Patho test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is characterized by ____ levels of ADH in the absence of normal control mechanisms.

A

high

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2
Q

An anterior pituitary adenoma usually causes ___ of hormones from the adenoma itself and ___ of hormones from the surrounding pituitary cells.

A

hypersecretion; hyposecretion

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3
Q

Women who have gestational diabetes have ___ risk for type 2 diabetes later in life.

A

increased

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4
Q

An individual with type 1 diabetes who have the dawn phenomenon has a ___ blood glucose in the early morning than in the middle of the night.

A

increased

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5
Q

Cretinism is caused by untreated congenital ___.

A

hypothyroidism

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6
Q

In autoimmune diabetes, also called type ___ diabetes, pancreatic beta cells are destroyed by autoreactive ___.

A

1A ; cytotoxic T lymphocytes

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7
Q

Persons who have type 1 diabetes have a deficit of insulin and ____ and a relative excess of ___.

A

amylin ; glucagon

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8
Q

In diabetes, microvascular disease refers to ____ whereas macrovascular disease refers to ___.

A

destruction of capillaries ; accelerated atherosclerosis.

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9
Q

What are some characteristics of cushings disease?

A

facial flush; moon face; purple striae, trunk obesity, thin extremities, easy bruising, pendulous abd.

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10
Q

Caused by a problem in the gland that secretes a hormone whose action is directed toward other tissues rather than to another gland

A

Primary endocrine disorder

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11
Q

cortisol excess causes

A

lipolysis and altered fat distribution

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12
Q

Reason why people with Cushings bruise so easily

A

excess cortisol causes proteins to break down and make small blood vessels fragile

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13
Q

Reason why people with Cushings have hyperpigmentation

A

ACTH excess causes excess production of MSH which stimulates melanin

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14
Q

Caused by a problem with a gland that secretes a hormone whose target tissues are another gland that it stimulates or suppresses.

A

Secondary endocrine disorder

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15
Q

It is the effects of having too much thyroid hormone, as seen with hyperthyoidism

A

thyrotoxicosis

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16
Q

The effects of dangerously high levels of thyroid hormone

A

thyrotoxic crisis

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17
Q

S/S of thyrotoxic crisis

A

high fever, extreme tachycardia, and potential death from heart failure or cardiac dysrythmias.

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18
Q

caused by a problem in the hypothalamus of the posterior pituitary that decreases ADH release

A

neurogenic diabetes insipidus

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19
Q

caused by a problem in the kidney itself that causes insensitivity to ADH.

A

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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20
Q

Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults

A

acromegaly

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21
Q

Occurs with hypersecretion of growth hormone in children and adolescents whose epphyseal plates have not yet closed, so their big bones are able to grow

A

gigantism

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22
Q

Lethargy, hyponatremia, perhaps seizure, decreased plasma osmolality, concentrated urine

A

SIADH

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23
Q

Lethargy, cold intolerance, hoarseness, nonpitting boggy edema around eyes, course hair, decreased body temperature

A

Hypothyroidism

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24
Q

Hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, severe HA, diaphoresis, heat intolerance, weight loss, constipation.

A

pheochromocytoma

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25
Q

Virilizations: lack of breast development, hirsutism, increased muscle bulk

A

adrenal adenoma causing hypersecretion of androgens in a woman

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26
Q

polyuria, decreased level of consciousness, kussmaul breathing, acetone smell of breath, hyperglycemia, decreased blood pH, ketonuria, glycosuria.

A

diabetic ketoacidosis

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27
Q

tachycardia, diaphoresis, tremor, pallor, confusion, decreased level of consciousness, perhaps seizure

A

hypoglycemia

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28
Q

hypertension, hypokalemia, increased blood pH, increased urine potassium

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

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29
Q

polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, increased appetite, weight loss, hyperglycemia, glycosuria

A

type 1 diabetes mellitus

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30
Q

polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, hypernatrremia, increased plasma osmolality, large volume of dilute urine

A

diabetes insipidus

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31
Q

weakness, fatigue, hypotension, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, elevated ACTH

A

Addison Disease

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32
Q

Failure of the hypothalamus to secrete its usual hormones presents clinically as ___ disease.

A

pituitary

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33
Q

Tumors of chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla are called ____.

A

pheochromocytomas

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34
Q

Excessive water intake that decreases plasma osmolality by overwhelming the ADH mechanisms is called ___ diabetes insipidus.

A

dipsogenic

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35
Q

When necrosis or another problem in the anterior pituitary causes deficiency of all its hormones, the individuals has ___.

A

panhypopituitasism

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36
Q

Prolactin-secreting tumors in the ___ pituitary are called ___ in women, they cause ___.

A

anterior ; prolactinomas; galactorrhea (milk production not associated with childbirth).

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37
Q

Persons who have longstanding diabetes may develop hypoglycemia without the usual sympathetic nervous system manifestations, a condition called ___.

A

hypoglycemia unawareness

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38
Q

A person who has hypothyroidism can develop a nonpitting boggy edema called ___, that same term, when used with the word coma, indicates the ___ level of consciousness associated with severe hypothyroidism.

A

myxedema ; decreased

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39
Q

Type 1 diabetes often is diagnosed when the acute complication ____.

A

diabetic ketoacidosis.

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40
Q

Enlargement of the thyroid gland is called a ___ and is a response to increased stimulation by ___.

A

goiter ; TSH

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41
Q

Persons who have primary hyperparathyroidism are predisposed to form kidney ___.

A

stones

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42
Q

____ is caused by hypersecretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary, but the term ____ is used for any condition involving chronic exposure to excessive cortisol.

A

Cushing disease; Cushing syndrome

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43
Q

Two basic components of the pathophys behind type 2 DM?

A

insulin resistance ; pancreatic beta cell dysfunction

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44
Q

The risk for developing gonorrhea from intercourse with an infected heterosexual partner is great for

A

women

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45
Q

In the United States , the prevalence of syphilis is highest among

A

men

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46
Q

The rash of ___ syphilis is unusual because it appears ____ as well as on the torso.

A

secondary; on palms of hands and soles of feet

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47
Q

____ who develop chancroid infection usually are asymptomatic.

A

women

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48
Q

Persons who are symptomatic for chancroid infection develop…

A

painful genital ulcers and buboes

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49
Q

HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are associated with

A

anogenital cancer

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50
Q

HPV serotypes 6 and 11 are associated with _

A

genital warts

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51
Q

Trichomoniasis is caused by a

A

parasite

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52
Q

Trichomoniasis adheres to

A

squamous epithelium

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53
Q

Although trichomonas infection may be asymptomatic in men or women, women who have symptoms usually report

A

pruritis and a copious frothy discharge that smells very unpleasant

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54
Q

Genital warts are __ contagious and are caused by a ____

A

highly; virus

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55
Q

Persons who have HSV infection can transmit the virus

A

whether or not they have symptoms

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56
Q

An anaerobic spirochete

A

syphilis

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57
Q

circular, double stranded DNA virus that has numerous strains

A

HPV genital warts

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58
Q

gram-negative diplococci

A

gonorrhea

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59
Q

gram-negative intracellular bacterium

A

chylamydia

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60
Q

linear, double stranded DNA virus that has latent stage in neurons

A

herpes simplex virus

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61
Q

a painless ulcer with indurated edges

A

chancre

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62
Q

a painful, swollen abscessed lymph node

A

bubo

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63
Q

condylomata lacuminata are genital warts caused by

A

HPV

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64
Q

condylomata lata are flat warts characteristic of

A

syphilis

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65
Q

pubic lice that attach to hair and bite the skin for nourishment

A

crabs

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66
Q

mites that burrow into the skin to lay eggs

A

scabies

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67
Q

The bacteria that causes gonorrhea attach to host ___ cells of mucous membranes at the site of initial infection.

A

epithelial

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68
Q

Untreated genital gonococcal infection that spreads can cause ___ in men and ____ in women, both of which can lead to sterility.

A

epididymitis; pelvic inflammatory disease

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69
Q

Gonorrhea transmitted by an infected mother before or during birth typically manifests as an ____ infection in the neonate and develops 1 to 12 ____ after birth.

A

eye; days

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70
Q

excessive scratching of pruritic lesions such as from scabies or pubic lice can lead to

A

secondary infection

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71
Q

granulaoma inguinale, also known as ___ , is a chronic progressive destructive bacterial infection of genitals.

A

Donovanosis

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72
Q

The chronic STI lymphogranuloma venereum begins as infection of the genital ___ and then spreads to the ___ tissue.

A

skin; lymph

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73
Q

Hepatitis ____ definitely can be transmitted sexually, and hepatitis A and C may have the potential for sexual transmission also.

A

B

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74
Q

Typical lesions of genital herpes begin as painful ____ that break open and then crust over before they heal.

A

vesicles

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75
Q

Recurrent episodes of genital herpes typically are ____ severe and have ___ duration than the primary episode.

A

less; shorter

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76
Q

The most common manifestations a women with chlamydia can transmit to her infant

A

conjunctivitis and pneumonia

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77
Q

Much cardiovascular development occurs between weeks ___ of gestation; most congenital heart defects have begun to develop by the ___ week of gestation

A

4 to 7; 8th

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78
Q

The umbilical vein carries __ blood in fetal life

A

oxygenated

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79
Q

After birth, systemic vascular resistance ___ and the pulmonary vascular resistance ___

A

increases; decreases

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80
Q

Neonates have ____ cardiac reserve because they have ___ cardiac output and high oxygen demand.

A

little; high

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81
Q

Bluish color of mucous membranes and nail beds caused by presence of deoxygenated hemoglobin is called ____

A

cyanosis

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82
Q

Heart failure in children is ___ manifested by peripheral edema and neck vein distension

A

rarely

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83
Q

The most common congenital heart defect is ___ septal defect; many of these defects ___ close spontaneously.

A

ventricular; will

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84
Q

Fetal oxygenation occurs in the _______.

A

placenta

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85
Q

Pulmonary overcirculation caused by an uncorrected congenital heart defect causes the smooth muscle layer in the pulmonary arterial tree to _______ and the lumens to ______.

A

thicken; narrow

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86
Q

Failure in the endocardial cushions to fuse during fetal life causes an _______ canal defect and frequently occurs in children who have _______ syndrome.

A

atrioventricular; down

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87
Q

Underdevelopment of the left heart is termed _______ left heart syndrome.

A

hypoplastic

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88
Q

With transportation of the great arteries, the aorta arises from the _______ ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the _______ ventricle; unless additional defects are present, this defect is incompatible with _______ life.

A

right; left; extrauterine

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89
Q

The condition in which the pulmonary artery and the aorta are a single blood vessel is called _______ _______.

A

truncus arteriosus

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90
Q

Young children who develop _______ disease have vasculitis of unknown cause and often develop aneurysms of their _______ arteries that may regress as the condition resolves.

A

Kawasaki; coronary

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91
Q

Sustained hypertension in children often is associated with underlying _______ disease.

A

renal

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92
Q

The presence of parental obesity is associated with childhood _______.

A

obesity

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93
Q

Because fetal circulation bypasses the lungs, most blood entering the right side of the heart passes through ________ __________ and enters systemic circulation.

A

ductus arteriosus

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94
Q

Right to left shunting in fetal circulation occurs through what structure in fetal hearts not found normally in adult hearts?

A

Foramen ovale

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95
Q

an opening between the atria

A

foramen ovale

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96
Q

All structures of the fetal heart and vascular system are present by what week of fetal gestation?

A

8th

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97
Q

A fetal vessel that joins the pulmonary artery to the aorta (so fetal circulation bypasses the lungs) is called

A

ductus arteriosus

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98
Q

What structure connects the inferior vena cava to the umbilical vein in the fetus?

A

ductus venosus

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99
Q

Systemic vascular resistance in a fetus increases after birth as a result of severance of the umbilical cord (placenta was low-resistance) causing what structural change to occur in the infant’s myocardium over time?

A

thickening of left ventricular myocardium.

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100
Q

During fetal life, the right and left ventricles have

A

equal thickness

101
Q

During fetal life, systemic and pulmonary resistance is

A

the same

102
Q

At what week of gestation do most congenital heart defects begin to develop?

A

8th

103
Q

direction of blood shunt in ventricular septal defect

A

left to right

104
Q

direction of blood shunt in tricuspid atresia

A

right to left

105
Q

direction of blood shunt in coarctation of the aorta

A

no shunt

106
Q

direction of blood shunt in atrial septal defect

A

left to right

107
Q

direction of blood shunt in tetralogy of fallot

A

right to left

108
Q

direction of blood shunt in pulmonic stenosis

A

no shunt

109
Q

direction of blood shunt in patent ductus arteriosus

A

left to right

110
Q

direction of blood shunt in aortic stenosis

A

no shunt

111
Q

In fetal life, blood flows through the ductus arteriosus from the

A

pulmonary artery to the aorta

112
Q

If the ductus arteriosus does not close after birth, blood flows from

A

the aorta to the pulmonary artery

113
Q

a congenital heart defect that causes a right to left blood shunt is caused by

A

cyanosis and hypoxemia

114
Q

clinical manifestations of a right to left blood shunt include

A

poor feeding and weight gain, dyspnea on exertion, fatigue.

115
Q

A congenital heart defect that causes a left to right blood shunt is caused by

A

pulmonary overcirculation or acyanotic heart failure

116
Q

clinical manifestation of a left to right blood shunt include

A

failure to thrive, dyspnea, tachypnea, frequent resp infections.

117
Q

when blood pressure is high in the arms and low in the legs

A

coarctation of the aorta

118
Q

this is a normal blood vessel during fetal life but is supposed to close at birth

A

ductus arteriosus

119
Q

atrial septal defect causes this clinical manifestation

A

murmur

120
Q

The typical murmur of TOF is a

A

pulmonary systolic ejection murmur.

121
Q

cyanosis does not occur with

A

left to right shunts

122
Q

If your patient complains of constipation, would hyperthyroidism by suspected?

A

No, everything is revved up

123
Q

What is a manifestation of hypocalcemia

A

tetany

124
Q

What is the most common cause of acromegaly

A

excess GH due to adenoma

125
Q

hyperglycemia, hyperosmolar, non-ketotic

A

Type II DM

126
Q

What is target organ for ACTH?

A

adrenal cortex

127
Q

excessive secretion of GH in an adult can cause

A

hyperglycemia

128
Q

The hypothalamus controls this by the direct involvement of regulating hormones

A

anterior pituitary gland

129
Q

When calcium levels are high, this is increased and inhibits osteoclasts

A

thyrocalcitonin

130
Q

Those taking cortisone for long periods and who suddenly stop will likely suffer from what due to what?

A

adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of adrenal cortex

131
Q

What organ secretes renin

A

kidneys

132
Q

42-year old prostitute who became sexually active at age 14 is at risk for developing what?

A

HIV

133
Q

In BPH, enlargement of periurethral tissue of the prostate gland can cause…

A

obstruction

134
Q

Hormones are known as

A

chemical messengers

135
Q

Alterations in the conduction of impulses through the AV node lead to disturbances from where to where?

A

atria to ventricle

136
Q

represents the inability of the circulation to adequately perfuse tissue

A

circulatory shock

137
Q

hormones produced by the adrenal cortex

A

cortisol, aldosterone, androgens

138
Q

the hormone that has an antidiuretic effect and whose chemical structure is similar to ADH?

A

oxytocin

139
Q

the role played by the SA node

A

begins depolarization

140
Q

Heart valves control

A

one-way flow

141
Q

the vessels that represent most of the peripheral vascular resistance that controls BP?

A

arterioles and small arteries

142
Q

two things that can cause an endocrine hormonal problem

A

overproduction and underproduction

143
Q

substance that brings about the greatest increase in the rate of respiration

A

CO2

144
Q

electrolyte changes in adrenal insufficiency

A

hyperkalemia and hyponatremia

145
Q

tumor of chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla

A

pheochromocytoma

146
Q

effects of pheochromocytoma

A

Epi and NE released causing paroxysmal hypertension

147
Q

major problem in emphysema

A

alveoli are less able to recoil and expel air

148
Q

cause of TB

A

mycobacterium

149
Q

how PE is diagnosed

A

VQ scan or CT

150
Q

hormones necessary for growth and development of female breast

A

estrogen and progesterone

151
Q

hormones that have an affect on blood glucose

A

insulin, glucagon, cortisol, GH, epi

152
Q

cortisol can increase risk for developing

A

diabetes

153
Q

the posterior pituitary serves as a repository for which 2 hormones?

A

ADH and oxytocin

154
Q

Where is ADH and oxytocin produced

A

hypothalamus

155
Q

symptoms for Graves disease

A

exophthalmos, goiter, hyperthyroid state

156
Q

A patient loses pituitary function, what hormones do you replace him with?

A

cortisol, ADH, and synthroid IV

157
Q

The patient who loses pituitary function cannot recieve ACTh because

A

it doesn’t last long in the blood.

158
Q

QRS complex represents

A

ventricular contraction

159
Q

in atrial systole, the valves are

A

open

160
Q

atelectasis is

A

alveolar collapse

161
Q

primary hypertension is

A

idiopathic

162
Q

where are the pulmonary veins?

A

coming back to the left atrium

163
Q

which age group is most likely to be carriers of the flu?

A

children

164
Q

how does SARS differ from EBOLA?

A

SARS is airbone, Ebola is droplet.

165
Q

How fast did SARS spread?

A

29 countries in a short spring/summer

166
Q

consequence of aortic stenosis

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

167
Q

common congenital heart defect

A

VSD

168
Q

consequence of mitral stenosis

A

left atrial hypertrophy

169
Q

the tendency of lung tissue to collapse inward all the time

A

elastic recoil

170
Q

a heart murmur significantly affects

A

heart rate

171
Q

most common cause of hypoxemia

A

ventilation-perfusion inequality

172
Q

persons with obstructive resp disorders have most difficulty with

A

expiration

173
Q

where is the pericardial space?

A

between the visceral and parietal pericardium

174
Q

metabolic syndrome is very

A

common

175
Q

s/s of metabolic syndrome

A

hypertension, high lipids, early hyperglycemia, overweight

176
Q

At what age is SIDS most common?

A

3-4 months

177
Q

what is the cause of diabetes insipidus?

A

lack of ADH

178
Q

hypothyroidism in adults in called

A

myxedema

179
Q

distended and torturous superficial veins in which blood has pooled because of damaged valves

A

varicose veins

180
Q

ischemic pain in lower extremities that occurs while walking but disappears when resting

A

intermittent claudication

181
Q

inflammatory disease of peripheral arteries that usually is associated with smoking

A

thromboangitis obliterans

182
Q

vasospastic disease of peripheral arteries in which episodes of ischemia and pallor are followed by rubor and parasthesias

A

raynaud disease

183
Q

inflammation of the membraneous sac that surrounds the heart

A

pericarditis

184
Q

compression of heart by pericardial fluid

A

tamponade

185
Q

Post-thrombotic syndrome is characterized by chronic persistent pain and ____ of a limb that had a deep venous thrombosis.

A

edema and ulceration

186
Q

A major danger of DVT is development of ____ thromboembolism; a danger of an arterial thrombus is development of ____ thromboembolism.

A

pulmonary; systemic

187
Q

Superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome occurs when a tumor or other mass ______ the SVC causing _____ in the upper extremities and head.

A

compresses; severe hypertension

188
Q

Factors that cause primary hypertension increase peripheral vascular ____ and/or cause sustained _____ in blood volume.

A

resistance; increase

189
Q

In HTN, the pressure-natriuresis relationship shifts so that the hypertensive individual excretes ___ sodium in the urine.

A

less

190
Q

Persons who have uncomplicated hypertension usually have ____ signs and symptoms in addition to their elevated BP; treatment usually begins with _____.

A

no; lifestyle modifications

191
Q

The term “dissecting aneurysm” means that blood enters an artery wall and _____

A

runs between the layers of the wall

192
Q

Risk for MI increases with low blood levels of ___ and with high blood levels of ___

A

HDL; LDL

193
Q

Cardiac valve damage in rheumatic fever is caused by ___ whereas cardiac valve damage in infective endocarditis is caused by ___.

A

an abnormal immune response; streptococci or other organisms

194
Q

A clot in a blood vessel that breaks loose and circulates is called a

A

thromboembolis

195
Q

Sluggish circulation from chronic venous insufficiency may cause a venous __________ ulcer.

A

stasis

196
Q

Rapidly progressive hypertension with a diastolic pressure above 140 mmHg is called ____________ hypertension and can damage the ____________.

A

malignant; brain

197
Q

Postural hypotension, also called ____________ hypotension , is a systolic blood pressure decrease of at least __ mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure decrease of at least __mmHg within 3 minuets of standing and is a significant risk factor for ___________.

A

orthostatic; 20; 10; falls

198
Q

The risk factors for peripheral arterial disease are the same as the risk factors for _______; the risk factors for contrary artery disease are the same risk factors for _________.

A

atherosclerosis; atherosclerosis

199
Q

Clot formation at the site of rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque causes tissue __________ , which leads to ________ if blood flow is not restored.

A

ischemia; infarction

200
Q

Persons who are obese have decreased levels of ______, an antiatherogenic adipokine.

A

adiponectine

201
Q

Tissue healing after myocardial infarction creates a noncontractile _______.

A

scar

202
Q

The ischemic injury from a sudden blockage of a coronary artery can be exacerbated by _______ injury when blood flow is restored.

A

reperfusion

203
Q

Acute rheumatic fever is characterized by carditis, acute migratory ________ , chorea, and _______ marginatum, which occur 1 to 5 weeks after streptococcal infection of the _______.

A

polyarthritis ;erythema; pharynx

204
Q

Heart failure in which the cardiac output is increased but still insufficient to meet the body’s oxygen and nutrient needs is called _______ heart failure.

A

high-output

205
Q

Right atrial and right ventricular dilation and hypertrophy

A

tricuspid regurgitation

206
Q

Left atrial hypertrophy and dilation

A

mitral stenosis

207
Q

Left ventricular hypertrophy and dilation

A

aortic stenosis

208
Q

Left atrial and left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy

A

mitral regurgitation

209
Q

Nonspecific marker of inflammation measured to asses cardiac risk

A

CRP

210
Q

Another term for Peinzmetal angina

A

variant

211
Q

Blood clot that is attached to the endothelium in a blood vessel or cardiac chamber

A

thrombus

212
Q

Valve cusps billow backward into valve opening when valve should be closed

A

prolapse

213
Q

Acronym for type of lipoprotein that migrates into arterial walls in atherosclerosis

A

LDL

214
Q

Acronym for elevated systolic blood pressure accompanied by normal diastolic blood pressure

A

ISH

215
Q

Name three factors that promote venous thrombosis (triad of Virchow)

A

venous stasis, hypercoagulability, venous endothelial damage

216
Q

involves persistently ischemic myocardium that undergoes metabolic adaptation to survive until perfusion is restored

A

myocardial hibernation

217
Q

involves temporary loss of contractile ability after perfusion has been restored.

A

myocardial stunning

218
Q

when the cardiac chambers are enlarged and the myocardium has decreased contractility

A

diastolic cardiomyopathy

219
Q

when the cardiac chambers have decreased diastolic volume because the myocardium is rigid and noncompliant

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

220
Q

narrowing of a valve that impedes the forward flow of blood

A

valvular stenosis

221
Q

incomplete closure of a valve which allows blood to leak backward through the valve

A

valvular regurgitation

222
Q

a sudden weight gain of 2 lbs indicates a gain of

A

1 L of fluid

223
Q

a complication of thyroid surgery

A

injury to parathyroid gland causing hypcalcemia and tetany

224
Q

when kidneys don’t receive enough ADH signals causing large amounts of dilute urine

A

diabetes insipidus

225
Q

those with Addison disease typically complain of

A

lightheadedness when standing up

226
Q

Addison disease involves the lack of

A

aldosterone and cortisol

227
Q

a complication of diabetic autonomic neuropathy can cause

A

gastroperesis

228
Q

diabetic nephropathy is manifested by

A

microalbuminuria

229
Q

anorgasmia is disorder of

A

organsm

230
Q

decreased libido is a disorder of

A

desire

231
Q

dyspareunia is disorder of

A

sexual pain

232
Q

hypoactive sexual desire is disorder of

A

desire

233
Q

vaginismus is disorder of

A

sexual pain

234
Q

ductal carcinoma in situ ____ progress to advanced breast cancer

A

dose not always

235
Q

PID includes infection of

A

uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries

236
Q

pain with sexual intercourse

A

dyspareunia

237
Q

pain with defecation

A

dyschezia

238
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome causes androgen and estrogen levels to be

A

increased

239
Q

when the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis

A

phimosis

240
Q

the foreskin is retracted and cannot be returned to its normal position over the glans penis

A

paraphimosis

241
Q

prostate cancers grow

A

slowly

242
Q

undescended testicles have an increased risk for

A

testicular cancer

243
Q

stidor is high pitched sounds made during

A

inspiration

244
Q

wheezing is high pitched sounds made during

A

expiration

245
Q

alveolar collapse caused by gases being absorbed from alveoli that are obstructed

A

absorption atelectasis

246
Q

alveolar collapse caused by external pressure on the alveoli

A

compression atelectasis

247
Q

the pressure of the air in the pleural space is the same as barometric pressure because the air drawn into the pleural space during inspiration is forced back out during expiration

A

communication pneumothorax

248
Q

the pressure of the air in the pleural space exceeds barometric pressure because air enters during inspiration but cannot exit during expiration

A

tension pneumothorax