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Patho-Pharm Test two > Patho-Pharm midterm 2 > Flashcards

Patho-Pharm midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the food and drug act

A

where all definitions come from, protects consumers from contaminated altered and unsafe drugs that are not yet approved

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2
Q

Controlled drug and substance drug act

A

Regulates possession, sales, and manufacture of certain drugs.

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3
Q

Are there refills on narcotics

A

No

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4
Q

New drug development

A

The pre-testing, clinical investigational drug studies there are 4 phases

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5
Q

Phase 1 - safety

A

done on healthy people, evaluate pharmacokinetics

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6
Q

Phase 2

A

Used on a limited scope only those with problems

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7
Q

Phase 3 - long term impacts

A

done on large groups of 10 thousand, and see what happens. Keep record for 25 years

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8
Q

Phase 4 - post-marketing studies

A

ways to get doctors to prescribe stuff, samples etc.

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9
Q

Special accesses program

A

If you have a drug people want but have not gone through the phases of the trial yet. But they are dying.

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10
Q

Limited access program

A

someone with cancer saw a trial work somewhere else, but it can’t be prescribed yet.
Provides access to drugs not yet approved, limited to serious or life-threatening illnesses.

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11
Q

Euphoria

A

state of intense happiness, excitement, or well-being

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12
Q

Analgesia

A

refers to the inability to feel pain or a reduction in pain sensation.

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13
Q

what do Narcotic do

A

Substances binding to opiate receptors in CNS and ANS.

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14
Q

what are narcotics

A

morphine, heroin, codeine (natural substances)

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15
Q

Narcotic intoxication

A

Euphoria
Poor comprehension, memory disturbances
Drowsiness
MIOSIS/CONTRACTIONS OF PUPILS

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16
Q

Narcotic overdose

A
  1. Loss of consciousness
  2. Decrease recuperate
  3. Decrease heart rate and bp
  4. Shock
  5. GI atony
  6. NARCAN
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17
Q

What do you treat a narcotic withdrawal

A

benzos

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18
Q

Narcotic withdrawals

A

occurs 8-12 hours after, with a peak of 48-72 hours. Often have diarrhea, runny nose, tremors

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19
Q

Morphine

A

best choice for chest pain

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20
Q

true or false morphine causes nausea

A

true

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21
Q

MONA

A

M- morphine decreases the workload of the heart
O- oxygen, increase O2 to the heart
N- Nitroglycerin, opens up the vessels
A- Aspirin , prevents clots

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22
Q

what drugs are opium

A

morphine and codeine

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23
Q

opium is

A

a congeners, very quick tolerance develops

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24
Q

Semi-synthetic

A

Heroine

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25
Q

Heroine

A

is a special version of morphine, no practical use, all you get is high. There is pain relief but that’s it.

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26
Q

Synthetic

A

Meperidine
Dilaudid
Percodan
Percocet’s

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27
Q

Meperidine

A

off the market

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28
Q

Dilaudid

A

super CLEAN, no reaction with other medications (severe pain)

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29
Q

Percodan and Percocet

A

oxycodone family, not viable IV, or sub-Q. (well tolerated, gives a high)
Percocet is oxycodone with acetaminophen

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30
Q

LSD

A

hard to figure out, no dose, only withdrawals (no predictability)

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31
Q

Hallucinogens

A

CNS stimulant and depressant, no dependency.

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32
Q

Hallucinogen Intoxication

A

euphoria
perceptual alterations
hyper suggestibility
pupils dilate
Tremors

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33
Q

Hallucinogens overdose response

A

Anxiety
Panic
Hypervigilance
Paranoid delusions

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34
Q

Psilocybin Mushrooms

A

Euphoria
Easily distracted
Inc T, P, BP
Involve limb movement
Hallucinations

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35
Q

Stimulants causes

A

causes weight loss, heart disease, appetite decrease

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36
Q

Stimulants

A

Cocaine
amphetamine
Caffeine
Dextroamphetamine
Methamphetamine
Methylphenidate

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37
Q

Cocaine

A

stops blood flow, (vasoconstriction), huge cardiac effects, coke, flake, rock, snow. From the coca plant

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38
Q

Amphetamines

A

(end in DREM) insanely addictive): black beauties, white crosses

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39
Q

Dextroamphetamine

A

dixies

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40
Q

Methamphetamines

A

crank, crystal meth, glass, ice, speed (SO BADLY Addictive and hallucinations)

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41
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Adderall, Ritalin

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42
Q

Ritalin

A

Ritalin, used for the treatment of hyperactivity in children, helps focus attention and filter out extra stimulants, stimulants enhance the reticular activating system.

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43
Q

Stimulant intoxication

A

Euphoria, Inc energy and alertness, Confidence, Impaired decision-making, Paranoid psychotic reaction, violent behavior

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44
Q

Stimulant withdrawal

A

depressed mood, prolonged sleep, irritability

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45
Q

Nicotine

A

Increased HR and BP. Constricts peripheral blood vessels and lowers the oxygen-carrying capacity

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46
Q

Side effects of nicotine

A

coronary artery disease, bronchospasm, and constriction, paralysis of cilia, thickening of mucous, COPD

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47
Q

withdrawal of nicotine

A

Severely depressed mood, Prolonged sleep, Apathy, Irritability, Disorientation

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48
Q

Alcohol intoxication

A

Intoxication affects judgment, motor activity, and sedation. Metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase; affects the liver leading to fatty liver, hepatitis, and cirrhosis.

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49
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

minor tremors to seizures and delirium tremens, confusion

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50
Q

Alcohol in the brain

A

Cerebrum: judgment, inhibitions, reasoning

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51
Q

Alcohol equivalency

A

Beer – 5% * 10oz * Spirits – 40% * 1.5oz * Wine – 8-14% * 4oz

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52
Q

excretion of alcohol

A

Excretion of alcohol: (can not be used in court if done by a nurse)
Urine, exhalation, sweat.

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53
Q

medications for alcohol withdrawal

A

lorazepam or benzo

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54
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

is a neurological disorder that results from severe deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1), typically due to chronic alcohol abuse, although it can also occur in other conditions where there’s malnutrition or difficulty absorbing nutrients. (short term) (memory impairment)

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55
Q

Marijuana

A

Contains THC (Tetrahydrocannabinol), alters perceptions, constitute, appetite tolerance, psychological dependance

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56
Q

Marijuana withdrawals

A

irritability and sleeplessness

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57
Q

Historical uses for marijuana

A

Convulsions, Chronic cough, Sleeplessness, GI disorders, Gonorrhea, Pain

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58
Q

marijuana legal consideration

A

Glaucoma: reduces intraocular pressure
Nausea and Vomiting
Asthma: a bronchodilator (terrible) Appetite stimulant
Muscle relaxant: related to paralysis (a little bit)

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59
Q

amotivational syndrome

A

it refers to a psychological condition characterized by a lack of motivation, particularly in goal-directed behavior and activities. It’s often associated with long-term and heavy cannabis (marijuana) use.

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60
Q

Psychotherapeutic

A

Used in the treatment of emotional and mental disorders like depression or anxiety to constant emotional distress.

Used When emotions affect an individual’s ability to carry out normal daily functions

Used in small, dispensed amounts to reduce suicide attempts

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61
Q

Anxiolytic drugs

A

Benzodiazepines, SSRI, SNRI, Beta-blockers

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62
Q

Antipsychotic drugs

A

typical antipsychotics first generation, atypical antipsychotics second generation

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62
Q

Mood-stabilizing drugs

A

lithium, anticonvulsants, atypical antipsychotics

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62
Q

Antidepressant drugs

A

SSRI, SNRI, tricyclic antidepressants, MAIOS, atypical antidepressants

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63
Q

Anxiety

A

Diagnosis psych with DSM

An unpleasant state of mind characterized by a sense of dread and fear, may be based on anticipated experiences or actual past experiences, may be exaggerated responses to imaginary negative situations

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64
Q

bipolar

A

people who are sick, they are in the crazy section. Severe problems. Psychotic disorder

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65
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Pure sedatives, muscle relaxants, can be used in seizures, very effective, short-term, or long-term. Depress activity in the brainstem.

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66
Q

Three types of benzodiazepines

A

Alprazolam (Xanax)
Diazepam (Valium)
Lorazepam (Ativan)

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67
Q

Alprazolam (Xanax)

A

fast on set, fast come off, for panic attacks, a poor choice for long-term use, addictive and habit forming. (not great for generalized anxiety)

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68
Q

Averse effects for Alprazolam (Xanax)

A

confusion, ataxia, headache. Has poor interactions with alcohol and oral contraceptives

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69
Q

diazepam (Valium)

A

don’t use often, isn’t as good anymore, very effective for seizures, only available in deploy form, (IF A PERSON IS HAVING MUSCLE SPAMS, benzo will get rid of it for short term)

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70
Q

Adverse effects for diazepam (Valium)

A

avoid patients with hepatic dysfunction, those who drink alcohol and oral contraceptives. Often causes headache, confusion, slurred speech

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71
Q

Lorazepam (Ativan)

A

very common, fantastic, helps with sleep, and anxiety, 30 minutes onset, comes off after 6 hours, comes in sublingual form, and comes down faster apparently. Very effective, most first choices for seizures can be given any route. Habit forming. (good for agitation) (people who are palliative used for pain control or slight sedation) (used for alcohol with drawl)

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72
Q

Adverse effects of benzodiazepines

A

Decreased CNS activity, sedation, amnesia
Hypotension
Drowsiness, loss of coordination, dizziness, headaches
Nausea, vomiting, dry mouth, constipation

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73
Q

Benzodiazepines overdose

A

does not exist, flumazenil may be used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines

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74
Q

Benzodiazepines Interactions

A

Alcohol and CNS depressants can result in additive CNS depression and even death. (THESE ARE THE PEOPLE WHO DIE, sympathetic effect together) (died by combining them)

Interactions are more likely to occur in patients with renal or hepatic compromise.

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75
Q

Anxiolytic drugs

A

Benzos, reduces anxiety by reducing overactivity of the central nervous system

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76
Q

True or false you can administer anxiolytic can be administered with MAIOs

A

false

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77
Q

Buspirone

A

anxiolytic, non-sedating, may cause serotonin syndrome

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78
Q

Affective Disorders

A

(Mood Disorders)

Changes in mood that range from mania (abnormally pronounced emotions) to depression (abnormally reduced emotions)

Some patients may exhibit both mania and depression: bipolar disorder (BPD)

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79
Q

Psychosis

A

(out of touch with reality, can’t figure out what’s real and not real)

Severe emotional disorder that impairs the mental function of the affected individual to the point that the individual cannot participate in activities of daily living.

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80
Q

Examples of psychosis

A

Schizophrenia (controlled or uncontrolled) (deploy medications stuff that sticks around)

Depressive and drug-induced psychoses

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81
Q

Mood-Stabilizing Drugs

A

Mood stabilizers are the Lithium used for bipolar, nothing for anything but bipolar, must do drug levels on) (mood stabilizer) (needs therapeutic levels)

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82
Q

Mood-stabilizing can be used with

A

benzos, antipsychotics, antiepileptics, and dopamine receptor anoints

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83
Q

Lithium

A

is a mood-stabilizing drugs,used for bipolar and hypomania.
Frequent drug tests till stable then every three months

Thought to potentiate serotonergic neurotransmission

Narrow therapeutic range

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84
Q

what is the drug of choice for the treatment of mania

A

Lithium

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85
Q

Side effects of lithium

A

Can cause cardiac dysrhythmias, can cause long term hypothyroidism, drowsiness, slurred speech, seizures, ataxia and hypotension

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86
Q

Antidepressants is also known as

A

major depressive disorder

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87
Q

true or false falls are prone in older adults taking antidepressants

A

True, due to postural hypotension

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88
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants

A

Inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake into nerve endings. It may help regulate the malfunction of neurons, used for neuropathic pain, insomnia, orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, bedwetting, OCD, and anorexia.

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89
Q

what have replaced tricyclic antidepressants

A

SSRI

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90
Q

what is amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

Oldest and most widely used of all the tricyclic antidepressants

Original indication: depression

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91
Q

Common adverse effects of amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

Dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention and dysthymias

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92
Q

what is amitriptyline (Elavil) used for

A

Neuropathic pain
Insomnia
Fibromyalgia patients
Childhood bedwetting
OCD

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93
Q

Overdose of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Overdose is lethal 70 to 80% die before reaching the hospital.

CNS and cardiovascular systems are
mainly affected.

Death results from seizures or dysrhythmias. most common

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94
Q

MAOIs and Tyramine

A

can cause life-threatening reactions

Ingestion of foods or drinks with tyramine leads to hypertensive crisis, which may lead to cerebral hemorrhage, stroke, coma, or death

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95
Q

Tyramine

A

foods that contain tyramine. (aged cheese, smoked foods, yeast extracts, red wines, Italian broad beans (fava).

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96
Q

MAOIs stand for

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitions

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97
Q

MAOIs

A

Prevent the breakdown of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine

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98
Q

MAOIs are used for

A

Parkinson’s disease, rarely used for depression

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99
Q

Second-Generation Antidepressants

A

Depression, anxiety (will treat one will treat the other)

Is used for obesity, eating disorders, OCD, panic attacks or disorders, social anxiety disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, premenstrual dysphoric disorder, the neurologic disorder myoclonus, and various substance misuse problems such as alcoholism

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100
Q

Adverse effects of secondary medications

A

insomnia (partly caused by reduced rapid eye movement sleep), weight gain increased appetite, and sexual dysfunction

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101
Q

what are some symptoms for serotonin syndrome with second-generation antidepressants

A

delirium
agitation
tachycardia
sweating
myoclonus (muscle spasms) excess muscle spasms

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102
Q

SSRI what do they do

A

an antidepressant that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin in the brain, used to treat depression, anxiety, panic disorders, OCD, and PTSD, less severe side effects, more tolerable, less cost-effective

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103
Q

Types of SSRI

A

fluoxetine (Prozac)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Paroxetine (Paxil)

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104
Q

fluoxetine (Prozac)

A

the first one, very effective, mainly used now for pediatric, available in liquid form

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105
Q

Sertraline (Zoloft)

A

very popular, earliest SSRI, fairly wide dose, second choice, generally has very low side effects, with very good results

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106
Q

Paroxetine (Paxil)

A

STRONG, crazy strong, if you go on it you don’t come off it, long tapper with custom pills, works very well, nearly last choice, drugs in the family if the drug works in the family it will work for you, give electric shock from getting off it

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107
Q

Citalopram (Celexa)
and Escitalopram oxalate (Cipralex)

A

Are the same SSRI except Celexa lost its pattent and now they use Cipralex

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108
Q

Escitalopram oxalate (Cipralex)

A

SSRIthat is an antidepressnat with low side effcets

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109
Q

Miscellaneous

A

trazodone (Oleptro®)
bupropion (Wellbutrin®)

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110
Q

trazodone (Oleptro®)

A

Elderly patients, used for sleep, rarely for depression by itself, it’s too weak and not effective, usually combined

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111
Q

bupropion (Wellbutrin®)

A

an antidepressant that gives you energy, and gives you a boost, only one that doesn’t give you erectile dysfunction.

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112
Q

SNIR

A

anti-depressant medicine, which acts on neurotransmitters of the brain that affect the person’s mood, inhibits serotonin and norepinephrine. Treats major depressive disorders, anxiety disorders, mood disorders, and ADHD, less tolerant, more cost-effective.

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113
Q

Types of SNIR

A

Bupropion hydrochloride
end in INE

114
Q

Bupropion hydrochloride: Wellbutrin, Zyban

A

Originally indicated for the treatment of depression, can help in smoking cessation, added as an adjunct antidepressant for patients experiencing sexual adverse effects secondary to SSRI

115
Q

Fluoxetine

A

prototypical SSRI, used in depression, bulimia, OCD, panic disorders, contraindicated in MAOIs, causes dizziness and anxiety, insomnia

116
Q

Duloxetine hydrochloride Cymbalta

A

SNIR that is an antidepressant

117
Q

Mirtazapine Remeron

A

It treats major depressive disorder. Piles on weight like crazy, causes dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite

118
Q

Antipsychotics

A

Dopamine levels in the CNS are decreased.

Extreme mania, if already manic, not used for physios used for agitation, mood stabilizers, mood controlling

Drugs used to treat serious mental illness

Drug-induced psychoses, schizophrenia, and autism

119
Q

what medication has a tranquilizing effect in psychotic patients

A

Antipsychotics

120
Q

Schizophrenia

A

hallucinations are auditory the voice, out of control

121
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

hallucinations, delusions, and conceptual disorganization

122
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

social withdrawal, blunted affect, poverty of speech, catatonia, sitting there won’t move

123
Q

Best medication to treat positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Atypical antipsychotics

124
Q

Antipsychotic Drugs

A

treat psychosis and other conditions that affect your brain

125
Q

What drug can cause agranulocytosis (cant make white blood cells)

A

Antipsychotic Drugs

126
Q

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

A

Involuntary and uncontrollable movement disorders caused by certain drugs, especially anti-psychotic drugs

127
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

A

non stop chewing motion

128
Q

trihexyphenidyl hydrochloride (Kynesia)

A

treat symptoms of Parkinson disease and uncontrol muscle movements

129
Q

Choreoathetosis

A

(wavelike movements of extremities)
Occurs with continuous long-term antipsychotic therapy

130
Q

Haloperidol

A

(settle down anyone, orally, IM) (can lower BP)
used for long-term treatment of psychosis

Useful in treating patients with schizophrenia who were nonadherent to their drug regimen

131
Q

Atypical Antipsychotics

A

clozapine (Clozaril)
risperidone (Risperdal)
olanzapine (Zyprexa)
quetiapine (Seroquel)
aripiprazole (Abilify)

132
Q

clozapine (Clozaril)

A

is sick, only the sickest go on, There huge side effects, big weight gain, regular blood tests, psychotic monitoring, and close monitoring. Blocks dopamine receptors in the mesolimbic region of the brain. No EPS. Adverse effects- blood dyscrasias.

133
Q

risperidone (Risperdal)

A

is atypical in the elderly for sundowning, long-term side effects, negative symptoms of schizophrenia, minimal EPS at a therapeutic dose, oral and injectable

134
Q

olanzapine (Zyprex)

A

atypical in the elderly for sundowning

135
Q

quetiapine (Seroquel)

A

atypical antipsychotic medication that treats schizophrenia, bipolar disorder

resistant depression

136
Q

aripiprazole (Abilify)

A

adjacent used with antidepressants, used for adjunct treatment resistance depression) (Massive doses for psychosis

137
Q

The anti-infective drugs

A

Drugs that are designed to act selectively on foreign organisms that have invaded and infected the body.

138
Q

True or false humans have a cell wall

A

False

139
Q

True or false anti-infective have a cell wall

A

True

140
Q

Narrow spectrum anti-infectives

A

affect only a few bacterial types. The early penicillin drugs are examples.

141
Q

Broad spectrum anti-infectives

A

affect many bacteria. Meropenem is an example.

142
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

keep the bacteria in status (doesn’t fully kill it),
example tetracyclin

143
Q

Bactericidal

A

Kills the bacteria

144
Q

Gram-positive is

A

Blue stain, has a massive cell wall, is on the outside of the body

145
Q

Gram negative is

A

Pink stain, slimy thin cell wall, is found on the inside of the body

146
Q

Narrow spectrum penicillin’s

A

Penicillin G- IV form
Penicillin V- Oral form

147
Q

Penicillin G is what form

A

IV form

148
Q

Penicillin V is what form

A

Oral form

149
Q

Broad spectrum penicillin’s (aminopenicillins)

A

Amoxicillin- Oral form
Ampicillin- IV form

150
Q

Amoxicillin is what form

A

Oral form

151
Q

Ampicillin is what form

A

IV form

152
Q

Penicillinase-resistant Penicillin (anti-staphylococcal penicillin)

A

Cloxacillin- Skin infections

153
Q

Extended-spectrum penicillin (Anti-pseudomonal penicillin)

A

Piperacillin- Advanced infections

154
Q

Beta-lactamase inhibitors

A

Clavulanic acid- Enhances the range of amoxicillin.

155
Q

Penicillin

A

bactericidal

We won’t get any side effects because we don’t have a cell wall, even with a large dose

156
Q

The group of penicillin is called

A

beta-lactam antibiotics.

157
Q

Side effects of penicillin

A

GI tract issues like nausea, vomiting diarrhea, and abdominal pain.

Amoxicillin is well absorbed in GIT. This is NOT affected by food intake!!

158
Q

side effects when stopping penicillin

A

Rash (allergic reaction) could be developed 72 hours after stop taking penicillin

159
Q

Penicillin

A

is mostly used for streptococcal, syphilis, tetanus.

160
Q

signs and symptoms related to the drug administration for antibiotics

A

Provide small frequent meals, frequent mouth care, ice chips, or sugarless candy to suck if stomatitis and sore mouth occurs.

Advise to report difficulty of breathing, severe diarrhea, dizziness, weakness, and vaginal itching.

161
Q

The drug of choice for UTI

A

amoxicillin also good for pregant women

162
Q

The Cephalosporins

A

As you move higher in a generation you get better gram-negative coverage, but you lose gram-positive coverage

bactericidal

(based on coverage)
The cephalosporins also belong to the beta-lactam group of antibiotics.

163
Q

First Generation cephalosporin

A

Have the same coverage as penicillin.

164
Q

Second generation cephalosporin

A

Adding effectiveness against Neisseria, and Haemophilus, less effective towards gram-positive

165
Q

Third Generation cephalosporin

A

All of the gram-negative (includes Serratia marcescens.)

166
Q

First-generation cephalosporins medications

A

Cefazolin- IV form (answer the first generation of cephalosporins) (given before operation)

Cephalexin- Oral form

167
Q

Cefazolin

A

IV form

168
Q

Cephalexin

A

Oral form

169
Q

Second Generation cephalosporins medication

A

Cefprozil- Oral form (same as amoxicillin but only required twice a day)

Cefuroxime- IV form

170
Q

Cefprozil

A

Oral form

171
Q

Cefuroxime

A

IV form

172
Q

Third Generation Cephalosporins medications

A

Ceftriaxone- IV form

Cefixime- Oral form (often never needed)

173
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

IV form

174
Q

Cefixime

A

Oral form

175
Q

True or false patients with known allergies to cephalosporins and penicillin will have a reaction

A

true

176
Q

The Aminoglycosides medications

A

Gentamycin- IV
Tobramycin- Eye drops (absorbed well)
Amikacin- IV

177
Q

True or false there is no oral form of aminoglycoside

A

true

178
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Bactericidal
Gram-negative ONLY

179
Q

Adverse effects of Aminoglycoside

A

Auto-toxic (hearing)
nephron toxic (renal)

180
Q

The Macrolides

A

Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin

181
Q

Azithromycin

A

Used for STDs (treats chlamydia)

Respiratory

182
Q

Clarithromycin

A

Strongest of macrolides

Extensive uses including skin and resp.

183
Q

Erythromycin

A

terrible stomach side effects, oral sensitivity, long half-life so there is more resistance

usedfor different infections

184
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides

A

medication is destroyed by gastric juices, but food does not interfere

185
Q

Macrolides are used

A

Streptococcal infection, Mycoplasma infection

186
Q

Watch out for macrolides

A

often has problems with the liver, also can impact the fetus

187
Q

The Tetracyclines long acting

A

Doxycycline (need till you grow out of it)

minocycline

188
Q

Adverse effects of tetracycline

A

effects the skin, teeth and bones. Also has a lot of sun sensitivity

189
Q

True or false Oral contraceptives- if taken with tetracycline, will have decreased effectiveness.

A

True

190
Q

The Fluoroquinolones medications

A

Ciprofloxacin

Levofloxacin

Moxifloxacin

191
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

gram-negative
oral treatment for pneumonia

192
Q

Levofloxacin

A

Respiratory

193
Q

Moxifloxacin

A

strongest and best used for UTI

194
Q

Mechanism of action for fluoroquinolones

A

is bacteriastactic

195
Q

True or false do not give fluoroquinolones to people 18 years or younger

A

true

196
Q

Adverse effects of fluoroquinolone

A

Plastic anemia, affects red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

197
Q

Sulfonamides

A

Used mostly for urinary tract infections and skin infections

198
Q

Vancomycin

A

oral and IV
Oral is only used for C-diff
IV only works towards gram-positive and MRSA

199
Q

The anti-tubercular

A

take all four at once

cause liver problems

treat mycobacterium tuberculosis

200
Q

mycobacterium tuberculosis (4 medications)

A

Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

201
Q

Antifungals

A

(The “AZOLES”)
Ketoconazole
Clotrimazole
Miconazole
IV: AMPHOTERICIN

202
Q

Antivirals

A

(The Vir)broad specturm that treats agints viruses

203
Q

AIDS anti-viral

A

Zidovudine (AZT) (strictly against HIV)

204
Q

What is the main treatment for benzodiazepine overdose

A

nothing

205
Q

What benzodiazepine is used for MRI scanner or panic attacks

A

Xanax

206
Q

What is lithium used for

A

Bipolar disorder

207
Q

Tricyclic anti-depressants aren’t used anymore give 2 reasons why

A

more side effects
high overdose

208
Q

Which SSRI was developed and still used in kids

A

Prozac

209
Q

What is the life-threatening complications of narcotic overdose

A

Respiratory depression

210
Q

What is a life-threatening complication of cocaine overdose

A

Heart attack
Cocaine is used for vasoconstriction

211
Q

What is a life-threatening complication of alcohol withdrawal

A

Seizures

212
Q

what is cancer

A

uncontrolled cell growth

213
Q

Benign

A

non cancerous, dont spread to other tumours

214
Q

Malignant

A

Cancerous, invade tissues and spread

215
Q

Carcinoma

A

covers external and internal organs and glands

216
Q

Sarcoma

A

always bad, starts in supporting tissue of the body, bone cartilage, fat

217
Q

Lymphoma

A

Lymph node

218
Q

Leukemia

A

blood

219
Q

Adeno

A

gland

220
Q

Chondro

A

cartilage

221
Q

Eythra

A

red blood cells

222
Q

Hengioma

A

blood vessels

223
Q

Hepato

A

liver

224
Q

lipo

A

fat

225
Q

Lympho

A

lymph nodes

226
Q

Melano

A

pigment

227
Q

Mylo

A

bone marrow

228
Q

myo

A

muscle

229
Q

osteo

A

bone

230
Q

Cancer centers only treat you if you have what

A

a tissue diagnosis

231
Q

Lead time bias

A

Only sometimes finding cancer early helps (it doesn’t change when you die)

232
Q

Cervical cancer screening

A

Pap smear

233
Q

breast cancer screening

A

ultrasound first and then a mammogram for screening

234
Q

Prostate cancer screening

A

DRE,digitl rectal exam

235
Q

Colorectal cancer screening

A

colonoscopy and sigmoidoscopy, FIT test

236
Q

Lung cancer screening

A

low intensity CT scan

237
Q

Core Biopsy

A

take some of it

238
Q

incisional biopsy

A

take the whole thing

239
Q

TNM

A

(tumor node metastases) T= number of tumors, N= lymph nodes M= metastasis (spread)

240
Q

stage one of cancer

A

only in the tissue its supposed to be in

241
Q

stage four of cancer

A

Spread to distant tissue and organs

242
Q

Surgery in cancer does what

A

only done for a cure, or debulking

243
Q

what is debulking

A

making a person more comfortable, they will still have the cancer in them

244
Q

Radiation

A

burns everything, just happens to also kill the bad stuff (skin changes, swelling, feel sick)

245
Q

Chemotherapy

A

Nausea and vomiting, hair loss, mouth sores, pain (every cell gets chemo, to kill the cancer)

246
Q

Neo-adjuvant

A

chemo, radiation, or hormone to shrink a tumor

247
Q

Adjuvant

A

hemo, chemo, radiation, targeted, biological

248
Q

target therapy

A

medications that can very specifically kill some cancers

249
Q

Aggressive hormone therapy

A

is used in breast cancer and prostate cancer (the more hormones the better ie, estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone)

250
Q

Breast cancer cells

A

granular tissue, (ductal or lobular) (also skin ones involved)

251
Q

How often is breast cancer screening

A

every two years

252
Q

what test do you do first for breast cancer

A

ultrasound

252
Q

Lung cancer

A

small cell and non-small cell

252
Q

symptoms of lung cancer

A

cough, shortness breath, weight loss, chest pain

253
Q

what is a PET scan used for

A

to see if cancer has metastasized anywhere

254
Q

what is a bronchoscopy

A

scrape the wall to take a sample

255
Q

Colon Cancer cells

A

adenocarcinoma

256
Q

Risk factors for colon cancer

A

IBD, low fiber diet

257
Q

symptoms of colon cancer

A

blood in stool, anemia

258
Q

treatment of colon cancer

A

primary anastomosis, joining the two cancer- free parts together

259
Q

screening for prostate cancer

A

rectal exam and PSA testing (prostate specific antigen)

260
Q

Influenzas (flu vaccine)

A

routine vaccine
Inactive vaccine
annually single dose
40-60% success rate
rare side effects: hoarseness wheezing, tachycardia

261
Q

Measeles, mumps, rubella

A

routine vaccine
Live attenuated vaccine
two dose - subcutaneous
Could cause seizures
does not cause autism

262
Q

Inactivated polio vaccine

A

routine vaccine
prevents all three types of polio
95% coverage after all three doses
polio is defines as a paralytic disease

263
Q

Hepatitis B vaccine

A

routine vaccine
three doses, first right after birth
might be eradicated by 2030

264
Q

Singles (herps zoster)

A

non routine
non live recombinant
two dose to those 50 and older with a hx of chicken pox

265
Q

Tuberculosis vaccine

A

not routine
live attenuated
single doses soon after birth
51% tb and 78% in new borns
1/4 of the world gets infected with tb

266
Q

yellow fever

A

not routine
live attenuated
single dose usually 9 months and older
99% effective
vaccine has been avalible for more than 80 years

267
Q

mRNA covid-19

A

covid was developed in less than a year

268
Q

smallpox

A

live attenuated vaccine
since 1972 has no longer been administered

269
Q

Hepatitis A vaccine

A

non routine
inactivated vaccine
usually two doses
For gay men, travelers, drug users
first vaccine was given in 1996 in the us

270
Q

Typhoid Vaccine

A

Live attenuated
protects you from typhoid fever and salmonella
oral and injectable
50% effective
10% of those get it per year

271
Q

diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis

A

routine vaccine
combination toxoid
tetanus (lock jaw) pertussis (whopping chough
5 doses
Some cases of Guillain Barre syndrome have been reported following this vaccine

272
Q

Meningococcal vaccine

A

non routine
Inactivated
This vaccine only helps protect against bacterial meningitis not viral

273
Q

Respiratory syncytial

A

non routine
recombinant
lower respiratory disease
single dose

274
Q

Tetanus and diphtheria

A

inactivated vaccine
every 10 years should be renewed
Diphtheria can be transmitted through human contact. Tetanus can not be.

Tetanus is a bacteria that lives in soil and feces

275
Q

Varicella vaccine

A

non routine
live attenuated
2 doses

276
Q

Human Papillion vaccine

A

non routine
live attenuated
genital warts
this vaccine will replace pap smears

277
Q

Covid-19

A

protein subunit

278
Q

Haemophilus influenza vaccine

A

routine vaccine
polysaccharide conjugate
protect you from influenza type b and meningitis

279
Q

Dukoral cholera vaccine

A

non routine
live attenuated
orally
patients can only drink water an hour after receiving the vaccine

280
Q

Rotavius vaccine

A

non routine
live attenuated
orally
risk of a bowel blockage (intussusception)

281
Q

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

A

routine vaccine
Conjugate
spreads via droplet contact

282
Q

rabies vaccine

A

non routine
inactivated
the signs of rabies can take 2 weeks to a year to appear (usually 2-8 weeks)
Highly affected before symptoms appear

After symptoms appear it is too late for treatment

283
Q

Japanese encephalitis

A

non routine
inactivated
2 doses

Patho-Pharm Test two (1 decks)

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