Pathology Flashcards
what glands produce earwax
ceruminous
boundaries of middle ear
tympanic membrane to the oval window
where is the organ of corti
in the cochlea (in the inner ear)
in the inner ear, what detects sounds and produces nerve impulses
organ of corti
what is respiratory epithelium
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
what are the 3 major types of salivary gland
parotid
submandibular
sublingual
what is otitis media
inflammation of middle ear
who gets otitis media
mostly children
is otitis media more commonly viral or bacterial
viral
if otitis media is bacterial - what bacteria?
- strep pneumoniae
- H influenzae
- Moxarella catarrhalis
if chronic:
- pseudomonas aeruginosa
- staph aureus
-(fungal)
is cholesteatoma more commonly acquired or congenital
acquired
acquired cholesteatoma pathogenesis
chronic otitis media and perforated tympanic membrane
congenital cholesteatoma pathogenesis
proliferation of embryonic rest
cholesteatoma macroscopy
pearly white mass in middle ear
seen on microscopy - squamous epithelium with abundant keratin production. what could it be?
cholesteatoma
pathogenesis of ear tumours
related to chronic inflammation or radiation
what is vestibular schwannoma also known as
acoustic neuroma
which bone do vestibular schwannomas occur within
temporal
if a young person has bilateral vestibular schwannoma, what should be considered
neurofibromatosis type 2 (autosomal dominant condition)
sinusitis is most commonly preceded by rhinitis, true or false
true
Are nasal polyps common in children
no
nasal polyps aetiologies
- allergy
- infection
- aspirin sensitivity
- nickel exposure
(because these cause chronic inflammation)
what should be considered in a child (especially under 5) with nasal polyps
cystic fibrosis
which is associated with GPA: MPO-ANCA or PR3-ANCA
PR3-ANCA
nasal benign tumours
- squamous cell papillomas
- sinonasal papillomas
- angiofibromas
which is the most common type of head and neck cancer
squamous cell carcinoma
which cancer has dumbbell appearance on histology
neuroblastoma
sinonasal papillomas categories based on histology
inverted
exophytic
oncocytic
who typically gets sinonasal papillomas
over 50s male
sinonasal papilloma most common symptom
blocked nose
can sinonasal papilloma undergo malignant change
yes (10%). most likely to be SSC
nasopharyngeal carcinoma incidence
low in UK
high in far east and parts of africa
which virus does nasopharyngeal carcinoma have a strong association with
Epstein Barr virus
name a highly malignant nasal tumour
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
what can larygeal polyps be secondary to
- vocal abuse (singers)
- infection
- smoking
- rarely associated with hypothyroidism
who are laryngeal polyps usually seen in
young women
which has significant inflammatory component on microscopy, nasal or laryngeal polyps
nasal
where would you be most likely to get a contact ulcer and why
posterior vocal cord because that is where the tissue is thinnest
what are the two incidence peaks in Recurrent Respiratory Papillomatosis?
<5 years
20-40 years
which types of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis are related to HPV exposure?
types 6 and 11
papillomatosis microscopy
finger-like projections
fibrovascular core covered by stratified squamous epithelium
what is paraganglioma
tumour of chromaffin cells (type of cell that make neurohormones)
what are paragangliomas that form in the adrenal glands called
phaeochromocytoma
what do sympathetic paragangliomas secrete
catecholamines
which type of paraganglioma tend to be found paravertebral
sympathetic
where do sympathetic paragangliomas tend to be located
in the sympathetic paravertebral ganglia of thorax, abdomen, and pelvis
are parasympathetic paragangliomas usually functional or non-functional
non-functional
where are parasympathetic paragangliomas usually located
along the glossopharyngeal and vagal nerves in the neck and at the base of the skull
what rare genetic disorder can paragangliomas occur as part of
multiple endocrine neoplasia 2
main risk factors for SSC
- smoking
- alcohol
what virus can squamous cell carcinoma be related to
HPV
which type of HPV accounts for 90% of oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma cases
type 16
what is sialolithiasis
salivary gland stones
what virus causes mumps
paramyxovirus
what is the most common salivary tumour
pleomorphic adenoma
typical pleomorphic adenoma patient
female age 20-50, long history, in parotid
pleomorphic adenoma macroscopy
well circumscribed, light tan to grey
on microscopy, what tumour would you see “highly variable epithelial and myoepithelial cells in chondromyxoid stroma”
pleomorphic adenoma
what is a pleomorphic adenoma
benign salivary gland tumors, which predominantly affect the superficial lobe of the parotid gland.
pleomorphic adenoma treatment
surgically removed, because a pleomorphic adenoma can degenerate into a carcinoma (taking the name of Carcinoma ex Pleomorphic Adenoma).
what is the second most common benign salivary gland tumour
Warthin’s tumour
main cause of Warthin’s tumour
smoking
Warthin’s tumour typical patient
male over 50, smoker
on microscopy, which tumour would show “bilayered oncocytic epithelium with lymphoid stroma”
Warthin’s tumour
which is the most common malignant salivary gland tumour:
a) in the world
b) in the UK
a) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b) adenoid cystic carcinoma
which salivary gland do the majority of mucoepidermoid carcinomas occur in
parotid
which salivary gland tumour is associated with MECT1-MAML2 fusion
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
typical age of someone with an adenoid cyst carcinoma
over 40
perineural invasion of adenoid cyst carcinoma symptoms
pain or loss of function
on microscopy, which salivary gland tumour would show “small, uniform cells with little cytoplasm in solid, tubular or cribiform pattern”
adenoid cystic carcinoma
what structures are at risk in a parotidectomy
- facial nerve
- retromandibular vein
- external carotid artery
