Patho test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Contain their own DNA that codes for enzymes.

A

Mitochondria

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2
Q

Which type of tissue lines the kidney tubules?

A

Simple cuboidal tissue

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3
Q

Most common cause of hypoxia

A

ischemia

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4
Q

Lack of heart contraction during hypoxia is caused by…

A

rapid decrease in mitochondrial phosphorylation, resulting in low ATP production.

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5
Q

Lack of ATP during hypoxia causes…

A

an increase in anaerobic metabolism.

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6
Q

Process of anaerobic metabolism.

A

Na-K+ pump fails, increased Na+ in cell, swelling of cell

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7
Q

The effect that genetics has on aging.

A

DNA damage due to free radicals of oxygen.

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8
Q

This occurs when an external force or a cut of blood supply damages the cell.

A

Necrosis

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9
Q

Programmed cell death.

A

Apoptosis.

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10
Q

Indicative of tissue hypoxia and low oxygen.

A

Elevated lactic acid.

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11
Q

Process of anaerobic glycolysis.

A

Mitochondria cannot form ATP, so glucose produces ATP along with pyruvic acid. Pyruvic acid is then converted to lactic acid.

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12
Q

A molecule that can donate a proton or accept an electron pair.

A

Acid

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13
Q

Aldosterone regulates

A

sodium balance.

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14
Q

Aldosterone is secreted from

A

the adrenal cortex.

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15
Q

Production of aldosterone

A

low BP and renal flow, renin released, converted to angiotensin I, ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, angiotensin II stimulates secretion of aldosterone.

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16
Q

Role of aldosterone.

A

promotes sodium and water reabsorption.

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17
Q

Of the 60% of the body that is made up of water, 3L is found where?

A

Intravascular ECF (blood plasma)

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18
Q

The blood pressure generated in vessels by the contraction of the heart.

A

hydrostatic pressure.

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19
Q

Genetic error of Down syndrome

A

Trisomy of 21st chromosome.

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20
Q

If a male inherits an autosomal recessive disorder, he inherited from…

A

both parents.

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21
Q

The passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries, typically accompanying inflammation.

A

diapedesis

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22
Q

a benign tumor that arises in or resembles glandular tissue.

A

adenoma.

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23
Q

characteristics of malignant tissue

A

anaplasia, irregular edges, rapid growth rate, moderate vascularity,

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24
Q

Poorly differentiated or undifferentiated tissue

A

malignant tumor

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25
Q

Cells and nuclei that vary in shape and size

A

pleomorphic cells in malignant tumors.

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26
Q

The most common route for distant metastasis

A

bloodstream

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27
Q

cancer cachexia

A

tumor takes nutrients from the host.

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28
Q

AIDS predisposes people to…

A

opportunistic infections

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29
Q

AIDS is trasmitted by

A

anal sex, contaminated blood, mother to baby, shared needles

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30
Q

Affected cells in AIDS are

A

CD4 cells

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31
Q

slowly augments the initial defenses against infection and provides long-term security against reinfection.

A

Immunity

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32
Q

Two types of acquired immunity

A

Active and passive immunity

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33
Q

Two types of lymphocytes involved in immunity

A

T and B lymphocytes.

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34
Q

a type of serum protein that provides long-term specific protection against particular antigens.

A

antibodies

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35
Q

Two words to describe antibodies

A

Specificity and memory.

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36
Q

altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host.

A

hypersensitivity

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37
Q

most rapid and severe hypersensitivity reaction

A

anaphyalxis

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38
Q

does not involve the host’s immune response at all.

A

passive immunity

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39
Q

passive immunity is

A

temporary

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40
Q

three body systems that work together to respond to stress and injury

A

central nervous system, neuroendocrine, and immune system.

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41
Q

inhibits initial inflammatory effects such as vasodilation and increased capillary permeability

A

cortisol

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42
Q

cortisol promotes

A

resolution and repair.

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43
Q

cortisol suppresses

A

Th1 cells

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44
Q

cortisol stimulates

A

Th2 cells

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45
Q

function as chemical signals between cells

A

cytokines

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46
Q

cells of innate immunity

A

macrophages, dendritic cells, antigen-presenting cells

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47
Q

cells of adaptive immunity

A

Th1 and Th2 lymphocytes.

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48
Q

essential to the development of an adequate immune response

A

cytokines

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49
Q

how does the immune system exert effect upon the brain?

A

through hormones.

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50
Q

these two systems provide the means by which cell and tissue functions are integrated into a solitary, surviving organism.

A

Nervous and endocrine system.

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51
Q

central nervous system consist of the

A

brain and spinal cord.

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52
Q

peripheral nervous system consists of

A

cranial and spinal nerves.

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53
Q

the PNS can be divided into the

A

somatic and autonomic system.

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54
Q

regulates voluntary motor control of skeletal muscle

A

somatic nervous system.

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55
Q

regulates involuntary control of organ systems.

A

autonomic nervous system.

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56
Q

two major types of cells in the nervous system

A

neurons and neuroglial cells.

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57
Q

the primary information and communication cell of the nervous system

A

neurons.

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58
Q

Remove debris, increase speed of nerve impulses, and involved with memory

A

neuroglial cells.

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59
Q

three parts of a neuron.

A

cell body, dendrites, and axons.

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60
Q

extensions that carry nerve impulse toward the cell body.

A

dendrites.

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61
Q

projections that carry nerve impulses away from the body.

A

axons.

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62
Q

Neurotransmitters are formed in

A

neurons

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63
Q

Neurotransmitters are stored in

A

synaptic vesicles within the axon knobs.

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64
Q

how neurotransmitters are released.

A

action potentials cause synaptic vessels to release NTS into synaptic cleft where they bind to receptor sites of postsynaptic neuron.

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65
Q

synapses between neurons permit

A

impulses.

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66
Q

the cephalic portion of the nervous system becomes

A

the brain.

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67
Q

the caudal portion of the nervous system becomes the

A

spinal cord

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68
Q

CN I

A

olfactory

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69
Q

CN II

A

optic

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70
Q

CN III

A

occulomotor

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71
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear

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72
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal

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73
Q

CN VI

A

abducens

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74
Q

CN VII

A

facial

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75
Q

CN VIII

A

vestibulocochlear

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76
Q

CN IX

A

glossopharyngeal

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77
Q

CN X

A

Vagus

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78
Q

CN XI

A

spinal accessory

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79
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal

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80
Q

structures involved in a reflex arc

A

receptor, afferent (sensory) neuron, efferent (motor) neuron, effector muscle/gland.

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81
Q

type of sensory neuron in reflex arc

A

dorsal root ganglion

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82
Q

type of motor neuron in refelx arc

A

ventral root ganglion

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83
Q

composed of corpora quadrigemina (tectum), tegmentum, and basis pedunculi

A

midbrain

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84
Q

composed of metencephalon and myelencephalon

A

hindbrain

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85
Q

major structures of metencephalon

A

cerebellum and pons

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86
Q

major structures of myelencephalon

A

medulla oblongata

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87
Q

composed of telencephalon and diencephalon

A

forebrain

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88
Q

telencephalon consists of

A

cererbum

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89
Q

diencephalon consists of

A

epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, and subthalamus.

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90
Q

disorders due to dysfunction of basal ganglia

A

parkinson and huntington’s disease

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91
Q

the formation of the BBB is due to

A

astrocytes

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92
Q

blood brain barrier consists of

A

tight junctions

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93
Q

coordinates and maintains a steady-state among internal organs.

A

autonomic nervous system.

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94
Q

The autonomic nervous system is separated into

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.

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95
Q

the neurotransmitter of the preganglionic neurons for both divisions of the autonomic nervous system is

A

acetylcholine.

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96
Q

the neurotransmitters for the sympathetic postganglionic fibers is

A

norepinephrine.

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97
Q

major control center for the autonomic nervous system

A

peripheral nervous system

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98
Q

Sensory system that relays information about touch, temperature, pain, and body position.

A

peripheral nervous system.

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99
Q

perception and awareness of the position of the body and its parts

A

proprioception

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100
Q

what is the gate in the gate control theory of pain?

A

substania gelatinosa

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101
Q

The gate control theory of pain

A

fibers open the gate and increase pain perception, closure of gates decrease pain perception.

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102
Q

These fibers transmit sharp, well-localized, and fast pain sensations.

A

A-delta fibers

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103
Q

These fibers transmit slow, dull, aching, or burning sensations that are poorly localized and longer acting.

A

C-fibers

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104
Q

episodic neurologic disorder with a headache lasting 4 to 72 hours

A

migraine

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105
Q

Spastic paralysis involves

A

upper motor neurons

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106
Q

Flaccid muscle paralysis involves

A

lower motor neurons

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107
Q

Type of paralysis where muscle groups are affected

A

spastic paralysis

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108
Q

Type of paralysis where hypertonia is present

A

spastic paralysis

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109
Q

type of paralysis where individual muscles are affected

A

flaccid muscle paralysis

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110
Q

type of paralysis where there is marked muscle atrophy

A

flaccid muscle paralysis

111
Q

type of paralysis where hypotonia and hyporeflexia are present

A

flaccid muscle paralysis

112
Q

diminished transmission at the neuromuscular junction

A

myasthenia gravis

113
Q

hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis

A

fatigue that worsens with activity and improves with rest.

114
Q

Degeneration of the basal ganglia and decreased dopamine production.

A

Parkinson’s disease

115
Q

S/S of parkinsons

A

resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia

116
Q

Treatment for Parkinsons

A

levodopa, anticholinergic drugs, antihistamines

117
Q

Inflammatory disease involving degeneration of CNS myelin due to scarring or plaque formation.

A

multiple sclerosis

118
Q

cells involved in multiple sclerosis

A

T and B cells respond to autoantigens

119
Q

two components of consciousness

A

arousal and awareness

120
Q

entry of bacterial meningitis is through the

A

choroid plexus

121
Q

meningitis causes

A

increase permeability of meningeal vessels and thickening of CSF resulting in cerebral edema.

122
Q

Collection of illnesses characterized by thought disorders, which reflect a break in reality.

A

schizophrenia

123
Q

shared by both members of a twin pair

A

concordant trait

124
Q

not shared by both members of a twin pair

A

discordant trait

125
Q

present at birth

A

congenital

126
Q

variation is caused by combined effects of multiple genes

A

polygenic

127
Q

variation is caused by combined effects of environment and genes

A

multifactorial

128
Q

Multifactorial disease that are either present or absent must exceed this before the disease occurs

A

liability threshold

129
Q

Occurrence of this can change from one population to another.

A

multifactorial diseases

130
Q

Recurrent risks for multifactorial disorders are higher if..

A

more than one family is affected

131
Q

Many factors that can be measured numerically, like BP are

A

multifactorial

132
Q

Traits that have this distribution are usually caused by additive effects of many genetic and environmental factors.

A

bell-shaped

133
Q

Recurrence risks are calculated for…

A

single-gene disorders

134
Q

Empirical risks are calculated for

A

multifactorial disorders

135
Q

An individual with whom a pedigree begins is called a

A

proband

136
Q

Monozygotic twins are

A

identical twins

137
Q

Genetic variation that promote autoimmunity are associated with

A

type 1 diabetes

138
Q

Presenilin gene increases the risk for

A

Alzheimer’s disease

139
Q

Angiotensinogen genes increase risk for

A

hypertension

140
Q

leptin genes increase risk for

A

obesity

141
Q

genes whose products interact with glutamate receptors increase risk for

A

schizophrenia

142
Q

LDL receptor genes increase risk for

A

coronary artery disease

143
Q

Process of making mRNA from a section of DNA

A

trascription

144
Q

Proteins and DNA in the nucleus

A

chromatin

145
Q

section of DNA that carries the code for a protein or noncoding RNA

A

gene

146
Q

regulation of gene expression not caused by altered DNA sequence

A

epigenetics

147
Q

DNA methylation leads to…

A

silencing of genes

148
Q

Maintained in successive mitotic cell divisions

A

epigenetic modifications

149
Q

the process of predictable gene silencing on one copy of a chromosome but not the other, depending on which parent transmits the chromosome

A

imprinting

150
Q

carries the code for a protein to a ribosome

A

mRNA

151
Q

Regulates gene expression

A

miRNA

152
Q

DNA sequence mutations cannot be

A

altered directly

153
Q

Epigenetic modifications can be

A

reversed

154
Q

acetylation of histone tails allows

A

chromatin to unwind and transcription to occur

155
Q

A gene that has methylation in this region is less likely to be transcribed into mRNA

A

promoter

156
Q

MicroRNAs that stimulate development and progression of cancer are called

A

oncomirs

157
Q

Genes that are necessary to maintain function of all types of cells and that normally remain transcriptionally active are called

A

housekeeping genes

158
Q

Environmental factors, dietary factors, and alcohol intake can modify gene expression by causing

A

epigenetic modifications

159
Q

Hypermethylation

A

silences

160
Q

chromosomal deletion on chromosome 15 inherited by father.

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

161
Q

In Prader-Willi syndrome, which copy of the crucial gene is imprinted (silenced)?

A

mother’s

162
Q

Products of the metabolism of glucose

A

Co2, H20 and kilocalories

163
Q

Where are ribosomes found?

A

nucleus

164
Q

What is the purpose of ribosomes?

A

protein synthesis

165
Q

How would you describe mitochondria?

A

powerhouse of cell

166
Q

Is respiratory rate increased more in metabolic acidosis or metabolic alkalosis?

A

Metabolic acidosis- blowing off Co2

167
Q

What would you expect a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning look like?

A

100% pulse ox

168
Q

How would you treat carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

pressurized oxygen

169
Q

Caseous necrosis can be caused by

A

tuberculosis infection

170
Q

Aging involves

A

autoantibodies- deterioration of antibodies

171
Q

hormone involved in the communication between the nervous and immune system

A

cortisol

172
Q

Condition where the core temperature increases as the regulatory rate fails

A

Heat stroke

173
Q

These decrease pain sensations

A

endorphins

174
Q

Protein chemical messengers involved in inflammation

A

cytokines

175
Q

Specific NT in Parkinson’s

A

Dopamine

176
Q

The most common type of leukemia in children

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia

177
Q

What is one good thing about ALL?

A

High cure rate

178
Q

Produce cytokines and are involved in the pain process

A

Glial cells

179
Q

Extra-pyramidal motor syndrome is manifested by loss of

A

postural reflexes

180
Q

Cell capable of producing clones

A

B and T cells

181
Q

When should pain be treated?

A

Before it starts

182
Q

Most common cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s

183
Q

The term for clusters of nerve cell bodies and dendrites located within the peripheral nervous system

A

Ganglia

184
Q

Regions of the spinal cord where injuries occur most often

A

Cervical and lumbar

185
Q

One of the jobs of the reticular activating systems is the

A

maintenance of wakefulness

186
Q

diencephalon contains the

A

hypothalamus and thalamus

187
Q

Neurons that carry impulses away from the CNS

A

efferent

188
Q

Function of the somatic nervous system

A

Voluntary control of skeletal muscles

189
Q

Conducts impulses to the cell body

A

dendrite

190
Q

Create myelin sheath

A

Schwann cells

191
Q

Proteins are sequences of

A

amino acids

192
Q

The basic combination of genes in an organism

A

genotype

193
Q

Risks for CVA

A

HTN, HLD, obesity, afib

194
Q

focal neurologic defects of the brain or retina that usually clear without an infarct

A

TIA

195
Q

Type of stroke that is temporary

A

TIA

196
Q

Neurotransmitter involved in a migrane headache

A

serotonin

197
Q

Type of CVA where blood would show up in CSF

A

hemorrhagic

198
Q

Why is there only a one-way conduction at the synapse?

A

Only the presynaptic neuron contains neurotransmitters

199
Q

Neurotransmitters communicate with each other through

A

synapse

200
Q

Cause of failure to adequately control chronic pain

A

undertreated

201
Q

These types of patients display akinesia

A

Parkinson’s

202
Q

Parts of the ECF

A

vascular and interstitial space

203
Q

Controls body temperature

A

hypothalamus

204
Q

CN responsible for balance

A

CN VIII-vestibulocochlear

205
Q

If patient has a transection of the spinal cord C2, what’s the result?

A

respiratory failure since C2 controls diaphragm

206
Q

End result of carbon monoxide poisoning

A

asphyxiation

207
Q

Pathophysiology of carbon monoxide poisoning

A

Co2 binds more readily to Hgb than O2.

208
Q

Treatment for carbon monoxide poisioning

A

pressurized Co2

209
Q

A severe allergic reaction

A

anaphylaxis

210
Q

Deranged cellular growth and abnormal cell shape and size

A

dysplasia

211
Q

Cause of cellular swelling in early stages of cell injury

A

Na-K+ fails and unable to pump Na out of cell

212
Q

Tissue type that lines the respiratory tract

A

Ciliated simple columnar

213
Q

Autoimmune disease characterized by the production of autoantibodies against nuclear materals

A

SLE

214
Q

Clinical manifestations of SLE

A

arthritis, rash, renal disease and anemia.

215
Q

CN I function

A

sensory for smell

216
Q

CN II function

A

sensory for vision

217
Q

CN III function

A

motor for eye

218
Q

CN IV function

A

motor for extraoculor eye muscle

219
Q

CN V function

A

Sensory and motor for face

220
Q

CN VI function

A

motor

221
Q

CN VII function

A

sensory and motor

222
Q

CN VIII function

A

sensory

223
Q

CN IX function

A

sensory and motor

224
Q

CN X function

A

sensory and motor

225
Q

CN XI function

A

sensory and motor

226
Q

CN XII function

A

sensory and motor

227
Q

Neurotransmistter related to Alzheimers

A

acetylcholine

228
Q

Collectins play a major role in protection against

A

respiratory tract infections

229
Q

Molecules that tag microorganisms for destruction by cells of the inflammatory system (neutrophils & macrophages).

A

Opsonins

230
Q

leukocytes are divided into

A

granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes

231
Q

Binding of histamine to H1 receptor causes

A

inflammation

232
Q

Binding of histamine to H2 receptor causes

A

anti-inflammatory response

233
Q

Released by mast cells that causes dilation and increased permeability

A

Histamine

234
Q

The H1 receptor is present on

A

smooth muscle cells, especially bronchi

235
Q

prostaglandins are known to

A

induce pain

236
Q

Primary granulocyte to arrive early in inflammatory process

A

Neutrophils

237
Q

Because neutrophils are short lived, they become a component of

A

pus

238
Q

macrophages are derived from

A

monocytes

239
Q

chronic inflammations lasts

A

2 weeks or longer

240
Q

These may form if neutrophils and macrophages are unable to destroy microorganisms during the acute inflammatory response

A

granulomas`

241
Q

normal gene that codes for proteins that stimulate cell proliferation.

A

proto-oncogene

242
Q

proto-oncogene that is mutated accelerating cell proliferation.

A

oncogene

243
Q

code for proteins that suppress cell proliferation.

A

Tumor suppressor gene

244
Q

Abnormal premalignant growths in epithelial tissues that have not crossed the basement membrane

A

carcinoma in situ

245
Q

The most common neuron, multipolar neuron, has

A

multiple dendrites and one axon

246
Q

excessive movement

A

hyperkinesia

247
Q

abnormally increased muscle tone

A

hypertonia

248
Q

decerebrate posturing is caused by damage to the

A

brainstem and cerebrum

249
Q

decorticate posturing is caused by damage to the

A

cerebral cortex

250
Q

involves degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons

A

ALS

251
Q

Yawning and hiccups are motor responses from the

A

brainstem

252
Q

characterized by dangerously severe muscle weakness, diarrhea, intestinal cramping, and signs of anticholinesterase drug toxicity.

A

cholinergic crisis

253
Q

severe muscle weakness caused by myasthenia gravis

A

myasthenic crisis

254
Q

Bleeding between the dura matter and skull

A

epidural hematoma

255
Q

Gap junctions synchronize contractions of heart muscle cells through

A

ionic coupling

256
Q

Cell surface receptors use second messengers because

A

The ligand (first messenger) cannot enter the cell.

257
Q

interphase includes phases

A

G1, S, and G2

258
Q

A very large excess of reactive oxygen species tends to cause

A

necrosis

259
Q

A small excess of reactive oxygen species can cause

A

apoptosis

260
Q

During apoptosis, the cytoskeleton is dismantled, causing the cell

A

to shrink

261
Q

Phosphate has an inverse relationship with

A

Calcium

262
Q

Parathyroid hormone is secreted with there is

A

low calcium concentration

263
Q

Calcitonin is secreted when there is

A

high calcium concentration

264
Q

Parathyroid has a direct relationship with

A

Calcium

265
Q

In what direction does insulin move potassium

A

Into the cell

266
Q

Prevalence rate is the

A

number of newly diagnosed over total number of people

267
Q

The incidence rate is the

A

Number of people who had disease in a period of time over total number of people

268
Q

Inflammatory cytokines cause

A

fever

269
Q

Do malignant tumors have a capsule?

A

No

270
Q

When cancers release substances into the blood that cause effects elsewhere in the body

A

paraneoplastic syndrome

271
Q

involves flexor spasms, profuse sweating, piloerection, and automatic bladder emptying.

A

Mass reflex

272
Q

occurs when there is massive reflex firing of the sympathetic nerves below the level of injury. The latter causes severe hypertension and other signs and symptoms related to the sympathetic nervous system.

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

273
Q

Typical signs of autonomic dysreflexia

A

hypertension and bradycardia