Pathology Flashcards

0
Q

Seborrheic Dermatitis

A

Erythematous-yellow, greasy base, with extensive scaling and crusting dandruff, follicular lipping,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Psoriasis

A

Salmon-plaques-silvery white scales (Koebner Phenomenon), test tubes in a rack appearance, auspitz signs, Munro microabscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lichen Planus

A

Pruritic,purple,polygonal,planar papules and plaques, itchy,violaceous, flat-topped papules (wickham striae), interface dermatitis, sawtoothing, civatte or colloid bodies and lichen planopilaris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Granulomatous Uveitis (uvea)

A

Sarcoidosis (complication), mutton-fat keratin precipitates ant segment, candle wax dripping post segment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Impetigo

A

Mauled and pustules - honey-colored crusts, imp contangiosa-GABHS; PSGN complication; imp bullosa, staph aureus. Sub corneal pustule beneath stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hypertensive retinopathy

A

Arteriolosclerosis, copper wiring, silver wiring, cotton-wool spots, focal choroidal infarcts (elschnig pearls), DM retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion

A

Hollenhorst plaques, cherry red spots in macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Age-related macular degeneration

A

Irreversible blindness; “drusen” yellow deposits in macula; choroidal neovascularization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Retinitis pigmentosa

A

Asst w/ “Refsum disease”
apoptosis of rods and cones
Waxy pallor of the optic disk
Early night blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

Most common 1 intra-ocular malignancy in children
Most common presentation is leukocoria
“Flexner-Wintersteiner Rosettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Papilledema

A

Optic nerve swelling inc ICP

Blurred disk borders on fundoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fibroadenoma

Breast

A

Most common Popcorn calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phylloides tumor

Breast

A

Bulky tumor from tumor cells

Leaf-like extensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Intraductal papilloma

Breast

A

Most common “bloody nipple discharge” <50

Develop in lactiferous ducts or sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lobular CIS

Breast

A

Dyscohesive cells w/ oval or round nuclei and small nucleoli

Lack-protein adherin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Invasive ducktail carcinoma

Breast

A
Most common type of Breast Ca (70%)
Grating sound (like cutting a water chestnut)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Invasive lobular carcinoma

Breast

A

Most common cause of bilateral breast cancer

Signet ring cells in Indian file pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medullary carcinoma

Breast

A

Fleshy mass with syncytium sheets of large cells with vesicular, pleomorphic nuclei, and prominent nucleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mucinous carcinoma

Breast

A

Soft/rubbery mass

“Pale gray-blue gelatin”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inflammatory breast cancer

A
P'eau de orange
Worst prognosis
High degree and aneuploidy
Tumor emboli
Persistent e-cadherin nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Uteropelvic Junction Obstruction

Kidney

A

Most common cause of hydronephrosis in infants and children
Left ureter
Bilateral in infants/unilateral in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Methysergide (ergot derivative)

A

Anti migraine drug to cause peritoneal fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute cystitis

Kidney

A

Triad: dysuria, suprapubic pain, frequency (q15-20mins)
Suppurative neutrophilic infiltration
Hyperemic bladder with exudation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Acute bacterial cystitis

Kidney

A

Most common bacteria: PEEK

Proteus, E. coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Interstitial cystitis (hunner ulcer)

A

Inflammation and fibrosis
Glomerulations
Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Malacoplakia

A

E. coli; soft, yellow mucosal plaques

Large foamy macrophages (machaelis-gutmann bodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Urothelial CA in situ

A

Pagetoid spread

Mucosal thickening w/o intra luminal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reiter syndrome

A

Conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Testicular torsion

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord
“Bell-clapper deformity”
Hemorrhagic testicular infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Yolk sac tumor

Testis

A

Lace-like cell network
Homogenous,yellow-white,mutinous appearance
“Schiller duval bodies”
A-feto protein, A1-anti trypsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Teratoma

A

Hester-skeeter collection
Malignant transformation
Painless enlargement of the testis
Para-aortic>mediastinal>supraclavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Leydig cell tumor

A

Crystalloids of Reinke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sertoli cell tumor

A

Crystalloids charcot-bottcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Testicula lymphoma

A

Most common form of testicular neoplasms in men over 60 years of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis

A

E. coli; (-), intraprostatic of urine,lymphohematogenous routes
Fever,chills,dysuria
DRE: prostate exquisitely tender and boggy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chronic bacterial cystitis

A

Low back pain, dysuria, perineal and suprapubic discomfort

Recurrent UTI’s caused by the same organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Peri urethral transition zone
Median lobe hyper trophy
Modular hyperplasia- hallmark finding
– due to actions of dihydrotestosterone(hyperplasia of stromatolites cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Prostate adenocarcinoma

A

Most common form of cancer in men
Tied w/colorectal cancer
Acinar variant (70%cases)
Posterior peripheral zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Female genital

A

Turbo-ovarian abscesses, pyosalphinx
Comp: follicular salphigitis & hydrosalphynx leading to infertility/ectopic pregnancy
“Violin-string adhesions in fitz Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Bacteremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bartholin cyst

Vulva

A

Perineal pain, local discomfort

Marsupial inaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lichen sclerosis

Vulva

A

Aka chronic atrophic vulvitis
4 cardinal: thinning with rete pegs, hydrophilic degen of basal cells, collage nous fibrous tissue and lymphocytic
Vaginal dryness,stiffening and constriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lichen simplex chronicus

Vulva

A

Aka: sq. hyperplasia, hyperplastic dystrophy
Epith. thickening, exp stratum granulosum,hyperkeratosis
Leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Keratinizing SCCA, vulva

Vulva

A

Nest and tongues of malignant squamous cells with prominent “keratin pearls”
Not asst with HPV

43
Q

Papillary hidradenoma

Vulva

A

Circumscribed nodule-labia majora

Identical to Intraductal papilloma a of the breast

44
Q

Condyloma acuminata

Vulva

A

HPV 6 & 11
Koilocytic atypia
Not precancerous lesions

45
Q

Septate vagina

A

Failure fusion of Müllerian ducts
Uterus didelphys
In utero exposure to DES

46
Q

Vaginal adenosis

A

Red, granular areas contrasting with normal mucosa
Columnar mutinous epith
May progress to clear celladenocarcinoma of the vagina

47
Q

Gartner duct cyst

Vagina

A

Derived from wolfian (mesonephric) duct

Submucosal fluid filled cyst

48
Q

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Aka: sarcoma botryoides

Grape-like clusters

49
Q

Cervical cancer

A

HPVs infect immature cells at sq columnar junction
Koilocytic atypia
E6 and E7 proteins-involve in RD inactivation

50
Q

Endometriosis

A
Chocolate cyst (red-blue, yellow-brown)
Infertility most common presentation
51
Q

Adenomyosis

A

Endometrial tax within the uterine wall
Irregular nests of endometrial stroma
Menometrorrhagia (irreg and heavy menses)

52
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia

A

Asst with prolonged estrogen stimulation of the endometrium

Invariably leads to endometrial adenocarcinoma

53
Q

Endometrial carcinoma

A

Most common invasive CA in female genital
Peak 55-65 y/o
With signs of stromal invasion.

54
Q

Myoma uteri

A

Most common benign tumor in women
“Whirled pattern of smooth muscle bundles”
Degeneration-red or corneus, hyaline,myxomatos, calcific, cystic, catty

55
Q

PCOS

A

Aka: stein-leventhal syndrome, numerous cystic follicles or follicle cyst.
Thickened,fibrotic superficial cortex w/ innumerable follicle cysts (follicular hyperthecoses)

56
Q

Serous tumors, ovaries

A

Psamomma bodies

Using Sassone and Lerner criteria

57
Q

Mutinous tumors, ovary

A

Multiloculated tumors filled with sticky, gelatinous fluid rich in glycoproteins

58
Q

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

Rupture of mucinous tumors

59
Q

Brenner tumor, ovary

A

Sharply demarcated nests of epithelial cells (walthard cells rests)

60
Q

Mature teratoma

A

Aka: dermoid cyst
Most common ovarian GCT
Cyst containing hair & cheesy sebaceous materials
Malignant transformation

61
Q

Monodermal or specialized tearatomas

A

Strums ovarii-hyperthyroidism
Ovarian Carcinoid-produces serotonin & carcinoid synd.
Stromal carcinoid-combination of struma ovarii and ovarian carcinoid

62
Q

Dysgerminoma

A

Ovarian counterpart of Seminoma
Unilateral 80-90%, polyhedral cells w scant fibrous stroma
Malignant but only 1/3 are aggressive

63
Q

Yolk sac tumor

A

Rich in A-fetoprotein & A1 antitrypsin

Glomerulus-like structure (Schiller-duval bodies)

64
Q

Granulosa cell tumor

A

Elaborate large amount of estrogen
Glan-like structure (“call-exner bodies”)
Tumor marker:inhibin

65
Q

Meig syndrome

Fibrous and thecomas

A

Ovarian tumor
Hydrothorax
Ascites

66
Q

Androblastoma

A

Musculinization

Sertoli cells or leydig cells interspersed with stroma

67
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

Bilateral metastasis
Mucin producing, signet ring cancer cells
Gastric in origin

68
Q

Ectopic pregnancy

A

Ampulla-most common site
Prior pelvic inflammatory disease-most common predisposing factor
Morp: hematosalphynx

69
Q

Placenta previa

A

Placental implants very near to the cervical os
Partial, marginal, total, low-lying
Painless vaginal bleeding during the 3rd trimester

70
Q

Placental abruption

A

Premature separation due too retroperitoneal clot
RF: Hypertension, smoking cocaine addiction
Painful vaginal bleeding during 3rd trimester

71
Q

Placenta accreta

A

Partials or complete absence of fibrinoid layer (Nitabach layer)
Attached-accreta
Invades-increta
Penetrates-percreta

72
Q

Placental infections

A
Comp: PROM
Grp B pathogens most common pathogen
TORCHES
Morp: greenish opaque and membranes, dense band like exudate a on amniotic surface
Comp:neonatal sepsis and meningitis
73
Q

Pre eclampsia

A

Hypertension
Edema
Proteinuria
Usually begins at 32nd weeks AOG

74
Q

Eclampsia

A

Pre eclampsia with convulsions

75
Q

Hydatidiform mole

GTD

A

Grape-like structures
Circumferential trophoblast proliferation
Extra villus islands
Tumor marker: b-HCG

76
Q

Invasive mole

GTD

A

Morp: invasion of the myometrium by hydrophic chorionic villi
Hematogenous

77
Q

Choriocarcinoma

GTD

A

Mixed proliferationsof syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast
Invasion of underlying myometrium
Most commonly metastasize to lung and vagina

78
Q

Placental site trophoblast tumor

GTD

A

Intermediate trophoblast

Malignant trophoblastic cells diffusely infiltrating the myometrium

79
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Campy jejuni infxn
Ascending motor paralysis
Aminocytologic dissociation

80
Q

Spinal Muscular Dystrophy

A

Aka: infantile motor neuron disease
Ant. Horn cell destruction
SMN1
Panfascicular

81
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

CTG trinucleotide repeats
Morp: Subsarcolemmal band of cytoplasm (ring fiber)
Sarcoplasmic mass

82
Q

Mitochondrial myopathies

A

Proximalk muscle weakness
MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial enceph, lactic acidosis, stroke-like episodes), Ragged red fibers-irreg fibers w/ subsarcolemmal
Parking lot inclusions

83
Q

Dermatomyositis

A

Heliotrope rash

Gottron lesions

84
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Brittle bone disease
Type 1 collagen def
Most common inherited
Blue sclerae

85
Q

Osteopetrosis

A

Aka: marble bone disease, Albers Schöenberg dse.
Impaired function of osteoclasts
Absence of medullary canal
“Erlenmeyer flask deformity”

86
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Post menauposal-thin, perforated trabecular plates w/ loss interconnections
Senile-thin cortex, widened haversian systems

87
Q

Paget’s disease

A

Aka: osteitis deformans
Mosaic pattern-jigsaw puzzle appearance
Leontiasis ossea, platybasia
“Chakstick-typen fracture”

88
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica or Von recklinghausen disease of bone.
Dissecting osteitis
Brown tumor

89
Q

Osteonecrosis

A

Avascular necrosis
“Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease” in children
Creeping substition

90
Q

Pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus most common cause

Salmonella patients with sickle cell diasease

91
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Subperiosteal abscesses with draining sinus

Sequestrum, involucrum, Brodie abscess

92
Q

Osteoid osteoma

A

Nidus formation, hemorrhagic gritty tan tissue

93
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Most common malignant bone tumor
Most common location-metaphysis of long bone
Lace-like pattern, Colman triangles and sunburst appearance

94
Q

Chondroblastoma

A

Chicken wire pattern
2nd most common malignant bone tumor
Anaplastic chondrocytes

95
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with cafe au lait spots and endocrinopathies (mc-cune Albright syndrome)-precocious puberty

96
Q

Ewing sarcoma

A

Mutation in EWS gene on chrom#22
Homer-right rosettes
Onin-skin appearance

97
Q

Giant cell tumor

A

Aka: osteoclastoma

Mutations in RANK/RANKL signaling pathway

98
Q

Degenerative osteoarthritis

A

Mushroom-shaped outgrowths (osteophytes)
DIP: heberden nodes
PIP: Bouchard nodes
Joint mice, eburnated

99
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Panus formation

Rheumatoid nodules

100
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A

Asst with HLA-B27

bamboo spine deformity

101
Q

Reiter syndrome

A

Aka: reactive arthritis, shige,salmo,yersi,campy,chlamy
Triad: uveitis, urethritis,arthritis
Balanitis circinata, keratoderma blenorrhagica

102
Q

Psoriatic arthritis

A

Sausage-shaped DIP

Pencil in cup deformity

103
Q

Gout

A

Acute gouty arthritis-crystallization of urates
Chronic gouty arthritis-tophi
(-)bifringent, (+)podagra

104
Q

Transtentorial herniation

A

CNIII compression
Kernohan’s notch
Duret hemorrhages

105
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

Arterial bleed (bone and dura), frax of temporotemporal bone (ptyrion)
Middle menigeal artery
CT scan: lenticular shaped lesion
Lucid interval

106
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

Venous bleeding (dura and arachnoid)
Bridging veins
CT scan: crescent shape lesions
Delayed, fluctuating levels of consciousness, Subdural memb.