Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Name the pathology:

Tumor where the periosteum is lifted and forms a triangular shell of reactive bone called a Codman Triangle

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

term for bone fractures after repeated stress

A

stress fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

term for: bone is cracked, but not broken into 2 pieces

A

incomplete fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

term: fracture where overlying tissues are intact

A

closed (simple fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

term for fracture where bacteria have a route from the surface to the bone; perhaps the bone is even sticking out the wound

A

compound (open, complicated) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

term for fracture where bone is broken into several pieces

A

multifragmented (comminuted) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

term for fracture where the ends of the bone fragments have done serious damage to the surrounding tissue

A

complex fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

term for fracture due to instrinsic disease of the bone; the force would not have broken a normal bone

A

pathologic fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what kind of cancer develop in a bone that has long-standing osteomyelitis?

A

squaous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which bug most often causes ostoemylitis?

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sickle cell disease pts probably have which bug if they have osteomyelitis?

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what do you call the subperiosteal shell of new viable bone in osteomyelitis?

A

involucrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what do you call the inner native necrotic cortex in osteomylitis?

A

sequestrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is pott’s disease?

A

spinal TB / combined infection of vertebral bodies & joint spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when is a syphilis pt most contagious?

A

secondary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe what happens in tertiary syphilis?

A

1-10 yrs after initial infection

  • formation of gummas (soft tumor like granulomas),
  • -granulomas are chronic & represent an inability to clear the organism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in order what are the 6 joint causing problems in the ER?

A
  1. Ankle
  2. Wrist
  3. Knee
  4. Hip
  5. Shoulder
  6. Elbow
    (A Wookie Knows His Shooting Eye)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the most common type of ankle injury?

A

lateral sprain due to inversion, while walking or running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the most common type of wrist fracture?

A

colles fracture, at the distal radial metaphysis, w/ proximal & dorsal displacement, creating dinner-fork deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

75% of all hemarthroses in knee joing are caused by disruption of what?

A

ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

epidemiologically speaking which pts most often get hip fractures?

A

OLD, WHITE, WOMEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the signs of cauda equina syndrome?

A

bladder distension, ↓anal tone, absent ankle, knee, bulbocavernosus reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the classic triad in rhabdomyolysis?

A

muscle pain, weakness, dark urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which vasculitis commonly affects both arteries & veins?

A

Wegener’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the most common cause of hypersensitivity angiitis?

A

URT infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what do you call it when you have hypersensitivity angiitis + skin + GI + renal ?

A

henoch-Schoenlein purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what kind of Ig is deposited in BV walls in HSP?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the MCC of HSP in adults?

A

drugs: especially sulfonamides, penicillins, cephalosporins, diuretics, phenytoin, and allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the only bone tumor that arises out of the epiphysis of long bones like the distal femur & proximal tibia?

A

Giant cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which malignant bone tumor is related to a peripheral neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)?

A

ewing sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the classic translocation for ewing sarcoma?

A

t(11;22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which tumor has a classic onion skin appearance on xray?

A

ewing sarcoma (onion skin shows the layers of reactive periosteum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what do you call the osteophytes that form at the DIP joints in OA?

A

heberden nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what do you call the osteophytes that form at the PIP joints in OA?

A

Bouchard nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which pathology is associated w/ HLA-DR4?

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the hallmark of RA?

A

synovitis leading to formation of a pannus

37
Q

what are 2 major systemic complications of RA?

A

anemia of chronic disease

secondary amyloidosis

38
Q

what is reiter syndrome?

A

triad of arthritis, urethritis, & conjunctivitis (wks after GI or chlamydia infection)
can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree

39
Q

which arthritis causes sausage fingers?

A

psoriatic arthritis (DIP most affected)

40
Q

what is the etiology of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

X-linked def. of HGPRT

41
Q

how does Lesch-Nyhan syndrome present?

A

w/ mental retardation & self-mutilation

42
Q

what do you call acute gout of the great toe?

43
Q

how does alcohol make gout worse?

A

competes w/ uric acid for elimination in the kidneys & contains lots of purines

44
Q

how do you know you are looking at urate crystals under the microscope?

A

they are negatively birefringment underpolarized light

-YELLOW-URATE-PARALLEL

45
Q

how do you know you are looking at calcium pyrophosphate crystals under the microscope?

A

they are negatively birefringement under polarized light

-rhomboid shaped

46
Q

anti-Jo-1 antibodies are found in what pathology?

A

dermatomyositis & polymyositis

47
Q

what is most common benign soft tissue tumor in adults?

48
Q

what is most common malignant soft tissue tumor in adults?

A

liposarcoma

49
Q

what is most common primary malignant bone tumor?

A

osteosarcoma

50
Q

what is 2nd most common primary malignant bone tumor?

A

chondrosarcoma

51
Q

A chondrosarcoma can arise out of what kind of tumor?

A

enchondroma

52
Q

what are the overall most common tumors in bone?

A

metastatic: Breast Lung Prostate & Kidney

Bud Light Platinums for Kenny

53
Q

what is the most common malignant soft tissue tumor in children?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

54
Q

what is the classic site of rhabdomyosarcoma in young girls?

55
Q

what is a brown tumor?

A

found in hyperparathyroidism

  • cystic & hemorrhagic nature of this lesion
  • very spongy looking
  • not a neoplasm (focus of ↑ osteoclast activity)
56
Q

HLA-B27 is associated with which pathology?

A

ankylosing spondylitis

57
Q

which bone tumor has pain relieved by aspirin?

A

osteoid osteoma

58
Q

what is the most common benign tumor of bone?

A

osteochondroma

59
Q

an osteochondroma can sometimes transform into what malignant bone tumor?

A

chondrosarcoma

60
Q

Paget’s disease of bone has a risk of developing into what malignant bone tumor?

A

osteosarcoma

61
Q

which bone tumor which is found in men that have to change their hat size, also has an increased alkaline phosphatase?

A

paget’s disease of bone

62
Q

which bone cell tumor classically arises out of the epiphyseal end of long bones and has a soap bubble appearance on xray?

A

giant cell tumor

63
Q

what kinds of pts get osteoid osteoma?

A

males in their teens & 20’s

64
Q

what is mafucci syndrome?

A

multiple enchondromas form as well as soft tissue hemangiomas

65
Q

what is Ollier’s disease?

A

nonhereditary syndrome of multiple formations of enchondromas

66
Q

where do enchondromas typically arise from?

A

usually solitary and out of the metaphysis of hands & feet

67
Q

what is McCune Albright syndrome?

A

syndrome where you have polyostotic fibrous dysplasias, cafe-au-laie skin pigmentation, & endocrinoathies

68
Q

which bone tumor has a characteristic moth eaten appearance on radiography?

A

fibrous dysplasia

69
Q

what is a fibrous dysplasia?

A

benign localized developmental arrest

-has all components of bone but doesn’t mature

70
Q

what is a fibrous cortical defect?

A

benign developmental primary bone tumor

71
Q

what do you call a fibrous cortical defect that is greater than 5-6 cm?

A

nonossifying fibroma

72
Q

which primary benign bone tumor has a scooped out appearance on radiography?

A

fibrous cortical defect

73
Q

there are 2 bone tumors (1 is malignant and the other is benign) that both have a storiform pattern on microscopy. What are they?

A

benign: fibrous cortical defect/non-ossifying fibroma
malignant: malignant fibrous histiocytoma

74
Q

Where would probably find a fibrous cortical defect?

A

children at the metaphysis of the femur or proximal tibia

75
Q

what kind of pts get solitary bone cysts and where would you find them?

A

male children, 2/3rds at humerus or femur

76
Q

which benign bone lesion resembles a sponge filled w/ blood?

A

aneurysmal bone cyst

77
Q

why are aneurysmal bone cysts surgically risky?

A

there can be excessive bleeding

78
Q

what kind of pts get aneurysmal bone cyts?

A

children & young adults, arises out of the surface of the bone, commonly found in long bones & vertebrae

79
Q

name the lesion:

reactive, rapidly growing, small, benign, fibrous proliferation on the subcutis, usually as small mass

A

nodular fasciitis

80
Q

where do you most commonly see nodular fasciitis?

A

ARMS of young adults who present with a history of rapid growth

81
Q

name the lesion: post traumatic often lower limb, reactive bone formation in muscle as a result of injury (woven bone in granulation tissue)

A

myositis ossificans

82
Q

what kinds of pts get fibrosarcomas and where?

A

men in their middle age, arises in soft tissues of thigh and posterior knee

83
Q

name the pathology: due to non-cancerous growth of dermal dendritic histiocytic cells, sometimes arises at site of minor injury like an insect bite

A

dermatofibroma

84
Q

name the pathology: soft tissue neoplasm w/ low grade malignancy, locally aggressive w/ high recurrence rate, cutaneous malignancy that arises from the dermis & invades deeper subq tissue

A

dermoatofibrosarcoma Protuberans

85
Q

this tumor contains both fibroblast-like & histiocyte-like cells w/ spindled & rounded cells exhibiting a storiform pattern

A

malignant fibrous histiocytoma

86
Q

which soft tissue neoplasm is classically seen in pts after radiation therapy?

A

malignant fibrous histiocytoma

87
Q

which tumor has a sunburst appearance on xray?

A

osteosarcoma

88
Q

which tumor has homer-wright rosettes, and what are they?

A

ewing sarcoma, tumor cells are arranged in a circle about a central fibrillary space; possible neural differentiation

89
Q

Name the pathology: this disease has saber shins and a saddle nose

A

congenital syphilisy