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ENT > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what glands produce earwax

A

ceruminous

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2
Q

boundaries of middle ear

A

tympanic membrane to the oval window

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3
Q

where is the organ of corti

A

in the cochlea (in the inner ear)

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4
Q

in the inner ear, what detects sounds and produces nerve impulses

A

organ of corti

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5
Q

what is respiratory epithelium

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

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6
Q

what are the 3 major types of salivary gland

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

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7
Q

what is otitis media

A

inflammation of middle ear

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8
Q

who gets otitis media

A

mostly children

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9
Q

is otitis media more commonly viral or bacterial

A

viral

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10
Q

if otitis media is bacterial - what bacteria?

A
  • strep pneumoniae
  • H influenzae
  • Moxarella catarrhalis

if chronic:
- pseudomonas aeruginosa
- staph aureus
-(fungal)

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11
Q

is cholesteatoma more commonly acquired or congenital

A

acquired

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12
Q

acquired cholesteatoma pathogenesis

A

chronic otitis media and perforated tympanic membrane

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13
Q

congenital cholesteatoma pathogenesis

A

proliferation of embryonic rest

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14
Q

cholesteatoma macroscopy

A

pearly white mass in middle ear

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15
Q

seen on microscopy - squamous epithelium with abundant keratin production. what could it be?

A

cholesteatoma

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16
Q

pathogenesis of ear tumours

A

related to chronic inflammation or radiation

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17
Q

what is vestibular schwannoma also known as

A

acoustic neuroma

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18
Q

which bone do vestibular schwannomas occur within

A

temporal

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19
Q

if a young person has bilateral vestibular schwannoma, what should be considered

A

neurofibromatosis type 2 (autosomal dominant condition)

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20
Q

sinusitis is most commonly preceded by rhinitis, true or false

A

true

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21
Q

Are nasal polyps common in children

A

no

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22
Q

nasal polyps aetiologies

A
  • allergy
  • infection
  • aspirin sensitivity
  • nickel exposure
    (because these cause chronic inflammation)
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23
Q

what should be considered in a child (especially under 5) with nasal polyps

A

cystic fibrosis

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24
Q

which is associated with GPA: MPO-ANCA or PR3-ANCA

A

PR3-ANCA

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25
Q

nasal benign tumours

A
  • squamous cell papillomas
  • sinonasal papillomas
  • angiofibromas
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26
Q

which is the most common type of head and neck cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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27
Q

which cancer has dumbbell appearance on histology

A

neuroblastoma

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28
Q

sinonasal papillomas categories based on histology

A

inverted
exophytic
oncocytic

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29
Q

who typically gets sinonasal papillomas

A

over 50s male

30
Q

sinonasal papilloma most common symptom

A

blocked nose

31
Q

can sinonasal papilloma undergo malignant change

A

yes (10%). most likely to be SSC

32
Q

nasopharyngeal carcinoma incidence

A

low in UK
high in far east and parts of africa

33
Q

which virus does nasopharyngeal carcinoma have a strong association with

A

Epstein Barr virus

34
Q

name a highly malignant nasal tumour

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

35
Q

what can larygeal polyps be secondary to

A
  • vocal abuse (singers)
  • infection
  • smoking
  • rarely associated with hypothyroidism
36
Q

who are laryngeal polyps usually seen in

A

young women

37
Q

which has significant inflammatory component on microscopy, nasal or laryngeal polyps

A

nasal

38
Q

where would you be most likely to get a contact ulcer and why

A

posterior vocal cord because that is where the tissue is thinnest

39
Q

what are the two incidence peaks in Recurrent Respiratory Papillomatosis?

A

<5 years
20-40 years

40
Q

which types of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis are related to HPV exposure?

A

types 6 and 11

41
Q

papillomatosis microscopy

A

finger-like projections
fibrovascular core covered by stratified squamous epithelium

42
Q

what is paraganglioma

A

tumour of chromaffin cells (type of cell that make neurohormones)

43
Q

what are paragangliomas that form in the adrenal glands called

A

phaeochromocytoma

44
Q

what do sympathetic paragangliomas secrete

A

catecholamines

45
Q

which type of paraganglioma tend to be found paravertebral

A

sympathetic

46
Q

where do sympathetic paragangliomas tend to be located

A

in the sympathetic paravertebral ganglia of thorax, abdomen, and pelvis

47
Q

are parasympathetic paragangliomas usually functional or non-functional

A

non-functional

48
Q

where are parasympathetic paragangliomas usually located

A

along the glossopharyngeal and vagal nerves in the neck and at the base of the skull

49
Q

what rare genetic disorder can paragangliomas occur as part of

A

multiple endocrine neoplasia 2

50
Q

main risk factors for SSC

A
  • smoking
  • alcohol
51
Q

what virus can squamous cell carcinoma be related to

A

HPV

52
Q

which type of HPV accounts for 90% of oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma cases

A

type 16

53
Q

what is sialolithiasis

A

salivary gland stones

54
Q

what virus causes mumps

A

paramyxovirus

55
Q

what is the most common salivary tumour

A

pleomorphic adenoma

56
Q

typical pleomorphic adenoma patient

A

female age 20-50, long history, in parotid

57
Q

pleomorphic adenoma macroscopy

A

well circumscribed, light tan to grey

58
Q

on microscopy, what tumour would you see “highly variable epithelial and myoepithelial cells in chondromyxoid stroma”

A

pleomorphic adenoma

59
Q

what is a pleomorphic adenoma

A

benign salivary gland tumors, which predominantly affect the superficial lobe of the parotid gland.

60
Q

pleomorphic adenoma treatment

A

surgically removed, because a pleomorphic adenoma can degenerate into a carcinoma (taking the name of Carcinoma ex Pleomorphic Adenoma).

61
Q

what is the second most common benign salivary gland tumour

A

Warthin’s tumour

62
Q

main cause of Warthin’s tumour

A

smoking

63
Q

Warthin’s tumour typical patient

A

male over 50, smoker

64
Q

on microscopy, which tumour would show “bilayered oncocytic epithelium with lymphoid stroma”

A

Warthin’s tumour

65
Q

which is the most common malignant salivary gland tumour:
a) in the world
b) in the UK

A

a) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b) adenoid cystic carcinoma

66
Q

which salivary gland do the majority of mucoepidermoid carcinomas occur in

A

parotid

67
Q

which salivary gland tumour is associated with MECT1-MAML2 fusion

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

68
Q

typical age of someone with an adenoid cyst carcinoma

A

over 40

69
Q

perineural invasion of adenoid cyst carcinoma symptoms

A

pain or loss of function

70
Q

on microscopy, which salivary gland tumour would show “small, uniform cells with little cytoplasm in solid, tubular or cribiform pattern”

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma

71
Q

what structures are at risk in a parotidectomy

A
  • facial nerve
  • retromandibular vein
  • external carotid artery

ENT (5 decks)

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