PATHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Name the two (2) patterns of reversible cell injury.

A

Cellular swelling and fatty change

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2
Q

Fragmentation into nucleosome-sized fragments occurs in which type of cell death?

A

Apoptosis

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3
Q

The brain is special in that it undergoes what type of necrosis when ischemic?

A

Liquefactive necrosis

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4
Q

What is the most common form of metaplasia? What can cause this?

A

Squamous metaplasia (specifically columnar to squamous metaplasia from cigarette smoking and vitamin A deficiency)

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5
Q

What do you call the mediators of the apoptotic pathway?

A

Caspases

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6
Q

What do you call the sand-like lamellated calcifications seen in papillary cancers?

A

Psammoma bodies

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7
Q

What finding is seen when there are multiple collections of triglycerides in lamina propria of the gallbladder?

A

Strawberry gallbladder

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8
Q

What is the only endogenous brown-black pigment?

A

Melanin

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9
Q

What do you call inflammation of the brain parenchyma?

A

Encephalitis

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10
Q

What are the steps in the recruitment of leukocytes to sites of inflammation?

A

Margination; Rolling; Adhesion; Diapedesis; Chemotaxis

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11
Q

Which vasoactive amine causes arteriolar dilation and increase in venular permeability? Which cells predominantly produce it?

A

Histamine; Mast cells

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12
Q

Which cytokine functions to recruit neutrophils and monocytes?

A

IL-17

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13
Q

What is the most abundant complement? What does it give rise to and what are the functions of its products?

A

C3; C3a (anaphylotoxin) and C3b (opsonin)

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14
Q

C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to what disease?

A

Hereditary angioedema

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15
Q

What do you call a collection of activated macrophages, often with peripheral T- lymphocytes, and sometimes associated with central necrosis?

A

Granuloma

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16
Q

What is the most important cytokine for the synthesis and deposition of connective tissue proteins?

A

TGF-ß (transforming growth factor-beta)

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17
Q

What is the first step in hemostasis?

A

Arteriolar vasoconstriction

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18
Q

A deficiency in GpIb leads to what disease?

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

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19
Q

What pathologic liver finding is characterized by centrilobular regions that are grossly red-brown and slightly depressed contrasted with the normal tan surface?

A

Nutmeg liver

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20
Q

What disease is characterized by ischemia of the femoral head, tibia, and humerus due to formation of gas bubbles in the blood?

A

Caisson disease

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21
Q

Which two (2) characteristics differentiate antemortem from postmortem thrombosis?

A

Attachment to vessel wall (antemortem - yes; postmortem - no); Presence of lines of Zahn (antemortem - yes; postmortem - no)

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22
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Ehler-Danlos syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive

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23
Q

What is the genetic defect found in Marfan syndrome? Which chromosome can this be found?

A

Fibrillin-1 gene (chromosome 15)

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24
Q

Name the two (2) X-linked dominant disorders

A

Alport syndrome; Vitamin D-resistant rickets

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25
Q

What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder? What is the defect in this disorder?

A

Gaucher disease; Glucocerebrosidase (ß- glucosidase) deficiency

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26
Q

What cardiac finding is most associated with Trisomy 21? What hematologic cancer is most commonly found in patients with this disorder?

A

Endocardial cushion defect; Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

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27
Q

What is the single most important cause of primary amenorrhea?

A

Turner syndrome

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28
Q

Anaphylaxis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

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29
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type II (antibody- mediated) hypersensitivity

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30
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are generally systemic, except for?

A

Arthus reaction

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31
Q

Psoriasis is what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type IV (T-cell- mediated) hypersensitivity

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32
Q

What is the best screening test for SLE?

A

ANA (antinuclear antibody)

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33
Q

Which test is specific for SLE and is correlated with disease activity?

A

Anti-dsDNA

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34
Q

What is the triad that comprises Sjogren syndrome?

A

Dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca); Dry mouth (xerostomia); Other connective tissue disorders (like rheumatoid arthritis)

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35
Q

Name the components of CREST syndrome

A

Calcinosis; Raynaud phenomenon; Esophageal dysmotility; Sclerodactyly; Telangiectasia

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36
Q

Which antibody is present in 10- 20% of diffuse scleroderma?

A

Anti-Scl 70

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37
Q

Which disease is characterized by recurrent bacterial and enteroviral infections after 6 months?

A

X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia

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38
Q

Which disease is characterized by a triad of thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections, and eczema?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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39
Q

What is the antibody associated with mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti-U1- ribonucleoprotein (anti-U1-RNP)

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40
Q

Which organ is the most commonly affected in amyloidosis and represents the most serious form of organ involvement?

A

Kidney

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41
Q

What facilitates the attachment of the HIV virus to host cells? What facilitates fusion?

A

gp120 - attachment; gp41 - fusion

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42
Q

Which carcinomas are special in that their main mode of metastasis is via hematogenous spread?

A

Four Carcinomas Route Hematogenously (Follicular thyroid carcinoma; Choriocarcinoma; Renal cell carcinoma; Hepatocellular carcinoma)

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43
Q

Too much exposure to aniline dyes can lead to which cancer?

A

Bladder (urothelial) carcinoma

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44
Q

What proto-oncogene (when mutated) can lead to neuroblastoma?

A

N-MYC

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45
Q

What is the most common extrasalivary complication of mumps?

A

Aseptic meningitis

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46
Q

“Dewdrops on a rose petal” is the characteristic description for the lesions caused by what pathogen?

A

Varicella zoster virus

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47
Q

Gumma is found in which stage of syphilis?

A

Tertiary

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48
Q

Which fungus is an important cause of CNS infections in immunocompromised patients and has a thick, gelatinous capsule?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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49
Q

What is the causative agent for Durck granulomas?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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50
Q

Which chemical causes skin cancer that affects the palms and soles, as opposed to UV- induced skin cancer that affects sun-exposed areas?

A

Arsenic

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51
Q

What are the two (2) hematologic findings that can be seen in cases of lead poisoning?

A

Ring sideroblasts; Microcytic, hypochromic anemia with basophilic stippling of red blood cells

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52
Q

Cadmium poisoning causes which disease that is characterized by osteoporosis and osteomalacia with renal disease and is seen in postmenopausal women of a certain East Asian country?

A

Itai-itai disease (seen in postmenopausal Japanese women)

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53
Q

What is the “guardian angel against obesity”?

A

Adiponectin

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54
Q

What is the most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood and is also the most frequently diagnosed tumor of infancy?

A

Neuroblastoma

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55
Q

What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in newborns?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome/Hyaline membrane disease

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56
Q

What is the defective gene in cystic fibrosis? Which chromosome is this gene located?

A

CFTR gene; Chromosome 7

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57
Q

These are tumor cells around a central space containing neuropil

A

Homer-Wright pseudorosettes

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58
Q

What are the three components of Wilms tumor?

A

Blastema (small, round blue cells); Stroma (fibroblasts); Epithelium

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59
Q

Which syndrome is associated with organomegaly, macroglossia, hemihypertrophy, and omphaloceles? What is the genetic defect in this syndrome?

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome; WT2 imprinting

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60
Q

Which two (2) sites are most commonly affected in atherosclerosis?

A

Lower abdominal aorta: Iliac arteries (followed by coronary arteries → popliteal arteries → internal carotid arteries → Circle of Willis)

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61
Q

What do you call it when blood tunnels in between layers of the vessel wall?

A

Dissection

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62
Q

Which disease is characterized by ocular disturbances and weakening of pulses in the upper limbs? In which set of patients is this condition usually seen?

A

Takayasu arteritis; Patients <50 years old

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63
Q

Takayasu arteritis; Patients <50 years old

A

Fever > 5 days; Conjunctival injection; Mucosal erythema (strawberry tongue); Cervical lymphadenopathy; Polymorphous exanthem (rashes)

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64
Q

Which disease affects renal and visceral vessels and is associated with hepatitis B? What are the symptoms of this disease?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa; Abdominal pain (due to visceral ischemia) and hypertension (due to renal vessels being affected)

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65
Q

This disease has a strong association with smoking, mainly affects vessels of the extremities, and is characterized by thrombosis of affected vessels.

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)

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66
Q

This autosomal dominant disease is characterized by CNS hemangioblastomas, cavernous hemangiomas, renal cell carcinomas, and pheochromocytomas

A

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

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67
Q

This occurs when an initially left → right shunt becomes a right → left shunt due to irreversible changes in the pulmonary vasculature

A

Eisenmengerization

68
Q

This is the most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma (myxomas in adults)

69
Q

This is the inability of the heart to pump blood at a rate sufficient to meet the metabolic demands of tissues, or can do so only at an elevated filling pressure

A

Heart failure

70
Q

What is the most common type of atrial septal defect?

A

Secundum (90%)

71
Q

This specific cardiac enzyme is used to assess reinfarction due to it having a faster rate of return to normal levels

A

CK-MB

72
Q

What is the most common causative agent in acute infective endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

73
Q

This is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

74
Q

What do you call the characteristic cells found in Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells

75
Q

This is the phenomenon in which certain types of lymphoma progress to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)

A

Richter phenomenon

76
Q

What is the most common non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)

77
Q

Which type of lymphoma is regarded as one of the fastest growing human tumors? What do you call the pattern found in this disease that involves non-neoplastic tingible-body macrophages dotting sheets of neoplastic lymphoid cells?

A

Burkitt lymphoma; “Starry sky” pattern

78
Q

What is the most common cancer in children?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (ALL)

79
Q

This is the genetic mutation that identifies acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML)

A

t(15;17)

80
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is characteristically associated with this disease

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

81
Q

This is the type of Hodgkin lymphoma that is associated with the worst prognosis

A

Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin lymphoma

82
Q

This disease is characterized by plasmacytomas, multiple lytic “punched-out” bone lesions, hypercalcemia; renal failure, and deficiencies in humoral immunity

A

Multiple myeloma

83
Q

This neoplasm is characterized by an increase in all three (3) cell lines as well as has the highest association with mutations in the JAK2 tyrosine kinase

A

Polycythemia vera

84
Q

Birbeck granules (pentalaminar tubules with dilated terminal ends; tennis racket-like) are pathognomonic for this disease

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

85
Q

All intrinsic types of hemolytic anemia are extravascular except for?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

86
Q

Which condition is under the intrinsic type of hemolytic anemia but exhibits both intra- and extravascular hemolysis?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

87
Q

This disease is characterized by defects in membrane skeleton proteins, specifically spectrin, ankyrin, Band 3, and Band 4.2)

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

88
Q

These are found in asplenic G6PD deficiency patients and are derived from hemoglobin

A

Heinz bodies

89
Q

These are found in asplenic sickle cell anemia (SCA) patients and are composed of nuclear remnants

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

90
Q

This disease is characterized by having 3 copies of the abnormal α-globin gene

A

HbH disease

91
Q

This type of immunohemolytic anemia occurs postinfection and is mainly due to IgM

A

Cold agglutinin type

92
Q

Name the two vitamins which when deficient can cause megaloblastic anemia

A

Vitamin B12; Vitamin B9

93
Q

What are the components of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)? What cell product is decreased in this condition?

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia;
Thrombocytopenia; Renal failure; Fever; Neurologic manifestations; ADAMTS13

94
Q

This is the most common adverse transfusion reaction

A

This is the most common adverse transfusion reaction

95
Q

What is called Christmas disease? What is the clotting factor that is lacking in this condition?

A

Hemophilia B; Factor IX

96
Q

This condition is characterized by bilateral adrenal hemorrhage secondary to fibrin thrombi

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

97
Q

This pattern of emphysema is mainly seen in smokers

A

Centriacinar

98
Q

Panacinar emphysema is mainly seen in patients with what condition?

A

α1-antitrypsin deficiency

99
Q

Silicosis is due to chronic exposure to which substance?

A

Quartz

100
Q

Lung tropism of the SARS-CoV- 2 virus is due to it binding to what receptor found on pulmonary alveolar epithelial cells?

A

ACE2 receptors

101
Q

This condition is characterized by chronic airway inflammation and variable expiratory outflow obstruction.

A

Bronchial asthma

102
Q

What do you call the permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles due to destruction of smooth muscle and elastic tissue by inflammation associated with persistent severe infections?

A

Bronchiectasis

103
Q

What are the four (4) stages of inflammation seen in lobar pneumonia?

A

Congestion; Red hepatization; Gray hepatization; Resolution

104
Q

Which type of lung cancer is most commonly found in females and never smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

105
Q

What are the two (2) common paraneoplastic syndromes associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

SIADH; Cushing syndrome

106
Q

This syndrome is characterized by
enophthalmos, ptosis, myosis, and anhidrosis. What do you call the tumors that usually give rise to this syndrome given its characteristic location?

A

Horner syndrome; Pancoast tumors

107
Q

Asbestos exposure is associated with which cancer?

A

Malignant mesothelioma

108
Q

This tumor commonly arises from the posterolateral wall of the nasal cavity, is seen most of the time in young, adolescent males, and is highly vascular.

A

Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

109
Q

What do you call the remnants of thyroid gland descent?

A

What do you call the remnants of thyroid gland descent?

110
Q

This is the most common salivary gland tumor.

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

111
Q

This syndrome is composed of upper esophageal webs, iron deficiency anemia, and glossitis.

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

112
Q

These are longitudinal mucosal tears near the gastroesophageal junction (GEJ) associated with severe retching or vomiting secondary to acute alcohol intoxication.

A

Mallory-Weiss tears

113
Q

What is the hallmark of Barrett esophagus?

A

Presence of Goblet cells within the squamous epithelium of the esophagus

114
Q

This stomach condition is characterized by having a thickened stiff wall with flattened rugae and is associated with diffuse infiltrative.

A

Linitis plastica

115
Q

What is the most common site for neuroendocrine tumors (NETs)?

A

Small intestine

116
Q

Neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) found in which part of the body tend to be multiple and aggressive?

A

Midgut (jejunum and ileum)

117
Q

What is considered as a risk factor for Crohn’s disease but is a protective factor for ulcerative colitis?

A

Smoking

118
Q

What immunohistochemical marker is characteristic of gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs)?

A

CD117

119
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract?

A

Colorectal adenocarcinoma

120
Q

What gene is known as the “gatekeeper of colonic neoplasia” due to it being one of the earliest mutational events that leads to the progression of colorectal cancer?

A

APC

121
Q

This condition occurs when mucinous tumors of the appendix spread to the peritoneum, causing build-up of semisolid mucin in the abdomen.

A

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

122
Q

Which autoimmune cholangiopathy is characterized by having a female predilection, cirrhosis with “garland-shaped” cirrhotic nodules, and is associated with an increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

123
Q

This disease has a male predilection, has radiographic findings of strictures and beading of large bile ducts, and increases the risk for lithiasis and cholangiocarcinoma.

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

124
Q

What do you call the acidophilic apoptotic bodies that signify irreversible liver changes?

A

Councilman bodies

125
Q

This is the diffuse transformation of the liver into regenerating parenchymal nodules, surrounded by dense bands of scar, with variable degrees of vascular shunting.

A

Cirrhosis

126
Q

What is the most common cause of portal hypertension and ascites?

A

Cirrhosis

127
Q

What is the most common cause of acute liver failure (ALF) needing transplantation in the US? Which metabolite of this compound is hepatotoxic?

A

Acetaminophen overdose; NAPQI

128
Q

This is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by impaired copper excretion into bile and incorporation to ceruloplasmin.

A

Wilson disease

129
Q

What is the tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

α-feto protein

130
Q

What are the three (3) main risk factors for developing cholelithiasis?

A

3Fs: Female; Fat; Forty

131
Q

What is the most common histology for gallbladder carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma

132
Q

This condition is the most common congenital anomaly and is the failure of fusion of fetal pancreatic ducts.

A

Pancreatic divisum

133
Q

What is the marker for pancreatic carcinoma?

A

CA 19-9

134
Q

This glomerular syndrome is characterized by hematuria, azotemia, variable proteinuria, edema, and hypertension.

A

Nephritic syndrome

135
Q

This glomerular syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria.

A

Nephrotic syndrome

136
Q

What is the most common cause of nephritic syndrome in children? What is the electron microscopy (EM) finding in this disease?

A

Post-Streptococcal acute glomerulonephritis (PSAGN); Subepithelial humps on glomerular basement membrane (GBM)

137
Q

What is the histologic hallmark for rapidly-progressing glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?

A

Presence of crescents (proliferation of parietal epithelial cells admixed with leukocytes infiltrating the glomerulus)

138
Q

Which disease is characterized by the presence of antibodies against the non-collagenous domain of α3 chain of type IV collagen, which is an antigen found in both alveoli and glomerular basement membrane)?

A

Goodpasture syndrome (RPGN Type I)

139
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease (MCD)

140
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

141
Q

The electron microscopy (EM) findings for this disease include lamina densa that is permeated by a ribbon-like extremely electron-dense structure.

A

Dense deposit disease (MPGN Type II)

142
Q

This is the most common type of glomerulonephritis worldwide and involves IgA deposition limited to the kidneys.

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

143
Q

This hereditary syndrome is characterized by the defective assembly of type IV collagen, leading to abnormalities in the eyes, ears, and kidney.

A

Alport syndrome

144
Q

Struvite stones are associated with infection from which pathogen?

A

Proteus

145
Q

Where is the most common site of metastasis for renal cell carcinoma?

A

Lung (>50%)

146
Q

What is the cytogenetic origin for chromophobe renal cell carcinoma?

A

Intercalated cells of collecting ducts

147
Q

What is the most common malignant kidney tumor? Second most common?

A

Renal cell carcinoma; Wilms tumor

148
Q

Which tumor suppressor gene is inactivated by the HPV- encoded protein E6? E7?

A

p53; RB

149
Q

What is the most common cause of painless testicular enlargement?

A

Testicular tumors

150
Q

What is the most common germ cell tumor?

A

Seminoma

151
Q

These are central blood vessels enveloped by tumor cells found in yolk sac tumors.

A

Schiller-Duval bodies

152
Q

These are laminated mineralized concretions in phagolysosomes found in malakoplakia.

A

Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

153
Q

What do you call the infection of the glans and prepuce?

A

Balanoposthitis

154
Q

Which tumor suppressor gene is inactivated by the HPV- encoded protein E6? E7?

A

p53; RB

155
Q

What is the upper normal limit for prostate-specific antigen (PSA)?

A

4 ng/mL

156
Q

What is the most common site of prostatic adenocarcinoma? Benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Peripheral zone; Transitional zone

157
Q

What ovarian mass is characterized by the presence of mature thyroid tissue which can cause hyperthyroidism?

A

Struma ovarii

158
Q

What do you call the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrial wall?

A

Adenomyosis

159
Q

This is the most common tumor in women.

A

Leiomyoma

160
Q

This is an autoimmune paraneoplastic syndrome characteristically associated with teratomas.

A

Anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) encephalitis

161
Q

Anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) encephalitis

A

Call-Exner bodies

162
Q

What is the karyotype of a complete mole?

A

46 XX

163
Q

This is the most common malignancy of women globally.

A

Breast cancer

164
Q

This gene is associated with male breast cancer.

A

BRCA2

165
Q

This disease involves malignant epithelial cells reaching nipple skin without basement membrane violation.

A

Paget disease of the nipple