Pathology Flashcards
Pathogenesis is defined as…
The sequence of events from a healthy state to clinical disease
Some sequelae of coronary artery thromobosis are?
Myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, ischaemia, angina, heart failure
Physical characteristics of inflammation include…
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
Redness and heat assoc with inflammation is due to…
Vasodilation within the damaged area, causing increased blood flow and as a result skin temperature
Necrosis is defined as…
(premature) Cell death
Apoptosis is defined as…
It is useful because…
Programmed cell death
Get rid of damaged, dead cells and debris
Resolution is complete restoration of inflamed tissue. Factors favouring this include…
Minimal cell death/damage
Occurrence in an organ/tissue with good regenerative capacity
Short duration/rapid destruction of causal agent
Suppuration is…
The formation of pus, made up of living cells, dying cells, dead neutrophils, debris and bacteria
Organisation of tissues after inflammation is their replacement by _____ tissue
Granulation
Describe how granulation tissue is formed?
Capillaries grow into the inflammatory exudate with macrophages and fibroblasts
Angiogenesis, fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis (forms scars) occurs
Processes regulated by GFs (TNF, EGF)
Permanent cells are more susceptible to mutations. True/False?
False
Dividing cells are more susceptible - e.g. skin, gut, bone, hair cells
p53 is important in DNA repair. What does it do?
Recognises a base pair sequence alteration and triggers cell death when the DNA is damaged
Free radicals are dangerous to membrane integrity. What do they do?
Lipid peroxidation - bind to lipids and reduce their solubility
Broccoli and cabbage have high anti-oxidants that scavenge and destroy free radicals
An example of an area where colliquative necrosis would occur?
Brain
Liquid myelin sheath of nerve fibres remains after brain substance dies
An example of caseous necrosis?
Tuberculosis
An example of an area where fibrinoid necrosis would occur?
Blood vessels (most common in liver) Walls replaced by fibrin
Principle causes of acute inflammation include…
Bacterial and viral infections
Hypersensitivity
Trauma
Chemicals and irritants
The 3 phases of acute inflammation are:
Vascular - vasodilation and increased permeability
Exudative - fluid and cells escape from venules
Cellular - neurophils etc accumulate
What happens in transendothelial migration?
Neutrophils insert part of their cytoplasm into endothelium when they come into contact with ICAM-1
What is the effect of histamine?
What is it released by?
Vasodilation, increases vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction
Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils
Chronic inflammation is associated with the presence of…
Lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells
Formation of granulation tissue -> fibrosis
Characteristic appearances of chronic inflammation include…
Ulcer formation
Abscess cavities/suppurative inflammation
Granulomatous inflammation
Fibrosis
A granuloma is defined as…
An aggregate of epitheloid histiocytes (macrophages etc)
Labile cells are cells that only multiply upon receiving a stimulus. True/False?
False
Multiply continually - stable cells only multiply after stimulus
First intention healing is when there is an ulcerated surface. True/False?
False
Surgical scar is left - minimal granulation tissue and fibrosis
Metabolic disorders are of two types - ?
Inherited or acquired
Inherited metabolic disorders are usually autosomal dominant. True/False?
False
Autosomal recessive!
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is insulin dependent. True/False?
True
Type 1 Diabetes has no autoimmune assoc. True/False?
False
Type 2 has no autoimmune assoc.
Hyperplasia is defined as…
Enlargement due to increase in cell number
Hypertrophy is defined as…
Enlargement due to increase in cell size (no increase in cell number)
Atrophy is defined as…
Reduction in size due to decrease in cell size and number
Hypoplasia is defined as…
Reduced size of an organ that never fully developed to normal size
(failure of organ development)
Which out of hyperplasia, hypoplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy are potentially reversible?
Hyperplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy
Metaplasia is defined as…
Altered differentiation, where a mature cell type transforms into another cell type
In Barrett’s oesophagus, ____ epithelium is replaced by ____ epithelium
Squamous, glandular
Stable cells divide upon stimulation. Examples include…
Hepatocytes
Fibroblasts
Permanent cells are not able to divide further. Examples include…
Neurones
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Senescence is defined as…
Deterioration of function of cells
Some characteristics of benign neoplasms
Resemble normal No invasion Well differentiated Normal mitotic figures DO NOT METASTASISE
Some characteristics of maligant neoplasms
Invasive
Varied differentiation
Abnormal mitotic figures
Necrosis is common
Carcinomas are derived from mesenchymal cells/tissues. True/False?
False
Derived from epithelial tissue
Sarcomas are derived from which type of tissue?
Mesenchymal tissue
Squamous papillomas and adenomas are examples of which neoplasms?
Benign
Neoplastic cells are monoclonal. What does this mean?
All cells in the lesion are derived from a single common ancestor
What is dysplasia?
A pre-malignant process that involves altered differentiation
What is angiogenesis?
Formation of new blood vessels
What happens when angiogenesis becomes pathological?
Control of formation is lost - vessels formed are abnormal
What are the modulators of angiogenesis? What is the inhibitor?
Hypoxia, VEGF, TNFa
Thrombospondin-1 is the inhibitor
Sarcomas metastasise by which route?
Haematogenous
How can radiation cause cancer?
Causes oxidative stress, producing free radicals which damage DNA and other cells
Name some examples of classical oncogenes (stimulate cell division)
PDGF
ras
src
Name some examples of tumour suppressor genes
p53
BRCA-1
A daughter with mother with breast cancer at aged 70 is an example of a medium risk patient. True/False?
False
Low risk
An individual with a BRCA1 mutation is an example of a high risk patient. True/False?
True
Well differentiated tumours tend to have a better prognosis. True/False?
True
Duke’s Stage A means…
Cancer is confined to wall
Duke’s Stage B means…
Cancer penetrates wall
Duke’s Stage C means…
Lymph node metastasis
Duke’s Stage D means…
Metastatic disease
T1 staging means…
Invasion of submucosa
T2 staging means…
Invasion of muscularis propria
T3 staging means…
Invasion of tissues
T4 staging means…
Invasion of nearby organs
N0 staging means…
No lymph node metastasis
N1 staging means…
1-3 lymph nodes affected
N2 staging means…
4+ lymph nodes affected
