory cells into portal tracts, bile ducts, and hepatocyte injury and endothelitis

A

Acute cellular rejections(TOPNOTCH)

1517
Q

What do you call the small tubular channels that are sometimes burried within the gallbladder wall adjacent to the liver?

A

Ducts of Luschka(TOPNOTCH)

1518
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly seen in the Gallbladder?

A

A folded fundus or so called phrygian cap(TOPNOTCH)

1519
Q

Gross morphology: the mucosal surface of the gallbladder is studded with minute yellow flecks

A

Strawberry Gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)

1520
Q

What type of pigment stones are generally seen in infected intrahepatic or extra hepatic ducts?

A

Brown pigment stones(TOPNOTCH)

1521
Q

Gross morphology: GB is shrunken, nodular, and chronically inflamed with foci of necrosis and hemorrhage

A

Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)

1522
Q

This disease is characterized by the following morphological changes: (1) microvascular leakage causing edema, (2) necrosis of fat by lipases, (3) an acute inflammatory reaction, (4) proteolytic destruction of parenchyma, (5) destruction of blood vessels with hemorrhage

A

Acute pancreatitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 677

1523
Q

Extensive pancreatic parenchymal necrosis accompanied by diffuse hemorrhage.

A

Hemorrhagic pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 678

1524
Q

Cardinal manifestation of acute pancreatitis.

A

Abdominal pain(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 679

1525
Q

Necrosis of pancreatic tissue affecting acinar and ductal tissues as well as the islets of Langerhans; vascular damage causes hemorrhage into the parenchyma.Macroscopically, the pancreas exhibits red-black hemorrhage interspersed with foci of yellow-white, chalky fat necrosis.

A

Acute necrotizing pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 678

1526
Q

Solitary, 2-30 cm lesions of the pancreas, formed by walling-off of areas with hemorrhagic fat necrosis.Composed of necrotic debris encased by fibrous walls of granulation tissue, and lacks epithelial lining.

A

Pancreatic pseudocysts(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 679

1527
Q

Characterized by parenchymal fibrosis, reduced number and size of acini, and variable dilation of the pancreatic ducts. With relative sparing of Islets of Langerhans. Ductal concretions are present.

A

Chronic pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 680

1528
Q

Presents as painless, slow-growing cystic masses filled with thick, tenacious mucin, lined with columnar mucinous epithelium, associated with densely cellular stroma. Almost always arise in women.

A

Mucinous cystic neoplasm of the pancreas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 681

1529
Q

Similar to mucinous cystic neoplasms but appear more frequently in men.

A

Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms (IPMNs) of the pancreas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 682

1530
Q

Most common location of pancreatic cancer.

A

Head of pancreas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 684

1531
Q

Most common symptom of pancreatic carcinoma located at the tail and body of the gland?

A

None/AsymptomaticSince it does not impinge on the biliary tract, it may be quite large and widely disseminated by the time they are discovered.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 684

1532
Q

Moderately to poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma forming abortive tubular structures or cell clusters and exhibiting an aggressive, deeply infiltrative growth pattern.

A

Pancreatic carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 684

1533
Q

Type of pancreatic carcinoma showing prominent acinar cell differentiation with zymogen granules and exocrine enzyme production.

A

Acinar cell carcinomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 684

1534
Q

Type of pancreatic carcinoma with focal squamous differentiation in addition to glandular differentiation.

A

Adenosquamous carcinomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 684

1535
Q

What is the most common clinically significant congenital anomaly of the pancreas?

A

Pancreas Divisum(TOPNOTCH)

1536
Q

This congenital abnormality develops embryologically when one portion of the ventral pancreatic primordium becomes fixed, while the other portion of this primordium is drawn around the duodenum

A

Annular Pancreas(TOPNOTCH)

1537
Q

What is the cardinal manifestation of acute pancreatitis?

A

Abdominal Pain(TOPNOTCH)

1538
Q

The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is?

A

Excessive alcohol intake(TOPNOTCH)

1539
Q

What are the 5 basic morphological alterations seen in Acute Pancreatitis?

A
  1. Edema caused by microvascular leakage2. Necrosis of fat caused by lipolytic enzymes3. Acute inflammatory reaction4. Destruction of pancreatic parenchyma by proteolytiz enzymes5. Destruction of blood vessels with subsequent interstitial hemorrage(TOPNOTCH)
1540
Q

What is the most common cause of Chronic Pancreatitis?

A

Long term alcohol abuse(TOPNOTCH)

1541
Q

This condition is characterized by parenchymal fibrosis, reduced number and size of acini with relative sparing of the islets of Langerhans, and variable dilation of the pancreatic ducts.

A

Chronic Pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)

1542
Q

What is the most constant morphological feature of Chronic Pancreatitis?

A

Acinar Loss(TOPNOTCH)

1543
Q

60% of cancers of the pancreas arise in what area?

A

Head > Body > Tail(TOPNOTCH)

1544
Q

What is the most frequently altered oncogene in pancreatic cancer?

A

K-RAS (TOPNOTCH)

1545
Q

What is the most frequently inactivated tumor suppressor gene in pancreatic cancer?

A

p16(TOPNOTCH)

1546
Q

What is the strongest environmental risk factor for developing Pancreatic Cancer?

A

Smoking(TOPNOTCH)

1547
Q

What are the two characteristic features of Pancreatic Cancer?

A

Highly invasive and it elicits an intense non neoplastic host reaction called a desmoplastic response(TOPNOTCH)

1548
Q

Where do Pancreatic cancers usually metastasize?

A

Lungs and bones(TOPNOTCH)

1549
Q

This variant of Pancreatic cancer is characterized by formation of zymogen granules and the production of exocrine enzymes including trypsin and lipase`

A

Acinar cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

1550
Q

What is the first symptom of pancreatic cancer?

A

Pain(TOPNOTCH)

1551
Q

These structures are formed by the walling off of areas of peripancreatic hemorrhagic fat necrosis with fibrous tissue and are usually composed of central necrotic hemorrhagic material rich in pancreatic enzymes surrounded by non epithelial lined fbrous walls of granulation tissue

A

Pseudocyts(TOPNOTCH)

1552
Q

These kinds of cyst account for 75% of cysts seen in the pancreas

A

pseudocyts(TOPNOTCH)

1553
Q

Gross morphology: extensive parenchymal necrosis accompanied by diffuse hemorrhage within the substance of the gland

A

Hemorrhagic pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)

1554
Q

Morphology: Pancreas shows region of fat necrosis and focal pancreatic parenchymal necrosis

A

Acute pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)

1555
Q

What is the most important triggering event in acute pancreatitis?

A

Activation of trypsinogen and subsequent autodigestion of the pancreatic substances(TOPNOTCH)

1556
Q

An abnormal opening of the urethra along the ventral aspect of the penis.

A

Hypospadias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 687

1557
Q

An abnormal opening of the urethra along the dorsal aspect of the penis.

A

Epispadias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 687

1558
Q

A congenital malformation of the bladder associated with epispadias.

A

Bladder extrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

1559
Q

A condition in which the prepuce cannot be retracted easily over the glans penis

A

Phimosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

1560
Q

Appears grossly as a solitary, plaquelike lesion on the shaft of the penis. Histologic examination reveals morphologically malignant cells throughout the epidermis with no invasion of the underlying stroma. Has potential for malignant transformation.

A

Bowen disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

1561
Q

Bowen disease which presents as an erythematous patch on the glans penis.

A

Erythroplasia of Queyrat(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

1562
Q

Occurs in young, sexually active males, histologically identical to Bowen disease. Presents with multiple reddish brown papules on the glans and is most often transient, with rare progression to carcinoma in immunocompetent patients.

A

Bowenoid papulosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

1563
Q

Appears as a gray, crusted, papular lesion, most commonly on the glans penis or prepuce, which infiltrates the underlying connective tissue to produce an indurated, ulcerated lesion with irregular margins.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 689

1564
Q

A variant of squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary architecture, less striking cytologic atypia, and rounded, pushing deep margins.

A

Verrucous carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 689

1565
Q

Most common cause of scrotal enlargement, which is an accumulation of serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis usually secondary to infection or malignancy.

A

Hydrocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 689

1566
Q

Represents failure of testicular descent into the scrotum which involves the right testis more commonly than the left. Causes increased risk of sterility and development of testicular cancer.

A

Cryptorchidism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 690

1567
Q

Most important cause of firm, painless enlargement of the testis.

A

Testicular neoplasms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 690

1568
Q

Composed of sheets of large, uniform cells with distinct cell borders, clear, glycogen-rich cytoplasm, and round nuclei with conspicuous nucleoli. The cells are often arrayed in small lobules with intervening fibrous septa.

A

Seminomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 691

1569
Q

These tumors contain a mixture of medium-sized cells, large uninucleate or multinucleate tumor cells, and small cells with round nuclei that are reminiscent of secondary spermatocytes.

A

Spermatocytic seminoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 691

1570
Q

Ill-defined, invasive masses containing foci of hemorrhage and necrosis. Poorly differentiated, pleomorphic cells in cords, sheets, or papillary formation; most contain some yolk sac and choriocarcinoma cells

A

Embryonal carcinoma of the testis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1571
Q

Most common primary testicular neoplasm in children younger than 3 years of age.

A

Yolk sac tumors/endodermal sinus tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1572
Q

Low cuboidal to columnar epithelial cells forming microcysts, sheets, glands, and papillae, often associated with eosinophilic hyaline globules. (+) Schiller-Duval bodies

A

Yolk sac tumors/endodermal sinus tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1573
Q

Structures resembling primitive glomeruli, seen in yolk sac tumors.

A

Schiller-Duval bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1574
Q

Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast without villus formation

A

Choriocarcinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1575
Q

Tissues from all three germ-cell layers with varying degrees of differentiation

A

Teratomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1576
Q

Teratoma which contain fully differentiated tissues from one or more germ cell layers (e.g., neural tissue, cartilage, adipose tissue, bone, epithelium) in a haphazard array.

A

Mature teratomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1577
Q

Teratoma which contain immature somatic elements reminiscent of those in developing fetal tissue.

A

Immature teratomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

1578
Q

Characterized by the presence of an acute, neutrophilic inflammatory infiltrate, congestion, and stromal edema of the prostate.

A

Acute prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 695

1579
Q

Characterized by variable amount of lymphoid infiltrate, evidence of glandular injury, and, frequently, concomitant acute inflammatory changes of the prostate.

A

Chronic prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 695

1580
Q

Nodular hyperplasia is usually more pronounced in what part/s of the prostate?

A

Inner (central and transitional) region of the prostate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 696

1581
Q

Composed of proliferating prostatic glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma. The glandular lumina often contain inspissated, proteinaceous secretory material, termed corpora amylacea.

A

Nodular Hyperplasia of the Prostate (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 697

1582
Q

Major hormonal stimulus for proliferation in nodular hyperplasia of the prostate.

A

DHT (Dihydrotestosterone)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 698

1583
Q

Most common area of the prostate affected by prostatic carcinoma.

A

Outer (peripheral) glands (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 698

1584
Q

Concentration of this biochemical marker is of great value in monitoring patients after treatment for prostate cancer.

A

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 700

1585
Q

A commonly used method for grading prostatic carcinoma, which is based on features such as the degree of glandular differentiation, the architecture of the neoplastic glands, nuclear anaplasia, and mitotic activity.

A

Gleason system(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 700

1586
Q

A chronic venereal infection caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum, whose fundamental microscopic lesion is a proliferative endarteritis and an accompanying inflammatory infiltrate rich in plasma cells.

A

Syphilis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

1587
Q

An irregular, firm mass of necrotic tissue surrounded by resilient connective tissue. Contains a central zone of coagulation necrosis surrounded by a mixed inflammatory infiltrate composed of lymphocytes, plasma cells, epithelioid cells, giant cells, and a peripheral zone of dense fibrous tissue. Seen in tertiary syphilis.

A

Gumma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

1588
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by the presence of an indurated chancre at the site of initial inoculation, associated with painless regional lymphadenopathy.

A

Primary Syphilis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

1589
Q

Both nontreponemal and antitreponemal antibody tests are strongly positive in virtually all cases of this stage of syphilis.

A

Secondary syphilis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

1590
Q

In males this is manifested most often as a purulent urethral discharge, associated with an edematous, congested urethral meatus. Gram stain of urethral discharge, demonstrates the characteristic gram-negative, intracellular diplococci.

A

Gonorrhea (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 705

1591
Q

A gram-negative intracellular bacterium that causes a disease that is clinically indistinguishable from gonorrhea in both men and in women.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

1592
Q

C. trachomatis infection causing a triad of reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis and generalized mucocutaneous lesions.

A

Reiter syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

1593
Q

This STD is a chronic, ulcerative disease caused by certain strains of C. trachomatis, which presents with nonspecific urethritis, papular or ulcerative lesions involving the lower genitalia, regional adenopathy, or an anorectal syndrome.

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

1594
Q

This STD is an acute, ulcerative infection caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, a small, gram-negative coccobacillus. The lesion is an irregular ulcer, whose base is covered by a shaggy, yellow-gray exudate. Regional lymph nodes are enlarged and tender.

A

Chancroid (Soft Chancre) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

1595
Q

A chronic inflammatory disease caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. The organisms are demonstrable in Giemsa-stained smears of the exudate as minute coccobacilli within vacuoles in macrophages (Donovan bodies). Regional lymph nodes are typically spared.

A

Granuloma Inguinale (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 708

1596
Q

The initial lesions of this infection are painful, erythematous vesicles on the mucosa or skin of the lower genitalia and adjacent extra-genital sites. Cowdry type A inclusions appear as light purple, homogeneous intranuclear structures surrounded by a clear halo.

A

HSV 2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 708

1597
Q

Caused by HPV types 6 and 11. Lesions vary from small, sessile lesions to large, papillary proliferations measuring several centimeters in diameter.

A

Condylomata acuminata (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 709

1598
Q

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in infants and children?

A

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction (TOPNOTCH)

1599
Q

Fiery red appearance of the cervix is associated with what type of infection?

A

Strawberry cervix is associated with T. vaginalis infection (TOPNOTCH)

1600
Q

Approximately 70% of prostate carcinoma will arise in what zone of the gland?

A

Peripheral zone ( posterior location) (TOPNOTCH)

1601
Q

What is the best known grading system for Prostate Carcinoma?

A

Gleason System (TOPNOTCH)

1602
Q

Morphology: hallmark is nodularity due to glandular proliferation or dilation and to fibrous or muscular proliferation of the stroma

A

BPH (TOPNOTCH)

1603
Q

Nodular hyperplasia of the prostate originates almost exclusively in what zone of the gland?

A

Transition zone (TOPNOTCH)

1604
Q

Morphology: appear as minute, disseminated abscesses or diffuse edema, congestion, and boggy suppuration of the entire prostate

A

Acute prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)

1605
Q

Morphology: aggregation of numerous lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages as well as neutrophils within the prostatic substance

A

Chronic prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)

1606
Q

Morphology: tumor cells are arranged in distinctive trabeculae with a tendency to form cordlike structures resembling immature seminiferous tubules

A

Sertoli Cell Tumors or Androblastoma (TOPNOTCH)

1607
Q

Morphology: rod shaped crystalloids of Reinke

A

Leydig/Interstitial Cell Tumors (TOPNOTCH)

1608
Q

What is the most common form of testicular neoplasm in men over the age of 60?

A

Testicular Lymphoma (TOPNOTCH)

1609
Q

Morphology: disorganized collection of lands, cartilage, smooth muscle, and immature stroma

A

Teratoma of the testes (TOPNOTCH)

1610
Q

What do you call the structures resembling endodermal sinuses that may be seen in Yolk Sac Tumor?

A

Schiller Duval Bodies (TOPNOTCH)

1611
Q

Morphology: reveals large cells with distinct cell borders, pale nuclei, clear or watery appearing cytoplasm, prominent nucleoli, and a sparse lymphocytic infiltrate

A

Seminona (TOPNOTCH)

1612
Q

Within how many hours should the testes be explored surgically and untwisted manually so the testes will be viable after a testicular torsion?

A

(TOPNOTCH) Within 6 hours

1613
Q

Morphology: clear vacuolization of the prickle cells

A

Condylomata acuminatum (koilocytosis) (TOPNOTCH)

1614
Q

What HPV DNA type is found in approximately 80% of Bowen Disease and bowenoid papulosis?

A

HPV Type 16 (TOPNOTCH)

1615
Q

What type of bladder cancer is associated with long standing schistosomiasis?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1616
Q

In bladder carcinoma, the major decrease in survival is associated with tumor invading what layer of the bladder?

A

Muscularis propria (detrussor muscle) (TOPNOTCH)

1617
Q

A benign, well-circumscribed, soft lesion of the pituitary gland that may compress the optic chiasm and adjacent structures. Composed of relatively uniform, polygonal cells arrayed in sheets, cords, or papillae. Most common cause of hyperpituitarism.

A

Pituitary adenoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 754

1618
Q

Most common type of hyperfunctioning pituitary adenoma.

A

Prolactinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 754

1619
Q

Microscopically, these are composed of densely or sparsely granulated cells, and immunohistochemical stains demonstrate growth hormone within the cytoplasm of the neoplastic cells.

A

Growth Hormone-Producing Adenomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 754

1620
Q

A condition characterized by excessive urination (polyuria) caused by an inability of the kidney to properly resorb water from the urine.

A

Diabetes insipidus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

1621
Q

Enzyme deficient in central Diabetes insipidus.

A

Anti-diuretic hormone(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

1622
Q

Disease caused by excessive levels of ADH, leading to resorption of excess water, with resultant hyponatremia.

A

syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

1623
Q

The most common cause of hypothyroidism in areas of the world where iodine levels are sufficient. Presents as painless enlargement of the gland, associated with hypothyroidism.

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

1624
Q

The thyroid is diffusely and symmetrically enlarged, with intact capsule. Microscopically, reveals a mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate and the presence of Hürthle or oxyphil cells, which are cells with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm.

A

Chronic Lymphocytic (Hashimoto) Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 761

1625
Q

A rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis involving the thyroid and contiguous neck structures. Idiopathic in nature.

A

Riedel thyroiditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 762

1626
Q

Believed to be caused by a viral infection or a postviral inflammatory process, this lesion of the thyroid gland is characterized by unilateral or bilateral enlargement of the thyroid, with disruption of thyroid follicles. Extravasation of colloid leads to a granulomatous reaction. Healing occurs by resolution of inflammation and fibrosis.

A

Subacute Granulomatous (de Quervain) Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 762

1627
Q

Also known as “silent” or “painless” thyroiditis n a subset of patients the onset of disease follows pregnancy. Unlike Hashimoto thyroiditis, follicular atrophy or Hürthle cell metaplasia are not commonly seen.

A

Postpartum thyroiditis/ Subacute Lymphocytic Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 762

1628
Q

Thyroid gland is diffusely enlarged due to hyperplasia and hypertrophy of the thyroid follicular cells. The follicular epithelial cells are tall, columnar, and more crowded than usual. These cells actively resorb the colloid in the centers of the follicles, resulting in the “scalloped” appearance of the edges of the colloid.

A

Graves Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 764

1629
Q

Goiter which occurs in areas where the soil, water and food supply contain little iodine.

A

Endemic goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

1630
Q

Diffuse, symmetric enlargement of the gland due to TSH-induced hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thyroid follicular cells.

A

Diffuse goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

1631
Q

Goiter characterized by enlarged, colloid-rich gland. On cut surface, the thyroid is usually brown, glassy and translucent.

A

Colloid goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

1632
Q

Irregular enlargement of the thyroid as a result of recurrent episodes of hyperplasia and involution.

A

Multinodular goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

1633
Q

Probability of being benign or malignant.A solitary nodule seen in a 20-yr old male.

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

1634
Q

Probability of being benign or malignant.Multiple, hot nodules.

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

1635
Q

Probability of being benign or malignant.A solitary, cold nodule.

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

1636
Q

A solitary, spherical lesion that compresses the adjacent non-neoplastic thyroid. Neoplastic cells are demarcated from the adjacent parenchyma by a well-defined, intact capsule, which is a hallmark of this tumor.

A

Thyroid adenoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

1637
Q

Most common carcinoma of the thyroid.

A

Papillary carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 767

1638
Q

Thyroid carcinoma which may occur at any age and is associated with previous exposure to ionizing radiation. The nuclei of cells contain very finely dispersed chromatin, which imparts an optically clear appearance, giving rise to the designation “ground-glass” or “Orphan Annie eye” nuclei.

A

Papillary carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 767

1639
Q

The second most common form of thyroid cancer. Usually present at an older age a peak incidence in the middle adult years. Microscopically, these are composed of fairly uniform cells forming small follicles, reminiscent of normal thyroid.

A

Follicular Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 769

1640
Q

Neuroendocrine neoplasms derived from the parafollicular cells, or C cells, of the thyroid, which secrete calcitonin. Associated with MEN 2A and 2B. May be solitary or multicentric, composed of polygonal to spindle-shaped cells, which may form nests, trabeculae, and follicles, contains amyloid.

A

Medullary carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 770

1641
Q

Carcinoma of the thyroid usually seen in the elderly. Associated with high mortality rate. These present as bulky masses that typically grow rapidly beyond the thyroid capsule into adjacent neck structures.

A

Anaplastic carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 771

1642
Q

A solitary lesion of the parathyroid gland which are composed predominantly of chief cells almost invariably confined to a single gland. A rim of compressed, non-neoplastic parathyroid tissue, generally separated by a fibrous capsule, is often visible at the edge of the adenoma.

A

Parathyroid adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 773

1643
Q

These tumors of the parathyroid glands are usually firm or hard tumors, adhering to the surrounding tissue as a result of fibrosis or infiltrative growth. May weigh >5 grams. The cytologic features and mitotic activity are variable.

A

Parathyroid carcinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 773

1644
Q

Inadvertent removal of parathyroids during thyroidectomy.

A

Surgical ablation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 775

1645
Q

An autoimmune disease characterized by progressive destruction of islet β cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency.

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 781

1646
Q

Caused by a combination of peripheral resistance to insulin action and an inadequate compensatory response of insulin secretion by the pancreatic β cells.

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 781

1647
Q

Vascular lesion associated with hypertension, which is more prevalent in diabetics.

A

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 781

1648
Q

A diffuse increase in mesangial matrix along with mesangial cell proliferation and is always associated with basement membrane thickening of the glomerulus. Seen in patients with diabetes mellitus.

A

Diffuse mesangial sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 783

1649
Q

A glomerular lesion made distinctive by ball-like deposits of a laminated matrix situated in the periphery of the glomerulus .

A

Nodular glomerulosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 783

1650
Q

The ball-like deposit seen in nodular glomerulosclerosis.

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 783

1651
Q

A special pattern of acute pyelonephritis seen more often in diabetics.

A

Necrotizing papillitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 784

1652
Q

Most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasms.

A

β-cell tumors (insulinomas) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 788

1653
Q

These benign tumors look remarkably like giant islets, with preservation of the regular cords of monotonous cells and their orientation to the vasculature.

A

Insulinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 788

1654
Q

What syndrome is described by the association of pancreatic islet cell lesions with hypersecretion of gastric acid and severe peptic ulceration?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 788

1655
Q

Tumors associated with increased serum glucagon and a syndrome consisting of mild diabetes mellitus, a characteristic skin rash (necrolytic migratory erythema), and anemia.

A

α-Cell tumors (glucagonomas) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 789

1656
Q

Most common cause of Cushing syndrome.

A

Administration of exogenous glucocorticoids(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 789

1657
Q

Primary hypothalamic-pituitary disease associated with oversecretion of ACTH. The adrenal glands characterized by variable degrees of bilateral nodular cortical hyperplasia.

A

Cushing disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 789

1658
Q

In this condition, the normal granular, basophilic cytoplasm of the ACTH-producing cells in the anterior pituitary is replaced by homogeneous, lightly basophilic material. This results from high levels of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

A

Crooke hyaline change(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 790

1659
Q

Lung cancer associated with a paraneoplastic syndrome leading to excessive production of ACTH.

A

Small-cell lung cancer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 792

1660
Q

Caused either by an aldosterone-producing adrenocortical neoplasm, usually an adenoma, or by primary adrenocortical hyperplasia, resulting in suppression of the renin-angiotensin system and decreased plasma renin activity.

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism/ Conn syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 792

1661
Q

A characteristic feature of aldesterone-producing adenomas which is the presence of eosinophilic, laminated cytoplasmic inclusions. These are typically found after treatment with the anti-hypertensive drug which is the DOC for primary hyperaldosteronism.

A

Spironolactone bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 792

1662
Q

The adrenals are hyperplastic bilaterally, sometimes expanding to 10 to 15 times their normal weights,due to sustained elevation in ACTH. The adrenal cortex is thickened and nodular, and on cut section, the widened cortex appears brown as a result of depletion of all lipid

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 793

1663
Q

Acute adrenal insufficiency caused by severe bilateral adrenal hemorrhage in an infant with overwhelming sepsis. The adrenals are grossly hemorrhagic and shrunken; microscopically, little residual cortical architecture is discernible

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 794

1664
Q

An uncommon disorder resulting from progressive destruction of the adrenal cortex. May be due to autoimmune adrenalitis, tuberculosis, AIDS, or metastatic cancers.

A

Addison disease/ chronic adrenocortical insufficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 794

1665
Q

The adrenals are reduced to small, flattened structures that usually retain their yellow color because of a small amount of residual lipid. Histologically, there is atrophy of cortical cells with loss of cytoplasmic lipid, particularly in the zonae fasciculata and reticularis, due to decreased ACTH stimulation.

A

Secondary hypoadrenalism (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 795

1666
Q

Characterized by irregularly shrunken glands, which may be exceedingly difficult to identify within the suprarenal adipose tissue. Histologically, the cortex contains only scattered residual cortical cells in a collapsed network of connective tissue.

A

Primary autoimmune adrenalitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 795

1667
Q

Neoplasms composed of chromaffin cells which synthesize and release catecholamines and other peptide hormones. Composed of polygonal to spindle-shaped chromaffin cells compartmentalized intonests, or “Zellballen,” by a rich vascular network.

A

Pheochromocytomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 797

1668
Q

Most common extra-cranial solid tumor of childhood. Occur most commonly during the first 5 years of life and may arise during infancy.

A

Neuroblastoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 798

1669
Q

Components of MEN1?

A

Parathyroid: Primary hyperparathyroidismPancreas: ZES, insulinoma, etc.Pituitary: prolactin-secreting macroadenoma, somatotrophin-secreting tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 798

1670
Q

Components of MEN2A?

A

Thyroid: Medullary carcinomaAdrenal medulla: pheochromocytomasParathyroid: parathyroid gland hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 799

1671
Q

Components of MEN2B?

A

Thyroid: Medullary carcinomaAdrenal medulla: pheochromocytomaExtraendocrine manifestations: ganglioneuromas of mucosal sites (gastrointestinal tract, lips, tongue) and marfanoid habitus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 799

1672
Q

All individuals carrying germ-line RET mutations are advised to undergo prophylactic thyroidectomy to prevent the development of what type of carcinoma?

A

Medullary Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1673
Q

What is the most common site of gastrinomas in individuals with MEN-1?

A

Duodenum (TOPNOTCH)

1674
Q

What is the most frequent anterior pituitary tumor encountered in individuals with MEN-1?

A

Prolactinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1675
Q

Morphology: demonstrates characteristic nests of cells (zellballen) with abundant cytoplasm

A

Pheochromocytomas (TOPNOTCH)

1676
Q

Morphology: the adrenals are grossly hemorrhagic and shrunken with little residual cortical architecture discernable

A

Waterhouse Friederichsen Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

1677
Q

What is the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in developed countries?

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis (TOPNOTCH)

1678
Q

Spirinolactone bodies are seen in what tumor?

A

Aldosterone producing adenomas (TOPNOTCH)

1679
Q

Crook hyaline change is seen in?

A

Cushing syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

1680
Q

Watery Diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria or WDHA syndrome is seen in?

A

VIPoma (TOPNOTCH)

1681
Q

Syndrome of mild DM, characteristic rash (necrolytic migratory erythema), and anemia is seen in what tumor?

A

Glucagonomas or alpha cell tumors (TOPNOTCH)

1682
Q

Syndrome of DM, cholelithiasis, steatorrhea, and hypochlorhydria is seen in what tumor?

A

Somatostatinoma or delta cell tumor (TOPNOTCH)

1683
Q

Approximately 60%-80% of patients with DM will develop some form of diabetic retinopathy after how many years from the time of diagnosis?

A

15-20 years (TOPNOTCH)

1684
Q

The fundamental lesion of DM retinopathy

A

neovascularization (TOPNOTCH)

1685
Q

What special pattern of acute pyelonephritis is common in diabetics compared to non diabetics?

A

Necrotizing papillitis or papillary necrosis (TOPNOTCH)

1686
Q

These are PAS positive glomerular lesions made distinctive by ball like deposits of laminated matrix situated in the periphery of the glomerulus

A

Nodular glomerulosclerosis or Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion (TOPNOTCH)

1687
Q

What are the three most important glomerular lesions seen in DM?

A

Basement membrane thickening, diffuse mesangial sclerosis, and nodular glomerulosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

1688
Q

What is the hallmark of diabetic macrovascular disease?

A

Accelerated atherosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

1689
Q

What is the most common cause of death in diabetics?

A

Myocardial Infarction (TOPNOTCH)

1690
Q

What morphological change seen in pancreas is more commonly associated with DM Type 2 than DM Type 1?

A

Amyloid replacement of islets (TOPNOTCH)

1691
Q

What is the hallmark of hypocalcemia?

A

Tetany (TOPNOTCH)

1692
Q

The most common cause of clinically apparent hypercalcemia

A

Malignancy (TOPNOTCH)

1693
Q

The most common cause of asymptomatic elevated blood calcium

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism (TOPNOTCH)

1694
Q

A peculiar feature of this type of thyroid carcinoma is the presence of multicentric C cell hyperplasia

A

Familial Medullary Cancers of the thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

1695
Q

Acellular amyloid deposits are seen in what type of thyroid cancer?

A

Medullary Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1696
Q

Morphology: fairly uniform cells forming small follicles containing colloid, quite reminiscent of normal thyroid

A

Follicular Carcinoma of the thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

1697
Q

These are concentrically calfcified structures that are often present in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

A

Psamomma bodies (TOPNOTCH)

1698
Q

Morphology: the nuclei of these tumor cells contain finely dispersed chromatic which imparts an optically clear or empty appearance, giving rise to the designation ground glass or Orphan Annie eye

A

Papillary Carcinoma of the thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

1699
Q

The major risk factor predisposing to thyroid cancer

A

Ionizing radiation, particularly in the first two decades of life (TOPNOTCH)

1700
Q

Morphology: diffuse hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thyroid follicular epithelial cells with scalloping of the margins

A

Graves disease (TOPNOTCH)

1701
Q

Morphology: lymphocytic infiltration with hyperplastic germinal centers within the thyroid parenchyma and patch disruption and collapse of thyroid follicles

A

Subacute lymphocytic or Painless thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

1702
Q

Morphology: thyroid parenchyma contains a chronic inflammatory infiltrate with multinucleate giant cells enclosing naked pools and fragments of colloid

A

Subacute or granulomatous thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

1703
Q

Morphology: the thyroid parenchyma contains a dense lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centers and deeply eosinophilic Hurthle cells line the residual thyroid follicles

A

Hashimoto Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

1704
Q

What variant of craniopharyngoma frequently contains radiologicaly demonstrable calcifications?

A

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngoma (TOPNOTCH)

1705
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperpituitarism?

A

Adenoma (TOPNOTCH)

1706
Q

Hypofunction of the anterior pituitary occurs when approximately how much of the parenchyma is lost?

A

75% (TOPNOTCH)

1707
Q

These cysts are lined by ciliated cuboidal epithelium with occasional goblet cells and anterior pituitary cells, can accumulate proteinaceous fluid and expand, compromising the normal gland

A

Rathke Cleft Cyst (TOPNOTCH)

1708
Q

The craniopharyngomas are thought to arise from what structure?

A

Vestigial remnants of Rathke pouch (TOPNOTCH)

1709
Q

What is the earliest and most consistent feature of hyperthyroidism?

A

Cardiac manifestations (TOPNOTCH)

1710
Q

This condition presents with impaired developments of the skeletal system and central nervous system, manifested by severe mental retardation, short stature, coarse facial features, a protruding tongue, and umbilical hernia

A

Cretinism (TOPNOTCH)

1711
Q

These are epithelial cells with abudant eosinophilic, granular ctyoplasm seen in Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

Hurthle cells (TOPNOTCH)

1712
Q

This is a rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis involving the thyroid and contiguous neck structures

A

Riedel thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

1713
Q

What is the most important feature in making the distinction between a thyroid adenoma and a multinodular goiter?

A

In adenoma, the neoplastic cells are demarcated from the adjacent parenchyma by a well defined intact capsule. In multinodular goiters, they lack a well formed capsule (TOPNOTCH)

1714
Q

What is the hallmark of all follicular adenomas?

A

Well formed capsule encircling the tumor. So, careful evaluation of the integrity of the capsule is therefore critical in distinguishing follicular adenomas from follicular carcinomas which demostrate capsular and or vascular invasion (TOPNOTCH)

1715
Q

What is the most common clinically significant congenital anomaly of the thyroid?

A

Thyroglossal duct or cyst (TOPNOTCH)

1716
Q

Lamellar keratin formation or “wet keratin” is a diagnostic feature of what tumor?

A

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngoma (TOPNOTCH)

1717
Q

Morphology: extensive infiltration of the parenchyma by a mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate containing small lymphocytes, plasma cells, and well developed germinal centers

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

1718
Q

Morphology: lymphocytic infiltration with hyperplastic germinal centers within the thyroid parenchyma and patch disruption and collapse of thyroid follicles. Fibrosis and Hurthle cells are not commonly seen

A

Subacute lymphocytic or painless thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

1719
Q

Morphology: in its hyperplastic phase, they thyroid gland is diffusely and symmetrically enlarged and the follicles are lined by crowded columnar cells, which may pile up and form projections similar to those seen in Grave’s disease

A

Diffuse nontoxic (simple) goiter (TOPNOTCH)

1720
Q

Morphology: Variant of papillary carcinos ma that is marked with tall columnar cells with intensely eosinophilic cytoplasm lining the papillary structures. The cells are at least twice as tall as they are wide.

A

Tall cell variant (TOPNOTCH)

1721
Q

Morphology: nuclei are usually round to ovoid, with stippled “salt ang pepper” chromatin

A

Pheochromocytoma (TOPNOTCH)

1722
Q

Known as “brittle bone disease”.

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

1723
Q

This is a group of hereditary disorders caused by defective synthesis of type I collagen. Classic finding of a “blue sclerae” is seen in one type of this disorder.

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

1724
Q

Characterized by , disproportionate shortening of the proximal extremities, bowing of the legs, and a lordotic (sway-backed) posture.

A

Achrondroplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

1725
Q

A group of rare genetic disorders characterized by reduced osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and therefore defective bone remodelling. Literally means “stone bone”.

A

Osteopetrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

1726
Q

The hallmark of this disease is loss of bone which tends to be most conspicuous in trabecular bone. The bony trabeculae are thinner and more widely separated than usual, resulting in an increased susceptibility to fractures.

A

Osteoporosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p804

1727
Q

Characterized by repetitive episodes of frenzied, regional osteoclastic activity and bone resorption, followed by exuberant bone formation, and finally by an apparent exhaustion of cellular activity. Pathognomonic feature is a “mosaic pattern” of lamellar bone.

A

Paget Disease (Osteitis Deformans) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p806

1728
Q

The hallmark of this disease is increased osteoclastic activity, with bone resorption. This leads to characteristic radiographic changes best seen along the radial aspect of the middle phalanges of the second and third fingers.

A

Hyperparathyroidism (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p808

1729
Q

Characterized by dead bone with empty lacunae is interspersed with areas of fat necrosis and insoluble calcium soaps. The cortex is usually not affected because of collateral blood supply.

A

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

1730
Q

Inflammation of the bone and marrow cavity.

A

Osteomyelitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

1731
Q

What do you call the dead entrapped bone seen in infected sites of bones affected with osteomyelitis?

A

Sequestrum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

1732
Q

What do you call the shell of living tissue around a segment of devitalized bone?

A

Involucrum (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

1733
Q

Benign bone tumor characterized as exophytic growths attached to bone surface of the face and skull, which may histologically resemble normal bone.

A

Osteoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

1734
Q

Benign bone tumor that are cortical tumors, histologically described as interlacing trabeculae of woven bone. Characteristic symptom is pain. Common locations include the metaphyses of the femur and tibia.

A

Osteoid osteoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

1735
Q

These bone-forming lesions arise in vertebral transverse and spinous processes of the vertebral column, which may be histologically similar to osteoid osteoma.

A

Osteoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

1736
Q

A bone-producing malignant mesenchymal tumor, characterized as gritty, gray-white tumors, often exhibiting hemorrhage and cystic degeneration. The production of mineralized or unmineralized bone (osteoid) by malignant cells is essential for diagnosis.

A

Osteosarcomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

1737
Q

These are relatively common benign hyaline cartilage-capped outgrowths attached by a bony stalk to the underlying skeleton.

A

Osteochondromas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

1738
Q

These are benign tumors of hyaline cartilage, described as gray-blue, translucent well-circumscribed nodules. May be seen in metaphyseal regions of tubular bones of the hands and feet. On x-ray, the unmineralized nodules of cartilage produce well-circumscribed oval lucencies surrounded by thin rims of radiodense bone (O-ring sign).

A

Enchondromas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

1739
Q

Chondromas seen on the bone surface.

A

Juxtacortical chondromas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

1740
Q

These lesions arise within the medullary cavity of the bone to form an expansile glistening mass that often erodes the cortex. They exhibit malignant hyaline and myxoid cartilage.

A

Conventional chondrosarcomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

1741
Q

These tumors are characterized as viscous and gelatinous, with the matrix oozing from the cut surface. Spotty calcifications are typically present, with central necrosis creating cystic spaces.

A

Myxoid chondrosarcomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p815

1742
Q

Presents as sharply demarcated radiolucencies surrounded by a thin zone of sclerosis. They are gray to yellow-brown, and microscopically are cellular lesions composed of cytologically benign fibroblasts and macrophages. The fibroblasts classically exhibit a “storiform (pinwheel) pattern”.

A

Fibrous Cortical Defect and Nonossifying Fibroma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p815

1743
Q

A benign tumor of the bone wherein all components of normal bone are present, but they fail to differentiate into mature structures. Curved trabeculae of woven bone mimick “Chinese characters” histologically.

A

Fibrous Dysplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p816

1744
Q

Primary malignant small round-cell tumor of bone and soft tissue, characterized by Sheets of small round cells with scant, cleared cytoplasm, circled about a central fibrillary space or “Homer-Wright rosettes”.

A

Ewing sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p817

1745
Q

A relatively uncommon benign tumor usually arising in individuals in their 20s to 40s. These are large and red-brown lesions with frequent cystic degeneration, composed of uniform oval mononuclear cells with frequent mitoses, with scattered osteoclast-type giant cells containing 100 or more nuclei.

A

Giant-cell tumors (GCTs)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p817

1746
Q

These are the most common malignant tumor of bone.

A

Metastatic tumors (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p818

1747
Q

Pathways of metastasis to the bone.

A

1) direct extension, (2) lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination, (3) intraspinal seeding(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p818

1748
Q

Characterized by fibrillation and cracking of the articular cartilage matrix, bone eburnation, and bony outgrowths/spurs (osteophytes). Full-thickness portions of the cartilage are lost, and the subchondral bone plate is exposed.

A

Osteoarthritis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p819

1749
Q

Characterized by a dense neutrophilic infiltrate permeating the synovium and synovial fluid. Long, slender, needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals are frequently found in the cytoplasm of the neutrophils as well as in small clusters in the synovium.

A

Acute gouty arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

1750
Q

Results from repetitive precipitation of urate crystals during acute attacks. The synovium becomes hyperplastic, fibrotic, and thickened by inflammatory cells, forming a pannus that destroys the underlying cartilage.

A

Chronic tophaceous arthritis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

1751
Q

Formed by large aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by an intense inflammatory reaction of lymphocytes, macrophages, and foreign-body giant cells, attempting to engulf the masses of crystals. Pathognomonic feature of gout.

A

Tophi (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

1752
Q

Refers to multiple different renal complications associated with urate deposition, variously forming medullary tophi, intratubular precipitations, or free uric acid crystals and renal calculi.

A

Gouty nephropathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

1753
Q

Also known as chondrocalcinosis or-more formally-calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease. The crystals are weakly birefringent, rhomboid in shape with blunted ends.

A

Pseudogout (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p823

1754
Q

Main causative agent of suppurative arthritis in children under 2 years old.

A

Haemophilus influenzae(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

1755
Q

Main causative agent of suppurative arthritis in older children and adults.

A

Staphylococcus aureus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

1756
Q

Main causative agent of suppurative arthritis in late adolescence and young adulthood.

A

Neisseria gonorrhea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

1757
Q

Individuals with sickle cell disease are prone to developing osteomyelitis and suppurative arthritis caused by this agent.

A

Salmonella(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

1758
Q

Arthritis caused by infection with the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted by deer ticks of the Ixodes ricinus complex.

A

Lyme arthritis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

1759
Q

A small (<1.5 cm) cyst located near a joint capsule or tendon sheath, most commonly the wrist, which manifest as a firm to fluctuant pea-sized nodule.

A

Ganglion cyst(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p825

1760
Q

The most severe and the most common form of muscular dystrophy. Characterized by marked variation in muscle fiber size, caused by concomitant myofiber hypertrophy and atrophy. The definitive diagnosis is based on the demonstration of abnormal staining for “dystrophin” in immunohistochemical preparations.

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p825

1761
Q

This can present as either acute or chronic proximal muscle weakness, and can precede the onset of other signs of thyroid dysfunction. Findings include myofiber necrosis, regeneration, and interstitial lymphocytes.

A

Thyrotoxic myopathy (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

1762
Q

This can occur with binge drinking, where there is an acute toxic rhabdomyolysis with accompanying myoglobinuria that can cause renal failure. On histology, there is myocyte swelling and necrosis, myophagocytosis, and regeneration.

A

Ethanol myopathy (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

1763
Q

An autoimmune disorder of the neuromuscular junction characterized by muscle weakness which first manifests in the extraocular muscles. Caused by circulating antibodies to the skeletal muscle acetylcholine receptors (AChRs).

A

Myasthenia gravis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

1764
Q

This syndrome characteristically develops as a paraneoplastic process most commonly in the setting of small-cell lung carcinoma. Presents with muscle weakness secondary to decreased vesicle release in response to presynaptic action potential.

A

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

1765
Q

Soft tissue tumor which presents as soft, gelatinous, grapelike masses on the surfaces of the bladder or vagina.

A

Sarcoma botryoides(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

1766
Q

It is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of childhood and adolescence, usually appearing before age 20.

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p831

1767
Q

Diagnostic cell in rhabdomyosarcoma, characterized as round or elongated cells that may contain cross-striations visible by light microscopy.

A

Tadpole or strap cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p831

1768
Q

Soft, yellow, well-encapsulated masses of mature adipocytes; they can vary considerably in size. Histologically, they consist of mature white fat cells with no pleomorphism

A

Lipoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p832

1769
Q

Malignant neoplasms of adipocytes, which usually present as relatively well-circumscribed lesions. Diagnostic feature are lipoblasta, similar to fetal fat cells, with cytoplasmic lipid vacuoles that scallop the nucleus.

A

Liposarcomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p833

1770
Q

A self-limited, reactive fibroblastic proliferation that typically occurs in adults on the volar aspect of the forearm. Consists of plump, randomly arranged, immature-appearing fibroblasts in an abundant myxoid stroma. Not a true tumor.

A

Nodular Fasciitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p833

1771
Q

This develops in the proximal muscles of the extremities in athletic adolescents and young adults after trauma. Distinguished from other fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of metaplastic bone. Excision is curative.

A

Myositis Ossificans (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p833

1772
Q

Malignant neoplasms composed of fibroblasts. These are soft unencapsulated, infiltrative masses frequently with areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. Malignant spindle cells are arranged in a “herringbone pattern”.

A

Fibrosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p834

1773
Q

These are relatively common benign lesions in adults presenting as circumscribed, small (

A

Benign Fibrous Histiocytoma (Dermatofibroma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p834

1774
Q

A variety of soft tissue sarcomas Characterized by considerable cytologic pleomorphism, the presence of bizarre multinucleate cells, and “storiform” architecture .

A

Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p834

1775
Q

Benign smooth muscle tumors described as well-circumscribed neoplasms that can arise from smooth muscle cells anywhere in the body, but are encountered most commonly in the uterus.

A

Leiomyoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p835

1776
Q

These commonly present as firm, painless masses of the skin, deep soft tissues of the extermities and retroperitoneum. Histologically, they show spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei arranged in interweaving fascicles.

A

Leiomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p835

1777
Q

What is the mineral that gives bone strength and hardness and is the storehouse for 99% of the body’s calcium, 85% of the body’s phosphorous, and 65% of the body’s sodium and magnesium?

A

Calcium Hydroxyapatite (TOPNOTCH)

1778
Q

Of all the proteins in the bone matrix, which one is unique to the bone?

A

Osteocalcin (TOPNOTCH)

1779
Q

Identify the bone cell: responsible for bone resorption

A

Osteoclast (TOPNOTCH)

1780
Q

Identify the bone cell: most numerous than any other bone forming cell

A

Osteocytes (TOPNOTCH)

1781
Q

Identify the bone cell: initiate the process of mineralization and express cell surface receptors that bind many hormones

A

Osteoblasts (TOPNOTCH)

1782
Q

What is the functional unit of bone?

A

Osteoblast and Osteoclast act in coordination and are considered the functional unit of bone known as the Basic Multicellular Unit (TOPNOTCH)

1783
Q

In what part of the bone can you see the histological abnormalities seen in achondroplasia?

A

Growth plate (TOPNOTCH)

1784
Q

Gross appearance: lack a medullary canal and the end of long bones are bulbous (Erlenmeyer Flask Deformity) and misshapen. The neural foramina are small and compress exiting nerves

A

Osteopetrosis (TOPNOTCH)

1785
Q

What is the main defect in Osteopetrosis?

A

Deficient Osteoblastic Activity (TOPNOTCH)

1786
Q

Osteoporosis cannot be reliably detected in plain radiographs until how much of the bone mass is lost?

A

30-40% (TOPNOTCH)

1787
Q

What is the histologic hallmark of Paget Disease of the bone?

A

Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone (Jigsaw pattern) (TOPNOTCH)

1788
Q

A variety of tumor and tumor like conditions develop in pagetic bone. However, what is the most dreaded complication of this condition?

A

Sarcoma (Osteosarcoma > Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma, or chondrosarcoma) (TOPNOTCH)

1789
Q

80% of cases, what bone is involved in Paget DIsease?

A

Axial skeleton and proximal femur (TOPNOTCH)

1790
Q

What is the most common site of tuberculous osteomyelitis?

A

Spine (thoracic and lumbar) > knees and hips (TOPNOTCH)

1791
Q

Most cases of osteomyelitis reach the bone via what route?

A

Hematogenous (TOPNOTCH)

1792
Q

What do you call a small intraosseous abscess that frequently involves the cortex and is walled off by reactive bone?

A

Brodie abscess (TOPNOTCH)

1793
Q

What do you call the morphologic variant of osteomyelitis that typically develops in the jaw and is associated with extensive new bone formation that obscures much of the underlying osseous structures?

A

Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre (TOPNOTCH)

1794
Q

What do you call a dead piece of bone?

A

Sequestrum (TOPNOTCH)

1795
Q

Reactive woven or lamellar bone may be deposited and when it forms a sleeve of living tissue around a segment of devitalized bone, it is known as?

A

Involucrum (TOPNOTCH)

1796
Q

Morphology: Edematous granulation tissue containing numerous plasma cells and necrotic bone

A

Congenital Syphilitic Bone infection and Acquired syphillis (TOPNOTCH)

1797
Q

What is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone, exclusive of myeloma and lymphoma, and accounts for approximately 20% of primary bone cancers.

A

Osteosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1798
Q

What are the 3 conditions associated with the development of osteosarcoma?

A
  1. Paget disease2. Bone infarcts3. Prior irradiation (TOPNOTCH)
1799
Q

What part of the bone do osteosarcomas usually arise?

A

Metaphyseal region of the long bone of the extremities, 60% occur about the knee. (TOPNOTCH)

1800
Q

Morphology: Coarse, lacelike pattern of neoplastic bone produced by anaplastic malignant tumor cells

A

Osteosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1801
Q

Morphology: sheets of uniform small, round cells that are slightly larger than lymphocytes with small amounts of clear cytoplasm.

A

Ewing Sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1802
Q

Morphology: Presence of Homer Write rosettes ( tumor cells are arranged in a circle about a central fibrillary space)

A

Ewing Sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1803
Q

The diagnostic cell of embryonal, alveolar, and pleomorphic variants of Rhabdomyosarcoma which contains eccentric eosinophilic granular cytoplasm rich in thick and thin filaments

A

Rhabdomyoblast (TOPNOTCH)

1804
Q

Tadpole or strap cells are seen in what soft tissue tumor?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1805
Q

Morphology: characterized by malignant spindle cells that have cigar shaped nuclei arranged in interweaving fascicles.

A

Leiomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1806
Q

Morphology: histological hallmark is the dual line of differentiation of tumor cells, epithelial like cells and spindle cells

A

Synovial Sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1807
Q

Gross morphology: unencapsulated, infiltrative, soft, fish flesh masses, often having areas of hemorrhage and necrosis

A

Fibrosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1808
Q

These cells mimic fetal fat cells and contain round clear cytoplasmic vacuoles of lipid that scallop the nucleus. Seen in liposarcoma.

A

Lipoblasts (TOPNOTCH)

1809
Q

Morphology: consist of mature white fat cells with no pleomorphism

A

Lipoma (TOPNOTCH)

1810
Q

Pathognomonic hallmark of gout

A

Tophi (TOPNOTCH)

1811
Q

What are the most common cutaneous lesions seen in RA?

A

Rheumatoid Nodules (TOPNOTCH)

1812
Q

The most important factors in the development of Osteoarthritis

A

Aging and mechanical effects (TOPNOTCH)

1813
Q

Bone eburnation and joint mice are seen in what disease entity?

A

Osteoarthritis (TOPNOTCH)

1814
Q

The most common cancers that metastasize to the bone are?

A

Prostate, breast, kidney, and lung (TOPNOTCH)

1815
Q

What bones are most commonly involved in skeletal metastasis?

A

In descending order: Axial skeleton ( vertebral column, pelvis, ribs, skull, and sternum), proximal femur, and humerus (TOPNOTCH)

1816
Q

Skeletal metastases are typically multifocal, however, what carcinomas that metastasize to the bone are notorious for producing solitary lesions?

A

Ca of Kidney and Thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

1817
Q

morphology: uniform oval mononuclear cells that have indistinct cell membranes and appear to grow in syncitium with scattered numerous osteoclast type giants cells having 100 or more nuclei that have identical features to those of the mononuclear cells

A

Giant cell Tumor (TOPNOTCH)

1818
Q

Morphology: trabeculae mimic chinese characters

A

Fibrous Dysplasia (TOPNOTCH)

1819
Q

Morphology: Storiform pattern or pinwheel pattern created by benign spindle cells with scattered osteoclast

A

Fibrous cortical defect and nonossifying fibroma (TOPNOTCH)

1820
Q

What is the primary characteristic of osteosarcoma?

A

The formation of bone by the tumor cells (TOPNOTCH)

1821
Q

The combined picture of increased bone cell activity, peritrabecular fibrosis, and cystic brown tumors is the hallmark of what disease of abnormal mineral homeostasis?

A

Hyperparathyroidism (Generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica or von Recklinghausen disease of the bone) (TOPNOTCH)

1822
Q

What is the xray pattern that is virtually diagnostic of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Subperiosteal resorption producing thinned cortices in the middle phalanges of the index and middle finger and loss of the lamina dura around the teeth (TOPNOTCH)

1823
Q

What is the most important prognostic feature of a bone sarcoma?

A

Histological grade (TOPNOTCH)

1824
Q

O ring sign is seen in what cartilage forming tumor?

A

Chondroma (TOPNOTCH)

1825
Q

Morphology: chicken wire pattern of mineralizaton

A

Chondroblastoma (TOPNOTCH)

1826
Q

Myositis ossificans is distinguised from the other fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of what structure?

A

Metaplastic bone (TOPNOTCH)

1827
Q

This term is the accumulation of edema fluid within the epidermis. Characterizes all forms of eczamatous dermatitis.

A

Spongiosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 839

1828
Q

An uncommon, usually self-limited disorder that seems to be a hypersensitivity response to certain infections and drugs. Patients present with an array of “multiform” lesions, including macules, papules, vesicles, and bullae, as well as the characteristic targetoid lesion consisting of a red macule or papule with a pale vesicular or eroded center.

A

Erythema Multiforme (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 840

1829
Q

In this skin disorder, there is marked epidermal thickening (acanthosis), and loss of the stratum granulosum with extensive overlying parakeratotic scale. The most typical lesion is a well-demarcated, pink to salmon-colored plaque covered by loosely adherent silver-white scale.

A

Psoriasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

1830
Q

This sign is described as bleeding upon removal of scales from the lesions of psoriasis.

A

Auspitz sign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

1831
Q

Small aggregates of neutrophils within the parakeratotic stratum corneum in psoriasis.

A

Munro microabscesses(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

1832
Q

Small aggregates of neutrophils within the spongiotic superficial epidermis in psoriasis.

A

Pustules of Kogoj(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

1833
Q

Layer of the skin which is affected in psoriasis.

A

S. granulosum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

1834
Q

“Pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules, and plaques” describes this disorder of the skin and mucosa. The pattern of inflammation of this disorder is characterized by angulated, zigzag contour (“sawtoothing”) of the dermoepidermal junction.

A

Lichen Planus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

1835
Q

Anucleate, necrotic basal cells seen in the inflamed papillary dermis of patients with lichen planus are called?

A

Colloid bodies or Civatte bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

1836
Q

Presents as roughening of the skin that takes on an appearance reminiscent of “lichen on a tree”. It is a response to local repetitive trauma such as continual rubbing or scratching.

A

Lichen Simplex Chronicus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 842

1837
Q

Common lesions of children and adolescents, caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Histologic features include epidermal hyperplasia that is often undulant in character, and cytoplasmic vacuolization (koilocytosis).

A

Verrucae (warts)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 843

1838
Q

The most common type of wart. Occurs anywhere but are found most frequently on the hands, particularly on the dorsal surfaces and periungual areas, where they appear as gray-white to tan, flat to convex, 0.1- to 1-cm papules with a rough, pebble-like surface.

A

Verruca vulgaris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

1839
Q

These warts are common on the face or dorsal surfaces of the hands. These warts are flat, smooth, tan macules.

A

Verruca plana/flat wart(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

1840
Q

These warts occur on the soles and palms. Described as rough, scaly lesions that may reach 1 to 2 cm in diameter, coalesce, and be confused with ordinary calluses.

A

Verruca plantaris and verruca palmaris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

1841
Q

These warts occurs on the penis, female genitalia, urethra, and perianal areas.

A

Condyloma acuminatum (venereal wart) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

1842
Q

A rare autoimmune blistering disorder resulting from loss of integrity of normal intercellular attachments within the epidermis and mucosal epithelium. Caused by a type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

Pemphigus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

1843
Q

Common histologic denominator in all forms of pemphigus, described as the lysis of the intercellular adhesion sites.

A

Acantholysis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

1844
Q

In this variant of pemphigus, acantholysis selectively involves the layer of cells immediately above the basal cell layer, giving rise to a suprabasal acantholytic blister. There is uniform deposition of immunoglobulin and complement along the cell membranes of keratinocytes, producing a characteristic “fishnet” appearance.

A

Pemphigus vulgaris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

1845
Q

In this variant of pemphigus, acantholysis selectively involves the superficial epidermis at the level of the stratum granulosum.

A

Pemphigus foliaceus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

1846
Q

An autoimmune disease in which the characteristic finding is linear deposition of IgG antibodies and complement in the basement membrane zone. Characterized by a subepidermal, nonacantholytic full-thickness epidermal fluid-filled blister.

A

Bullous pemphigoid (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 846

1847
Q

A rare disorder characterized by urticaria and grouped vesicles. Fibrin and neutrophils accumulate selectively at the tips of dermal papillae, forming small microabscesses, which coalesce to form a subepidermal blister. On immunofluorescence, granular deposits of IgA are localized at the tips of dermal papillae.

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 846

1848
Q

These common epidermal tumors occur most frequently in middle-aged or older individuals. The lesions consist of an orderly proliferation of uniform, benign basaloid keratinocytes with a tendency to form keratin microcysts (horn cysts), which has a “stuck-on” appearance on the skin.

A

Seborrheic keratosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 849

1849
Q

These are rare tumors that primarily occur in the head and neck region of older individuals. They usually present as flesh-colored papules and can be a marker for an internal malignancy.

A

Sebaceous Adenoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 849

1850
Q

These lesion is usually the result of chronic exposure to sunlight and is associated with hyperkeratosis. The dermis contains thickened, blue-gray elastic fibers or “solar elastosis” which is the result of chronic sun damage.

A

Actinic keratoses(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 850

1851
Q

Acronym for remembering the histologic features of actinic keratoses.

A

“Sunny” SPAINS - solar elastoses (dermal sun damage)P - parakeratosisA - atypia (keratinocytic)I - inflammationN - not full thickness atypia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 850

1852
Q

A common tumor arising on sun-exposed sites in older people, with higher incidence in women. Arise from prior actinic keratoses. Characterized by highly anaplastic, rounded cells with foci of necrosis and only abortive, single-cell keratinization (dyskeratosis).

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 851

1853
Q

This is the most common human cancer, which is a slow-growing tumor that rarely metastasizes. tends to occur at sites subject to chronic sun exposure and in lightly pigmented people. h

A

Basal cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 852

1854
Q

These tumors present as pearly, smooth-surfaced papules, often containing prominent, dilated subepidermal blood vessels (telangiectasia). The cells have scant cytoplasm, small hyperchromatic nuclei, and a peripheral palisade with clefting from the stroma.

A

Basal cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 852

1855
Q

This refers to any benign congenital or acquired neoplasm of melanocytes.

A

Melanocytic nevus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 853

1856
Q

These are large nevi and may occur as hundreds of lesions on the body surface. They are flat macules to slightly raised plaques, with a “pebbly” surface. Considered as a marker of melanoma risk.

A

Dysplastic nevi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 854

1857
Q

This cancer of the skin may develop from a dysplastic nevus, and results from excessive sun exposure. Malignant cells have large nuclei with irregular contours having chromatin characteristically clumped at the periphery of the nuclear membrane and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli often described as “cherry red”. Has both radial and vertical growth phases.

A

Melanoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 855

1858
Q

This determines the biologic behavior of melanomas.

A

Nature and extent of the vertical growth phase (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 857

1859
Q

What is the most common type of all autoimmune blistering disordering of the skin (pemphigus)?

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris(TOPNOTCH)

1860
Q

Histologically, what is the most common denominator in all forms of pemphigus?

A

Acantholysis (TOPNOTCH)

1861
Q

Morphology: Subepidermal nonacantholytic blisters

A

Bullous Pemphigoid (TOPNOTCH)

1862
Q

Morphology: Suprabasal acantholytic blister

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris (TOPNOTCH)

1863
Q

Morphology: Characteristically, fibrin and neutrophils accumulate selectively at the tips of the dermal papillae forming small microabscesses

A

Dermatitis Herpetiformis (Seen in Celiac Disease) (TOPNOTCH)

1864
Q

Morphology: accumulation of neutrophils beneath the stratum corneum

A

Impetigo (TOPNOTCH)

1865
Q

Munro microabscesses is classically seen in?

A

Psoriasis (TOPNOTCH)

1866
Q

Auspitz sign is associated with what condition?

A

Psoriasis (TOPNOTCH)

1867
Q

Pearly papules often containing prominent, dilated subepidermal blood vessels (telangiectasias)

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1868
Q

What is the most commonly accepted exogenous cause of squamous cel carcinoma of the skin?

A

Exposure to UV light (TOPNOTCH)

1869
Q

Cutaneous horns are seen in what condition?

A

Actinic Keratosis (TOPNOTCH)

1870
Q

What factor is the most important in the determining the biological behavior of malignant melanoma? Vertical or Radial growth?

A

Vertical growth (TOPNOTCH)

1871
Q

Morphology: characterized by loss of melanocytes

A

Albinism (TOPNOTCH)

1872
Q

In albinism, melanocytes are present but melanin pigment is not produced due to what enzyme deficiency or defect?

A

Tyrosinase (TOPNOTCH)

1873
Q

Q: + for melanocyte-associated proteins such as tyrosinase or Melan-A or S

A

Vitiligo (TOPNOTCH)

1874
Q

The early developmental stage in melanocytic nevi is called?

A

Junctional nevi (TOPNOTCH)

1875
Q

Most junctional nevi grow into the underlying dermis as nests or cords of cells and are calle

A

compound nevi (TOPNOTCH)

1876
Q

When all the epidermal nests of compound nevi are lost entirely they form what

A

intradermal nevi (TOPNOTCH)

1877
Q

Appears to play an important role in the development of skin malignant melanoma

A

Sunlight (TOPNOTCH)

1878
Q

What are the 5 clinical warning signs of melanoma?

A
  1. enlargement of a pre-existing mle2. itching or pain in pre-existing mole3. development of a new pigment lesion during adult life4. irregularity of the borders of a pigment lesion5. variegation of color within a pigmented lesion (TOPNOTCH)
1879
Q

Morphology: proliferations of basaloid cells with formation of prominent keratin filled “horn” cysts

A

Seborrheic keratosis (TOPNOTCH)

1880
Q

Appears clinically as flesh-colored, dome shaped nodules with central, keratin filled plug, imparting a crater like topography

A

Keratoacanthoma (TOPNOTCH)

1881
Q

Morphology: Central, keratin filled crater surrounded by proliferating epitheal cells that extend upward in a lip-like fashion over the sides of the crater and downward into the dermis as irregular tongues

A

keratoacanthoma (TOPNOTCH)

1882
Q

The most important clinical sign of malignant melanoma

A

change in color, size, or shape in a pigmented lesion (TOPNOTCH)

1883
Q

In Malignant Melanoma, what type of growth indicated the tendency of a melanoma to grow horizontally within the epidermal and superficial dermal layers, often for a prolonged period of time?

A

Radial growth (TOPNOTCH)

1884
Q

In Malignant Melanoma, what are the determinants of a more favorable prognosis?

A
  1. Tumor depth of less than 1.7 mm2. Absence or low numbers of mitoses3. Presence of a brisk TIL response (Tumor Infiltrating Leukocytes)4. Absence of regression 5. Female gender6. Location on extremity skin (TOPNOTCH)
1885
Q

This pattern of neuronal cell injury leads to shrunken individual cell bodies and nuclei. They are prominently stained by eosin, leading to the term “red neurons.”

A

Acute hypoxic/ischemic injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 860

1886
Q

These are round, faintly basophilic, PAS-positive, concentrically lamellated aggregates of polyglucosans that range between 5 and 50 μm, and are located wherever there are astrocytic end processes, especially in the subpial and perivascular zones, seen more frequently with advancing age.

A

Corpora amylacea (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1887
Q

Cells which produce myelin in the CNS.

A

Oligodendrocytes (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1888
Q

Cells which line the ventricles, and are located in the region of the obliterated central canal of the spinal cord.

A

Ependymal cells (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1889
Q

These are responsible for the secretion of CSF. It has a specialized epithelial covering with a fibrovascular stroma that may contain meningothelial cells.

A

Choroid plexus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1890
Q

These are bone marrow-derived cells that function as the phagocytes of the CNS.

A

Microglia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1891
Q

IT is the accumulation of excess fluid within the brain parenchyma. The brain is softer than normal and often appears to “overfill” the cranial vault. In generalized edema the gyri are flattened, the intervening sulci are narrowed, and the ventricular cavities are compressed.

A

Cerebral Edema (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1892
Q

This occurs when the integrity of the normal blood-brain barrier is disrupted. With increased vascular permeability, fluid shifts from the vascular compartment into the intercellular spaces of the brain.

A

Vasogenic edema (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1893
Q

This is due to an increase in intracellular fluid secondary to neuronal, glial, or endothelial cell membrane injury, as might be encountered in an individual with a generalized hypoxic/ischemic insult or with exposure to some toxins.

A

Cytotoxic edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

1894
Q

Refers to the accumulation of CSF leading to dilation of the ventricular system which resulted from an obstacle or disruption of flow seen most commonly at the foramen of Monroe or aqueduct of Sylvius.

A

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

1895
Q

Refers to the accumulation of CSF leading to dilation of the ventricular system due to reduced resorption of CSF. All of the ventricular system is enlarged.

A

Communicating hydrocephalus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

1896
Q

This refers to dilation of the ventricular system with a compensatory increase in CSF volume secondary to a loss of brain parenchyma, as may occur after infarcts or with a degenerative disease.

A

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

1897
Q

This ccurs when unilateral or asymmetric expansion of a cerebral hemisphere displaces the cingulate gyrus under the edge of falx. This may be associated with compression of branches of the anterior cerebral artery.

A

Subfalcine (cingulate) herniation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

1898
Q

This occurs when the medial aspect of the temporal lobe is compressed against the free margin of the tentorium. As the temporal lobe is displaced, the third cranial nerve is compromised, resulting in pupillary dilation and impairment of ocular movements on the side of the lesion (“blown pupil”).

A

Transtentorial (uncinate) herniation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

1899
Q

This refers to displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. This pattern of herniation is life-threatening, because it causes brain stem compression and compromises vital respiratory and cardiac centers in the medulla.

A

Tonsillar herniation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

1900
Q

These linear or flame-shaped lesions usually occur in the midline and paramedian regions, which are hemorrhagic lesions that accompany transtentorial herniation. Presence of these lesion implies poor prognosis.

A

Duret hemorrhages(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

1901
Q

In the setting of this condition, the brain is swollen, with wide gyri and narrowed sulci. The cut surface shows poor demarcation between gray and white matter. Results from generalized reduction of cerebral perfusion, usually below systolic pressures of less than 50mmHg.

A

Global Cerebral Ischemia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

1902
Q

These are wedge-shaped areas of infarction that occur in those regions of the brain and spinal cord that lie at the most distal fields of arterial perfusion.

A

Border zone (“watershed”) infarcts(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

1903
Q

Pattern of necrosis seen in nonhemorrhagic infarcts of the brain.

A

Liquefaction necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

1904
Q

This is a disease in which amyloidogenic peptides are deposit in the walls of medium- and small-caliber meningeal and cortical vessels, which results in the weakening of the vessel wall and increases the risk of hemorrhage.

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

1905
Q

Hemorrhages associated with cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) are called due to involvement of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

Lobar hemorrhages(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

1906
Q

The most frequent cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage. It is a thin-walled outpouching of an artery. At the neck of the aneurysm, the muscular wall and intimal elastic lamina stop short and are absent from the aneurysm sac itself; the sac is made up of thickened hyalinized intima. The adventitia covering the sac is continuous with that of the parent artery

A

Saccular (berry) aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 866

1907
Q

Patients with this type of intracranial hemorrhage complains of having “the worst headache I’ve ever had”/ thunderclap headache.

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 866

1908
Q

Most common location for berry/saccular aneurysms.

A

Anterior communicating artery in the Circle of WIllis (40%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 867

1909
Q

This is a disease in which amyloidogenic peptides are deposit in the walls of medium- and small-caliber meningeal and cortical vessels, which results in the weakening of the vessel wall and increases the risk of hemorrhage.

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

1910
Q

Hemorrhages associated with cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) are called due to involvement of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

Lobar hemorrhages(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

1911
Q

The most frequent cause of clinically significant subarachnoid hemorrhage.

A

Rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 866

1912
Q

A type of vascular malformation which are characterized by of ectatic venous channels.

A

Venous angiomas (varices) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1913
Q

Most common location for berry aneurysms.

A

Anterior communicating artery in the Circle of WIllis (40%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 867

1914
Q

The involved vessels in this condition resemble a tangled network of wormlike vascular channels. Microscopically, they are enlarged blood vessels separated by gliotic tissue, often with evidence of prior hemorrhage.

A

Arteriovenous malformations (AVM)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1915
Q

This is an inflammatory disorder that involves multiple small to medium-sized parenchymal and subarachnoid vessels and is characterized by chronic inflammation, multinucleated giant cells and destruction of the vessel wall. Affected individuals manifest a diffuse encephalopathic clinical picture, often with cognitive dysfunction; improvement occurs with steroid and immunosuppressive treatment.

A

Primary angiitis of the CNS (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1916
Q

A type of vascular malformation which are characterized by microscopic foci of dilated, thin-walled vascular channels separated by relatively normal brain parenchyma and occurring most frequently in the pons.

A

Capillary telangiectasias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1917
Q

Injury which may occur from collision of the brain with the skull opposite the site of impact.

A

Contrecoup injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1918
Q

Minute aneurysms in vessels that are less than 300 μm in diameter, associated with chronic hypertension.

A

Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1919
Q

This leads to accumulation of arterial blood between the dura and the skull. The expanding hematoma has a smooth inner contour that compresses the brain surface. Clinically, patients may experience a lucid interval between the moment of trauma and development of neurologic symptoms.

A

Epidural Hematoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 870

1920
Q

This is an inflammatory disorder that involves multiple small to medium-sized parenchymal and subarachnoid vessels and is characterized by chronic inflammation, multinucleated giant cells and destruction of the vessel wall. Affected individuals manifest a diffuse encephalopathic clinical picture, often with cognitive dysfunction; improvement occurs with steroid and immunosuppressive treatment.

A

Primary angiitis of the CNS (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1921
Q

This describes reversible altered consciousness from head injury in the absence of contusion. The characteristic transient neurologic dysfunction includes loss of consciousness, temporary respiratory arrest, and loss of reflexes.

A

Concussion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 869

1922
Q

Injury which may occur from collision of the brain with the skull opposite the site of impact.

A

Contrecoup injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1923
Q

These are wedge shaped lesions of the brain parenchyma which occur secondary to trauma. The broad base of the wedge spans the surface and centered on the point of impact.

A

Contusions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

1924
Q

Clinically, patients may experience a lucid interval between the moment of trauma and development of neurologic symptoms.

A

Epidural Hematoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 870

1925
Q

Blood vessel involved in epidural hematoma.

A

Middle meningeal artery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 870

1926
Q

This describes reversible altered consciousness from head injury in the absence of contusion. The characteristic transient neurologic dysfunction includes loss of consciousness, temporary respiratory arrest, and loss of reflexes.

A

Concussion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 869

1927
Q

This is a diverticulum of malformed CNS tissue extending through a defect in the cranium. It most often involves the occipital region or the posterior fossa.

A

Encephalocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1928
Q

Blood vessels involved in subdural hemorrhage.

A

Bridging veins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 870

1929
Q

This is an extension of CNS tissue through a defect in the vertebral column, most commonly in the lumbosacral region. both The meninges and spinal cord parenchyma are included in the cystlike structure visible just above the buttocks.

A

Myelomeningocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1930
Q

Herniation of the meninges through a defect in the vertebral column.

A

Meningocoele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1931
Q

This is a malformation of the anterior end of the neural tube, with absence of the brain and top of skull.

A

Anencephaly(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1932
Q

This is a diverticulum of malformed CNS tissue extending through a defect in the cranium. It most often involves the occipital region or the posterior fossa.

A

Encephalocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1933
Q

Cerebral malformation characterized by an enlarged posterior fossa. The cerebellar vermis is absent, and replaced by a large, midline cyst that is lined by ependyma and is contiguous with leptomeninges on its outer surface.

A

Dandy-Walker malformation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1934
Q

Characterized by an increased number of irregularly formed gyri that result in an irregular bumpy or cobblestone-like surface.

A

Polymicrogyria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1935
Q

Characterized by a disruption of the normal midline patterning. In severe forms the brain is not divided into hemispheres or lobes and may be associated with facial midline defects like cyclopia.

A

Holoprosencephaly (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1936
Q

Consists of a small posterior fossa and a misshapen midline cerebellum with downward extension of vermis through the foramen magnum; hydrocephalus and a lumbar myelomeningocele are typically also present.

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1937
Q

Consists of low-lying cerebellar tonsils which extend through the foramen magnum at the base of the skull. This can lead to obstruction of CSF flow and compression of the medulla, resulting in symptoms of headache or cranial nerve deficits.

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1938
Q

Cerebral malformation characterized by an enlarged posterior fossa. The cerebellar vermis is absent, and replaced by a large, midline cyst that is lined by ependyma and is contiguous with leptomeninges on its outer surface.

A

Dandy-Walker malformation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

1939
Q

Spinal cord abnormality characterized by a discontinuous or confluent expansion of the ependyma-lined central canal of the cord.

A

Hydromyelia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 873

1940
Q

CSF findings in bacterial meningitis.

A

Increased pressureabundant neurophilsprotein - elevatedglucose - reduced(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

1941
Q

This is an inflammatory process of the leptomeninges and CSF within the subarachnoid space.

A

Meningitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

1942
Q

In acute cases of this condition, an exudate is evident within the leptomeninges over the surface of the brain. On microscopic examination, neutrophils fill the entire subarachnoid space in severely affected areas or may be found predominantly around the leptomeningeal blood vessels.

A

Acute meningitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

1943
Q

Caused by invasion of the brain by Treponema pallidum and manifests as insidious but progressive loss of mental and physical functions with mood alterations (including delusions of grandeur), terminating in severe dementia. There is parenchymal damage particularly in the frontal lobe, characterized by loss of neurons with proliferation of microglia (rod cells) and gliosis.

A

Paretic neurosyphilis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 875

1944
Q

A form of neurosyphilis, resulting from damage to the sensory nerves in the dorsal roots producing impaired joint position sense and resultant ataxia, loss of pain sensation, leading to skin and “Charcot joints”. There is loss of both axons and myelin in the dorsal roots, with pallor and atrophy in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

A

Tabes dorsalis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 875

1945
Q

CSF findings in bacterial meningitis.

A

Increased pressureabundant neurophilsprotein - elevatedglucose - reduced(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

1946
Q

Presents with generalized symptoms of headache, malaise, mental confusion, and vomiting. The subarachnoid space contains a gelatinous or fibrinous exudate, most often at the base of the brain, obliterating the cisterns and encasing cranial nerves. There may be discrete white granules scattered over the leptomeninges. Obliterative endarteritis may be seen.

A

Tuberculous meningitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

1947
Q

CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis.

A

moderate pleiocytosis - predominantly monocytesprotein - elevatedglucose - medorately reduced/normal(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

1948
Q

Caused by invasion of the brain by Treponema pallidum and manifests as insidious but progressive loss of mental and physical functions with mood alterations (including delusions of grandeur), terminating in severe dementia.

A

Paretic neurosyphilis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

1949
Q

This virus tends to localize in the paraventricular subependymal regions of the brain, which results in a severe hemorrhagic necrotizing ventriculoencephalitis and choroid plexitis.

A

Cytomegalovirus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 877

1950
Q

These are discrete lesions with central liquefactive necrosis and a surrounding fibrous capsule. On microscopic examination, there is exuberant neovascularization around the necrosis that is responsible for the marked edema and formation of granulation tissue. Outside the fibrous capsule is a zone of reactive gliosis.

A

Brain Abscesses (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 876

1951
Q

The pathognomonic finding of this disease is a spongiform transformation of the cerebral cortex and deep gray matter structures (caudate, putamen); consists of a multifocal process that results in the uneven formation of small, empty, microscopic vacuoles of varying sizes within the neuropil and sometimes in the perikaryon of neurons.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 880

1952
Q

Viral encephalitis which involves inferior and medial regions of the temporal lobes and the orbital gyri of the frontal lobes. Perivascular inflammatory infiltrates are usually present, and Cowdry type A intranuclear viral inclusion bodies can be found in both neurons and glia.

A

Herpes Encephalitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 876

1953
Q

Reactivation of varicella in adults manifests as a painful, vesicular skin eruption in the distribution of one or a few dermatomes.

A

Shingles / Herpes Zoster(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 876

1954
Q

This virus tends to localize in the paraventricular subependymal regions of the brain, which results in a severe hemorrhagic necrotizing ventriculoencephalitis and choroid plexitis.

A

Cytomegalovirus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 877

1955
Q

This lesion caused by JC virus, consist of patches of irregular, ill-defined destruction of the white matter that enlarge. Each lesion is an area of demyelination, in the center of which are scattered lipid-laden macrophages and a reduced number of axons.

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 877

1956
Q

These are predominantly benign tumors of adults, usually attached to the dura, and arising from the meningothelial cell of the arachnoid. Histologic patterns include syncitial, fibroblastic, psammomatous, secretory and microcystic.

A

Meningiomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 885

1957
Q

Five most common primary sites of carcinoma which may metastasize to the brain.

A

LungBreastSkin (melanoma)KidneyGIT(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 885

1958
Q

These are infiltrative tumors that form gelatinous, gray masses, and may show cysts, focal hemorrhage, and calcification. On microscopic examination, the tumor is composed of sheets of regular cells with spherical nuclei containing finely granular chromatin (similar to normal oligodendrocytes) surrounded by a clear halo of cytoplasm.

A

Oligodendrogliomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 883

1959
Q

A nonimmune process characterized by loss of myelin involving the center of the pons, most often after rapid correction of hyponatremia.

A

Central pontine myelinolysis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 889

1960
Q

These are inherited dysmyelinating diseases in which the clinical symptoms derive from either abnormal myelin synthesis or turnover.

A

Leukodystrophies (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 889

1961
Q

These are predominantly benign tumors of adults, usually attached to the dura, and arising from the meningothelial cell of the arachnoid. Histologic patterns include syncitial, fibroblastic, psammomatous, secretory and microcystic.

A

Meningiomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 885

1962
Q

Profound memory disturbances as a result of thiamine deficiency.

A

Korsakoff syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 890

1963
Q

An autoimmune demyelinating disorder characterized by distinct episodes of neurologic deficits, separated in time, attributable to white matter lesions that are separated in space. Affected areas show multiple, well-circumscribed, slightly depressed, glassy, gray-tan, irregularly shaped lesions, termed “plaques”.

A

Multiple Sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 887

1964
Q

A nonimmune process characterized by loss of myelin involving the center of the pons, most often after rapid correction of hyponatremia.

A

Central pontine myelinolysis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 889

1965
Q

These are inherited dysmyelinating diseases in which the clinical symptoms derive from either abnormal myelin synthesis or turnover.

A

Leukodystrophies (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 889

1966
Q

This condition occurs in the setting of thiamine deficiency and chronic alcoholism. Characterized by foci of hemorrhage and necrosis, particularly in the mammillary bodies but also adjacent to the ventricle, especially the third and fourth ventricles.

A

Wernicke encephalopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 890

1967
Q

Profound memory disturbances as a result of thiamine deficiency.

A

Korsakoff syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 890

1968
Q

Characterized by “flapping” tremor, depressed levels of consciousness, which may lead to coma. Result of decreased hepatic function.

A

Hepatic encephalopathy (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 891

1969
Q

It is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly, characterized by presence of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, composed of tau proteins.

A

Alzheimer’s disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 893

1970
Q

Mutation in Friedreich ataxia.

A

GAA trinucleotide repeat (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

1971
Q

This is a clinical syndrome characterized by masked facies, stooped posture, slowness of voluntary movement, festinating gait rigidity, and a “pill-rolling” tremor. There are single or multiple, intracytoplasmic, eosinophilic, round to elongated inclusions that often have a dense core surrounded by a pale halo or “Lewy bodies”.

A

Parkinson disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 894

1972
Q

It is an inherited autosomal dominant disease characterized clinically by progressive movement disorders and dementia, with degeneration of the striatum (caudate and putamen).

A

Huntington Disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 894

1973
Q

Mutation in Huntington disease.

A

CAG trinucleotide repeats(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

1974
Q

It is an autosomal recessive progressive illness, generally beginning in the first decade of life with gait ataxia, followed by hand clumsiness and dysarthria.

A

Friedreich ataxia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

1975
Q

Mutation in Friedreich ataxia.

A

GAA trinucleotide repeat (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

1976
Q

This is the most common form of neurodegeneration affecting the motor system. It is characterized by muscle atrophy and hyper-reflexia due to loss of both upper and lower motor neurons.

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (Motor Neuron Disease; Lou Gehrig’s Disease) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

1977
Q

This autosomal dominant disorder is characterized by neurofibromas (plexiform and solitary), gliomas of the optic nerve, pigmented nodules of the iris (Lisch nodules), and cutaneous hyperpigmented macules (café au lait spots).

A

Type 1 Neurofibromatosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

1978
Q

This is one of the most common life-threatening diseases of the peripheral nervous system. It may develop spontaneously or after a systemic infection (usually viral) or other stress. Usually presents with rapidly progressive, ascending motor weakness that may lead to death from failure of respiratory muscles.

A

Guillain-Barré Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

1979
Q

These are benign tumors arising from Schwann cells, which are well-circumscribed encapsulated, firm, gray masses but may also have areas of cystic and xanthomatous change.

A

Schwannomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

1980
Q

Present in the dermis and subcutaneous fat, these well-delineated but unencapsulated masses are composed of spindle cells. The stroma of these tumors is highly collagenized and contains little myxoid material.

A

Cutaneous neurofibroma.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

1981
Q

These tumors may arise anywhere along a nerve, may be multiple, and is not easily separated from the nerve.

A

Plexiform neurofibroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

1982
Q

This autosomal dominant disorder is characterized by neurofibromas (plexiform and solitary), gliomas of the optic nerve, pigmented nodules of the iris (Lisch nodules), and cutaneous hyperpigmented macules (café au lait spots).

A

Type 1 Neurofibromatosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

1983
Q

This is an autosomal dominant disorder in which patients develop a range of tumors, most commonly bilateral vestibular (acoustic) schwannomas and multiple meningiomas.

A

Type 2 Neurofibromatosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

1984
Q

An autosomal dominant syndrome characterized by the development of hamartomas and benign neoplasms involving the brain and other tissues. The lesions are firm areas of the cortex that, in contrast to the softer adjacent cortex, have been likened to potatoes, hence the appellation “tubers.”

A

Tuberous Sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

1985
Q

An autosomal dominant inherited disease in characterized by development of hemangioblastomas within the cerebellar hemispheres, retina, and less commonly the brain stem and spinal cord. A cerebellar capillary hemangioblastoma, is the principal neurologic manifestation of the disease.

A

von Hippel-Lindau Disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

1986
Q

What is the dominant histopathologic finding in Immune mediated neuropathies like Guillain- Barre Syndrome?

A

Inflammation of peripheral nerve, manifested as perivenular and endoneurial infiltration by lymphocytes, macrophages, and a few plasma cells(TOPNOTCH)

1987
Q

What is the most common type of peripheral neuropathy seen in adult-onset DM?

A

Symmetric neuropathy that involves distal sensory and motor nerves (TOPNOTCH)

1988
Q

In patients with peripheral neuropathy, what is the predominant histologic findings?

A

Axonal neuropathy (TOPNOTCH)

1989
Q

Morphology: Perifascicular Atrophy

A

Dermatomyositis (TOPNOTCH)

1990
Q

Morphology: presence of rimmed vacuoles within myocytes and are highlighted by basophilic granules at their periphery. In addition, the vacuolated fibers may also contain amyloid deposits that stain with Congo Red.

A

Inclusion body myositis (TOPNOTCH)

1991
Q

Morphology: Panfascicular atrophy

A

Spinal Muscular Atrophy (Infantile Motor Neuron Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1992
Q

What are the 5 histopathologic abnormalities common to Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Becker Muscular Dystrophy?

A
  1. Variation in fiber diameter2. Increased numbers of internalized nuclei3. Degeneration, necrosis, and phagocytosis of muscle fibers4. Regeneration of muscle fibers5. Proliferation of endomysial connective tissue (TOPNOTCH)
1993
Q

Morphology: In later stages of this disease, all muscles eventually become almost totally replaced by fat and connective tissue

A

DMD (TOPNOTCH)

1994
Q

What is the histologic pathology that is usually seen in DMD and is rare in BMD?

A

Enlarged, rounded, hyaline fibers that have lost their normal cross striation, believed to be hypercontracted fibers (TOPNOTCH)

1995
Q

Morphology: Ring fiber ( subsarcolemmal band of cytoplasm that appears distinct from the center of the fiber) and Sarcoplasmic mass

A

Myotonic Dystrophy (TOPNOTCH)

1996
Q

Morphology: Disuse changes with Type 2 fiber atrophy, post synaptic membrane is simplified, with loss of AChRs from the region of the synapse. Immune complexes as well as the MAC of the complement cascade can be found along the post synaptic membrane as well

A

Myesthenia Gravis (TOPNOTCH)

1997
Q

Electron Microscopy: tubular and filamentous inclusions are seen in the cytoplasm and the nucleus, and they are composed of B-amyloid or hyperphosphorylated tau.

A

Inclusion body myositis (TOPNOTCH)

1998
Q

Grotton lesions (scaling erythematous eruption or dusky red patches over the knuckles, elbows, and knees) are seen in what disease entity?

A

Dermatomyositis (TOPNOTCH)

1999
Q

Morphology: the most consistent pathologic finding in skeletal muscle is aggregates of abnormal mitochondria that stain with modified Gomori Trichrome and fiber appears irregular on cross section “ragged red fibers” and on electron microscope, they contain “parking lot inclusions”

A

Mitochondrial Myopathies (Oxidative phosphorylation Disease) (TOPNOTCH)

2000
Q

This is general reaction of the motor unit which is a result of primary destruction of the axon, with secondary disintegration of its myelin sheath.

A

Axonal degereration (TOPNOTCH)

2001
Q

This general reaction of the motor unit occurs when there is dysfunction of the Schwann cell or damage to the myeling sheath; there is no primary abnormality of the axon

A

Segmental demyelination (TOPNOTCH)

2002
Q

Morphology: endoneurial arterioles show thickening, hyalinization, and intense PAS positivity in their walls and extensive reduplicaton of the basement membrane.

A

Peripheral Neuropathy in DM Type 2 (TOPNOTCH)

2003
Q

Of all the dystrophies, this type is the only one that shows pathologic changes in the intrafusal fibers of muscle spindles, with fiber splitting, necrosis and regeneration

A

Myotonic Dystrophy (TOPNOTCH)

2004
Q

Morphology: the principal morphologic characteristic is accumulation of lipid within myocytes. The myofibrils are separated by vacuoles that stain with oil red O or Sudan black

A

Lipid Myopathies (TOPNOTCH)

2005
Q

Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome is a paraneoplastic process which commonly develops in what type of carcinoma?

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lungs (TOPNOTCH)

2006
Q

The most important histopathological indicator of CNS injury, regardless of etiology

A

Gliosis(TOPNOTCH)

2007
Q

Lafora bodies

A

Myoclonic Epilepsy(TOPNOTCH)

2008
Q

Gross morphology: gyri are flattened, intervening sulci are narrowed, and the ventricular cavities are compressed

A

Generalized cerebral edema(TOPNOTCH)

2009
Q

A syndrome of sudden, deep intracerebral hemorrhage that follows even minor head trauma by an interval of 1-2 weeks

A

Spat-apoplexie (Delayed post traumatic haemorrhage) (TOPNOTCH)

2010
Q

Subdural hematomas most often become manifest approximately how many hours after the injury?

A

48 hours(TOPNOTCH)

2011
Q

The most widely accepted explanation for diffuse axonal injury

A

mechanical forces damage the integrity of the axon at the node of Ranvier, with subsequent alterations in axoplasmic flow(TOPNOTCH)

2012
Q

Morphology: wide asymmetric distribution of axonal swellings that appear within hours of the injury and are best demonstrated with silver impregnation techniques or with immunoperoxidase stains for AB protein

A

Diffuse axonal injury(TOPNOTCH)

2013
Q

How long does it take for the clot to lyse in subdural hematomas?

A

1 week(TOPNOTCH)

2014
Q

How long does it take for fibroblasts to grow from the dural surfaces into the hematoma after subdural hematoma/

A

2 weeks(TOPNOTCH)

2015
Q

How long does it take for the development hyalinazed connectice tissue in SDH

A

1-3 months(TOPNOTCH)

2016
Q

Gross morphology: brain is swollen, gyri are widened, and the sulci are narrowed

A

Global cerebral ischemia(TOPNOTCH)

2017
Q

In the setting of global ischemia, early histological changes are seen after how many hours after the insult?

A

12-24 hours(TOPNOTCH)

2018
Q

In the setting of global ischemia, sub acute changes are seen after how many hours after the insult?

A

24 hours to 2 weeks(TOPNOTCH)

2019
Q

In the setting of global cerebral ischemia, repair is seen after approximately how many weeks?

A

2 weeks(TOPNOTCH)

2020
Q

In the setting of global ischemia, this is characterized by evenutal removal of all necrotic tissue, loss of normally organized CNS structure, and gliosis

A

Repair(TOPNOTCH)

2021
Q

In the setting of global ischemia This is characterized by necrosis of tissue, influx of macrophages, vascular proliferation and reactive gliosis

A

Subacute changes(TOPNOTCH)

2022
Q

In the setting of global ischemiaThis is characterized by acute neuronal cell damage

A

Early change(TOPNOTCH)

2023
Q

Morphology: pathognomonic finding is a spongiform transformation of the cerebral cortex

A

CJD(TOPNOTCH)

2024
Q

Morphology: mononuclear cell perivacular cuffs and neuronophagia of the anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cord

A

(TOPNOTCH)

2025
Q

In the immunosuprressed individual, the most common pattern of involvement in viral meningitis is?

A

Subacute encephalitis(TOPNOTCH)

2026
Q

Although any type of cell within the CNS can be infected with CMV, the virus tends to localize at what particular area in the brain?

A

Paraventricular subependymal regions(TOPNOTCH)

2027
Q

What is the principal neurologic manifestation of Von Hippel Lindau Disease?

A

Cerebellar capillary hemangioblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

2028
Q

Antoni A and Antoni B patterns of growth are seen in what tumors of the CNS?

A

Schwannoma(TOPNOTCH)

2029
Q

Morphology: histologic appearance similar to anaplastic astrocytoma with the additional feature of necrosis and vascular or endothelial cell proliferation

A

Glioblastoma multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2030
Q

Pseudopalisading

A

Glioblastoma multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2031
Q

Glomeruloid body

A

Glioblastoma multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2032
Q

Morphology: bipolar cells with long, thin hairlike processes that are GFAP positive; Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies, and microcysts are often present

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma(TOPNOTCH)

2033
Q

Lesion of what area of the brain appear to be the best correlate of the memory disturbance and confabulation seen in Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus(TOPNOTCH)

2034
Q

Morphology: foci of hemorrhage and necrosis, particularly in the mammillary bodies but also adjacent to the ventricle, especially the third and fourth ventricles

A

Wernicke encephalopathy(TOPNOTCH)

2035
Q

The spinal cord shows loss of axons and gliosis in the posterior columns, the distal portions of the corticospinal tracts, and the spinocerebellar tracts.

A

Friedreich Ataxia(TOPNOTCH)

2036
Q

The abnormalities are predominantly in the cerebellum,with loss of Purkinje and granule cells; there is also degeneration of the dorsal columns, spinocerebellar tracts and anterior horn cells and a peripheral neuropathy

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia(TOPNOTCH)

2037
Q

Gross morphology: palor of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2038
Q

Gross morphology: the brain shows pronounced, frequently asymmetric, atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes with conspicuous sparing of the posterior two thirds of the superior temporal gyrus

A

Pick Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2039
Q

What are the 3 major microscopic abnormalities of Alzheimer disease?

A

Neuritic/Senile PlaquesNeurofibrillary tanglesAmyloid angiopathy(TOPNOTCH)

2040
Q

What is the principal clinical manifestation of Alzheimer disease?

A

Dementia(TOPNOTCH)

2041
Q

What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?

A

Alzheimer Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2042
Q

Gross morphology: variable degree of cortical atrophy with widening of the cerebral sulci that is most pronounced in the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes with compensatory ventricular enlargement (hydrocephalus ex vacuo)

A

Alzheimer Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2043
Q

Neurotic plaques are focal, spherical collection of dilated, tortuous, silver staining neuritic processes often around a central amyloid core, which may be surrounded by clear halo, and can be stained with Congo red. What is the most predominant component of this plaque core?

A

AB peptide(TOPNOTCH)

2044
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles are bundles of filaments in the cytoplasm of the neurons that displace or encircle the nucleus. What is the major component of this structure?

A

Tau proteins(TOPNOTCH)

2045
Q

Hirano bodies

A

Alzheimer’s disease (TOPNOTCH)

2046
Q

What is the principal neurologic manifestation of Von Hippel Lindau Disease?

A

Cerebellar capillary hemangioblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

2047
Q

Patients with Von Hippel Lindau Disease has the propensity to develop what type of carcinom?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

2048
Q

These are firm areas of the cortex that, in contrast to the softer adjacent cortex, have been likened to potatoes and are composed of haphazardly arranged neurons that lack the normal laminar organization of neocortex.

A

Cortical hamartomas or “tubers’ of Tuberous Sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

2049
Q

Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor (MPNST, Malignant Schwannoma) is strongly associated with what type of Familial Tumor Syndrome?

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1(TOPNOTCH)

2050
Q

What are the 5 most common carcinoma that metastasize to the brain?

A

Lung, breast, Melanoma, Kidney, and GIT. (TOPNOTCH)

2051
Q

What is the most common CNS neoplasm in immunosuppressed patients, including those with AIDS and immunosuppression after transplantaion?

A

Primary CNS Lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)

2052
Q

Morphology: composed of sheets of regular cells with spherical nuclei containing finely granular chromatin surrounded by a clear halo of cytoplasm and calcification if present in as many as 90% of these tumors.

A

Oligodendroglioma(TOPNOTCH)

2053
Q

Morphology: characterized by amild to moderate increase in the number of glial cell nuclei, somewhat variable nuclear pleomorphism, and an interveing feltwork of fine, GFAP positive astrocytic cell processes that give the background a fibrillary appearance.

A

Well differentiated fibrillary astrocytomas(TOPNOTCH)

2054
Q

Morphology: perivascular pseudorosettes

A

Ependymoma(TOPNOTCH)

2055
Q

Morphology: the anterior roots of the spinal cord are thin; the precentral gyrus may be atrophic and demonstrates a reduction the number of anterior horn neurons throughout the length of the spinal cord with associated reactive gliosis. Remaining neurons often contain Bunina bdoies and PAS positive cytoplasmic inclusions.

A

Amyotorphic Lateral Sclerosis(TOPNOTCH)

2056
Q

Morphology: composed of bipolar cells with long, thin “hairlike” processes that are GFAP- Positive; Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies, and microcysts are often present.

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma (TOPNOTCH)

2057
Q

Morphology: similar to anaplastic astrocytoma with the additional features of necrosis and vascular or endothelial cell proliferation, each of which often has a stereotypic appearance.

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2058
Q

Morphology: characterized by areas of stromal response with collagen and reticulin deposition and nodules of cells forming “pale islands” that have more neuropil and lack the reticulin deposition

A

Desmoplastic variant of Medulloblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

2059
Q

Gross morphology: the brain is small and shows striking atrophy of the caudate nucleus and the putamen. The globus pallidus may be atrophied secondarily, and the lateral and third ventricles are dilated.

A

Huntington Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2060
Q

What are the two most common primary tumors of the optic nerve?

A

Glioma and Meningioma (TOPNOTCH)

2061
Q

Morphology: characterized histologically by chronic inflammation and replacement of orbital fat by fibrosis

A

Idiopathic orbital inflammation (TOPNOTCH)

2062
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the eyelid?

A

Basal cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

2063
Q

Morphology: histological hallmark is the thinning of the cornea with breaks in the Bowman’s layer

A

Keratoconus (TOPNOTCH)

2064
Q

Morphology: deposition of calcium in Bowmans layer

A

Calcific Band keratopathy (TOPNOTCH)

2065
Q

This type of keratopathy develops in patients who are exposed chronically to high levels of ultraviolet light

A

Actinic band keratopathy (TOPNOTCH)

2066
Q

Morphology: numerous drop like excrescences - guttata- protrude downward from Descemet’s membrane

A

Fuchs dystrophy (TOPNOTCH)

2067
Q

Also known as the End-Stage Eye

A

Phthisis Bulbi (TOPNOTCH)

2068
Q

Morphology: diffuse loss of ganglion cells and thinning of the retinal nerve fiber layer, in advanced cases, the optic nerve is both cupped and atrophic

A

Glaucomatous optic nerve damage (TOPNOTCH)

2069
Q

Flexner Wintersteine Rosettes

A

Retinoblastoma (TOPNOTCH)

2070
Q

Morphology: a neovascular membrane is positioned between the retinal pigment epithelium and Bruchs membrane

A

Age related macular degeneration (TOPNOTCH)

2071
Q

“waxy pallor” of the optic disk

A

Retinitis Pigmentosa (TOPNOTCH)

2072
Q

In this condition, both rods and cones are lost to apoptosis

A

Retinitis Pigmentosa (TOPNOTCH)

2073
Q

Elschnig’ spots

A

Malignant hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

2074
Q

What is known to be a reliable histological marker of diabetes mellitus in the eye?

A

Thickening of the BM of the epithelium of the pars plicata of the ciliary body (TOPNOTCH)

2075
Q

Cytoid bodies

A

Hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

2076
Q

Macular star

A

Malignant hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

2077
Q

Morphology: characterized by diffuse granulomatous inflammation of the urea. Plasma cells are typically absent, but eosiophils may be identified in the infiltrate

A

Sympathetic ophthalmia (TOPNOTCH)

2078
Q

What is the most common intraocular malignancy in adults?

A

Metastasis to the uvea, typically to the choroid (TOPNOTCH)

2079
Q

What is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults?

A

Uveal melanoma (TOPNOTCH)