Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogenesis is defined as…

A

The sequence of events from a healthy state to clinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Some sequelae of coronary artery thromobosis are?

A

Myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, ischaemia, angina, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Physical characteristics of inflammation include…

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Redness and heat assoc with inflammation is due to…

A

Vasodilation within the damaged area, causing increased blood flow and as a result skin temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Necrosis is defined as…

A

(premature) Cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Apoptosis is defined as…

It is useful because…

A

Programmed cell death

Get rid of damaged, dead cells and debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Resolution is complete restoration of inflamed tissue. Factors favouring this include…

A

Minimal cell death/damage
Occurrence in an organ/tissue with good regenerative capacity
Short duration/rapid destruction of causal agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Suppuration is…

A

The formation of pus, made up of living cells, dying cells, dead neutrophils, debris and bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Organisation of tissues after inflammation is their replacement by _____ tissue

A

Granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe how granulation tissue is formed?

A

Capillaries grow into the inflammatory exudate with macrophages and fibroblasts
Angiogenesis, fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis (forms scars) occurs
Processes regulated by GFs (TNF, EGF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Permanent cells are more susceptible to mutations. True/False?

A

False

Dividing cells are more susceptible - e.g. skin, gut, bone, hair cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

p53 is important in DNA repair. What does it do?

A

Recognises a base pair sequence alteration and triggers cell death when the DNA is damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Free radicals are dangerous to membrane integrity. What do they do?

A

Lipid peroxidation - bind to lipids and reduce their solubility
Broccoli and cabbage have high anti-oxidants that scavenge and destroy free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An example of an area where colliquative necrosis would occur?

A

Brain

Liquid myelin sheath of nerve fibres remains after brain substance dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An example of caseous necrosis?

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An example of an area where fibrinoid necrosis would occur?

A
Blood vessels (most common in liver)
Walls replaced by fibrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Principle causes of acute inflammation include…

A

Bacterial and viral infections
Hypersensitivity
Trauma
Chemicals and irritants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The 3 phases of acute inflammation are:

A

Vascular - vasodilation and increased permeability
Exudative - fluid and cells escape from venules
Cellular - neurophils etc accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens in transendothelial migration?

A

Neutrophils insert part of their cytoplasm into endothelium when they come into contact with ICAM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the effect of histamine?

What is it released by?

A

Vasodilation, increases vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction
Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chronic inflammation is associated with the presence of…

A

Lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells

Formation of granulation tissue -> fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Characteristic appearances of chronic inflammation include…

A

Ulcer formation
Abscess cavities/suppurative inflammation
Granulomatous inflammation
Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A granuloma is defined as…

A

An aggregate of epitheloid histiocytes (macrophages etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Labile cells are cells that only multiply upon receiving a stimulus. True/False?

A

False

Multiply continually - stable cells only multiply after stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
First intention healing is when there is an ulcerated surface. True/False?
False | Surgical scar is left - minimal granulation tissue and fibrosis
26
Metabolic disorders are of two types - ?
Inherited or acquired
27
Inherited metabolic disorders are usually autosomal dominant. True/False?
False | Autosomal recessive!
28
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is insulin dependent. True/False?
True
29
Type 1 Diabetes has no autoimmune assoc. True/False?
False | Type 2 has no autoimmune assoc.
30
Hyperplasia is defined as...
Enlargement due to increase in cell number
31
Hypertrophy is defined as...
Enlargement due to increase in cell size (no increase in cell number)
32
Atrophy is defined as...
Reduction in size due to decrease in cell size and number
33
Hypoplasia is defined as...
Reduced size of an organ that never fully developed to normal size (failure of organ development)
34
Which out of hyperplasia, hypoplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy are potentially reversible?
Hyperplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy
35
Metaplasia is defined as...
Altered differentiation, where a mature cell type transforms into another cell type
36
In Barrett's oesophagus, ____ epithelium is replaced by ____ epithelium
Squamous, glandular
37
Stable cells divide upon stimulation. Examples include...
Hepatocytes | Fibroblasts
38
Permanent cells are not able to divide further. Examples include...
Neurones Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle
39
Senescence is defined as...
Deterioration of function of cells
40
Some characteristics of benign neoplasms
``` Resemble normal No invasion Well differentiated Normal mitotic figures DO NOT METASTASISE ```
41
Some characteristics of maligant neoplasms
Invasive Varied differentiation Abnormal mitotic figures Necrosis is common
42
Carcinomas are derived from mesenchymal cells/tissues. True/False?
False | Derived from epithelial tissue
43
Sarcomas are derived from which type of tissue?
Mesenchymal tissue
44
Squamous papillomas and adenomas are examples of which neoplasms?
Benign
45
Neoplastic cells are monoclonal. What does this mean?
All cells in the lesion are derived from a single common ancestor
46
What is dysplasia?
A pre-malignant process that involves altered differentiation
47
What is angiogenesis?
Formation of new blood vessels
48
What happens when angiogenesis becomes pathological?
Control of formation is lost - vessels formed are abnormal
49
What are the modulators of angiogenesis? What is the inhibitor?
Hypoxia, VEGF, TNFa | Thrombospondin-1 is the inhibitor
50
Sarcomas metastasise by which route?
Haematogenous
51
How can radiation cause cancer?
Causes oxidative stress, producing free radicals which damage DNA and other cells
52
Name some examples of classical oncogenes (stimulate cell division)
PDGF ras src
53
Name some examples of tumour suppressor genes
p53 | BRCA-1
54
A daughter with mother with breast cancer at aged 70 is an example of a medium risk patient. True/False?
False | Low risk
55
An individual with a BRCA1 mutation is an example of a high risk patient. True/False?
True
56
Well differentiated tumours tend to have a better prognosis. True/False?
True
57
Duke's Stage A means...
Cancer is confined to wall
58
Duke's Stage B means...
Cancer penetrates wall
59
Duke's Stage C means...
Lymph node metastasis
60
Duke's Stage D means...
Metastatic disease
61
T1 staging means...
Invasion of submucosa
62
T2 staging means...
Invasion of muscularis propria
63
T3 staging means...
Invasion of tissues
64
T4 staging means...
Invasion of nearby organs
65
N0 staging means...
No lymph node metastasis
66
N1 staging means...
1-3 lymph nodes affected
67
N2 staging means...
4+ lymph nodes affected