Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Define Aetiology and Pathogenesis ?

A

Aetiology = the cause of disease

Pathogenesis = mechanism of how a disease develops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the seven different causes of cell injury ?

A

Causes of cellular injury

  • Hypoxia = reduced oxygen supply / heart respiratory failure, anaemia
  • Physiological agents = trauma, extreme cold, extreme heat and UV radiation
  • Chemicals, drugs, toxins = poisons arsenic, 1080
  • Infectious agents = viruses, bacteria, fungi
  • Immunological dysfunction = autoimmune disease, hypersensitivity (allergy)
  • Nutritional deficiencies/ imbalances = hypervitaminosis A, scurvey
  • Genetic disorders = haemophilia, von willebrand disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Although the causes of cell injury are numerous the general mechanisms of injury are few identify these five mechanisms ?

A

The five mechanisms of cell injury

  • ATP depletion
  • altered protein synthesis
  • nucleus damage
  • membrane damage
  • cytoskeleton damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the mechanism of cellular injury ATP depletion ?

A

ATP depletion

  • mitochondria require oxygen to generate cellular energy
  • hypoxia is one of the most common and important causes of cellular injury - results in acute swelling

The mechanism

  • decrease oxidative phosphorylation and results in a decrease in ATP
  • decrease in ATP triggers a switch to anaerobic glycolysis
  • increase anearobic glycolysis
  • resulte in a decrease in glycogen stores and PH
  • decrease enzymatic activity
  • chromatin clumping
  • decrease in ATP causes a failure of K+/P+ pump influx of Na+, Ca2+ ions and cell and organelle swelling.
  • detachment of ribosomes from RER - reduced protein syntheiss and lipid deposition can occur

Excessive ATP depletion

  • severe disruption of cell membranes fragmentation
  • influx Ca2+
  • lysosome rupture and enzyme release
  • severe changes to the nucleus (pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis).

This eventually leads to cell death 2-24 hrs post injury - may still be reversible within the first 60 mins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the mechanism of Membrane damage in cellular injury ?

A

Membrane damage

  • the selective permeability barrier
  • cellular function due to loss of the structural base for enzymes/receptors
  • both the plasma membranes and organelle membranes can be damaged
  • cell injury membrane damage is similar to changes already described for ATP depletion

results in swelling if sevre proceeds to death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe free radicals and the three mechanisms by which they cause cellular damage ?

A

Free radicals

Common cause of membrane damage, highly reactive oxygen species cause lipid peroxidation

Free radicals have unpaired electrons and are oxidising agents

Mechanism

  • lipid peroxidation = of cell membranes (poluunsaturated fats) creates a chain reaction of free radical generation causing extensive membrane damage
  • DNA damage single strand breaks
  • Protein damage oxidation of amino acids

Oxidative stress = imbalance between free radical production and free radical scavenging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three main causes of membrane damage ?

A

Three main causes of membrane damage

Free radicals

  • common
  • highly reactive oxygen species cause lipid peroxidation
  • unpaired electrons highly unstable may injure cells

Direct damage

  • chemicals, bacterial toxins, viruses and immunological injury

Hypoxia

  • ATP depletion (impaired energy supply)
  • causes altered membrane permeability (Na+/K+ pump)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are free radicals and describe three ways in which they cause cell damage ?

A

Free radicals

what

  • highly reactive oxygen species with unpaired electrons
  • O2-, H2O2, HO
  • continuously produced by biological systems
  • scavenging mechanisms - antioxidants
  • oxidative stress is caused by an imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants

Damage to cells

  • lipid peroxidation = oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids creating a chain reaction of free radical generation causing extensive cell membrane damage
  • DNA damage = cause single strand breaks
  • Protein damage = oxidation of amino acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify the two types of reversible cell injury ?

A

There are two types of reversible cell injury

  1. Hydropic degeneration
  2. Fatty acid change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe hydropic degeneration ?

A

Hydropic degeneration

  • reversable cell injury
  • acute cell swelling due to fluid influx
  • injured cells are incapable of maintaining ion and fluid homeostasis
  • vacuolar degeneration
  • Hist cells at the interface of the normal and necrotic areas become pale, swollen and finely vacuolated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe fatty acid change ?

A

Fatty acid change

  • reversable cell injury
  • cell swelling due to lipid accumulation
  • occurs with hypoxic or toxic cell injury
  • frequently a more chronic change than hydropic degeneration

Seen most commonly in the liver - organ central to lipid metabolism (hepatic steatosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of calcium in irreversible cell injury ?

A

Calcium and irreversible cell injury

Calcium activates varous enzymes, proteases, ATPases and phospholipases resulting in

  • membrane damage
  • damage to cytoskelton
  • degradation of chromatin
  • degradation of proteins
  • decrease in ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At what point dose cell injury become irreversible ?

A

Irreversible cell injury is associated with a dritical change

  • severe damage to mitochondria no ATP production
  • severe damage to cell membranes
  • leakage of cellular contents
  • swelling and rapture of lysosomes
  • large amorphous bodies in mitochondria
  • influx of calcium into the cell
  • profound nuclear changes
  • all eventually leading to cell death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Identify a number of agents which may accumulate inside of cells ?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify the four mechanisms by which agents may accumlate within cells ?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the four mechanisms in which lipids may accumulate ?

A

Accumulation of lipid within cells

Accumulation of triglycerides, cholesterol, choleserol esters and phospholipids in cells.

  • Varaible causes
  • decreased oxidation or use of FFA
  • impaired synthesis of apoprotein (not apoprotein is required to to transport lipid)
  • impaired ability to combine lipids and protein to form lipoprotein (rare)
  • impaired release (secretion of lipoproteins from the hepatocyte (uncommon)
  • common in liver, heart and skeltal muscle
  • hepatic lipidosus, hepatic steatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you recognise an accumulation of lipid within cells during hepatic steatosis ?

A

Lipid accumulation / hepatic steatosis

Grossly the liver will appear swollen slightly yellow with a greesy texture.

Histologically, the lipid vacuoles become sharply defined and displace the nucleus to one side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What factors could lead to an accumulation of glycogen within cells, and describe the morphology ?

A

Glycogen

Glycogen is normally stored in the liver and muscle cells

Excess accumulation could result from

  • diabetes mellitus
  • excess corticosteroids
  • in glycogen storage disease, glycogen accumulates as a result of a defective enzyme

Accululation of glycogen appears

  • grossly the liver appears swollen, pale brown and mottled
  • Histologically irregular, clear vacuoles within the cytoplasm
  • PAS stain (periodic acid shift) glycogen stains bright pink +ve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How would you identify the accumulation of protein within a cell ?

A

Protein accumulation

  • Histologically proteins are eosinophilic
  • Russel bodies = cytoplasmic globules (retained immunoglobulins) found with a MOTT cell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between a exogenous and endogenous product accumulating within cells ?

A

Exogenous

  • from outside the body
  • substances eg minerals, lead

Endogenous

  • products of abnormal metabolism
  • eg lysosomal storage disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Identify ?

A

Infectious agents -

  • viral inclusion bodies
  • may be intracellular or intracytoplasmic (or both) eg rabies, canine distemper, parvovirus, herpes etc
  • exogenous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Identify ?

A

Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where would we see melanin in a Veterinary pathology setting ?

A

Melanin in pathology

Chronic injury / endocrine skin disease

  • hyperpigmentation of the skin
  • extra melanin pigment

Congenital melanosis

  • no clinical impairment

Neoplasia

  • melanoma / melanocytoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Identify what is this cellular accumulation

A

Lipofuscin

  • observed in neurons, cardiac myocytes (post mitotic cells)
  • wear and tear pigment
  • often seen with aging - indicating the age of a cell
  • endogenous pigment
  • golden coulour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Identify this cellular accumulation ?

A

Haemosiderin

A intracellular storage complex - found mainly in macrophages

When do we observe Haemosiderin in pathology

  • when there is increased RBC red blood cell destruction ‘haemolysis’
  • chronic congestion
  • iron infections

Grossly = see a brownish tinge (eg lungs, bruised skin)

Histology = golden brown granules (Perl’s Prussian blue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Differentiate between physiological and pathological adaptations of cells ?

A

Cell adaptations

Physiological adaptation

  • occur in normal body conditions
  • usually beneficial
  • eg pregnancy, building of muscle

Pathological adaptation

  • changes occur due to a disease condition
  • usually detrimental for the host
  • eg injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The cellular response to an altered steady state is limited, how can these cells respond ?

A

Cell response to an altered steady state is limited

Reversable cell injury

  • return to normal function (once stress or injury ceases)
  • extent and duration of injury is not excessive

Adapt

  • to the changed conditions
  • can occur after sublethal persistant stress or injury

Irreversable cell injury

  • leads to cell death
  • occurs after severe or prolonged injury

The cellular response depends upon the extent, duration and cell type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define stable, labile and permanent cell division ?

A

Cell division

Permanent

  • terminally differentiated
  • non dividing cells eg skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle and neurons

Stable

  • conditionally dividing cells
  • liver, kidney, endothelium of blood vessels, fibroblasts

Labile

  • constantly having to renew / mutiple via stem cells
  • skin, intestine, urogenital, lining of exocrine glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define hypertrophy, where is this likely to occur and why ?

A

Hypertrophy an increase in the size of cells.

  • size increases by an increase in the number and size of organelles
  • occurs in most organs and tissues
  • more common in permanent and stable cells - which undergo litle replication
  • eg striated and cardiac muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define hyperplasia ?

A

Cellular adaptation

Hyperplasia = an increase in the number of cells

  • increased mitotic division implied
  • most common in labile cells that routinely proliferate and readily become hyperplastic
  • eg epithelium, GIT, glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What stimuli could induce hypertrophy ?

A

The cellular adaptation of hypertrophy is stimulated by

Hypertrophy can occur in response to several different stimuli

  • mechanical or demand
  • pathological eg increased workload
  • hormonal eg oestrogen and pregnancy
  • compensatory loss of a paired organ or part of an organ
  • xenobiotic eg liver cells increase in size after chronic exposure to drugs

Xenobiotic = chemical substances which are foreign to animal life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe stimuli which would cause a hyperplasia response ?

A

Traditionally hyperplasia is divided into physiological and pathological responses

Physiological

  • hormonal eg pregnancy
  • compensatory

Pathological

  • excessive hormonal stimulation (endometrial hyperplasia)
  • chronic irritation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define Atrophy ?

A

Atrophy

Decrease in size or amount of cells, tissue or an organ

  • occurs after normal growth has been reached
  • caused by a decrease in size and or number of cells as a result of gradual and continuous injury

Physiological atrophy also called ‘involution’

eg thymus with age, uterus atrophy post partuition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the pathological causes of atrophy ?

A

The pathological causes of atrophy

  • Nutrient deficient - starvation, reduced blood supply
  • reduced workload - reduced skeletal muscle mass
  • disuse - limb immobilisation following injury
  • denervation - forelimb muscle atrophy after radial nerve paralysis
  • pressure - may cause atrophy of adjacent tissues
  • loss of hormonal stimulation - eg prolonged corticosteroid treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define metaplasia ?

A

Cell adaptation metaplasia

Replacement of one cell type with another

  • it is not the transformation of individual cells
  • stem cells differentiate along a different path, and may eventually replace the original cell type
  • may be reversible in some cases, if the cause is withdrawn
  • can be preneoplastic - indicating an increased risk of neoplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Identify the causes of metaplasia ?

A

The cause of metaplasia

Usually an adaptive change to withstand an adverse environment

  • eg cigarette smokers, vitamin A deficiency in birds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define hypoplasia ?

A

Hypoplasia

Not a true cell adaptation - due to abnormal development

Is the failure of an organ to attain its full size eg enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define Aplasia ?

A

Aplasia

Not a cellular adaptation as it is due to abnormal development

Failure of an organ to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define dysplasia ?

A

Dysplasia

Not a true cellular adaptation as it is due to abnormal cellular development

  • disorderly arrangemnet of cells which can cause abnormal architecture of a tissue/ organ
  • reflects abnormal cellular organsisation and development

eg hip dysplasia, chondrodysplasia (dwarfism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Identify the four stages of wound healing ?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the difference between a granuloma, granulomatous and granulation tissue ?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Summarise the differences between acute and chronic inflammation ?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe four different scar types ?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define the term neoplasia and tumor ?

A

Terms

Neoplasia = a new growth

  • an abnormal mass, composed of cells originally derived from normal tissues
  • uncoordinated and excessive growth
  • unresponsive to normal growth controls
  • persist after cessation of stimuli

Tumor = original meaning swelling

  • now associated with neoplasia or cancer
  • can be benign or malignant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define the terms cancer and oncology ?

A

Terms

Cancer

  • common term for malignant tumors
  • Cancer is a collection of diseases characterised by
  • uncontrolled growth of cells
  • leading to an invasion of surrounding tissues and spread (metastasis) to other parts of the body

Oncology

  • study of tumors or neoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is meant by saying tumors are clonal ?

A

Tumors are clonal

The entire population of neoplastic cells within an individual tumor arise from a single cell that has acquired a genetic change.

clonal expansion - transformation of a normal neoplastic cell can be caused by

  • chemical, physical or biological agentsthat directly and irreversable alter the cells genome
  • characterised by the loss of some or all the cells specialised functions
  • aquisition of new biological functions

Tumors remain independant on the host for nutrition and blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A tumor consist of what two components ?

A

A tumor consist of two components

  1. proliferating neoplastic cells (paranchyma)
  2. supportive stroma
  • made of blood vessels and connective tissue
  • tumor - stromal interactions modulate growth and differentiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What factors determine the namming of a tumor ?

A

Tumor naming depends upon

  • whether the tumor is malignant or benign
  • also reflects the cell type of origin

Benign

  • end oma

Malignant

  • mesenchymal end sarcoma
  • epithelial end in carcinoma

Remember there are always exceptions to the rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Differentiate between malignant and benign tumors ?

A
50
Q

Provide the name of a benign tumor ?

A
51
Q

Name a benign proliferation resembling blood vessels ?

A
52
Q

Name a benign proliferation of adipocytes ?

A
53
Q

Name a benign tumor of smooth muscle ?

A
54
Q

Name abenign tumor of glandular epithelium ?

A

Adenoma

55
Q

Name a host specific benign proliferation of skin : stratified squamous epithelium ?

A

papilloma

56
Q

Name a benign proliferation of the mucosa stratified squamous epithelium ?

A

polyp

57
Q

How would you name a malignant tumor of the epithelium or the mesenchymal tissue ?

A
58
Q

How would you name a malignant proliferation of cells in the mesenchyma of the heart ?

A
59
Q

Name a malignant proliferation of squamous epithelial cells ?

A

carcinoma (produce keratin)

  • produce central keratin pearls
60
Q

Describe the mechanism which results in lipid accumulation in fatty change ?

A

Mechanism of fatty change

  • Excessive delivery of free fatty acids to the liver (GIT dietary excess)
  • Decreased oxidation of FFA (mitochondrial injury)
  • Impaired protein sysnthesis (apoprotein)

More uncommon

  • impaired ability to combine triglycerides and protein to form apoprotein
  • impaired release / secretion of lipoproteins from hepatocytes.
61
Q

Identify the two processes responsible for the changes of necrosis ?

A

Mechanisms of necrosis

1) Denaturation of proteins

due to reduced PH in severely injured and dead cells

2) Enzymatic digestion of cell components

  • Autolysis self digestion by lysosomal enzymes of dead cells
  • Heterolysis lysosomal enzymes from immigrant leukocytes

Necrosis initiates an inflammatory response in adjacent tissues

62
Q

Define postmortem autolysis ?

A

Postmortem autolysis

Cells that die along with the rest of the animal (somatic death)

63
Q

Describe the histological changes observed in necrosis ?

A

Histology of necrosis

Cell nucleus

  • Pyknosis
  • Karyorrhexis
  • Karyolysis

Cell cytoplasm

  • increase eosinophilia (increased binding of eosin to denatured proteins)
  • Pale ghost like appearance (enzymatic digestion of cytoplasmic proteins)
64
Q

Define pyknosis, karyorrhexis and karyolysis in necrotic cell change ?

A
65
Q

Describe the appearance of coagulative necrosis ?

A

Coagulative necrosis

Denaturation of proteins is the prominent process - therefore enzymes are unable to digest cellular components

Cell outline and archetecture intact.

Cytoplasm is uniformly eosinophilic (pink), nucleus may be pyknotic, karyorrhectic, karyolytic or absent.

  • often seen in hypoxic injury
  • often seen in kidney, liver and muscle (not brain)
66
Q

Describe the morphological changes that occur during necrosis ?

A

Morphology of necrosis

  • requires 24-48 hrs to appear grossly
  • pale, soft
  • friable = (easily crumbled)
  • shrply demarcated from viable tissue by a zone of inflammation (histologically)

Necrotic tissue varies widely in appearance both grossly and histologically

67
Q

Describe liquifactive necrosis ?

A

Liquifactive necrosis

Cells are lysed and necrotic tissue is converted to a fluid phase.

  • final stages of brain parenchyma (large amounts of lipid and lytic enzymes)
  • pyogenic pus forming bacterial infections outside the CNS
  • centre of absesses or other collections of neutrophils
68
Q

Describe caseous necrosis ?

A

Caseous necrosis

Dead cells form friable, granular white/yellow mass : alike cottage cheese

  • often involve poorly degradable bacterial components
  • dystrophic calcification (central lesion)
  • cell outline is lost (architecture disrupted)
  • necrotic debris mostly composed of nuclear and cytoplasmic remnants of dead leukocytes
  • surrounded by granulomatous inflammation (macrophages)
  • fibrous connective tissue capsule
69
Q

Describe gangrenous necrosis ?

A

Gangrenous necrosis

Initial lesionis coagulation necrosis

Moist gangrene = contaminated saprophylytic bacteria putrefaction

Gas gangrene = tissue becomes infected with anearobic bacteria (Clostridium sp)

Dry gangrene = necrotic tissue dries out and becomes mummified extremeties eg frost bite, ergot, fescue toxin

70
Q

Describe fat necrosis ?

A

Fat necrosis

Enzymatic necrosis of fat

  • activated pancreatic enzymes released during pancreatis or damage to pancreatic duct
  • destruction of surrounding tissue by lipases from pancrease
  • often get dystrophic calcification
  • traumatic when fat is crushed (pelvic canal in heifers)
  • idiopathic necrosis (unknown cause)
71
Q

Detail the mechanisms underlying apoptosis ?

A
72
Q

Describe what you would observe histologically with apoptosis ?

A
73
Q

What is dystrophic calcification ?

A

Dystrophic calcification

calcium salts depositied in tissue

  • deposition occurs locally in damaged, dying or dead tissue
  • occurs despite normal serum calcium levels
  • eg heart, skeletal muscle
  • significance it indicates previous injury
  • grossly looks white and has a gritty feel when incised

Basophilic blue fine granule dumps

74
Q

Describe metastatic calcification ?

A

Metastatic calcification

calcium salts deposited in tissue

deposition in otherwise normal tissue

  • secondary to hypercalcaemia
  • eg renal failure - calcium deposition
  • gastric mucosa, kidney, alveolar
75
Q

Describe the differences you would observe histologically in cells undergoing apoptosis or necrosis ?

A
76
Q

Describe the main histological differences between a benign and malignant neoplasm ?

A

Histological differences benign and malignant neoplasm

Differentiation

Rate of growth

Local invasion

Metastasis

77
Q

Describe how we use differentiation to distinguish between benign and malignant neoplasm ?

A

Differentiation

  • the extant to which neoplastic cells resemble corresponding cells morphologically and functionally
  • poorly differentiated cells are a hallmark of malignancy
  • Anaplasia = lack of differentiation
  • cells display pleomorphism (marked different size and shape of cells)
  • large cell, irregular size and shape, hyperchromatic dark nuclei, multinucleated, disorganised
78
Q

Describe how we use growth to differentiated between benign and malignant neoplasms ?

A

Growth rate differentiation

Benign

  • grow slowly
  • progressive growth
  • rare mitotic figures

Malignant

  • grow rapidly - often outgrow blood supply leading to necrosis
  • erratic growth (may appear slow)
  • OFTEN NUMEROUS MITOTIC FIGURES (in the process of division)
79
Q

How do we use local invasion to differentiate between benign and malignant neoplasms ?

A

Local invasion for differentiation

Benign

  • remain localised to site of origin (discrete lesion)
  • well demarcated
  • cohesive, expansile growth
  • fibrous capsule

Malignant

  • progressive infiltration invasion and destruction of surrounding tissue
  • do not recognise anatomical boundaries
  • typically unencapsulated

Invasiveness is a reliable indicator of malignancy

80
Q

Using metastasis to differentiate between benign and malignant tumors ?

A

Metastasis

Metastasis is the single most reliable hallmark of malignancy

M = when colonies of tumor cells take up residence at a distant site from the parent tumor - the neoplasm has migrated to another location

81
Q

Identify the pathways of tumor metastasis ?

A

Pathways of metastasis

  1. Direct seeding - transcoelomic spread in the body cavities / surfaces
  2. Lymphatics - most carcinomas spread via the lymphatic system
  3. Blood vessels - typical spread of sarcomas and also seen in carcinomas liver and lungs

For metastasis to occur the neoplasm must have the correct gene combination .

82
Q

Describe the mechanisms of invasion and metastasis (8 steps) ?

A

The mechanisms of invasion in metastasis

  1. Detach - from main tumor mass - reduce cell to cell adhesion
  2. Adhere and penetrate basement membrane
  3. Invade extracellular matrix - adhere, migrate, degrade and remodel
  4. Invade blood vessels lymph nodes (intravasation)
  5. evade immune system cells - often form small tumor emboli with platelets
  6. excit from vessel (extravasation)
  7. colonise new site
  8. stimulate new blood vessel growth angiogenesis ( to grow and thrive)
83
Q

Describe the tumour stromal interactions Scirrhous response and cytokine production ?

A

Tumour stromal interactions

  • Successful tumours can co-opt and adapt the environment to their own inferiors means
  • tumour cell and stroma interact in a variety of ways (wide range of signalling molecules; growth factors, cytokines, hormones and inflammatory mediators
  • modulate growth rate, differentiation state and behaviour of tumour cells (invasiveness, metastatic capability)

Scirrhous response (PDGF platelet derived factor)

  • some tumour cells release PDGF which stimulates proliferation of fibroblast, and increased production of collagen
  • often seen in epithelial cell tumours

Cytokine production

  • Some tumour cells induce stromal cells to produce cytokines which promote tumour proliferation or motility
84
Q

Describe how tumors evade the immune system ?

A

The immune response to neoplasms

Neoplastic cells have antigen on their cell surface. These antigens are able to stimulate a immune response, and in some cases this response may lead to regression of the tumour.

However many cells evade the body’s immunosurveillance

  • antigen loss of tumour cell
  • class one MHC deficient tumour cell
  • immunosuppressive cytokines
85
Q

Provide an overview of inflammation ?

A
86
Q

Provide the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation ?

A
87
Q

Describe the role of preformed vasoactive amines as part of the chemical response in inflammation ?

A

Chemical response preformed vasoactive amines

Histamine

  • mast cells, basophils and platelets
  • increase muscous production and bronchial constriction
  • vasodilation and vascular permeability

Serotonins

  • platelets of mammals
  • important neurotransmitter
  • vasodilation and vascular permeability
88
Q

Describe newly synthesised eicosenoids part of the chemical response in inflammation ?

A

Newly synthesised eicosenoids - chemical response in inflammation

Arachnidonic acid and metabolitesderived from cell membrane lipids - mediate many aspects of acute inflammation

Prostaglandins

  • ​endothelial cells, mast cells = vasodilation
  • fever, pain and increase in vascular permeability
  • act upon hypothalamus

Leukotrienes

  • vasoconstriction and increase vascular permeability
  • LTB4 potent chemotactic agent for leukocytes
  • however, an incrase in conc leads to vasodilation
89
Q

What are the plasma derived (largely from liver) mediators of inflammation ?

A
90
Q

Describe the complement cascade = function and activation ?

A

Compliment cascade

Inflammation activates circulating complement proteins

  • synthesised by liver up of 25 complement proteins
  • activated by microbes, antibodies, endotoxins and venom

Function

  • form membrane attack complexes - perforate membranes of pathogens
  • when complement proteins become activated they become activated proteolytic enzymes
  • promote chemotaxis and opsonisation
  • enhance histamine release from mast cells
  • these in turn activate other compliment proteins resulting in powerful enzymatic amplification
  • the critical step is activation C3 (most abundant compliment protein)
91
Q

Describe the three ways in which the compliment cascade can be activated ?

A

Activation of the compliment cascade

Classical pathway

  • binding of CL to AB-Ag complexes

alternative pathway

  • binding of endotoxin or LPS

Lectin pathway

  • plasma manose binding lectin binds to CHOS on microbes activation CL
92
Q

Describe what the membrane attack complex is composed of ?

A
93
Q

Describe the function of complement fragments C3a, C3b, C5a and C5b ?

A
94
Q

Describe the plasma derived component the Kinin system ?

A

The kinin system

Activated by hageman factor 12

  • activated by secondary exposure of collagen or basement membrane, when endothelium is damaged

Bradykinin

  • vasoactive amine
  • vasodilation and increase in vascular permeability (endothelial cell contraction)
  • increases sensitivity to pain
  • Kallikreins - kininogens - bradykinin

Plays a role in blood pressure and inflammation via the production of bradykinin

95
Q

Describe the vascular response in inflammation ?

A

Acute inflammation is a vasocentric process

  • characterised by marked vascular changes vasodilation, increased permeability and fluid exudation
  • exudation of fluid, plasma proteins
  • emigration of leukocytes

What is responsible for this marked vascular response

  • mast cell degranulation (BK, PGs and FR) causing vasodilation which in turn increases blood flow.
96
Q

Provide an overview of the chemical mediators of acute inflammation

A
97
Q
A

Genes of oncogenesis

Proto oncogenes

  • help regulate cell growth and differentiation
  • when modified in a way initiates or promotes neoplasia are then called oncogenes (promotors of autonomous cell growth RAS)

Tumour suppressor genes p53 (transcription up regulation)

  • the gene initiates cell cycle arrest at checkpoints
  • allows for time to repair DNA damage
  • many tumours have a mutation in p53, preventing cell arrest

Genes coding for DNA repair

  • tumours can regain the ability to replicate telomeres - immortality

Genes which code for DNA repair proteins

  • cells accumulate potentially mutagenic DNA damage

The development of neoplastic behaviour in a cell is complex, multi step process “stepwise development neoplasia”

98
Q

Describe the vascular response in acute inflammation ?

A
99
Q
A

The three steps of neoplasia development

Initiation

  • cell is primed by a non lethal, irreversible genetic change
  • appears morphologically normal
  • may remain quiescent for years

Promotion (high risk)

  • initiated cell expands to form a preneoplastic lesion or benign tumour
  • in response to stimuli called promoting agents
  • stimulate proliferation of mutated cells eg. hormones or drugs
  • not mutagenic effects are reversable

Progression

  • with further epigenetic or genetic alterations a malignant tumour arises from a sub clone
  • represents an irreversible change in the nature of the tumour
  • complex and poorly understood process
100
Q

Describe the mechanisms underlying vascular permeability ?

A
101
Q

Describe four preneoplastic changes and what induces them ?

A
102
Q
A
103
Q
A
104
Q

Describe some factors which contribute to the development of neoplasia ?

A
105
Q
A
106
Q

Provide some intrinsic and extrinsic factors which could contribute to the development of neoplasms ?

A
107
Q

Describe the importance of angiogenesis with relation to tumour cells ?

A

Angiogenesis

Continued growth of solid tumour cells absolutely depends on adequate blood supply

  • provides oxygen and nutrients to growing tumours
  • tumours induce angiogenesis via growth factors and other signalling molecules released from ECM - VEGF and FGF
  • blood vessels in tumours are tortuous, irregularly shaped, disorganised, leaky and unstable
108
Q

Describe the immune response to neoplasms, and tumour evasion of the immune response ?

A

Immune response to neoplasms

Neoplastic cell have antigens on the cell surface (proteins, glycoproteins, glycolipids)

  • These antigen elicit an immune response
  • the inflammation response dose not in general protect against neoplasia
  • macrophages, NK cells and cytotoxic T cells

Evasion of the immune response

  • antigen loss variant of tumour cell
  • class one MHC deficient tumour cell
  • immunosuppressive cytokines
109
Q
A
110
Q
A

Direct effects of neoplasia

A direct effect is when a tumour directly compromises the function of organs in which they arise

  • replace normal tissue of organs
  • cause pressure atrophy of adjacent tissue
  • compress adjacent blood vessels to cause ischaemia (blood restriction) and tissue necrosis
  • erosion of blood vessels can cause extensive haemorrhage
  • may rupture hollow organs such as the stomach, intestine or urinary bladder
111
Q
A

Indirect effects of a neoplasm

Indirect and often remote effects caused by tumour cell products - known as paraneoplastic syndrome (occur in >70% of human patients)

  • cachexia
  • endocrinopathies
  • skeletal syndromes
  • vascular and haematologic syndromes
  • neurological syndromes
  • cutaneous syndromes
112
Q
A

Cachexi

Many animals with cancer show notible weight loss and debility

  • loss of both muscle and fat
  • Aetiological complex - extra calories do not reverse the catabolic state
  • anorexia impaired digestion
  • nutritional demands of neoplastic tissues / nutrient loss of neoplasm
  • metabolic and endocrine derangements
  • humoral factor = TNF - alpha, interleukins IL-1 IL-6 and prostaglandins
113
Q

What are the indirect effects of endocrinopathies with respect to neoplasm ?

A

Endocrinopathies

Due to an overproduction of hormones

  • hyperthyroidism due to thyroid neoplasia
  • Cushing’s disease (hyper-adrenocortism) due to pituitary or adrenal neoplasm

There are also a variety of non-endocrine neoplasms which produce hormonally active substances (ectopic hormone production)

  • hypercalcaemia or hypoglycaemia are frequently observed due to neoplasm
  • A wide variety of carcinomas/sarcomas result in the production of parathyroid hormone. Parathyroid hormone PTH removes calcium from bones, increases intestinal and kidney absorption causing hypercalcemia
  • Hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar) is seen with insulinomas - a functional neoplasm of the islet of Langerhans beta cells = results in incoordination, lethargy, weakness and seizures.
114
Q
A

Hypertrophic osteopathy

Observed in cats and dogs

  • extensive periosteal new bone growth
  • occurs with a variety of neoplasms but frequently associated with neoplastic and non neoplastic space occupying thoracic lesions
  • the cause is not known - but presumed to be overproduction of growth hormone
115
Q
A

Haematological and vascular syndromes

Neoplasia causes a variety of vascular and haematological disorders, cause remains unclear

  • anaemia
  • eosinophilia
  • neutrophilia
  • thrombocytopaenia (⅓ of all dogs with neoplasia)
  • disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
116
Q
A
117
Q
A

How to diagnose neoplasia

Clinical signs and symptoms

  • generalised lymphadenopathy in lymphoma
  • cachexia
  • respiratory distress with coughing / pulmonary neoplasm
  • lameness in dogs with hypertrophic osteopathy

Blood analysis

  • anaemia, leucocytosis (up), DIC
  • paraneoplastic syndromes (hypercalcemia)
  • specific markers (prostatic specific antigen in humans)

Imaging techniques

  • radiography, ultrasound and CT scans
  • can detect primary and metastatic neoplasms

A definitive diagnosis is carried out through cytology and histopathology.

Classification and naming of a neoplasm requires microscopic examination of cells - techniques which are routinely practised.

118
Q

How do we use cytology to identify a neoplasm ?

A

Cytology

A sample is collected from solid neoplasms, or body fluids for cytology (examination of individual cells)

  • stain with a simple rapid stain Diff-Quik
  • may also include skin scrapings or impression smears
  • in house or sent away to a laboratory
119
Q
A

Identifiable features

Cell type involved

Scrutinise for features of malignancy

  • degree of cell differentiation
  • mitotic index
  • evidence of invasion or metastasis

Techniques

  • Haematoxylin and eosin - histopathology
  • Toluidin blue - mast cells
  • Immunohistochemistry - antibodies
  • molecular methods PCR
120
Q
A

Tumour development

Step wise tumour development - cumulative effect of multiple genetic (and epigenetic) changes over a long time course that creates a tumour.

Many genes are required to direct and control the steps within the normal cell cycle

Oncogenesis = is the complex process by which neoplastic cells develop.

DNA mutations can occur in one or many of the different genes that normally regulate cell growth and differentiation-

  • proto oncogenes - regulate cell growth and differentiation
  • tumour suppressor genes such as p53 - slow
  • genes which code for DNA repair proteins
  • telomerases
121
Q

What are the four actions of thrombin ?

A
122
Q
A