Patho Flashcards

1
Q

Cells of these tissues are continuously being lost and replaced by maturation from stem cells and by proliferation of mature cells. Can readily regenerate after injury as long as the pool of stem cells is preserved.

A

Labile tissues(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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2
Q

Cells of theses tissues are quiescent and have only minimal replicative activity in their normal state. Capable of proliferating in response to injury or loss of tissue mass.

A

Stable tissues(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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3
Q

Cells of these tissues are considered to be terminally differentiated and nonproliferative in postnatal life.

A

Permanent tissues(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.62

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4
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Bone marrow

A

Labile(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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5
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Vaginal epithelium

A

Labile(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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6
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Salivary glands

A

Labile(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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7
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Liver parenchyma

A

Stable(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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8
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Endothelium

A

Stable(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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9
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Smooth muscle cells

A

Stable(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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10
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Neurons

A

Permanent(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.62

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11
Q

Labile, stable or permanent tissues:Cardiac muscle

A

Permanent(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.62

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12
Q

Type of collagen found in basement membrane

A

Type IV collagen(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.67

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13
Q

This is the most abundant glycoprotein in basement membrane.

A

Laminin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.68

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14
Q

The pink, soft, granular tissue seen beneath the scab of a skin wound.

A

Granulation tissue(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.70

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15
Q

Maturation and reorganization of fibrous tissue

A

Remodeling(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.70

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16
Q

Healing of a clean, uninfected surgical incision approximated by surgical sutures

A

Healing by first intention / Primary Union(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.74

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17
Q

Type of healing wherein tissue is allowed to heal by itself before suturing. Used in large wounds, in the presence of abscess, or ulceration.

A

Healing by secondary intention / secondary union(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.76

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18
Q

Wound strength reaches 70 - 80 % of normal in ______ months.

A

3 months(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

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19
Q

Single most important cause of delay in wound healing.

A

Infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

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20
Q

True or false: Complete restoration can occur only in tissues composed of stable and labile cells.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

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21
Q

Refers to the restoration of tissue architecture and function after an injury.

A

Repair (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

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22
Q

True or false:Injury to tissues composed of permanent cells does not result to scarring.

A

False. Injury to tissues composed of permanent cells, inevitably results to scarring.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

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23
Q

Process of replacing damaged components of a tissue, returning to a normal state.

A

Regeneration (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.77

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24
Q

Migration and proliferation of fibroblasts with deposition of ECM.

A

Scar formation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.72

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25
Q

Maturation and reorganization of fibrous tissue

A

Remodeling(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.73

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26
Q

Arrange the steps in cutaneous wound healing:A. Formation of granulation tissueB. ECM remodelingC. Inflammation

A

C, A, B(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.72

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27
Q

It consists of a series of steps at which the cell checks for the accuracy of replication and mitosis and instructs itself to proceed to the next step.

A

Cell cycle(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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28
Q

In the cell cycle, this is called the presynthetic growth phase.

A

G1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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29
Q

In the cell cycle, this is also called the premitotic growth phase.

A

G2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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30
Q

These steps in the cell cycle prevents DNA replication or mitosis of damaged cells and either transiently stop the cell cycle to allow repair, or eliminate irreversibly damaged cells by apoptosis.

A

Checkpoint control(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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31
Q

These enzymes promote DNA replication and various aspects of mitosis. They are required for cell cycle progression. Forms complexes with cyclin.

A

Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.61

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32
Q

This cytokine is released from activated macrophages, and is mitogenic for keratinocytes and fibroblasts. It also stimulates keratinocyte migration and granulation tissue formation.

A

Epidermal Growth Factor (EGF)(TOPNOTCH)

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33
Q

This cytokine increases vascular permeability and is mitogenic for endothelial cells.

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.71

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34
Q

Pattern of extracellular signaling wherein the target cell is itself.

A

Autocrine(TOPNOTCH)

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35
Q

Pattern of extracellular signaling wherein the target cell is adjacent to the secretory cell.

A

Paracrine(TOPNOTCH)

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36
Q

Pattern of extracellular signaling wherein the target cell is distant to the secretory cell.

A

Endocrine(TOPNOTCH)

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37
Q

Synthesized by mesenchymal cells, present in the spaces between cells in connective tissue, between epithelium and supportive vascular and smooth muscle structures.

A

Interstitial Matrix(TOPNOTCH)

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38
Q

Component of ECM which confers tensile strength and recoil.

A

Fibrous proteins s.a. Collagen and elastin(TOPNOTCH)

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39
Q

Component of ECM that permits resilience and lubrication.

A

Proteoglycans, hyaluronan(TOPNOTCH)

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40
Q

Component of ECM that connect the elements to one another and to the cells.

A

Adhesive glycoproteins(TOPNOTCH)

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41
Q

What is the hallmark of tissue repair?

A

Tissue granulation. (TOPNOTCH)

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42
Q

A 28 y/o male suffered from traumatic injury of the muscles of his left lower extremity. In this type of tissue, repair is typically dominated by? Scar formation or regeneration?

A

Scar formation. In permanent tissues like skeletal and cardiac muscle, repair is dominated by scar formation. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 101

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43
Q

Liver, kidney and pancreas. Labile, stable or permanent tissues?

A

Stable. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 101

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44
Q

A patient has a large wound on his right arm as a result of a vehicular crash. Initially his wound is filled with granulation tissue composed of fibroblast and new blood vessels. What is responsible for inducing formation of new blood vessels?

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)(TOPNOTCH)

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45
Q

Following hepatectomy, liver undergo repair by __________.

A

Regeneration. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 102

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46
Q

Steps in scar formation

A

Angiogenesis, Formation of granulation tissue, Remodelling. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 102

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47
Q

It is characterized by proliferation of fibroblast and new thin walled, delicate capillaries in a loose ECM often admixed with inflammatory cells.

A

Granulation tissue. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 103

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48
Q

Roles of macrophage in tissue repair.

A

Clear offending agent and dead tissue, provide growth factor, secrete cytokines for fibroblast proliferation and connective tissue synthesis.(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 104

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49
Q

Granulation tissue appear after how many days after injury?

A

3-5 days. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 104

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50
Q

A 50 y/o coal worker experienced gradual onset of dyspnea and non-productive cough. He was then diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis. What is the most important cytokine that causes the development of fibrosis following chronic inflammation?

A

Transforming growth factor-? (TGF-?) is the most important cytokine for synthesis and deposition of connective tissue protein. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 105

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51
Q

A 52 y/o diabetic female patient developed a non-healing wound on his right foot. She is currently on an anti-hyperglycemic and an antihypertensive.What factor is the most likely implicated in the abnormal wound healing?

A

Presence of uncontrolled blood glucose level/Diabetes. (TOPNOTCH)

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52
Q

Cells present within 24 hours of tissue injury.

A

Neutrophils (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 106

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53
Q

Predominant cells on Day 3 after tissue injury

A

Macrophages.(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 106

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54
Q

An important feature in healing by secondary intention/secondary union.

A

Wound contraction involving formation of myofibroblasts at the edge of the wound. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 108

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55
Q

True or False. Wound strength returns to normal 3 months after a carefully sutured wound.

A

False. Only up to 70-80% of normal and usually does not improve beyond that. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 108

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56
Q

Patient X had a laceration on his right arm and underwent suture and repair. Wound healing continues, however, the site was disfiguring and developed a raised nodule after 2 months. The abnormality presented is ___.

A

Keloid formation (TOPNOTCH)

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57
Q

Patient receiving glucocorticoid therapy for the autoimmune disease developed an abscess. Poor wound healing may result from glucocorticoid therapy due to:

A

Inhibition of TGF-B and diminished fibrosis secondary to glucocorticoid therapy. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 106

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58
Q

One week after an exploratory laparatomy, a 30-year old obese female patient had “rupture of the wound”. This complication in tissue repair is due to inadequate formation of granulation tissue or scar formation.

A

Dehiscence. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 109

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59
Q

A 5 y/o patient had second degree burn of the palms. She is more prone to what type of abnormality in tissue repair?

A

Contracture. (TOPNOTCH)

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60
Q

Collagen deposition in cellular repair is largely a function of what cells?

A

Fibroblasts (TOPNOTCH)

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61
Q

The hallmark of tissue healing is:

A

Granulation tissue (TOPNOTCH)

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62
Q

Vitamin C retards wound healing because

A

Collagen synthesis is inhibited (TOPNOTCH)

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63
Q

Phase of cutaneous wound healing: formation of granulation tissue, proliferation and migration of connective tissue cells and re-epithelialization of wound surface

A

Proliferation (2nd phase) (TOPNOTCH)

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64
Q

Phase of cutaneous wound healing: ECM deposition, tissue remodeling and wound contraction

A

Maturation (3nd phase) (TOPNOTCH)

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65
Q

Its characteristic feature is the presence of new small blood vessels and proliferation of fibroblasts

A

Granulation tissue (TOPNOTCH)

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66
Q

True or False. Granulation tissue is more prominent in healing by secondary union.

A

True (TOPNOTCH)

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67
Q

Hypertrophic scar is due to accumulation of excessive amount of___.

A

Collagen (TOPNOTCH)

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68
Q

In wound healing, collagen is produced by:

A

Myofibroblasts(TOPNOTCH)

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69
Q

A 33 year old man sustains a stab injury on his right forearm. Two days after the incident, what can be seen in his stab wound? (A) dense collagen deposition (B) pink amorphous material devoid of cellular elements (C) accumulation of fibroblasts and macrophages (D) fibroblasts and capillaries in a loose extracellular matrix

A

fibroblasts and capillaries in a loose extracellular matrix (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp 70-71

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70
Q

What is expected in the surgical scar of a 21 year old who underwent appendectomy one month ago? (A) Absence of dermal appendages (B) fibroblasts and capillaries in a loose extracellular matrix (C) intense intlammation and large amounts of granulation tissue (D) peak neovascularization

A

Absence of dermal appendages (Healing by First Intention) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp74-76

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71
Q

A 19 year old black male who got his right earlobe pierced 3 months ago developed a raised scar on that area. If examined microscopically, what should be seen? (A) dense collagen deposited in bundles (B) thickened stratum corneum of the epidermis (C) large amounts of granulation tissue (D) neutrophil aggregates with necrotic centers

A

dense collagen deposited in bundles (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed, p 77

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72
Q

What is the cell responsible for wound contraction, especially in wounds that heal by second intention?

A

myofibroblast (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed, p 76

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73
Q

Extravasation of fluid into interstitial spaces due to increases in vascular volume or pressure, decreases in plasma protein content or alterations in endothelial function.

A

Edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.81

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74
Q

It is a severe and generalized edema with profound subcutaneous tissue swelling.

A

Anasarca(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.81

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75
Q

The edema fluid occuring with volume or pressure overload or under conditions of reduced plasma protein.

A

Transudate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.82

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76
Q

Edema secondary to increased vascular permeability and inflammation.

A

Exudate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.82

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77
Q

The serum protein most responsible for maintaining intravascular colloid osmotic pressure.

A

Albumin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.83

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78
Q

In breast cancer, infiltration and obstruction of superficial lymphatics can cause edema of the overlying skin, called _______ appearance.

A

Peau d’ orange(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.83

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79
Q

Microscopically, it is reflected primarily as a clearing and separation of the extracellular matrix elements with subtle cell swelling.

A

Edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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80
Q

Diffuse edema usually more prominent in certain body areas as a result of the effects of gravity.

A

Dependent edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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81
Q

True or false:Dependent edema is a prominent feature of left-sided heart failure.

A

False.Dependent edema is a feature of right-sided HF, while pulmonary congestion is a feature of left-sided HF.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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82
Q

Edema due to renal dysfunction which manifests disproportionately in tissues with loose connective tissue matrix, e.g. Eyelids.

A

Periorbital edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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83
Q

Finger pressure over significantly edematous subcutaneous tissue displacing the interstitial fluid, leaving a finger-shaped depression on the skin.

A

Pitting edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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84
Q

Condition wherein the lungs weigh 2-3x the normal, and on sectioning reveals frothy, sometimes blood-tinged mixture of air, fluid and extravasated red cells.

A

Pulmonary edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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85
Q

Condition wherein the brain is grossly swollen, with narrowed sulci and distended gyri showing signs of flattening against the underlying skull.

A

Brain edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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86
Q

It is an active process resulting from augmented blood flow due to arteriolar dilation. Affected tissue is redder than normal, because of engorgement with oxygenated blood.

A

Hyperemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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87
Q

It is a passive process resulting from impaired venous rturn out of a tissue.Tissue has a blue-red color due to accumulation of hemoglobin in the affected tissue.

A

Congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.84

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88
Q

Characterized by alveolar capillaries engorged with blood, with associated alveolar septal edema or focal minute intra-alveolar hemorrhage.

A

Acute pulmonary congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

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89
Q

Pulmonary septa are thickened and fibrotic, with hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveolar spaces.

A

Chronic pulmonary congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

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90
Q

Hemosiderin- laden macrophages

A

Heart-failure cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

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91
Q

The central vein and sinusoids of the liver are distended with blood, with central hepatocyte degeneration. The periportal hepatocytes are better oxygenated.

A

Acute hepatic congestion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

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92
Q

The central regions of the hepatic lobules are grossly red-brown and slightly depressed and are accentuated against the surrounding zones of uncongested tan, sometimes fatty liver (nutmeg liver).

A

Chronic passive congestion of the liver(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

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93
Q

Presence of centrilobular necrosis with hepatocyte drop-out, hemorrhage and hemosirin-laden macrophages

A

CPC of the liver(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.85

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94
Q

Extravasation of blood from vessels into the extravascular space.

A

Hemorrhage(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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95
Q

Accumulation of blood within a tissue.

A

Hematoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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96
Q

1-2mm hemorrhages into skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces.

A

Petechiae(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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97
Q

3-5mm hemorrhages which can occur with trauma, vascular inflammation, or increased vascular fragility.

A

Purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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98
Q

1-2cm subcutaneous hematomas/bruises.

A

Ecchymoses (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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99
Q

It is a consequence of tightly regulated processes that maintain blood in a fluid, clot-free state in normal vessels while inducing the rapid formation of a localized hemostatic plug at the site of vascular injury.

A

Normal hemostasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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100
Q

Pathologic form of hemostasis.

A

Thrombosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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101
Q

It occurs after an initial injury, as a result of reflex neurogenic mechanisms.

A

Arteriolar vasoconstriction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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102
Q

A potent endothelium-derived vasocontrictor.

A

Endothelin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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103
Q

Receptors responsible for platelet adhesion.

A

GpIb receptors- platelet Von Willebrand factor - endothelium(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

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104
Q

Deficiency of GpIb receptors.

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

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105
Q

Deficiency of GpIIb-IIIa receptors.

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

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106
Q

It is a membrane-bound procoagulant glycoprotein synthesized by endothelium, which becomes exposed at the site of injury.

A

Thromboplastin/Factor III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.88

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107
Q

Formation of a hemostatic plug due to platelet aggregation

A

Primary hemostasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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108
Q

Hemostasis characterized by activation of thrombin through the coagulation cascade.

A

Secondary hemostasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.86

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109
Q

True or false:The primary aggregation of platelets is irreversible.

A

False.(TOPNOTCH)

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110
Q

Two substances essential for the formation of a primary hemostatic plug.

A

ADP and TXA2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.87

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111
Q

True or false:Activation of the coagulation cascade and subsequent thrombin formation is reversible.

A

False. Irreversible(TOPNOTCH)

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112
Q

Substance that activates the coagulation proteins.

A

Calcium(TOPNOTCH)

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113
Q

Substance that mediates further platelet aggregation and degranulation.

A

ADP(TOPNOTCH)

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114
Q

Substance that increases platelet activation and causes vasoconstriction. Synthesized by activated platelets.

A

TXA2(TOPNOTCH)

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115
Q

Most important initiator of the coagulation cascade.

A

Tissue factor(TOPNOTCH)

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116
Q

A protein found on endothelial cells involved in the breakdown of blood clots which catalyzes conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) and Urokinase(TOPNOTCH)

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117
Q

Components of Virchow’s triad?

A

Endothelial injuryStasisHypercoagulability(TOPNOTCH)

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118
Q

It is a major contributor to the development of VENOUS thrombi.

A

Stasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.94

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119
Q

Type of blood flow found in normal blood vessels, wherein platelets flow centrally in the vessel lumen, separated from the endothelium by a slow moving clear zone of plasma.

A

Laminar flow(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.94

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120
Q

Alteration in blood flow that contributes to arterial and cardiac thrombosis by causing endothelial injury or dysfunction as well as formation of countercurrents and local pockets of stasis.

A

Turbulence(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.94

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121
Q

Any alteration of the coagulation pathway that predisposes to thrombosis.

A

Hypercoagulability(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.95

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122
Q

A detached, intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass that is carried by the blood distal to its point of origin.

A

Embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.95

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123
Q

Apparent laminations seen in a thrombus, representing pale platelet and fibrin layers alternating with darker erythrocyte-rich layers.

A

Lines of Zahn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

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124
Q

Significance of Lines of Zahn?

A

Represents thrombosis in the setting of blood flow, seen in antemortem clots.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

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125
Q

Thrombi occuring in heart chambers or aortic lumen

A

Mural thrombi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

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126
Q

Gelatinous thrombi with a dark red dependent portion where red cells have settled by gravity with a yellow “chicken fat” supernatant. Usually unattached to underlying wall.

A

Postmortem thrombi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

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127
Q

Thrombi on heart valves.

A

Vegetations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

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128
Q

Sterile, verrucous endocartidis occuring in patients with SLE.

A

Libman-Sacks endocartidis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

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129
Q

Vegetations occuring in the presence of non-infected valves in hypercoagulable states.

A

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.96

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130
Q

Fate of a thrombus wherein the thrombus accumulates additional platelets and fibrin, eventually causing vessel obstruction.

A

Propagation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

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131
Q

Fate of a thrombus wherein it may dislodge or fragment and transported elsewhere in the vasculature.

A

Embolization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

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132
Q

Fate of a thrombus as a result of of fibrinolytic activity leading to rapid shrinkage and even total lysis of recent thrombi.

A

Dissolution(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

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133
Q

Fate of a thrombus wherein it may induce inflammation and fibrosis and establish some degree of blood flow.

A

Organization and recanalization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

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134
Q

True or false:Therapeutic administration of fibrinolytic agents is generally effective only within a few hours of thrombus formation.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

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135
Q

Most common site of venous thrombosis.

A

Superficial or deep veins of the leg(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

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136
Q

Most common sequelae of deep venous thrombosis.

A

Pulmonary embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.97

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137
Q

Tumor-associated procoagulant release largely responsible for the increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena seen in disseminated cancers.

A

Migrating thrombophlebitis or Trousseau’s syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.98

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138
Q

Hardening or thickening of the arteries as a result of the accumulation of fatty materials, macrophages, platelets and other inflammatory mediators.

A

Atherosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.98

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139
Q

Fates of a thrombus (4)

A

PropagationResolution/DissolutionOrganization and recanalizationEmbolization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.98

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140
Q

Embolus occluding a bifurcation in the pulmonary tree.

A

Saddle embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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141
Q

True or false:A patient who has had one pulmonary embolus has a decreased risk of developing another embolus.

A

False.The patient is at risk of developing more pulmonary emboli.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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142
Q

A venous embolus which entered the systemic circulation through an interarterial or interventricular defect.

A

Paradoxical embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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143
Q

Most common symptom of pulmonary embolism.

A

None/ Asymptomatic (60-80%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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144
Q

Right Ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension.

A

Cor pulmonale(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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145
Q

Emboli in the arterial circulation.

A

Systemic thromboembolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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146
Q

Most common origin of systemic thrombi.

A

Intracardiac mural thrombi (80%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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147
Q

Major site of arteriolar embolization.

A

Lower extremities (75%)Brain (10%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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148
Q

Microscopic fat globules found in the circulation after fractures of long bones or after soft-tissue trauma.

A

Fat embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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149
Q

Symptoms of pulmonary insufficiency, neurologic symptoms, anemia, and thrombocytopenia characterize what syndrome?

A

Fat embolism syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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150
Q

Gas bubbles within the circulation obstructing vascular flow and causes distal ischemic injury.

A

Air embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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151
Q

Amount of air in the circulation which produces clinical effects of air embolism.

A

> 100 mL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.99

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152
Q

This occurs when individuals are exposed to sudden changes in atmospheric pressure (e.g. Deep sea divers, scuba divers).

A

Decompression sickness(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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153
Q

The rapid formation of gas bubbles within skeletal muscles and supporting tissues in and around joints causing pain.

A

Bends(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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154
Q

Gas bubbles in the lung vasculture causing edema, hemorrhages, focal atelectasis and emphysema.

A

Chokes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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155
Q

More chronic form of decompression sickness where persistence of gas emboli in the bones leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis.

A

Caisson disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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156
Q

Treatment of choice for decompression sickness.

A

Hyperbaric compression chamber(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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157
Q

Underlying cause of amniotic fluid embolism.

A

Entry of amniotic fluid into the maternal circulation through a tear in the placetal membranes and rupture of uterine veins.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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158
Q

Presence of marked pulmonary edema, diffuse alveolar damage, and presence of squamous cells in the pulmonary circulation shed from fetal skin, lanugo hair, fat and mucin.

A

Amniotic fluid embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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159
Q

White or red infarct?Venous occlusion

A

Red infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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160
Q

White or red infarct?Lung infarction

A

Red infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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161
Q

White or red infarct?Intestinal infarct

A

Red infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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162
Q

White or red infarct?Myocardial infarction

A

White infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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163
Q

White or red infarction?Splenic infact

A

White infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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164
Q

White or red infarction?Wedge infarct

A

White infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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165
Q

The dominant histologic characteristic of infarction.

A

Ischemic coagulative necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

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166
Q

Histologic characteristic of brain infarcts.

A

Liquefactive necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

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167
Q

This occurs when bacterial vegetations from a heart valve embolize or when microbes seed an area of necrotic tissue.

A

Septic infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

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168
Q

Most common sequalae of septic infarcts.

A

Abscess(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

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169
Q

Major determinants of the eventual outcome of an infarct. (4)

A

Nature of vascular supplyRate of development of occlusionVulnerability to hypoxiaOxygen content of blood(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.101

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170
Q

Neurons undergo irreversible damage when deprived of their blood supply for _______.

A

3-4 minutes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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171
Q

Myocardial cells undergo irreversible damage after ______ minutes of ischemia.

A

20-30 minutes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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172
Q

It is the final common pathway for severe hemorrhage, extensive trauma, burns, large MI, pulmonary embolism and sepsis.

A

Shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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173
Q

End results of shock (3)

A

HypotensionImpaired tissue perfusionHypoxia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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174
Q

This type of shock results from failure of the cardic pump which maybe caused by MI, ventricular arrythmias, cardiac tamponade or outflow obstruction.

A

Cardiogenic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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175
Q

This type of shock results from loss blood or plasma volume.

A

Hypovolemic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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176
Q

This type of shock is caused by microbial infection, caused by gram negative and gram positive bacteria and fungi

A

Septic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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177
Q

True or false:Systemic bacteremia must be present to induce septic shock.

A

FalseHost inflammatory response to local extravascular infections may be sufficient to induce septic shock.(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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178
Q

Type of shock which occurs in the setting of an anesthetic accident or spinal cord injury as a result of loss of vascular tone and peripheral pooling of blood.

A

Neurogenic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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179
Q

This type of shock represents systemic vasodilation and increased vascular permeability caused by IgE hypersensitivity reaction.

A

Anaphylactic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.102

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180
Q

Septic shock caused by gram negative bacilli.

A

Endotoxic shock(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.103

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181
Q

Criteria for SIRS.

A

Temp 38 CelciusHR >90 bpmRR >20 or PaCO2 12,000 cells/mm3 or 10% bands(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.103

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182
Q

Adrenal changes in shock.

A

Cortical cell lipid depletion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

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183
Q

Kidney changes in shock.

A

Acute tubular necrosis resulting in oliguria, anuria, and electrolyte disturbances.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

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184
Q

Gastrointestinal changes in shock.

A

Focal mucosal hemorrhage and necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

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185
Q

Lung changes in shock.

A

Diffuse alveolar damage if due to bacterial sepsis and trauma.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.106

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186
Q

The main mechanism of edema in inflammatory disease is:

A

increase vascular permeability (TOPNOTCH)

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187
Q

Sudden death in pulmonary embolism is due to:

A

Acute right heart failure (TOPNOTCH)

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188
Q

Accumulation of fluid within tissues

A

Edema (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 113

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189
Q

Accumulation of fluid within body cavities

A

Effusion (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 113

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190
Q

Patient presented with pain, swelling, and tenderness of left leg. What is the mechanism of edema in this condition?

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure. It is caused by impaired venous return as a result of DVT.(TOPNOTCH)

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191
Q

Patient presented with dyspnea, orthopnea, easy fatigability, and bipedal edema. The mechanism of edema in this condition is.

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure (TOPNOTCH)

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192
Q

Patient presented with periorbital edema and ankle edema. Lab result shows high lipid levels, and low serum albumin. What is the mechanism of edema in this condition?

A

Reduced plasma oncotic pressure secondary to protein/albumin loss (case of Nephrotic syndrome) (TOPNOTCH)

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193
Q

Mechanism of edema in severe liver disease

A

Reduced plasma osmotic pressure due to reduced protein synthesis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 114

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194
Q

Mechanism of edema caused by Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Lymphatic obstruction(in Filariasis)(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 114

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195
Q

A chronic alcoholic male presented with easy fatigability and orthopnea. Chest radiograph showed bilateral pleural effusion, while abdominal ultrasound showed ascites and small liver. What is the mechanism of effusion in this condition?

A

Reduced plasma oncotic pressure (TOPNOTCH)

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196
Q

Patient X presented with pitting edema of the legs, jugular vein distention, and elevated transaminases. If the liver showed a nutmeg appearance, the patient most likely have:

A

Chronic passive congestion of the liver secondary to congestive heart failure (TOPNOTCH)

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197
Q

Patient with left-sided heart failure may develop pulmonary edema because of what mechanism?

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th ed., p. 114

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198
Q

Assay that assesses the function of proteins in the extrinsic pathway (factors VII, X, V, II, fibrinogen)

A

Prothrombin time (PT) (TOPNOTCH) RobbIns Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 119

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199
Q

Assay that screens the function of proteins in the intrinsic pathway (factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen)

A

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 119

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200
Q

Most important coagulation factor, its various enzymatic activities control diverse aspects of hemostasis

A

Thrombin (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 119

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201
Q

Prostacyclin, nitric oxide and adenosine diphosphatase action: platelet activation or platelet inhibition?

A

Platelet inhibition(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 121

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202
Q

Patient presents with epistaxis and GI bleeding. Lab result showed low platelet count. The patient may have defect in _____. Primary or secondary hemostasis?

A

Primary hemostasis (TOPNOTCH)

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203
Q

Patient presented with knee joint and swelling after a soccer game. However, no physical evidence of injury was noted. He is most likely suffering from what defect in hemostasis?

A

Secondary hemostasis. Bleeding into joints following minor trauma is particularly characteristic of hemophilia. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 122

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204
Q

Fatal and most feared complication of severe thrombocytopenia

A

Intracerebral hemorrhage (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 122

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205
Q

Patient was on anticoagulation therapy for the treatment of arterial thromboembolism. However, few days later she was noted to have blood in the urine and reddish spots on her legs. Platelet count was 20. What is the pathophysiologic mechanism for this condition?

A

Formation of antibodies against complexes of heparin and platelet factor 4 on platelet surface resulting to platelet activation, aggregration, and consumption. (HIT)(TOPNOTCH)

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206
Q

Syndrome presenting with recurrent thromboses, repeated miscarriages, cardiac valve vegetation, and thrombocytopenia.

A

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.124

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207
Q

Most common site of arterial thrombi

A

Coronary arteries (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 125

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208
Q

True or False. Saphenous vein thrombosis often cause embolization.

A

False. Superficial vein thrombosis rarely embolize. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 126

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209
Q

Lower extremity DVT are often associated with____. Turbulent blood flow, endothial injury or hypercoagulable state?

A

Hypercoagulable state (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 126

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210
Q

Major cause of arterial thromboses

A

Atherosclerosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 126

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211
Q

Systemic activation of thrombin leading to widespread formation of thombi in microcirculation, and consumption of platelets and coagulation factors.(TOPNOTCH)

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation/Consumptive coagulopathy(TOPNOTCH)

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212
Q

Patient X fractures his right femur after falling from a height of 10 meters. After 2 days of hospitalization, he developed sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, and restlessness. Diffuse petechial rashes was noted on his trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Fat emboli (TOPNOTCH)

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213
Q

A 60 y/o female, bed-ridden, was admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and hemoptysis. Physical examination finds the patient to be afebrile, tachycardic, calf tenderness and widely split S2. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pulmonary embolism (TOPNOTCH)

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214
Q

A 30 year old female experienced dyspnea and edema after being injected with antibiotic. She later lost consciousness and BP rapidly declined, and later went into shock. The is due to:

A

Anaphylactic shock (TOPNOTCH))

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215
Q

A bedridden elderly patient experienced sudden onset of dyspnea and hemoptysis. The underlying lesion that led to this complication was most likely located in which site?

A

Veins lof lower extremity. It is the most common site of DVT leading to pulmonary embolism. (TOPNOTCH)

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216
Q

Exudate or transudate? Inflammation

A

Exudate(TOPNOTCH)

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217
Q

Exudate or transudate? Nephrotic syndrome

A

Transudate(TOPNOTCH)

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218
Q

Exudate or transudate? Chronic liver disease

A

Transudate(TOPNOTCH)

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219
Q

A stillborn baby with Turner syndrome is found to have generalized edema and a large lymphangioma around her neck at autopsy. Heart and aorta findings were unremarkable. What is the mechanism for her edema? (A) Reduced oncotic pressure (B) lymphatic obstruction (C) sodium retention (D) inflammation

A

Lymphatic obstruction (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed. pp82-83

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220
Q

Which of the following will most likely produce pulmonary edema? (A) mitral valve stenosis (B) pulmonary hypertension (C) tricuspid stenosis (D) subpulmonic valve stenosis

A

mitral stenosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed. P 84

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221
Q

In which of the following cases would cerebral edema be more generalized? (A) a meningioma on the parietal cortex (B) viral encephalitis (C) occlusion of the right cerebral artery (D) frontal abscess

A

viral encephalitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed. P84

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222
Q

A patient with congestive heart failure dies. At autopsy, his liver appears grossly similar to nutmeg. Which describes an expected microscopic finding? (A) lymphocytic infiltrates in the portal tracts (B) hepatocyte necrosis around central veins (C) hepatocyte necrosis around hepatic arterioles (D) vacuolated hepatocytes and giant cell formation

A

hepatocyte necrosis around central veins (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed., p. 85.

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223
Q

A Stage IV breast cancer patient on prolonged bed rest suddenly develops difficulty of breathing and dies. At autopsy, a blood clot in the main pulmonary artery is found. Which of the following supports a thromboembolic origin, rather than a postmortem clot? (A) pale platelet and fibrin layers alternating with darker erythrocyte-rich layers (B) gelatinous consistency, with a dark dependent portion and a yellow supernatant (C) chicken fat appearance (D) lines of Kahn

A

pale platelet and fibrin layers alternating with darker erythrocyte-rich layers (lines of Zahn) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed, p96

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224
Q

A pregnant patient in her third trimester is hit by a car and sustains a femoral fracture. She subsequently goes into labor and delivers a preterm baby via vaginal delivery. A few minutes later, she has sudden dyspnea, cyanosis, and dies. At autopsy, there was pulmonary edema, a ventricular septal defect, and squamous cells in the microcirculation. What is the immediate cause of death? (A) amniotic fluid embolism (B) fat embolism (C) paradoxical embolism (D) air embolism

A

Amniotic fluid embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. p.100

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225
Q

In pure hypovolemic shock, which of the following organs will manifest the least cellular changes? (A) brain (B) adrenals (C) kidneys (D) lungs

A

Lungs (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology 8th ed. P 105.

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226
Q

These agents cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.

A

Prions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 321

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227
Q

Infected cells show distinct nuclear and ill-defined cytoplasmic inclusions.

A

CMV infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 322

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228
Q

Infected cells show glassy nuclear inclusions, frequently with a surrounding halo.

A

Herpesvirus infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 322

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229
Q

Infected hepatocytes show diffuse granular (ground-glass) cytoplasm.

A

Hepatitis B viral infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 322

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230
Q

Sexually transmitted protozoan that can colonize the vagina and male urethra.

A

Trichomonas vaginalis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 325

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231
Q

Protozoan acquired either by contact with oocyte-shedding kittens or by consumption of cyst-ridden undercooked meat.

A

Toxoplasma gondii(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 325

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232
Q

Size of microorganisms for them to be inhaled directly into the alveoli.

A

5 um(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

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233
Q

These microorganisms grow in contaminated food and releases powerful enterotoxins that cause food poisoning symptoms without any bacterial multiplication in the gut.

A

Staphylococcal strains(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

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234
Q

Intestinal helminth that cause disease when present in large numbers or cause obstruction of the gut.

A

Ascaris lumbricoides(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 326

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235
Q

Helminth that causes iron deficiency anemia by chronic loss of blood.

A

Hookworms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

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236
Q

Helminth that depletes vitamin B12 giving rise to an illness resembling pernicious anemia.

A

Diphyllobotrium latum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 327

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237
Q

Placentofetal route as a mode of transmission is also referred to as ________.

A

Vertical transmission(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 329

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238
Q

The ability of bacteria to cause disease.

A

Virulence(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 331

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239
Q

Bacterial surface molecules that bind to host cells.

A

Adhesins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 332

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240
Q

Filamentous proteins on gram negative bacteria which allow exchange of genes between bacteria, and also involved in adherence.

A

Fimbriae/pili(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 332

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241
Q

Clostridium perfringens produces this toxin that disrupts plasma membranes resulting in digestion of host tissues and collagen.

A

Alpha toxin (lecithinase)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

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242
Q

Bacterial toxins with the capacity to stimulate large populations of T lymphocytes, functionally resulting in a “cytokine storm”.

A

Superantigens(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

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243
Q

Examples of antigen presenting cells.

A

Dendritic cellsMacrophagesB-cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

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244
Q

A superantigen secreted by S. aureus which causes inflammation, fever and shock. Found in the vagina of menstruating women.

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

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245
Q

Collection of neutrophils which gives rise to localized liquefactive necrosis.

A

Abscess(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 334

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246
Q

High risk agents of bioterrorism which are easily disseminated and has high potential for mortality. An example is smallpox.

A

Category A(TOPNOTCH)

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247
Q

A distinctive form of mononuclear inflammation usually evoked by infectious agents that resist eradication, but are capable of stimulating strong T cell mediated immunity. Characterized by epitheloid cells which may fuse to form giant cells.

A

Granulomatous inflammation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 335

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248
Q

Agents that are relatively easy to disseminate and produces moderate morbidity and low mortality. An example is E.coli O157:H7 which can cause HUS.

A

Category B(TOPNOTCH)

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249
Q

Includes emerging pathogens that have the potential for mass dissemination with high morbidity and mortality. Examples are Nipah virus and Hanta virus.

A

Category C(TOPNOTCH)

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250
Q

An 8 y/o female presented with fever, sore throat, conjunctivitis, and blotchy, reddish brown rashes on the face, trunk, and extremities. In this condition, lymphoid organs have marked follicular hyperplasia, large germinal center, and randomly distributed Warthin-Finkeldey cells. The most likely cause of this disease is:

A

Rubeola virus. Warthin-Finkeldey cells are multinucleate giant cells with eosinophilic nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 355

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251
Q

Ulcerated mucosal lesion near the opening of Stensen duct marked by necrosis, neutrophilic exudate, and neovascularization.

A

Koplik spots - pathognomonic of measles (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 355

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252
Q

What protects against reinfection with measles?

A

Antibody-mediated immunity (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 355

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253
Q

Most common extrasalivary gland complication of mumps infection

A

Aseptic meningitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 356

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254
Q

A 10 y/o male presented with fever and bilateral swelling and pain of parotid glands aggravated by intake of sour food. What is the most likely finding in the gland interstitium in this disease?

A

Edematous, diffusely infiltrated by macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells(Mumps) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 356

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255
Q

True of false. Poliovirus infects only humans.

A

True(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 356

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256
Q

Mode of transmission of West Nile virus

A

Vector-borne (mosquito) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 356

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257
Q

Viruses that most frequently establish latent infections in humans

A

Herpesviruses (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 357

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258
Q

A 10 y/o child presented with vesicular around the lips and cervical lymphadenopathy. Histopathologic finding showed cells containing large, pink to purple intranuclear inclusion that consist of viral replication proteins. The etiologic agent for this condition is:

A

HSV-1 (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 357

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259
Q

A 28 y/o female complained of itchiness and vesicular lesions on her genitalia which later progress to ulcerations. The cause of this condition is:

A

HSV-2 causing genital herpes (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 357

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260
Q

Latent infection with this virus is seen in neuron and/or satellite cells around neurons in the dorsal root ganglia.

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 357

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261
Q

A 62 y/o male presented with painful vesicular rash in a stripe-like pattern over the left side of his trunk. On microscopy, the sensory ganglia contain a dense, predominantly mononuclear infiltrate, with herpetic intranuclear inclusions within neurons. This is a case of:

A

Shingles/Herpes zoster (TOPNOTCH)

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262
Q

Syndrome caused by varicella zoster virus with involvement of geniculate nucleus causing facial paralysis

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 359

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263
Q

A neonate was noted to have jaundice, anemia, and hepatosplenomegaly. Patient also had microcephaly, and brain showed foci of calcification. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Cytomegalic inclusion disease (caused by CMV) (TOPNOTCH)

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264
Q

Morphology of cells in CMV

A

Prominent intranuclear basophilic inclusion set off from nuclear membrane by a clear halo (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 359

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265
Q

A 6 y/o male presented with fever, lymphadenopathy, and hepatomegaly. Lab showed abnormal liver function test and lymphocytosis. These are the most common clinical manifestion in

A

CMV infection in immunocompetent host. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 360

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266
Q

Virus implicated in nasopharyngeal carcinoma and some lymphomas.

A

Epstein-Barr Virus. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 360

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267
Q

A 16 y/o male presented with high fever for a week, sore throat, enlarged lymph node in the posterior cervical and axillary region, and splenomegaly. Peripheral smear showed large lymphocytes with abundant cytoplasm containing clear vacuolization, an oval, indented nucleus and scattered cytoplasmic azurophilic granules (10% atypical lymphocytes). The main target cells of this condition is/are:

A

B cells and epithelial ells of the oropharynx. (EBV infection) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 360

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268
Q

Patient with EBV infecction will have a positive or negative heterophile antibody reaction (Monospot test)

A

Positive heterophile antibody reaction. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 362

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269
Q

A disorder caused by mutations in the SH2D1A gene, which encodes a signaling protein that participates in T-cell and NK-cell activation and antibody production. It is characterized by an ineffective immune response to EBV.

A

X-linked lymphoproliferation syndrome (Duncan Disease) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 362

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270
Q

Toxin responsibe for Ritter’s disease

A

Exfoliative A and B toxin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 363

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271
Q

Other term for staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome.

A

Ritter’s disease (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 363

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272
Q

A 5 y/o male was admitted due to sunburn-like rash over the entire body and evolving into fragile bullae. Presence of desquamation of the epidermis occurs at the level of the granulosa layer. What is the cause of this condition?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (causing Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.364

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273
Q

Coagulase-negative organism causing opportunistic infections in catheterized patients,patients with prosthetic valves and drug addicts.

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.364

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274
Q

A 30 y/o female was noted to have dyspnea and generalized erythematous rash. She developed hypotension, renal failure, coagulopathy and liver dysfunction. History revealed the use of tampons. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Toxic shock syndrome caused by S. aureus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathogy, 9th Ed p. 363

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275
Q

A 50 y/o female presented with a 1-week history of progressive, productive cough, and 2 days of spiking fever. Chest examination was notable for decreased breath sounds on the right lower lung field. Chest radiograph demonstrated a right lower lobe infiltrate. A blood culture was subsequently positive for gram positive cocci in pairs. what is the likely organism causing this illness?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae. (TOPNOTCH)

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276
Q

An 18 y/o female presented with painful swelling in her feet, knees, and wrist. The patient had been well until 10 days prior to admission when she developed a severe sore throat accompanied by fever. What is the most likely cause of his illness?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes/GABHS(TOPNOTCH)

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277
Q

Surface protein present in S. pyogenes responsible for antibodies and T cells cross-reacting with cardiac proteins.

A

M protein. (TOPNOTCH)

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278
Q

A 6 y/o male presented with tonsillopharyngitis, circumoral pallor and erythematous, sandpaper like rashes covering the trunk and extremities. What is the most likely cause of this illness?

A

This is a case of Scarlet fever caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (TOPNOTCH)

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279
Q

A 35 y/o female presented with rapidly spreading erythematous cutaneous swelling on the face with rashes that are sharp, welll-demarcated , serpiginous border forming a butterfly distribution on the face. On histologic exam, there is a diffuse, edematous, neutrophilic inflammation of the dermis and dermis extending to the subcutaneous tissue. This is caused by what microorganism?

A

S. pyogenes (case of erysipelas) (TOPNOTCH)

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280
Q

A 43 y/o male had a two-week history of fever, chills, weakness, and anorexia following a dental extraction. On physical examination, patient had high pitched murmur best heard at the apex. Echocardiogaphy done showed an irregular vegetation attached to mitral valve. The most likely cause of endocarditis in this case is:

A

Streptococcus viridans. (TOPNOTCH)

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281
Q

A 26 y/o previously healthy woman develops fever within 24 hours of delivery of an infant born at 32 weeks. Vaginal swab of the mother revealed Gram positive coci. Blood culture showed organism that are catalase negative, beta-hemolytic on blood agar. The most likely cause of bacteremia is:

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus) (TOPNOTCH)

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282
Q

A 5 y/o old unimmunized child presented with persistent sore throat , cough and fever for 1 week. On examination, the neck was diffusely swollen with tender, bilateral cervical adenopathy. There were hemorrhagic areas on the hard palate and necrotic grayish membrane on the soft palate and tonsils. Morphologic finding of Intense neutrophilic infiltration in the tissues with marked vascular congestion, interstitial edema, and fibrin exudation were noted. This is caused by

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae (TOPNOTCH)

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283
Q

True or false. Toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae are the ones responsible for the clinical manifestations of diphtheria.

A

True. (TOPNOTCH)

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284
Q

A 2 mo old male was admitted to the hospital with a history of fever, vomiting, and convulsions. Birth history was unremarkable. CNS finding were suggestive of meningitis. Gram staining of CSF showed mononuclear cells with moderate Gram positive bacilli with tumbling motility. The most likely etiologic agent for this condition is:

A

Listeria monocytogenes. (TOPNOTCH)

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285
Q

This organism causes a painless, pruritic papule developing into a vesicle, which ruptures with remaining ulcer becoming covered with a characteristic eschar.

A

Bacillus anthracis. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 366

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286
Q

Lesion caused by this organism are typified by necrosis and exudative inflammation rich in neutrophils and macrophages and presence of large, boxcar-shaped gram-positive extracellular bacteria in chains.

A

Bacillus anthracis. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 367

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287
Q

A 48 y/o male was admitted with a 4 month history of cough with purulent sputum, hremoptysis, and fever. He wa diagnosed with AIDS 2 years earlier and was on antiretivirals irregularly. On examination, HR=98bpm, RR= 26 /min. Chest auscultation revealed decreased breath sounds on the upper third of right hemithorax. CXR demonstrated consolidation in the upper lobe of the right lung. Bronchoscopy with lavage revealed presence of branching filamentous gram positive organism. The organism described is

A

Nocardia asteroides. (TOPNOTCH)

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288
Q

A 17 y/o college student presented with fever, chills, headache, joint pains and myalgia. On physical examination, she is tachycardic, febrile, with mild hypotension. There was noted petechial rashes on her trunk and legs. Gram stain revealed gram-negative coffee-bean shaped diplococci. The most likely cause of this condition is

A

Neisseria meningitidis. (TOPNOTCH)

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289
Q

A 25 y/o female complained of severe pelvic pain and fever. A greenish yellow cervical discharge was detected on physical examination. Gram negative diplococci were isolated from the endocervical swab. What is the most likely cause?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 368

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290
Q

A 2-month old infant was admitted with fever, lymphocytosis, and bouts of violent coughing that often end in vomiting. Blood culture showed small gram-negative rods. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Pertussis (TOPNOTCH)

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291
Q

Mechanism on how B. pertussis toxin impair host defenses.

A

Inhibits phagocytosis, inhibits neutrophils and macrophages and paralyzing cilia. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 369

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292
Q

Bacteria causing laryngotracheobronchitis with features of bronchial mucosal erosion, hyperemia, and copious, mucopurulent exudate. It may present with hypercellularity and enlargement of mucosal lymph follicles and peribronchial lymph nodes along side a marked peripheral lymphocytosis (up to 90%)

A

Bordetella pertussis. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 369

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293
Q

A 67 y/o female was admitted with a 1 week history of cough and pleuritic chest pain. Physical examination revealed tachypnea, rhonchi in both upper lobes. The next day, patient’s condition deteriorated and had severe respiratory distress. Autopsy revealed extensive bilateral bronchopneumonia and necrosis in the terminal airways in a fleur-de-lis pattern, with striking pale necrotic centers and red, hemorrhagic peripheral areas. The most likely cause of this disease is:

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 369

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294
Q

An opportunistic aerobic gram-negative bacillus that is frequent, deadly pathogen of people with cystic fibrosis, severe burns, or neutropenia.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 369

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295
Q

A 32 y/o female on chronic immunosuppressive therapy was admitted for the management of her abdominal wound infection. On hospital day 18, patient developed erythematous papulovesicules on the left upper chest and right medial leg progressing rapidly to necrotic and hemorrhagic oval ulcers. What organism most likely cause this condition?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 370

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296
Q

Organism that causes lymph node enlargement (buboes) with distinct histologic features of massive proliferation of organism, early appearance of effusions with few inflammatory cells, necrosis of tissues and blood vessels with hemorrhage and thrombosis, and neutrophilic infiltrates in necrotic areas.

A

Yersinia pestis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th Ed p. 370

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297
Q

A 25 y/o male initially presented with a tender erythematous papule on the penis which produce an irregular, painful, non-indurated ulcer over several days. The base of the ulcer is covered by shaggy, yellow-gray exudate. Microscopically, the ulcer contains a superficial zone of neutrophilic debris and fibrin, and an underlying zone of granulation tissue containing areas of necrosis and thrombosis. This infection is caused by:

A

Haemophilus ducreyi (causing Chancroid) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 370

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298
Q

A 45 y/o sexually active male presented with a 3-month history of few painless ulcerated lesions on the penis and scrotum. The painless nodules slowly evolved to red ulcerated lesions over 1 month. Physical examination revealed multiple, raised, beefy-red nontender round ulcers on the shaft of penis and scrotum. The ulcers had clean friable granulating bases. Microscopic examination with Giemsa stain revealed numerous encapsulated coccobacilli in macrophages. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Granuloma inguinale/donovanosis (Klebsiella granulomatis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 370

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299
Q

A 25 y/o male initially presented with a tender erythematous papule on the penis which produce an irregular, painful, non-indurated ulcer over several days. The base of the ulcer is covered by shaggy, yellow-gray exudate. Microscopically, the ulcer contains a superficial zone of neutrophilic debris and fibrin, and an underlying zone of granulation tissue containing areas of necrosis and thrombosis. This infection is caused by:

A

Klebsiella granulomatis (TOPNOTCH)

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300
Q

True or false. A positive tuberculin test differentiates active disease from infection.

A

False. A positive tuberculin test signifies T-cell mediated immunity to mycobacterial antigen. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 371

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301
Q

How many days or weeks after mycobacterium infection will it develop delayed hypersensitivity to M. tuberculosis as detected by Mantoux skin test?

A

2-4 weeks (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 371

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302
Q

The critical mediator that enables macrophages to contain M. tuberculosis infection by stimulating maturation of phagolysosome, stimulation of expression of inducible nitric oxide synthase and mobilization of defensins against bacteria.

A

IFN gamma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th Ed p. 372

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303
Q

True or False. Immunity to M. tuberculosis is primarily mediated by TH1 cells.

A

True. TH1 cells stimulate macrophages to kill the bacteria (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 373

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304
Q

Secondary pulmonary tuberculosis classically involves what part of the lungs?

A

Apex of the upper lobes of one or both lungs. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 373

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305
Q

True or false. The absence of characteristic granulomas in tissues in HIV-positive patients precludes (rule out) the diagnosis of tuberculosis.

A

False. Atypical features of TB in HIV-positive patients include increase frequency of false-negative sputum smears, tuberculin tests, and absence of granuloma, particularly in the late stages of HIV.(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 374

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306
Q

A 1 to 1.5 cm area of gray-white inflammation with consolidation in primary tuberculosis.

A

Ghon focus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 374

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307
Q

Most frequent presentation of extrapulmonary tuberculosis.

A

Lymphadenitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 376

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308
Q

A 42 y/o male nonsmoker with AIDS began to experience cough, mild hemoptysis, and progressive dyspnea. CD4 cell count was 45 cell/ul. A chest radiograph revealed hilar adenopathy and perihiral infiltrates. AFB smear was negative. Bronchoscopy was done and microscopic finding showed an abundnat acid-fast bacilli within macrophages. The organism causing the illness is:

A

Mycobacterium avium complex (TOPNOTCH)

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309
Q

Pattern of leprosy presenting with dry, scaly skin lesions that lack sensation and often have assymetric involvement of large peripheral nerves.

A

Tuberculoid leprosy (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 377

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310
Q

Pattern of leprosy causing symmetric skin thickening and nodules with widespread invasion of mycobacteria into Schwann cells and into endoneural and perineural macrophages damaging the peripheral nervous system.

A

Lepromatous leprosy (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 377

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311
Q

Pattern of leprosy characterized by TH1 response associated with production of IL-2 and IFN gamma

A

Tuberculoid leprosy (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 377

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312
Q

Pattern of leprosy associated with weak TH1 response and in some cases increase in TH2 response resulting to weak cell-mediated immunity.

A

Lepromatous leprosy (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 377

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313
Q

A 30 y/o male presented with a flat, red, anesthetic skin lesions on his left thigh extending to his knee which had been present for 2 years. These lesions enlarged and develop irregular shapes with indurated, elevated, hyperpigmented margins and depressed pale centers. On microscopic examination, all sites of involvement have granulomatous lesions. Bacilli are almost never found. This is a case of__.

A

Tuberculoid leprosy/Paucibillary leprosy (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 377

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314
Q

This disease presents with macular, papular, or nodular lesion on the face, ears, wrists, elbows and knees, progressing to coalescence of nodular, anesthetic lesions. (+) leonine facies. Morphologic findings of this disease reveals skin and peripheral nerve lesions containing large aggregates of lipid laden macrophages (lepra cells) often filled with asses (globi) of acid fast bacilli.

A

Lepromatous/multibacillary leprosy (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 378

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315
Q

A 19 y/o male presents to the clinic because of a lesion on his penis. Genital exam showed a red, solitary, raised , indurated, non-tender lesion on the ventral side of his penis. Neurologic exam was within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Primary syphilis(chancre)(TOPNOTCH)

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316
Q

A 34 y/o male presented with circular violaceous, papulosquamous lesions on his palms, soles, and entire body. He admitted having unprotected sex with his new partner 6 weeks before the onset of his lesions. Broad-based plaques were noted in the inner thighs and anogenital region. Silver-gray erosions were noted on the pharyngeal and genital area. What is the most likely diagnosis(and stage)?

A

Secondary syphilis. (TOPNOTCH)

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317
Q

Characteristic of all stages of syphilis

A

Proliferative endarteritis. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 379

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318
Q

Serologic test/s that are sensitive for secondary syphilis

A

Both non-treponemal antibody tests and antitreponemal antibody tests. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 379

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319
Q

Serologic tests that are very sensitive for tertiary and latent syphilis.

A

Treponemal tests (Fluorescent Treponemal antibody absorption test, T pallidum enzyme immunoassay test) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 379

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320
Q

Most frequent involvement of tertiary syphilis

A

Aorta (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 380

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321
Q

A 39 y/o male presented with a white-gray and rubbery mass on the forehead that had been slowly progressive over the previous 6 years. Biopsy showed that lesion have centers of coagulated, necrotic material and margins composed of plump, palisading macrophages and fibroblasts surrounded by large number of mononuclear leukocytes. What is the lesion described?

A

Syphilitic gumma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 381

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322
Q

A neonate presented with snuffles, bullous eruption of the palms and soles, saddle nose deformity, and anterior bowing of the tibia. What is the most likely cause?

A

T. pallidum (causing congenital syphilis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 381

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323
Q

Late manifestations of congenital syphilis (triad)

A

Interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson teeth, and eighth-nerve deafness (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 381

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324
Q

Disseminated infection from this microorganism cause secondary skin lesions, lymphadenopathy, migratory joint and muscle pain, cardiac arrythmias, and meningitis.

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (causing congenital syphilis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 381

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325
Q

A 60 y/o male presented with severe pain and edema of left foot and leg, bullous vesicles, and foul-smelling wound discharge 3 days after sustaining a crushing injury. Crepitations were noted over the inflamed muscles. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

A

Clostridium perfringens (causing gas gangrene/clostridium myonecrosis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 383

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326
Q

Most common sexually transmitted bacterial disease

A

Chalmydia trachomatis infection(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 383

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327
Q

A 28 y/o male presented with painful, swollen lymph node at the inguinal area, associated with fever, and myalgia. Two weeks prior, patient recalled had a small, painless pustule on the scrotum. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (TOPNOTCH)

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328
Q

Lymph node involvement in this condition is characterized by a granulomatous inflammatory reaction associated with irregularly shaped foci of necrosis containing neutrophils (stellate abscess).

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (caused by Chlamydia trachomatis)(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 384

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329
Q

Presents with dysphagia and retrosternal pain; endoscopic findings of white plaques and pseudomembranes resembling oral thrush on the esophageal mucosa.

A

Candida esophagitis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 386

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330
Q

Associated with intense itching and thick, curd-like discharge common in women who are diabetic, pregnant, or on OCP.

A

Candida vaginitis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 386

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331
Q

A 70 y/o male, with prior history of TB, presents with occassional cough, hemoptysis, fever, and respiratory distress. CXR showed a mass surrounded by a crescentic rim on the right upper lobe within a cavitary lesion. Biopsy done revealed no malignant cell. This is most likely a case of:

A

Pulmonary aspergilloma (TOPNOTCH)

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332
Q

A 60 y/o diabetic female presented with fever and left periorbital pain and sweling. A nasal eschar involving the enitre nose with discharge from the nasal cavity. Biopsy from the eschar showed foci of nonseptate fungal hyphae and hyphal branches at right angles. The most likely cause of her condition is:

A

Mycormycetes (TOPNOTCH)

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333
Q

The etiology of cerebral malaria, wherein brain vessels are plugged with parasitized red vessels. Around the vessels are ring hemorrhages related to local hypoxia. (TOPNOTCH)

A

Plasmodium falciparum (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 392

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334
Q

What is the major cause of sudden death in Chagas disease?

A

Cardiac arrythmia. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 395

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335
Q

The causative agent of Chagas disease

A

Trypanosoma cruzi (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 394

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336
Q

Nematode that causes patchy interstitial myocarditis characterized by many eosinophils and scattered giant cells.

A

Trichinella spiralis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., 397

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337
Q

Pathogenesis of hepatic fibrosis in schistomiasis

A

Eggs carried into the parenchyma cause severe chronic inflammation; TH2 response and activated macrophages. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 398

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338
Q

Pipe-stem fibrosis of the liver, portal enlargement without intervening regenerative nodules, and granuloma are associated with infection caused by:

A

Schistosoma mansoni and S. japonicum. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 398

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339
Q

A chronic carrier state of typhoid fever is most likely due to persistence of the organism in the:

A

Gall bladder (TOPNOTCH)

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340
Q

A 38 y/o man with AIDS present with deteriorating mental status. Lumbar tap was done. CSF was stained with india ink and mucicarmine revealed capsulated yeasts that stain bright red. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cryptococcosis (TOPNOTCH)

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341
Q

A 53 year old woman presents with 5 days of productive cough and high grade fevers. Crackles were auscultated at the left lung. Sputum cultures grew Streptococcus pneumoniae. Her lungs will show which histologic picture? (A) suppurative inflammation with sparing of alveolar septa (B) thickened alveolar septa with mononuclear infiltrates (C) lysis of alveolar walls and coalescing abscesses (D) epithelioid macrophages and giant cells

A

suppurative inflammation with sparing of alveolar septa (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p334-335

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342
Q

A 44 year old HIV-positive man is admitted for diarrhea of one month duration. Fecalysis did not show parasitic ova or cysts. Colonoscopy showed a diffusely erythematous mucosa. Biopsy was performed which showed sheets of macrophages filled with filamentous structures that were bright pink on acid fast staining. The likely organism is (A) Cryptosporidium parvum (B) Isospora belli (C) Mycobacterium bovis (D) Mycobacterium avim-intracellulare

A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare dx Infectious mononucleosis case (TOPNOTCH) pp326-327

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343
Q

This term refers to protection against infections.

A

Immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

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344
Q

It is the collection of cells and molecules that are responsible for defending against pathogenic microbes.

A

Immune system(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

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345
Q

Type of immunity mediated by neutrophils, macrophages and natural killer cells and includes epithelial barriers of the skin, GIT and respiratory tract.

A

Innate immunity (natural/native)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

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346
Q

Type of immunity mediated by lymphocytes and their products, and is normally silent and responds to the presence of microbes by becoming active, expanding and generating potent mechanisms for neutralizing and eliminating microbes.

A

Adaptive immunity (acquired/specific)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.108

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347
Q

Type of adaptive immunity mediated by soluble antibody proteins that are produced by B lymphocytes.

A

Humoral immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

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348
Q

Type of adaptive immunity mediated by T lymphocytes.

A

Cell-mediated or cellular immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

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349
Q

Mediated by antibodies and is effective against extracellular microbes.

A

Humoral immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

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350
Q

Reaction of T-lymphocytes, designed to combat cell-associated microbes (e.g. Phagocytosed microbes and microbes in the cytoplasm of infected cells).

A

Cell-mediated immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.109

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351
Q

Reaction of immune system against one’s own cells.

A

Autoimmunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.119

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352
Q

Results from activation of TH2 CD4+ helper T cells by environmental antigens, leading to the production of IgE antibodies, which become attached to mast cells.

A

Type I Hypersensitivity (immediate)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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353
Q

Caused by antibodies that bind to fixed tissue or cell surface antigens and promote phagocytosis and destruction of the coated cells or trigger pathologic inflammation in tissues.

A

Type II Hypersensitivity (Antibody-mediated)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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354
Q

Caused by antibodies binding to antigens to form complexes that circulate and may deposit in vascular beds and stimulate inflammation, secondary to complement activation.

A

Type III Hypersensitivity (immune complex mediated)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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355
Q

Cell-mediated immune responses in which T lymphocytes cause tissue injury, either by producing cytokines that induce inflammation and activate macrophages, or by directly killing cells.

A

Type IV Hypersensitivity (T-cell mediated/Delayed)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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356
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:SLE

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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357
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Multiple sclerosis

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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358
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Transplant rejection

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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359
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Anaphylaxis

A

Type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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360
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Goodpasture syndrome

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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361
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Serum sickness

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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362
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Arthus reaction

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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363
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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364
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Allergies

A

Type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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365
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Type I DM

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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366
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Tuberculosis

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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367
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Bronchial asthma

A

Type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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368
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Acute rheumatic fever

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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369
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Poststreptococcal glumerulonephritis

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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370
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Polyarteritis nodosa

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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371
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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372
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Inflammatory bowel disease

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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373
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Tuberculin reaction

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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374
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Reactive arthritis

A

Type III(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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375
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Graves disease

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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376
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Acute rheumatic fever

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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377
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Myasthenia gravis

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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378
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Insulin resistant DM

A

Type II (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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379
Q

Indicate type of hypersensitivity reaction:Pernicious anemia

A

Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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380
Q

A special form of graft rejection occuring in the setting where preformed antidonor antibodies are present in the circulation of the host before transplant. Occurs within minutes to a few hours after transplantation.

A

Hyperacute rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

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381
Q

Rejection which occurs within days to weeks of transplantation in a nonimmunosuppressed host. Caused by both cellular and humoral immune mechanisms.

A

Acute rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

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382
Q

Acute rejection most commonly seen within the first months after transplantation, typically accompanied by signs of renal failure. Extensive CD4+ and CD8+ T-cell infiltration with edema and mild interstitial hemorrhage.

A

Acute cellular rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

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383
Q

Acute rejection caused by antidonor antibodies. May take the form of necrotizing vasculitis with endothelial cell necrosis, neutrophilic infiltration, deposition of antibody, complement, and fibrin, and thrombosis.

A

Acute humoral rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

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384
Q

Rejection which present clinically months to years after transplantation with a progressive rise in serum creatinine levels. Dominated by arteriosclerosis, interstitial fibrosis and loss of renal parenchyma.

A

Chronic rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.133

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385
Q

A multisystem autoimmune disease which principally affects the skin, kidneys, serosal membranes, joints and heart. Associated with autoantibodies including ANAs.

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.139

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386
Q

SOAP BRAIN MD mnemonic for SLE stands for?

A

SerositisOral ulcersArthritisPhotosensitivityBloodRenal disorderANA positiveImmunologic disorderNeurologic disorderMalar rashDiscoid rash(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.140

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387
Q

How many symptoms must be present in a patient for her/him to be diagnosed as having SLE?

A

4 out of 11 symptoms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.140

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388
Q

Most serious and most common form of renal lesion in SLE. “Wire-loop” appearance of glomerular capillary walls.

A

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (Class IV)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.142

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389
Q

Cardiac manifestation of SLE, which occurs as nonspecific mononuclear infiltrates and the presence of irregular 1-3mm warty deposits on either surface of the leaflets.

A

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.144

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390
Q

A systemic, chronic inflammatory disease affecting many tissues but principally attacking the joints to produce a nonsuppurative proliferative synovitis that frequently progress to destroy articular cartilage and underlying bone with resulting disabling arthritis.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.145

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391
Q

Characteristic lesion in RA, formed by proliferating synovial-lining cells admixed with inflammatory cells, granulation tissue and fibrous connective tissue.

A

Pannus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.146

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392
Q

Cytokine which plays a central role in the pathogenesis of RA.

A

TNF(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.146

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393
Q

A clinicopathologic entity with a triad of dry eyes, dry mouth and arthritis.

A

Sjogren syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.148

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394
Q

Characterized by progressive fibrosis involving the skin, GIT and other tissues. May be a result of activation of fibroblasts by cytokines produced by T cells.

A

Systemic sclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.149

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395
Q

A vascular disorder characterized by reversible vasospasm of the arteries. Typically the hands turn white due to vasospasm, then blue due to cyanosis, then red due to reactive hyperemia.

A

Raynaud phenomenon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.151

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396
Q

One of the more common forms of primary immune deficiency characterized by absent or markedly decreased numbers of B-cells in the circulation, with depressed serum levels of all classes if immunoglobulin.

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.152

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397
Q

Most common of all the primary immune deficiencies characterized by recurrent sinopulmonary infections and diarrhea.

A

Isolated IgA deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.154

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398
Q

A constellation of genetically distinct syndromes with common feature of defects in both humoral and cell-mediated immune responses, making affected infants susceptible to severe recurrent infections by bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, and opportunistic infections.

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.154

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399
Q

Autosomal recessive form of SCID is due to deficiency of what enzyme?

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.154

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400
Q

An X-linked recessive disease characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and marked vulnerability to recurrent infection ending in early death.

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.155

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401
Q

HIV viral surface proteins essential for viral entry into cells.

A

gp41 and gp120(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.157

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402
Q

A form of pneumonia in HIV patients caused by a yeast-like fungus.

A

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)(TOPNOTCH)

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403
Q

Main cellular target of HIV.

A

CD4+ helper T cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.158

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404
Q

P.carinii pneumonia occurs in AIDS patients with CD4+ T cell count of ______.

A

Less than 200 cells/uL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.163

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405
Q

Most common secondary infection of the CNS in patients with AIDS.

A

Toxoplasmosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.163

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406
Q

Most common neoplasm in AIDS patients, caused by HHV8. Characterized by cutaneous lesions with or without internal involvement.

A

Kaposi sarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.164

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407
Q

A disorder of protein misfolding, causing extracellular deposition of pink or red colored deposits stained with Congo red, with apple-green birefringence in polarized light.

A

Amyloidosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.166

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408
Q

Cells of immune system

A

T- and B-lymphocytes, dendritic cells, macrophages, natural killer cells, innate lymphoid cells. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 190

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409
Q

Tissues of the immune system

A

Bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, mucosal and cutaneous lymphoid tissue. (TOPNOTCH) Robbin Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 193

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410
Q

The most important antigen-presenting cells for initiating T-cell responses against protein antigens

A

Dendritic cells(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 191

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411
Q

A 48 y/o male patient underwent kidney transplant suddenly developed bloody urine few hours after the procedure. Nephrectomy was done and revealed a cyanotic, mottled, and flaccid kidney and necrotic kidney cortex. There is neutrophilic accumulation in the arterioles, glomeruli, and peritubular capillaries. Glomeruli undergo thrombotic occlusion of capillaries and fibrinoid necrosis in arterial walls. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Hyperacute rejection (TOPNOTCH) Robbin Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 233

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412
Q

A 45 y/o female presented with signs of kidney failure 2 months after her renal transplant. Immunohistochemical staining reveals both CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytes. Morphologic findings showed an extensive interstitial inflammation with infiltration of tubules and focal tubular injury. This is a case of:

A

Acute cellular (T-cell mediated) rejection (TOPNOTCH) Robbin Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 234

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413
Q

Preformed antidonor antibodies present in the circulation of the recipient is implicated in what type of rejection pattern?

A

Hyperacute rejection (TOPNOTCH) Robbin Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 233

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414
Q

A 30 y/o male developed oliguria and subsequent renal failure 3 weeks after an uneventful kidney transplant. Renal findings showed inflammation of glomeruli and peritubular capillaries, deposition of complement breakdown and focal small vessel thrombosis. This is a case of:

A

Acute antibody-mediated rejection (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 234

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415
Q

A 24 y/o female diagnosed with renal failure underwent renal transplant. Four years later, increasing levels of creatinine was noted, and biopsy showed an interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy, glomerulopathy with duplication of basement membrane, and multilayering of peritubular capillary basement membranes. Interstitial mononuclear cell infiltrates, NK cells and plasma cells were also noted. This is a case of:

A

Chronic rejection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.234

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416
Q

The result of hypoplasia or lack of thymus in DiGeorge Syndrome

A

Variable loss of T-cell mediated immunity (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.241

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417
Q

The hallmark of AIDS

A

Profound immune deficiency, primarily cell-mediated immunity (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 245

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418
Q

A 32-year old female, presents to the clinic with symptoms of fatigue, joint pains, and malar rash. CBC revealed anemia and low platelet count. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (TOPNOTCH)

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419
Q

The hallmark of SLE

A

Production of autoantibodies (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 218

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420
Q

The fundamental defect in SLE

A

Failure of mechanisms that maintain self-tolerance (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 219

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421
Q

Most common manifestation of SLE

A

Hematologic manifestation (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 218

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422
Q

Most common hematologic finding in SLE

A

Anemia(TOPNOTCH)

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423
Q

Most common and most severe form of lupus nephritis

A

Diffuse lupus nephritis/Class IV(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 224

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424
Q

The most common causes of death in SLE

A

Renal failure and intercurrent infections (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 225

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425
Q

Cytokine most firmly implicated in the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid arthritis

A

TNF (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1210

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426
Q

Major cytokine produced by TH1, stimulates macrophage activation and IgG antibody production. Plays a role in autoimmune and other chronic inflammatory diseases.

A

IFN-gamma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 198

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427
Q

The dominant immune reactions of these subset of helper cells are the stimulation of IgE production and activation of mast cells and eosinophils.

A

TH2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 198

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428
Q

These are the mediators of adaptive immunity and the only cells that produce specific and diverse receptors for antigens

A

Lymphocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 199

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429
Q

Immunity mediated by antibodies and is effective against extracellular microbes in the circulation and mucosal lumens.

A

Humoral immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed p. 200

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430
Q

Type of immunity design to combat phagocytosed microbes and microbes in the cytoplasm of infected cells.

A

Cell-mediated immunity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed p. 200

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431
Q

These are cells the help B cells to make antibodies, activate macrophages to destroy ingested microbes, stimulate recruitment of leukocytesand regulate all immune responses to protein antigens.

A

CD4+ helper T cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p.200

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432
Q

These are cells that express antigens in the cytoplasm that are seen as foreign, such as virus-infected and tumor cells.

A

CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p.200

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433
Q

The most potent vasoactive and spasmodic agents causing increasing vascular permeability and causing bronchial smooth muscle contraction.

A

Leukotrienes C4 and D4(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 203

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434
Q

A lipid mediator produced by some mast cell populations, not derived from arachidonic acid, causing platelet aggregation, increased vascular permeability, and vasodilation.

A

Platelet-activating factor(PAF)(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 203

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435
Q

True or False. Atopic individuals tend to have higher serum IgE levels and more IL-4 producing Th2 cells.

A

True. (TOPNOTCH)

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436
Q

This disease presents with nephritis and lung hemorrhage due to complement and Fc receptor-mediated inflammation due to antibody against noncollagenous protein in basement membranes of kidney glomeruli and lung alveoli.

A

Goodpasture syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 206

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437
Q

This disease causes demyelination in CNS is perivascular inflammation due to inflammation mediated by TH1 and TH17 cytokines, myelin destruction by activated macrophages.

A

Multiple sclerosis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 209

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438
Q

Type of immunity primarily affected by AIDS

A

Cell-mediated immunity(TOPNOTCH)

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439
Q

Mucocutatnous ulcerations involving the mouth, esophagus, external genitalia, and perianal region in AIDS patient may be caused by

A

Herpes simplex virus infection(TOPNOTCH)

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440
Q

An 18 year old female presents with a day-old circular erythematous plaque with vesicles on her neck. She relates a history of wearing a new metallic pendant three days ago, and has had a similar history with other metallic jewelry. If the plaque is biopsied, which inflammatory cell is expected to predominate? (A) neutrophil (B) eosinophil (C) mast cell (D) lymphocyte

A

Lymphocyte (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp128-130

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441
Q

An 8 year old male with a strep throat four weeks ago develops tea-colored urine. A kidney biopsy showed hypercellular glomeruli with neutrophils. Electron microscopy showed subepithelial “humps.” These findings are caused by (A) antibodies against glomerular basement membrane (B) antibodies against endothelium (C) immune complex deposition (D) T-cell mediated recruitment of neutrophils

A

immune complex deposition (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. P126

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442
Q

A 5 year old female with a strep throat two weeks ago develops joint pains and fever. Auscultation revealed a friction rub. What type of hypersensitivity is responsible?

A

Type II (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.120

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443
Q

A 33 year old female presents with morning stiffness of the PIP and MCP joints of the hands. On workup, she is positive for rheumatoid factor. Which of the following is expected in the involved joints? (A) synovial hypertrophy with dense lymphoid aggregates (B) synovial atrophy with epithelioid macrophages (C) synovial hypertrophy devoid of leukocytes (D) synovial atrophy with dense lymphoid aggregates

A

synovial atrophy with dense lymphoid aggregates (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp145-146

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444
Q

A 50 year old female with chronic red eye is diagnosed with keratoconjunctivitis sicca and is referred to by her ophthalmologist for bilateral infraauricular masses. Her oral mucosa has multiple fissures. Biopsy of the infraauricular masses will likely show (A) epithelial and myoepithelial cells admixed with chondroid stroma (B) lymphoplasmacytic infiltration with ductal hyperplasia (C) basaloid cells in cribriform structures (D) highly pleomorphic epithelial cells and numerous atypical mitoses

A

lymphoplasmacytic infiltration with ductal hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp148-149

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445
Q

Patients with diffuse scleroderma have sclerotic atrophy of the skin. Which other organ is most commonly involved? (A) kidneys (B) heart (C) lungs (D) gastrointestinal tract

A

gastrointestinal tract (90% of patients) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp 149-150

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446
Q

A 22 year old male has unprotected sex and develops generalized lymphadenopathy five days later. The following month, he tests positive on HIV screening. Excision biopsy of one of his lymph nodes would likely show (A) marked follicular hyperplasia (B) epithelioid macrophages and giant cells (C) diffuse infiltration by atypical mononuclear cells (D) subcapsular necrosis

A

marked follicular hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. P 165

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447
Q

A 68 year old female with multiple myeloma dies of acute renal failure. At autopsy, her kidneys and liver were pale gray, with waxy cut sections, while her spleen showed tapioca-like granules. On histology, these organs show deposits that (A) have empty vacuoles that uptake Sudan black (B) are infiltrated by neutrophils and histiocytes (C) will fluoresce an apple green color when stained with Congo red (D) are bluish, with concentric lamellations

A

will fluoresce an apple green color when stained with Congo red (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp 169-170

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448
Q

This term literally means “new growth”.

A

Neoplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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449
Q

An abnormal mass of tissue the growth of which exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of the normal tissues and persists in the same excessive manner after the cessation of stimuli which evoked the change.

A

Neoplasm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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450
Q

Study of tumors.

A

Oncology(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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451
Q

Benign or malignant?Localized

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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452
Q

Benign or malignant?Amenable to surgical removal

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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453
Q

Benign or malignant?Invades and destroys adjacent tissues.

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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454
Q

What are the two basic components of tumors?

A

Parenchyma and Stroma(TOPNOTCH)

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455
Q

Benign or malignant?Metastasis

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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456
Q

This component of tumors largely determines its biologic behavior.

A

Parenchyma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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457
Q

This component of tumors determines the name of the growth.

A

Parenchyma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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458
Q

This component of tumors is crucial to the growth of neoplasms since it carries the blood supply and provides support to the growth of cells.

A

Stroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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459
Q

Benign or malignant?Fibroma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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460
Q

Benign or malignant?Chondroma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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461
Q

Benign or malignant?Adenoma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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462
Q

Benign or malignant?Hepatoma

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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463
Q

Benign or malignant?Papilloma

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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464
Q

Malignant neoplasms arising in mesenchymal tissue or its derivatives.

A

Sarcomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

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465
Q

Benign tumor arising in fibrous tissue is called?

A

Fibroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

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466
Q

A benign cartilagenous tumor is called?

A

Chondroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

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467
Q

This is a benign epithelial neoplasm which produces glandular patterns or neoplasms derived from glands but not necessarily exhibit glandular patterns

A

Adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

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468
Q

These are benign epithelial neoplasms, growing on any surface that produce microscopic or macroscopic finger-like fronds.

A

Papillomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.174

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469
Q

A mass that projects above a mucosal surface to form a macroscopically visible structure.

A

Polyps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

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470
Q

A cancer of fibrous tissue origin.

A

Fibrosarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

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471
Q

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin.

A

Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.175

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472
Q

Carcinoma of squamous cell origin.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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473
Q

Benign or malignant?Lymphoma

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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474
Q

Benign or malignant?Seminoma

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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475
Q

The extent to which neoplastic cells resemble their normal forebears morphologically and functionally.

A

Differentiation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.176

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476
Q

This is considered a hallmark of malignancy, which literally means “to form backward”.

A

Anaplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.177

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477
Q

These cells display marked pleomorphism, nuclei are variable and bizzare in size and shape. Chromatin is course and clumped. Mitoses are often numerous and distinctly atypical.

A

Anaplastic cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.177

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478
Q

This term is defined by disorderly but non-neoplastic proliferation of cells, described as a loss in uniformity of individual cells and in their architectural orientation.

A

Dysplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.178

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479
Q

Defined as dysplastic changes which involve the entire thickness of the epithelium.

A

Carcinoma -in- situ(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.178

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480
Q

True or false?Dysplasia always progress to cancer.

A

False(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.178

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481
Q

True or false?Lack of capsule in a neoplastic growth indicates malignancy.

A

FalseSome benign tumors are not encapsulated.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.179

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482
Q

This term describes the development of secondary implants discontinuous with the primary tumor, in remote tissues.

A

Metastasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.179

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483
Q

Next to metastasis, this is the most reliable feature that distinguishes malignant from benign tumors.

A

Local invasiveness(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.179

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484
Q

Methods of dissemination of malignant neoplasms? (3)

A

SeedingLymphatic spreadHematogenous spread(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

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485
Q

This is the mode of dissemination of cancers of the ovary and CNS.

A

Spread by seeding(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

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486
Q

This is the mode of dissemination more typical of carcinomas.

A

Lymphatic spread(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

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487
Q

This is the mode of dissemination more typical of sarcomas.

A

Hematogenous spread(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

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488
Q

It is defined as the first lymph node in a regional lymphatic basin that receives lymph flow from a primary tumor.

A

Sentinel lymph node(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.180

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489
Q

What are the most common sites of metastasis involved in hematogenous dissemination of cancer?

A

Liver and lungs(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.181

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490
Q

This substance is a byproduct of metal smelting, a component of alloys, electrical and semiconductor devices which could cause cancer of the lungs and skin and hemangiosarcomas.

A

Arsenic and its compounds(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

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491
Q

This substance was formerly used for fire-resistant textiles and construction materials which could cause lung cancer and more prominently malignant mesothelioma

A

Asbestos(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

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492
Q

This substance is commonly used as a solvent in paint, rubber, dry cleaning, adhesives and detergents which could cause leukemias and Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

Benzene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

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493
Q

This substance is used as hardener for metal alloys used in aerospace applications and nuclear reactors which is commonly associated with cancer of the lung.

A

Beryllium and its compounds(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

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494
Q

This substance is used in solders, batteries and metal alloys commonly associated with cancers of the prostate.

A

Cadmium and its compounds(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

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495
Q

This substance is a refrigerant and used as adhesive for plastics, which causes hepatic angiosarcoma.

A

Vinyl chloride(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.183

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496
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndromeRB gene :__________

A

Retinoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

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497
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndromep53 : ______________

A

Li Fraumeni Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

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498
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome__________ : Familial Adenomatous Polyposis / Colon CA

A

APC Gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

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499
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome_________ : Breast on Ovarian Tumors

A

BRCA 1 gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

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500
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome_________ : Breast Cancer only

A

BRCA 2 gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

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501
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndromeRET gene : _________

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1 and 2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

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502
Q

Inherited gene : Cancer syndrome__________ : Colon cancer

A

kras gene(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.184

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503
Q

Normal cellular genes whose products promote cell proliferation.

A

Proto-oncogenes(TOPNOTCH)

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504
Q

Normal cellular genes whose products promote cell proliferation.

A

Proto-oncogenes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.188

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505
Q

It is a naturally occurring carcinogenic agent produced by some strains of Aspergillus, a mold that grows on improperly stored grains and nuts.

A

Aflatoxin B(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.209

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506
Q

There is a strong correlation between the dietary level of Aflatoxin and what type of cancer?

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.209

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507
Q

These substances require metabolic conversion to be carcinogenic.

A

Indirect - acting carcinogens(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.209

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508
Q

These substances stimulate proliferation of the mutated cells.

A

Promoters(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.210

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509
Q

How does ionizing radiation cause cancer?

A

Through chromosome breakage, translocations and point mutations leading to genetic damage and carcinogenesis.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.210

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510
Q

What is the mechanism of action of UV rays in the formation of neoplastic cells?

A

UV rays induce formation of pyrimidine dimers within DNA leading to mutations.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.210

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511
Q

This is the only retrovirus that has been demonstrated to cause cancer in humans.

A

Human T-cell Leukemia Virus -1 (HTLV-1)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.211

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512
Q

HPV strains which has been implicated in the genesis of cervical and anorectal cancer.

A

HPV 16, 18(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.212

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513
Q

EBV has been implicated in the pathogenesis of the following cancers except:A. Burkitt lymphomaB. Lymphoma in HIV patientsC. Nasopharyngeal carcinomaD. Hodgkin lymphomaE. None of the above

A

E. none of the above(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.212

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514
Q

Which hepatitis virus leads to hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV, HCV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.213

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515
Q

This is the first bacterium to be classified as a carcinogen.

A

Helicobacter pylori(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.213

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516
Q

What type of cancer can be caused by H.pylori?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma Gastric MALT lymphomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.214

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517
Q

These are benign epithelial neoplasms, growing on any surface that produce microscopic or macroscopic finger-like fronds.

A

Papillomas(TOPNOTCH)

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518
Q

Tumor antigens are presented on the cell surface by MHC Class I molecules to which type of T lymphocytes?

A

CD8+ T lymphocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.215

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519
Q

Single most important defining characteristic of malignancy

A

Metastasis (TOPNOTCH)

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520
Q

A biopsy of the stomach reveals an area of normal appearing pancreatic tissue. This is an example of what type of lesion?

A

Choristoma (TOPNOTCH)

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521
Q

Bronchogenic carcinoma tends to metastasize where?

A

Adrenals and brain (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 274

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522
Q

The most frequent form of cancer in males

A

Prostate cancer (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 276

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523
Q

The most frequent form of cancer in females

A

Breast cancer (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 276

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524
Q

Most common cause of cancer death in both male and female

A

Lung cancer (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 276

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525
Q

Most important infectious agent associated with cervical carcinoma and head and neck cancers.

A

Human papilloma virus (TOPNOTCH)

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526
Q

Leukoplakia may give rise to what type of carcinoma?

A

Squamous carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 279

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527
Q

Most common type of abnormality involving proto-oncogenes in human tumors

A

Point mutations of RAS family genes(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 286

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528
Q

Activation of ABL nonreceptor tyrosine kinase by chromosomal translocation and creation of BCR-ABL fusion gene is associated with what type of leukemia

A

CML, ALL(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 290

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529
Q

“Guardian of the genome”, a tumor suppressor gene that regulates cell cycle progression, DNA repair, cellular senescence, and apoptosis, and the most frequently mutated gene in human cancers

A

TP53 (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 293

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530
Q

“Gatekeeper of colonic neoplasia”; tumor suppressor that function by downregulating growth-promoting signaling pathways.

A

APC (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 296

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531
Q

Steps in invasion of cancer cells

A

Dissociation of cancer cells-Degradation of ECM-Attachment to novel ECM components-Migration and invasion of tumor cells. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 306

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532
Q

Autosomal dominant disorder characterized by familial carcinomas of the colon predominantly cecum and proximal colon.

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) syndrome (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 314

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533
Q

Syndrome causing colon cancer resulting from defects in a family of genes encoding a group of proteins that work together to carry out DNA mismatch repair.

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) syndrome (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 314

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534
Q

The increased incidence of skin cancer following UV light exposure associated with xeroderma pigmentosus is caused by:

A

Disorder of DNA repair/inability to repair pyrimidine dimers(HNPCC) syndrome (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 314

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535
Q

Pathogenesis of this tumor involves the translocation resulting to overactivity of MYC gene

A

Burkitt lymphoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 317

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536
Q

Philadelphia chromosome is characteristic of what type of leukemia

A

CML(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 317

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537
Q

An important cause of benign warts, cervical cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer

A

HPV (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 329

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538
Q

Implicated in gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma

A

H. pylori(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 329

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539
Q

Cytokine implicated in cancer cachexia

A

TNF-alpha(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 330

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540
Q

The most common endocrinopathy ; usually seen in small-cell lung carcinoma

A

Cushing syndrome(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 330

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541
Q

The most common paraneoplastic syndrome related to cancer; seen in patients with squamous cell carcinoma

A

Hypercalcemia(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 330

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542
Q

The most important humoral factor associated with paraneoplastic hypercalcemia of malignancy.

A

PTHRP(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 330

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543
Q

Tumor marker:Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

A

Calcitonin(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 337

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544
Q

Tumor marker:Trophoblastic tumors

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 337

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545
Q

Tumor marker: liver cell cancer and nonseminomatous germ cell tumor

A

Alpha fetoprotein(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 337

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546
Q

Tumor markers: prostate cancer

A

PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.337

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547
Q

Tumor marker: pheochromocytoma

A

Catecholamine(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 337

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548
Q

Tumor marker: ovarian cancer

A

CA-125(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 337

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549
Q

Cervical biopsy of a 35 y/o female with cervical erosion shows squamous epithelium that exhibit atypia, pleomorphism, disorderly spatial arrangement. This adaptive response is:

A

Dysplasia (TOPNOTCH)

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550
Q

RAS oncogene qualitatively changes function of proto-oncogene through which form of mutation?

A

Point mutations (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 286

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551
Q

Chemical carcinogen implicated in the causation of mesothelioma

A

Asbestos(TOPNOTCH)

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552
Q

A 56 year old woman with a breast mass has a preoperative diagnosis of invasive ductal carcinoma by core needle biopsy, with no palpable axillary lymph nodes. She undergoes surgery where her breast mass is injected with a blue dye, and the first axillary node that takes up the dye is submitted to pathology. Which method is next done on the node if the surgeon wants to know within minutes if there is metastasis? (A) fine needle aspiration (B) frozen section (C) immunohistochemistry (D) flow cytometry

A

frozen section (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed, p 220

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553
Q

A 25 year old male with an intranasal mass undergoes a tissue biopsy that shows malignant round cells. The pathologist needs to know if it is an undifferentiated carcinoma or a lymphoma. What can be done to differentiate? (A) Frozen section (B) Immunohistochemistry (C) Flow cytometry (D) serologic tumor markers

A

Immunohistochemistry (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp220-221

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554
Q

A 12 year old female presents with pallor and gum bleeding. A complete blood count with peripheral smear shows numerous blasts. What is needed to be done on her bone marrow for a more precise diagnosis? (A) frozen section (B) papanicolau smear (C) aspiration and flow cytometry (D) serologic tumor markers

A

aspiration and flow cytometry (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 221

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555
Q

These disorders are derived from one’s parents, transmitted through gametes through the generations, and are therefore familial.

A

Hereditary disorders(TOPNOTCH)

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556
Q

This term literally means “present at birth”.

A

Congenital(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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557
Q

This term refers to permanent changes in the DNA.

A

Mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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558
Q

This type of mutation results from the substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base, resulting in the replacement of one amino acid by another.

A

Missense mutation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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559
Q

This type of mutation results in the replacement of one amino acid by a stop codon, resulting in chain termination.

A

Nonsense mutation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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560
Q

Missense, nonsense and silent mutations are examples of ________ mutations, wherein only one base pair is replaced.

A

Point mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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561
Q

This type of mutation occur when the insertion or deletion of one or two bse pairs alters the reading frame of the DNA strand.

A

Frameshift mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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562
Q

These mutations are characterized by amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides.

A

Trinucleotide repeat mutations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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563
Q

Disease characterized by CGG trinucleotide repeats.

A

Fragile X Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.227

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564
Q

This is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to cognitive decline and psychiatric problems.

A

Huntington’s disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

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565
Q

Genetic mutation in Huntington’s disease?

A

CAG trinucleotide repeats(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

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566
Q

This disorder is a chronic, slowly progressing inherited genetic disorder characterized by muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, endocrine changes and myotonia.

A

Myotonic Dystrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

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567
Q

Genetic mutation found in myotonic dystrophy?

A

CTG Trinucleotide repeats(TOPNOTCH)

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568
Q

A point mutation wherein a single base pair is replaced but codes for the same amino acid, therefore has no effect on the functioning of the protein.

A

Silent mutation(TOPNOTCH)

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569
Q

An example of point mutation wherein a purine base is replaced by another purine base or a pyrimidine base is replaced by another pyrimidine base.

A

Transition(TOPNOTCH)

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570
Q

A point mutation wherein a purine is replaced by a pyrimidine or vice versa.

A

Transversion(TOPNOTCH)

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571
Q

Diseases caused by single gene defects are called?

A

Mendelian Disorders(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

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572
Q

A condition wherein both dominant and recessive alleles of a gene pair may be fully expressed in the heterozygote.

A

Codominance(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

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573
Q

The presence of many allelic forms of a single gene is called _______.

A

Polymorphism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

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574
Q

This occurs when one gene influences or leads to multiple phenotypic traits.

A

Pleiotropy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

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575
Q

A phenomenon wherein a single phenotype or genetic disorder may be caused by mutations of several genetic loci or allele.

A

Genetic heterogeneity Note: compare with pleiotropy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.228

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576
Q

A transmission pattern of inheritance which is manifested in the heterozygous state, wherein at least one parent of an index case is usually affected, both males and females are affected and both can transmit the condition.

A

Autosomal dominant (AD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

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577
Q

This pattern of inheritance occur when BOTH of the alleles at a given gene locus are mutants, wherein the parents are not affected, but offspring have 1 in 4 chance (25%) of being affected.

A

Autosomal recessive(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

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578
Q

Pattern of inheritance wherein the disorder is transmitted by heterozygous female carriers only to 50% of the sons. An affected male does not transmit the disorder to sons but all daughters are carriers.

A

X-linked disorders(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.229

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579
Q

An autosomal dominant disorder of connective tissues characterized by abnormally long legs, arms and fingers, joint hyperextensibility, pectus excavatum, lens subluxation and increased risk of aortic dissection.

A

Marfan Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.230

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580
Q

Integral component of elastic fibers defective in Marfan Syndrome.

A

Fibrillin 1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.230

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581
Q

Fibrillin 1 is encoded by what gene?

A

FBN1 gene (chromosome 15q21)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.230

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582
Q

A collection of disorders caused by defects in collagen synthesis or structure, characterized by hyperextensible skin and joint hypermobility, rupture of internal organs and poor wound healing.

A

Ehlers-Danlos SyndromesThere are 6 variants to Ehlers-Danlos (nice to know)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.231

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583
Q

This autosomal recessive inborn error of metabolism is characterized by inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine, strong mousy or musty odor of urine and sweat, decreased pigmentation of hair and skin, eczema, seizures and mental retardation.

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)(TOPNOTCH)

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584
Q

This autosomal dominant disorder is caused by a mutation in the gene that specifies the receptor for LDL, impairing the intracellular transport and catabolism of LDL.

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.232

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585
Q

Enzyme deficient in classic PKU.

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.234

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586
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder of galactose metabolism characterized by jaundice, liver damage, cataracts, neural damage, vomiting and diarrhea.

A

Galactosemia(TOPNOTCH)

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587
Q

Deficiency of this enzyme can also cause symptoms of phenylketonuria due to decreased synthesis of a cofactor in the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine.

A

Dihydrobiopteridine reductase (DHPR)Enzyme responsible for the reduction of Dihydrobiopterin (BH2) to Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4).(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.234

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588
Q

Enzyme deficient in galactosemia.

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.235

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589
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of glucosylceramidase.

A

Gaucher disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

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590
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of B-Hexosaminidase A.

A

Tay-Sachs disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

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591
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of a-Galactosidase A.

A

Fabry disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

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592
Q

Lysosomal storage disease due to deficiency of Sphingomyelinase.

A

Niemann-Pick disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

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593
Q

Lysosomal storage disease common among Ashkenazi Jews characterized by motor weakness, mental retardation, blindness, neurologic dysfunction and death.

A

Tay-Sachs disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.236

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594
Q

Lysosomal storage disease characterized by accumulation of glucosylceramide in mononuclear phagocytic cells, which enlarge, forming “wrinkled tissue paper” cytoplasmic appearance.

A

Gaucher disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.238

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595
Q

What do you call the pathognomonic cell characterized by “wrinkled tissue paper” cytoplasmic appearance.

A

Gaucher cell(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.238

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596
Q

These disorders result from the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in many tissues including the liver, spleen, heart, blood vessels, brain, cornea and joints. Affected patients have coarse facial features.

A

Mucopolysaccharidoses(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.238

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597
Q

Mucopolysaccharidosis characterized by corneal clouding, coronary arterial and valvular depositions, which occurs due to deficiency of a-L-iduronidase, leading to accumulation of dermatan and heparan sulfate.

A

Hurler syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.239

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598
Q

An X-linked mucopolysaccharidosis which is due to a deficiency of L-iduronate sulfatase. Symptoms are similar to Hurler syndrome, but without corneal clouding.

A

Hunter syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.239

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599
Q

Glycogen storage disease characterized by hepatomegaly, renomegaly, hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia and hyperuricemia, leading to gout and skin xanthomas.

A

von Gierke’s disease (Type I)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

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600
Q

von Gierke’s disease is due to a deficiency of what enzyme?

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

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601
Q

Glycogen storage disease characterized by accumulation of glycogen in skeletal muscles leading to painful cramps during strenuous exercise and myoglobinuria.

A

McArdle syndrome (type V)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

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602
Q

Glycogen storage disease characterized by mild hepatomegaly, cardiomegaly, muscle hypotonia, and may lead to cardiorespiratory failure.

A

Pompe disease (type II)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

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603
Q

Enzyme deficient in McArdle syndrome.

A

Muscle phosphorylase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.240

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604
Q

These disorders may result from alterations in the number or structure of chromosomes and may affect autosomes or sex chromosomes.

A

Cytogenetic disorders(TOPNOTCH)

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605
Q

These disorders may result from alterations in the number or structure of chromosomes and may affect autosomes or sex chromosomes.

A

Cytogenetic disorders(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.241

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606
Q

It is a term used to describe the presence of two or more populations of cells in the same individual.

A

Mosaicism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.242

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607
Q

This refers to a lack of one chromosome of the normal complement (e.g. XO).

A

Monosomy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

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608
Q

This refers to the presence of three copies of a particular chromosome, instead of two.

A

Trisomy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

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609
Q

This mechanism occurs due to the failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during meiosis stage 1 or 2.

A

Nondisjunction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.243

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610
Q

This mechanism implies transfer of a part of one chromosome to another chromosome.

A

Translocation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.243

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611
Q

This mechanism involves loss of a portion of a chromosome.

A

Deletion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.243

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612
Q

Patients with this syndrome have severe mental retardation, flat facial profile, epicanthic folds, cardiac malformations, increased risk of leukemia, and premature development of Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Down syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

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613
Q

Down syndrome is also called _________

A

Trisomy 21(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

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614
Q

Trisomy 18 is also called ________ syndrome.

A

Edwards syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

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615
Q

Trisomy 13 is also called _________ syndrome.

A

Patau syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.244

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616
Q

Syndrome characterized by a prominent occiput, low set ears, micrognathia, rocker-bottom feet, renal malformation, mental retardation and heart defects.

A

Edwards syndrome / trisomy 18(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

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617
Q

Syndrome characterized by mental retardation, microcephaly, micropthalmia, polydactyly, cleft lip and palate, cardiac and renal defects, umbillical hernia and rocker-bottom feet.

A

Patau syndrome/Trisomy 13(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

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618
Q

Syndrome characterized by thymic hypoplasia with diminished T-cell immunity and parathyroid hypoplasia with hypocalcemia.

A

DiGeorge syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

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619
Q

Syndrome characterized by congenital heart disease affecting outflow tracts, facial dysmorphism and developmental delay.

A

Velocardiofacial syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

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620
Q

Deletion of genes from this chromosome gives rise to DiGeorge and velocardiofacial syndromes.

A

22q11.2Remember mnemonic CATCH22(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.245

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621
Q

The q from 22q11.2 refers to ________.

A

“Long arm” of chromosome 22.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

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622
Q

Syndrome defined as male hypogonadism that develops when there are at least two X chromosomes and one or more Y chromosomes.

A

Klinefelter syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

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623
Q

Syndrome manifested by a eunochoid body habitus, reduced facial, body and pubic hair, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, decreased serum testorerone and increased urinary gonadotropin levels. It is the most common cause of hypogonadism in males.

A

Klinefelter syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

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624
Q

Most common chromosomal derangement in Klinefelter syndrome.

A

47XXY(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.246

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625
Q

Syndrome which results from the partial or complete monosomy of the short arm of the X chromosome.

A

Turner syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.247

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626
Q

Inheritance associated with mitochondrial DNA.

A

Maternal inheritance(TOPNOTCH)

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627
Q

Neurodegenerative disease which manifests as progressive bilateral loss of central vision that leads to blindness. This is the prototypical disorder of mutations in mitochondrial genes.

A

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy(TOPNOTCH)

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628
Q

Inheritance associated with mitochondrial DNA.

A

Maternal inheritance(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.247

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629
Q

An epigenetic process wherein certain genes are differentially “inactivated” during paternal and maternal gametogenesis.

A

Genomic imprinting(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.252

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630
Q

This refers to transcriptional silencing of the maternal allele.

A

Maternal imprinting(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

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631
Q

Refers to the transcriptional silencing of the paternal allele.

A

Paternal imprinting(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

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632
Q

Syndrome characterized by mental retardation, short stature, hypotonia, obesity, small hands and feet, and hypogonadism. Paternal imprinting.

A

Prader-Willi syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

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633
Q

Syndrome manifested as mental retardation, ataxic gait, seizures and inappropriate laughter. Also called the “happy puppet syndrome”. Maternal imprinting.

A

Angelman syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.251

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634
Q

These represent primary errors of morphogenesis due to an intrinsically abnormal developmental process.

A

Malformations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

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635
Q

These result from secondary destruction of an organ or body region that was previously normal in development, due to an extrinsic disturbance in morphogenesis.

A

Disruptions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

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636
Q

These are due to generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biomechanical forces, for example uterine constraint.

A

Deformations(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

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637
Q

This refers to multiple congenital anomalies that result from secondary effects of a single localized aberration in organogenesis. The initiating event may be a malformation, deformation or disruption.

A

Sequence(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.254

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638
Q

This refers to the presence of several defects that cannot be explained on the basis of a single localizing initiating error in morphogenesis.

A

Malformation syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.253

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639
Q

Elements of the TORCH complex.

A

TOxoplasmaTreponema pallidumRubellaCytomeglovirusHerpesvirus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.256

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640
Q

Most common cause of neonatal mortality.

A

Congenital anomalies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.253

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641
Q

Second most common cause of neonatal mortality.

A

Prematurity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.257

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642
Q

Lungs of infants with this disease are normal size but are heavy and relatively airless. They have a mottled purple color, with poorly developed atelectatic alveoli.

A

Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome / Hyaline Membrane Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.257

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643
Q

Characteristic eosinophilic membranes line the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and random alveoli, which contain necrotic epithelial cells admixed with extravasated plasma proteins.

A

Hyaline Membrane Disease / Neonatal RDS(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.257

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644
Q

Two well known complications of high concentration ventilator administered oxygen in infants suffering from RDS.

A

Retrolental fibroplasia / retinopathy of prematurityBronchopulmonary dysplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

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645
Q

Characteristic lesion in the retina of infants suffering from retrolental fibroplasia?

A

Neovascularization or retinal vessel proliferation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

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646
Q

Main component of pulmonary surfactant.

A

Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC) ~40%(TOPNOTCH)

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647
Q

Characteristic abnormality in bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

A

Alveolar hypoplasia or a decrease in the number of mature alveoli.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

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648
Q

What is the fundamental abnormality in neonatal RDS?

A

Insufficient pulmonary surfactant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

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649
Q

This condition occurs more commonly in very-low-birth-weight infants, as a result of intestinal ischemia, bacterial colonization of gut and formula milk feeding.

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.258

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650
Q

Microscopic features of NEC.

A

Presence of submucosal gas bubbles, transmural coagulative necrosis, ulceration and bacterial colonization.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.259

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651
Q

Defined as the sudden death of an infant under 1 year of age which remains unexplained after a thorough investigation.

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome / SIDS(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.260

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652
Q

Multiple petechiae of the thymus, visceral and parietal pleura and epicardium, congested lungs with vascular engorgement with or without pulmonary edema.

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.260

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653
Q

Results from antibody-induced hemolytic disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus, leading to edema fluid accumulation.

A

Immune Hydrops(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.261

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654
Q

Erythroid precursors with large homogenous, intranuclear inclusions and a surrounding peripheral rim of residual chromatin can be seen in the bone marrow aspirate of an infant infected with this virus. This leads to development of non-immune hydrops.

A

Parvovirus B19(TOPNOTCH)

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655
Q

Isolated postnuchal fluid accumulation in fetuses with hydrops.

A

Cystic hygroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.261

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656
Q

A lethal condition characterized by generalized edema of the fetus.

A

Hydrops fetalis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.261

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657
Q

Increased hematopoietic activity leading to the presence of large number of immature red cells, including reticulocytes, normoblasts and erythroblasts. Characteristic finding in fetal anemia-associated hydrops.

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis(TOPNOTCH)

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658
Q

Primary gene defect in cystic fibrosis.

A

Abnormal CFTR (CF transmembrane conductance regulator) Chromosome 7q31.2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.262

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659
Q

Lungs with extensive mucous plugging and dilated tracheobronchial tree. Pancreatic ducts dilated and plugged with eosinophilic mucin, atrophic parenchymal glands replaced by fibrous tissue. Hepatic steatosis, Azoospermia and infertility are some of the features of this disease.

A

Cystic fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.262

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660
Q

Patients with cystic fibrosis are prone to developing infections caused by these three organisms.

A

S. aureusH. InfluenzaeP. aeruginosa(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.266

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661
Q

How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed?

A

Persistently elevated sweat chloride concentration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

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662
Q

Most common tumors of infancy.

A

Hemangioma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

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663
Q

Microscopically normal cells or tissues that are present in abnormal locations.

A

Heterotopia or choristoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

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664
Q

Port wine stains are associted with these syndromes. (2)

A

von Hippel-Lindau Sturge-Weber syndromes(TOPNOTCH)

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665
Q

This refers to an excessive but focal overgrowth of cells and tissues native to the organ in which it occurs.

A

Hamartoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

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666
Q

Large, flat to elevated, irregular, red-blue masses in the skin.

A

Port wine stains(Large hemangiomas)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.267

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667
Q

These represent the lymphatic counterpart of hemangiomas characterized as cystic and cavernous spaces lined by endothelial cells and surrounded by lymphoid aggregates,usually containing pale fluid.

A

Lymphangiomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.268

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668
Q

What do you call the rosettes found in neuroblastomas?

A

Homer-Wright pseudorosettes(TOPNOTCH)

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669
Q

Most common germ cell tumors of childhood,associated with meningocoele and spina bifida.

A

Sacrococcygeal teratomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.268

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670
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla composed of small, primitive-appearing cells with dark nuclei, scant cytoplasm, and poorly defined cell borders growing in solid sheets within a finely fibrillar matrix. Rosettes can be found in which tumor cells are concentrically arranged about a CENTRAL SPACE FILLED with neuropil.

A

Neuroblastomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.269

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671
Q

This is used in the screening of patients with neuroblastoma.

A

Urinary vanillylmandelic acid and homovanillic acid (VMA/HVA)(TOPNOTCH)

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672
Q

Differentiated lesions containing more large cells with vesicular nuclei and abundant eoinophilic cytoplasm, in the absence of neuroblasts, usually accompanied by mature spindle shaped Schwann cells.

A

Ganglioneuroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.270

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673
Q

Disseminated neuroblastoma with multiple cuteaneous metastases with deep blue discoloration to the skin.

A

“Blueberry muffin baby”(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.270

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674
Q

This tumor is composed of small, round cells with large hyperchromatic nuclei and scant cytoplasm, with characteristic structures consisting of clusters of cuboidal or short columnar cells arranged around a CENTRAL LUMEN. The nuclei are displaced away from the lumen, which appears to have a limiting membrane.

A

Retinoblastoma(Differentiate with neuroblastoma)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

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675
Q

Rosettes in retinoblastoma are called _______.

A

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

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676
Q

Clinicial findings include poor vision, strabismus, whitish hue to the pupils (“cat’s eye reflex”), pain and tenderness to the eye.

A

Retinoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

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677
Q

Most common primary tumor of the kidney in children.

A

Wilm’s tumor / Nephroblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.271

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678
Q

Components of the WAGR syndrome.

A

Wilm’s tumorAniridiaGenital abnormalitiesMental retardation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

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679
Q

Presents grossly as a large, solitary, well-circumscribed mass. On cut-section, tumor is soft, homogenous, and tan to gray, with occasional foci of hemorrhage, cystic degeneration and necrosis.

A

Wilm’s tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

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680
Q

Microscopically, a combination of blastemal, stromal and epithelial cell types is observed. (Triphasic combination) Blastemal components described as sheets of small blue cells with few distinctive features. Stromal cells are fibrocytic or myxoid in nature. Epithelial cells take the form of abortive tubules or glomeruli.

A

Wilm’s tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

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681
Q

Associated with inactivation of the WT1 gene of chromosome 11p13.

A

WAGR syndrome and Denys-Drash syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.272

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682
Q

Patient presents with mental retardation, motor incoordination, and blindness. Ophthalmologic exam showeed cherry-red spots on the macula. Brain showed neurons ballooned with cytoplasmic vacuoles. What is the enzyme deficiency?

A

Hexosaminidase A. (Case of Tay-Sachs Disease) (TOPNOTCH)

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683
Q

An 18 y/o male was recently diagnosed with a genetic disorder. His parents do not manifest the disease, but one of his parent carries the gene with phenotypic expression. Some of his relatives manifest the same disease but with different presentation. What type of Mendelian disorder does the patient most likely have?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder. With this type, some patient do not have affected parents, has variations in penetrance and expressivity, age at onset is delayed. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 140

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684
Q

True or False. Male patient with hemophilia does not transmit the disorder to his sons, but all daughters are carriers.

A

True. Hemophilia is an X-linked disorder. (TOPNOTCH)

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685
Q

True or False. Female hemophilia carrier will transmit the disease to half her sons and half her daughter.

A

False. X-linked disorders are transmitted by heterozygous females to their sons, who manifest the disease. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 142

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686
Q

True or False. Female hemophilia carrier will manifest with decrease Factor VIII.

A

False (TOPNOTCH)

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687
Q

True or False. In female hemophilia carrier, only one of the X chromosome shows abnormality.

A

True (TOPNOTCH)

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688
Q

True or False. In X-linked disorders, female carriers are usually protected because of random inactivation of one X chromosome.

A

True (TOPNOTCH)

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689
Q

True or False. In X-linked disorders, heterozygous female carrier will never manifest the disease.

A

False (TOPNOTCH)

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690
Q

A 26 y/o male was referred to a cardiologist due to presence of murmur at the aortic area. On history, patient suffered from severe myopia at the age of 6. His development was normal except that he was taller than the rest of his family members and friends. Examination of abdomen showed visible pulsation above the umbilicus. The most striking feature in this syndrome is:

A

Skeletal abnormalities. (case of Marfan Syndrome) (TOPNOTCH)

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691
Q

The most life-threatening feature of Marfan syndrome

A

Cardiovascular lesions (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 145

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692
Q

The 2 most common lesions of Marfan Syndrome

A

Mitral valve prolapse and dilation of ascending aorta (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 145

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693
Q

A 4 y/o male presented with cutaneous xanthomas on the extensor surfaces of his arms, knees, and elbow since he was 1 year old. He was found to have serum cholesterol greater than 1000 mg/dl and triglyceride level of 170 mg/dl. Both parents had high cholesterol levels. What is the cause of hypercholesterolemia in this condition?

A

Impared transport of LDL into the cells (Case of Familial Hypercholesterolemia) (TOPNOTCH)

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694
Q

A 6 mo old infant presented with failure to thrive, vomiting, fever, and hepatosplenomegaly. Progressive deterioration of the infant led to death. Autopsy finding showed lipid laden phagocytic foam cells widely distributed in the spleen, liver, lymph nodes, GIT and lungs. Tissue cells are enlarged, with innumerable vacuoles staining for fat, and lysosome contain concentric lamellated myelin figures. The patient is deficient of what enzyme?

A

Sphingomyelinase (case of Niemann-Pick Disease Type A) (TOPNOTCH)

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695
Q

A 1 y/o infant succumbed to death. Autopsy finding showed shrunken gyri and widened sulci. There is vacuolation and ballooning of neurons noted. Cells are enlarged with innumerable small vacuoles of uniform size, imparting foaminess to the cytoplasm. This is a case of:

A

Niemann-Pick Disease (TOPNOTCH)

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696
Q

Presents with fractures, bone pain and thrombocytopenia. Morphologic findings of distended phagocytic cells and have fibrillary type of cytoplasm, intensely positive for PAS staining.

A

Gaucher disease (TOPNOTCH)

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697
Q

A 21 y/o female of short stature presented with primary amenorrhea, shield-shaped chest, “thick neck”, and absence of secondary female characteristics. Estrogen level were decreased, while FSH and LH are increased. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Turner syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

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698
Q

The most common chromosomal disorder

A

Down Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 161

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699
Q

The most common genetic cause of mental retardation.

A

Down Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 161

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700
Q

Most common pathogenesis of Trisomy 21

A

Meiotic nondisjunction (TOPNOTCH)

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701
Q

Most common congenital heart defects in Trisomy 21

A

Endocardial cushion defects(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 163

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702
Q

Why are patients with DiGeorge syndrome has T-cell immunodeficiency?

A

Because of thymic hypoplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 163

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703
Q

A 14 y/o male presented with gynecomastia and small testes. He was noted to have difficulties in school when he was 8. He was tall for his age. You would suspect:

A

Klinefelter syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

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704
Q

Classic karyotype patttern of Klinefelter syndrome

A

47,XXY(TOPNOTCH)

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705
Q

Single most important cause of primary amenorrhea

A

Turner syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 166

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706
Q

Most important cause of increased mortality in children with Turner syndrome.

A

Cardiovascular abnormalities (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 166

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707
Q

Patient presents with mental retardation, long face with large mandible, large everted ears, and large testicles. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Fragile X Syndrome (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 169

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708
Q

Most distinctive feature of Fragile X syndrome

A

Macro-orchidism(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 169

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709
Q

The neonate was noted to have microcephaly, short palpebral fissure, maxillary hypoplasia, growth retardation, and psychomotor disturbances. The mother denies intake of drugs during pregnancy. The most likely cause

A

Alcohol (TOPNOTCH)

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710
Q

Deficiency in homogentisic oxidase results in this condition which manifests black discoloration of the urine

A

Alkaptonuria (TOPNOTCH)

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711
Q

Most common cause of respiratory distress in the newborn

A

Hyaline Membrane Disease (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 457

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712
Q

This teratogenic drug disrupts expression of homeobox proteins implicated in the patterning of lims, vertebrae, and craniofacial structures.

A

Valproic acid (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 456

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713
Q

Most commonly responsible for fetal growth restriction.

A

TORCH infections (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 457

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714
Q

Most common maternal condition associated with SGA infants

A

Vascular diseases (chronic hypertension, preclampsia) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 457

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715
Q

A 28 week old male delivered via CS by a diabetiic mother presented with dyspnea and cyanosis. Fine rales are heard over both lung fields. CXR revealed uniform minute reticulogranular densities, producing a ground glass appearance. The fundamental defect in this condition is:

A

Pulmonary surfactant (Case of RDS) (TOPNOTCH)

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716
Q

The most common cause of mortality in children ages 1-4 years old.

A

Accidents (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 452

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717
Q

A 28 week old male dies 20 hours after birth. Autopsy findings showed a solid, airless, and reddish purple lungs with poorly developed alveoli. Necrotic cellular debris incorporated within eosinophilic hyaline membranes lines the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli. The most likely cause of death of the neonae is:

A

Respiratory distress syndrome/Hyaline membrane disease (TOPNOTCH)

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718
Q

Premature infant, bottle-fed, developed bloody stool, abdominal distention. Abdominal radiograph showed pneumotis intestinalis. Diagnosis:

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis(TOPNOTCH)

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719
Q

Morphology: intestinal segment is distended, friable and congested, with transmural coagulative necrosis, ulceration, bacterial colonization, and submucosal bubbles.

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis(TOPNOTCH)

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720
Q

Most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis and early-onset bacterial meningitis

A

Group B streptococcus(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 460

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721
Q

The most serious threat of fetal hydrops

A

CNS damage -kernicterus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 463

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722
Q

Most common site of neuroblastoma

A

Adrenal medulla (TOPNOTCH)

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723
Q

Presents with a large abdominal mass crossing the midline, hematuria, intestinal obstruction, and hypertension.

A

Wilm’s tumor (TOPNOTCH)

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724
Q

A 22 year old male consults an ophthalmologist for sudden blindness on the right. He is found to have lens subluxation. He is unusually tall and lean, with long limbs and fingers. These findings are due to abnormalities in fibrillin 1, which is secreted by (A) megakaryocytes (B) fibroblasts (C) histiocytes (D) fibroclasts

A

fibroblasts (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed, p 230

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725
Q

A lysosomal storage disease with a mutation in the gene that encodes glucosylceramidase presents with an accumulation of glucosylceramide in mononuclear phagocytic cells in the liver, spleen, and marrow. These pathognomonic cells are (A) enlarged, with a “wrinkled tissue paper” cytoplasm (B) epithelioid, with “slipper-shaped” nuclei (C) multinucleated, with 8 to 20 nuclei (D) studded with reddish brown cytoplasmic granules

A

enlarged, with a “wrinkled tissue paper” cytoplasm (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp237-238

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726
Q

A baby is born with epicanthic folds, flat facial profile, simian crease, and a gap between the first and second toe. Auscultation reveals a holosystolic murmur. The clinical findings are due to an extra chromosome that is most commonly caused by (A) meiotic duplication (B) meiotic nondisjunction (C) fertilization by two spermatozoa (D) translocation

A

meiotic nondisjunction (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 244

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727
Q

A premature female neonate admitted at the PICU develops sepsis, with blood cultures showing growth of Candida sp. She is also found to be persistently hypocalcemic. She dies on her 7th day. On autopsy, she was found to have fungal endocarditis and thymic hypoplasia. She most likely has (A) an extra chromosome 22 (B) a deletion in chromosome 22 (C) a 9:22 chromosomal translocation (D) a duplication in chromosome 22

A

a deletion in chromosome 22 (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp 245-246

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728
Q

A stillborn fetus is found to have polydactyly, an umbilical hernia, and cleft lip and palate. Autopsy showed a ventral septal defect, renal dysplasia, and holoprosencephaly. Karyotyping will likely show (A) Monosomy X (B) Deletion in chromosome 5 (C) Trisomy 13 (D) Trisomy 18

A

Trisomy 13 (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 245.

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729
Q

A 19 year old female consults a gynecologist for primary amenorrhea. Apart from her short stature, there are no other unusual clinical findings. Why must Turner Syndrome be ruled out? (A) mosaicism or partial monosomy may produce a mild form of the syndrome (B) 45,X abnormalities manifest in only half of females by the age of 18 (C) when combined with Fragile X, the typical features such as neck webbing and cubitus valgus are masked (D) supplementation with folate during gestation masks the typical features of neck webbing and cubitus valgus

A

mosaicism or partial monosomy produces a milder form (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp247-248

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730
Q

A stillborn male fetus delivered to a 41 year old G7P7 is found to have flattened facies and clubbed feet. Autopsy showed renal agenesis and pulmonary hypoplasia. What is the main culprit of the findings in the fetus? (A) maternal age (B) multiparity (C) renal agenesis (D) pulmonary hypoplasia

A

renal agenesis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp 253-254

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731
Q

A G3P3 mother has premature rupture of membranes at 35 weeks age of gestation, and delivers a live baby boy with poor APGAR scores. The obstetrician delivered a placenta with dull-looking membranes, which showed chorioamnionitis on histopathology. Culture of which organism from the placental tissue suggests an transcervical origin of infection? (A) Group B Streptococcus (B) Toxoplasma (C) Plasmodium (D) Rubella

A

Group B Streptococcus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 256

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732
Q

A G1P1 preeclamptic mother delivers a live baby boy at 27 weeks age of gestation. The baby develops respiratory distress a few minutes later and is admitted at the PICU. He dies the next day, and is sent for autopsy. Which of the following supports respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn? (A) thickened alveolar septa with lymphocytic infiltrates (B) alveolar spaces filled with neutrophils (C) eosinophilic material lining the alveolar walls (D) hemosiderin laden macrophages in the alveolar spaces

A

eosinophilic material lining the alveolar walls (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp 257-258

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733
Q

A premature male neonate who was delivered at 33 weeks AOG and admitted at the PICU develops abdominal distention, bloody stools, and hypotension. An abdominal radiograph shows gas within the intestinal wall. What is the expected histologic findings of the involved intestine? (A) coagulative necrosis of the mucosa and muscularis (B) arteriovenous fistulas in the submucosa (C) melanosis of the mucosa (D) crypt abscesses and noncaseating granulomas

A

coagulative necrosis of the mucosa and muscularis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 259

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734
Q

What is the most common autopsy finding in sudden infant death syndrome? (A) patent ductus arteriosus (B) multiple petechiae in the thymus and pleural surfaces (C) bilateral adrenal hemorrhage (D) flattening of gyri in the cerebral cortex

A

multiple petechiae on the thymus and visceral surfaces (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 260

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735
Q

How does parvovirus B19 infection cause fetal hydrops? (A) it causes a chronic myocarditis leading to heart failure (B) it infects the lymphatic ducts causing peripheral fluid accumulation (C) it causes placental villi atrophy, exposing the fetal circulation to maternal antibodies (D) it infects erythroid precursors, causing anemia

A

it infects erythroid precursors, causing anemia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 262

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736
Q

A 4 month old infant with abdominal enlargement presents with multiple bluish-gray subcutaneous nodules. Workup showed a 10 cm mass in the paravertebral region. Biopsy of the nodules showed small round cells with dark nuclei scanty cytoplasm, some forming rosettes arranged in a finely fibrillar matrix. Immunohistochemical studies showed the cells to be positive for neuron specific enolase and negative for leucocyte common antigen. These tumor cells are derived from (A) antigen presenting cells in the dermis (B) neural crest (C) nephrogenic rests (D) lymphoid precursors

A

neural crest (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp 269-270

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737
Q

A 2 year old male is noticed to have a whitish pupil on photographs. Workup showed a tumor in the posterior chamber. The eye is enucleated, and the tumor shows sheets of small round cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant cytoplasm. Occasional clustering around central lumens are seen. On further history, a cousin also had a similar tumor and died. The patient has an increased risk of developing which tumour later in life: (A) hepatoblastoma (B) pheochromocytoma (C) osteosarcoma (D) Wilms tumour

A

osteosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 271

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738
Q

A 4 year old female undergoes left nephrectomy for Wilms tumor. Which of the following findings in the nephrectomy specimen is associated with an increased risk of developing the same tumor in the right kidney? (A) nephrogenic rests (B) abortive tubules or glomeruli (C) extensive fibrosis (D) adipose tissue, cartilage, and osteoid

A

nephrogenic rests (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p 272

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739
Q

A gas formed by sunlight-driven reactions involving nitrogen oxides. Together with oxides and fine particulate matter, it forms “smog”.

A

Ozone(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 282

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740
Q

A nonirritating , colorless, tasteless, odorless gas produced bu the imperfect oxidation of carbonaceous materials. Binds to hemoglobin with high affinity causing systemic asphyxiation and CNS depression.

A

Carbon monoxide(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 282

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741
Q

Carbon monoxide in the blood is called _______.

A

Carboxyhemoglobin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 282

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742
Q

Acute poisoning of carbon monoxide produces this characteristic color of the skin and mucous membranes.

A

Cherry red color(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 283

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743
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia, with basophilic stippling of erythrocytes, peripheral demyelinating neuropathy which manifests as footdrop and wristdrop, colic characterized by extremely severe, poorly localized abdominal pain, and chronic renal damage are the features of poisoning with this heavy metal.

A

Lead(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 283

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744
Q

Main source of exposure to this heavy metal are contamintaed fish and dental amalgams, causing tremor, gingivitis and bizarre behavior.

A

Mercury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

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745
Q

Consumption of fish contaminated with methyl mercury causing cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness, and major CNS defects in children exposed in utero.

A

Minamata disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

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746
Q

Antidote for mercury poisoning.

A

Thimerosal(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

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747
Q

Chronic exposure with this heavy metal results in hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis which may develop into basal or squamous cell carcinomas.

A

Arsenic(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

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748
Q

This heavy metal is used mainly in batteries and fertilizers, which can contaminate soil. Can cause obstructive lung disease and kidney damage.

A

Cadmium(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

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749
Q

Disease caused by cadmium in Japan, presenting as a combination of osteoporosis and osteomalacia, associated with renal disease.

A

Itai-itai disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

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750
Q

May be released from combustion of fossil fuels, burning of coal and gas, and also present in tar and soot. Among the most potent carcinogens, implicated in lung and bladder cancer.

A

Polycyclic hydrocarbons(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

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751
Q

Synthetic products that resist degradation and are lipophilic, typically used as pesticides, with anti-estrogenic and anti-androgenic activity, and causes neurologic toxicity.

A

Organochlorines (e.g. DDT)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

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752
Q

These can cause skin disorders such as folliculitis and chloracne, consisting of acne, cyst formation, hyperpigmentation, and hyperkeratosis, around the face and behind the ears.

A

Dioxins and Polychlorinatedbiphenyls (PCB)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

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753
Q

It is the most preventable cause of human death.

A

Smoking(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

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754
Q

Components of cigarette smoke that are potent carcinogens in animals and are most likely involved in the causation of lung carcinomas in humans.

A

Polycyclic hydrocarbons and nitrosamines(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 288

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755
Q

Chronic alcoholics are at an increased risk of developing this type of cancer as a result of liver injury.

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 290

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756
Q

These refer to untoward effects of drugs that are given in conventional therapeutic settings.

A

Adverse drug reactions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 291

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757
Q

A long acting tetracycline which can cause a diffuse blue-gray pigmentation of the skin.

A

Minocycline(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 293

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758
Q

Oral contraceptives have a protective effect against these cancers.

A

Endometrial and ovarian CA(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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759
Q

Oral contraceptives may increase the risk of developing this type of cancer in women.

A

Cervical CA(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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760
Q

Prolonged use of oral contraceptives is associated with the development of this rare benign tumor especially in older women.

A

Hepatic adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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761
Q

Toxic metabolite of paracetamol or acetaminophen causing centrilobular necrosis that may progress to liver failure.

A

NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 422

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762
Q

Toxic dose for acetaminophen.

A

15-25 grams/day(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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763
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen poisoning.

A

N-acetylcysteine(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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764
Q

Manifested by headache, dizziness, tinnitus, difficulty of hearing, mental confusion, drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, with CNS changes that can progress to convulsions and coma.

A

Salicylism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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765
Q

Adult toxic dose of aspirin.

A

10-30 grams(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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766
Q

Mixtures of aspirin and phenacetin, or its active metabolite acetaminophen, when taken over several years can cause tubulointerstitial nephritis and renal papillary necrosis called _______.

A

Analgesic nephropathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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767
Q

This drug of abuse can precipitate lethal arrythmias, hyperpyrexia, seizures, amd respiratory arrest during acute overdose. Causes nasal septal perforation, decrease in lung diffusing capacity in those who inhale smoke and dilated cardiomyopathy during chronic use.

A

Cocaine or “crack” (cocaine derivative)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 295

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768
Q

Addictive opiod derived from the poppy plant which can cause euphoria, hallucinations, somnolence, sedation, and increased risk of sudden death.

A

Heroin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 296

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769
Q

Drug made from the leaves of Cannabis sativa plant which can cause distortion of sensory perception and impairs motor coordination.

A

Marijuana(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 297

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770
Q

Psychoactive substance found in marijuana.

A

Delta 9- Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 297

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771
Q

Mechanism of action of aspirin.

A

Irreversibly blocks the enzyme cyclooxygenase.(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 297

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772
Q

A wound produced by scraping or rubbing resulting in removal of superficial layer of the skin.

A

Abrasion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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773
Q

A wound usually produced by a blunt object, characterized by damage to blood vessels and extravasation of blood into tissues.

A

Contusion (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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774
Q

A tear or disruptive stretching of tissue caused by the application of force by a blunt object, causing jagged and irregular edges to the skin.

A

Laceration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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775
Q

A wound inflicted by a sharp instrument, wherein bridging blood vessels are severed.

A

Incision(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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776
Q

A wound caused by a long, narrow instrument.

A

Puncture wound(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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777
Q

Burn classification which involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis, with loss of thermal appendages.

A

Full thickness burn (3rd and 4th degree)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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778
Q

Burn classification wherein the thermal appendages are spared but involves at least the deeper portions of the skin.

A

Partial thickness burn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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779
Q

Partial thickness burn that involves both the epidermis and superficial dermis.

A

Second degree burn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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780
Q

Partial thickness burn that involves the epidermis only.

A

First degree burn(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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781
Q

Grossly, these burns are white or charred and anesthetic due to nerve ending destruction.

A

Full thickness burns(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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782
Q

These burns are pink or mottled with blisters and are painful.

A

Second degree burn (partial thickness)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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783
Q

Histologic change in the skin during burns.

A

Coagulative necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 298

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784
Q

Leading cause of death in burn patients.

A

Organ system failure secondary to burn sepsis.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

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785
Q

Cramping of voluntary muscles in association with vigorous exercise as a result of electrolyte loss via sweating.

A

Heat cramps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

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786
Q

Most common hyperthermic syndrome. A sudden onset of prostration and collapse, resulting from failure of the cardiovascular system to compensate for hypovolemia, secondary to water depletion.

A

Heat exhaustion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

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787
Q

Associated with high ambient temperatures and high humidity. Thermoregulatory mechanisms fail, sweating ceases and core body temperature rises. Due to marked generalized peripheral vasodilation with peripheral pooling of blood and decreased effective circulating volume.

A

Heat stroke(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

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788
Q

Two types of injuries caused by electricity.

A

BurnsVFib or cardiac and respiratory center failure(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 299

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789
Q

This may injure cells directly or indirectly by generating free radicals from water or molecular oxygen, damages DNA and rapidly dividing cells. Exposure may predispose to neoplastic transformation, vascular damage, sclerosis and tissue fibrosis.

A

Ionizing radiation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 300

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790
Q

Malnutrition caused by lack of nutrients from the diet.

A

Primary malnutrition(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 304

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791
Q

Malnutrition caused by malabsorption, impaired nutrient utilization or storage, excess losses or increased nutrient needs.

A

Secondary or conditioned malnutrition(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 304

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792
Q

Protein energy malnutrition which occurs when protein deprivation is relatively greater than reduction in total calories. Associated with generalized edema, flaky paint appearance of the skin, alternating bands of pale and dark hair, enlarged fatty liver, apathy, listlessness and loss of appetite.

A

Kwashiorkor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 305

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793
Q

Protein energy malnutrition caused by a decrease in both protein and calorie intake, and weight falls below 60% of normal for sex, height and age. Serum albumin is normal or slightly reduced.

A

Marasmus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 305

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794
Q

Self-induced starvation, resulting in marked weight loss.

A

Anorexia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 306

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795
Q

A condition wherein a patient binges on food and then induces vomiting.

A

Bulimia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 306

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796
Q

Deficiency of this vitamin causes night blindness, xerophthalmia, keratomalacia, Bitot spots and eventually corneal ulceration.

A

Vitamin A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 307

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797
Q

Condition in children as result of vitamin D deficiency causing the following signs and symptoms: frontal bossing of the head, rachitic rosary, pigeon breast deformity, lumbar lordosis and bow legs.

A

Rickets (children)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 309

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798
Q

Deficieny of this vitamin causes impaired collagen formation, leading to gum bleeding, easy bruisability, and impaired wound healing.

A

Vitamin C (Scurvy)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 312

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799
Q

Symptoms of cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis, dermatitis and corneal vascularization results from deficiency of this vitamin.

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 314

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800
Q

Symptoms of cheilosis, glossitis, dermatitis, and peripheral neuropathy.

A

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 314

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801
Q

Leading causes of death in developed countries

A

Ischemic heart disease and cerebrovascular disease (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 405

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802
Q

The most important catalyst of phase I reactions; detoxify xenobiotics

A

Cytochrome P-450 enxyme system (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 407

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803
Q

A 55 y/o male presented to the ER following a house fire. He was lethargic, tachycardic, tachypneic and displayed memory disturbance. Skin was noted to be cherry red. What is the most likely cause?

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning (TOPNOTCH)

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804
Q

A 5 y/o boy presented to the clinic due to hyperactivity and impulsiveness. Hearing acuity was below normal, and speech and language were slightly delayed. History reveals that the boy lives in an old house in the community. PBS showed hypochromia and microcytosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Lead poisoning (TOPNOTCH)

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805
Q

Toxic effects of this heavy metal include cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness, and kidney damage. Cause of Minamata disease.

A

Mercury (TOPNOTCH)

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806
Q

“King of poisons”

A

Arsenic (TOPNOTCH)

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807
Q

Most toxic form of arsenic

A

Trivalent compounds of arsenic(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 412

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808
Q

The most serious consequence of chronic exposure to this heavy metal is the increased risk for the development of cancers, particularly of the lungs, bladder, and skin.

A

Arsenic (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 412

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809
Q

The principal toxic effects of toxicity to this heavy metal are obstructive lung disease and renal tubular damage that may progress to ESRD.

A

Cadmium (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 413

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810
Q

Exposure to benzene increases risk of what hematologic condition

A

Leukemia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 413

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811
Q

Exposure to vinyl chloride used in the synthesis of polyvinyl resins leads to the development of what tumor?

A

Angiosarcoma of the liver (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed.,p.414

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812
Q

Main enzyme system involved in alcohol metabolism

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 417

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813
Q

Enlarged and fatty liver is seen in kwashiorkor or marasmus?

A

Kwashiorkor(TOPNOTCH)

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814
Q

A major complication of anorexia nervosa and bulimia

A

Cardiac arrythmia and sudden death due to hypokalemia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 435

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815
Q

Symptos of acute toxicity to these vitamin include headache, diziness, vomiting, stupor, and blurred vission, which may be confused with those of a brain tumor (pseudotumor cerebri)

A

Vitamin A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 438

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816
Q

Craniotabes, frontal bossing, squared appearance of the head, rachitic rosary, pigeon chest deformity, lumbr lordosis, and bowing of the legs are associated with what vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin D deficiency (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 441

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817
Q

Toxicity of this vitamin may cause calcification of soft tissue and bone pain.

A

Vitamin D(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 441

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818
Q

Rash around the eyes, mouth,and nose, anorexia, diarrhea, growth retardaation, depressed wound healing and impaired nigh vision are associated with ____ deficiency

A

Zinc(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 443

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819
Q

Muscle weakness, neurologic defects and abnormal collagen cross-linking are associated with ___ deficiency.

A

Copper(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 443

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820
Q

Disease characterized by bone disease in growing children and by hemorrhages and healing defects in both children and adults.

A

Scurvy(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 443

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821
Q

Syndrome composed of respiratory abnromalities in very obese persons.

A

Hypoventilation syndrome/pickwickian syndrome (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 448

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822
Q

Hormone synthesized by fat cells which regulates food intake an energy expenditure. Its binding to its receptors in the hypothalamus increases energy consumption by stimulating POMC/CART neurons.

A

Leptin(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 448

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823
Q

Aflatoxin is implicated in what type of cancer?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 449

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824
Q

True or False. High animal intake and low fiber has been imlicated in colon cancer.

A

True (TOPNOTCH)

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825
Q

Lead has a more damaging effect on the brains of children than in adults because of (A) a more permeable blood-brain barrier (B) immature lenticular nuclei (C) less microglia and astrocytes(D) greater proportion of fetal hemoglobin in the blood

A

a more permeable blood-brain barrier (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 283

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826
Q

Chronic exposure to arsenic is associated with the development of the following malignancies EXCEPT (A) squamous cell carcinoma of the skin (B) mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the salivary glands (C) lung carcinoma (D) basal cell carcinoma

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the salivary glands (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 285

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827
Q

Exposure to vinyl chloride has been found to cause (A) multiple uterine leiomyomas (B) hepatic angiosarcoma (C) squamous cell carcinoma of the skin (D) transitional carcinoma of the bladder

A

hepatic angiosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 287

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828
Q

Tobacco smoke, when combined with this, is known to have a multiplicative effect on the risk of developing laryngeal cancer (A) alcohol (B) diet rich in animal fat (C) dietary nitrates (D) oral sex

A

alcohol (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 289

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829
Q

Progestin is added to estrogen in hormone replacement therapy for menopausal women to reduce the risk of (A) breast cancer (B) endometrial cancer (C) thromboembolism (D) all of the above

A

endometrial cancer (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 293

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830
Q

During a routine ultrasound, a 38 year old G1P0 was found to have a solitary, 4 cm diameter, hepatic mass in the right lobe, beneath the capsule. She has a history of regular oral contraceptive use since 18 years old, and stopped 1 year ago. She has never been infected by HBV or HCV. She does not drink alcohol. If the mass is excised, it would most likely show (A) benign-looking hepatocytes in cords and sheets, absent portal tracts, and prominent blood vessels (B) proliferation of endothelial cells some containing lumens with RBCs (C) portal tracts with chronic inflammation and bile duct proliferation (D) pleomorphic cells, bizarre giant cells, atypical mitoses, and necrosis

A

benign-looking hepatocytes in cords and sheets, absent portal tracts, and prominent vessels (hepatic adenoma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294, p664)

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831
Q

Liver damage in acetaminophen overdose is characterized histologically by (A) brisk neutrophilic infiltration of portal tracts (B) hepatocytes with extensively vacuolated cytoplasm (C) centrilobular necrosis (D) bile duct proliferation

A

centrilobular necrosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294

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832
Q

A 65 year old man has been regularly taking aspirin and acetaminophen for 20 years. This predisposes him to developing (A) chronic interstitial nephritis (B) renal papillary necrosis (C) transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 294, 564

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833
Q

An 4 year old orphan boy with a scar on his forehead was found locked in a small room under the stairs by his abusive uncle and aunt. He has been kept there and fed crackers and milk since he was 1 year old. He has a squared appearance of the head, a pigeon breast deformity, lumbar lordosis, and bowing of the legs. These physical findings are due to deficiency of (A) calcium (B) vitamin A (C) vitamin C (D) vitamin D

A

vitamin D (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 309-312

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834
Q

In these arteries, elastic fibers alternate in layers with smooth muscle cells. Examples are the common carotid artery, iliac arteries and pulmonary arteries.

A

Large or elastic arteries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 340

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835
Q

In these arteries, tunica media is composed primarily of smooth muscle cells, with elastin limited to the internal and external elastic lamina. Examples are the coronaries and renal arteries.

A

Medium-sized or muscular arteries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 340

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836
Q

These are the principal control points for regulation of physiologic resistance to blood flow.

A

Arterioles(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 340

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837
Q

These vessels are approximately the diameter of an RBC, have an endothelial cell lining but no media.

A

Capillaries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

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838
Q

Diameter of an RBC.

A

7-8 um(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

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839
Q

These are thin-walled, endothelium lined channels that drain excess interstitial tissue fluid, returning it to blood via the thoracic duct.

A

Lymphatics(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

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840
Q

These are small spherical dilatations, typically in the circle of Willis.

A

Developmental/berry aneurysms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

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841
Q

These are abnormal, typically small, direct connections between arteries and veins that bypass the intervening capillaries.

A

Arteriovenous fistulas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

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842
Q

Focal, irregular thickening of the walls of medium and large muscular arteries. Segments of the vessel wall are focally thickened by combination of irregular medial and intimal hyperplasia and fibrosis, causing luminal stenosis.

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 341

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843
Q

Literally means hardening of the arteries, term reflecting arterial wall thickening and loss of elasticity, affecting small arteries and arterioles.

A

Arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 343

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844
Q

Characterized by calcific deposits in muscular arteries, typical in persons older than 50 yrs old. The radiographically visible, palpable calcifications do not encroach on the vessel lumen, and are not clinically significant.

A

Mockenberg medial calcific sclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 343

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845
Q

Characterized by intimal lesions called atheromas that protrude into vascular lumina.

A

Atherosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 343

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846
Q

Three principal components of an atheromatous plaque.

A
  1. Cells (SM cells, macrophages, T cells)2. Extracellular matrix (collagen, elastic fibers, proteoglycans)3. Intracellular and extracellular lipidFibrous cap, central lipid core, neovascularization(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 344
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847
Q

Non-modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis. (4)

A

Increasing ageMale genderFamily historyGenetic abnormalities(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 344

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848
Q

Composed of lipid-filled foam cells but are not significantly raised and thus do not cause any disturbance in blood flow. Can appear as early as 1 year, and present in virtually all children older than 10 years old.

A

Fatty streaks(TOPNOTCH)

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849
Q

Composed of lipid-filled foam cells but are not significantly raised and thus do not cause any disturbance in blood flow. Can appear as early as 1 year, and present in virtually all children older than 10 years old.

A

Fatty streaks(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 349

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850
Q

Arrange in descending order, based on which blood vessel is most extensively involved in development of atherosclerosis.Popliteal arteries, internal carotid arteries, circle of Willis, coronaries, abdominal aorta

A

Abdominal aorta > coronaries > popliteal arteries > internal carotid arteries > circle of Willis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 350

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851
Q

Fate of an atheromatous plaque wherein the luminal surface exposes the bloodstream to highly thrombogenic substances and induces thrombus formation.

A

Rupture, ulceration or erosion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

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852
Q

Fate of an atheromatous plaque due to rupture of the overlying fibrous cap or the thin-walled vessels in the areas of neovascularization.

A

Hemorrhage(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

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853
Q

Fate of an atheromatous plaque causing discharge of debris into the bloodstream, producing microemboli composed of plaque contents.

A

Atheroembolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

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854
Q

Fate of an atherosclerotic plaque due to increased pressure or ischemic atrophy of the underlying media, with loss of elastic tissue, leading to weakness of the vessel wall.

A

Aneurysm formation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 351

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855
Q

Most common cause of hypertension.

A

Idiopathic (essential hypertension)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 355

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856
Q

This vascular lesion consists of a homogenous pink hyaline thickening of the walls of arterioles with loss of underlying structural detail and with narrowing of the lumen. A major morphologic characteristic in benign nephrosclerosis.

A

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 356

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857
Q

Characteristic of malignant hypertension, associated with “onion-skin” concentric, laminated, thickening of the walls of arterioles with luminal narrowing. These laminations consist of smooth muscle cells and thickened duplicated basement membrane.

A

Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 356

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858
Q

It is a localized abnormal dilation of a blood vessel or heart.

A

Aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)

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859
Q

It is a localized abnormal dilation of a blood vessel or heart.

A

Aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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860
Q

Aneurysm which involves all three layers of the arterial wall, or the attenuated wall of the heart.

A

True aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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861
Q

A breach in the vascular wall leading to an extravascular hematoma that freely communicates with the intravascular space.

A

False aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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862
Q

Arises when blood enters the wall of an artery, as a hematoma dissecting between its layers. Often, but not always aneurysmal in origin.

A

Arterial dissection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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863
Q

Aneurysms which are spherical outpouchings, involving only a portion of the vessel wall, varying in size from 5-20cm in diameter and often contain thrombi.

A

Saccular aneurysms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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864
Q

Aneurysms which involve diffuse, circumferential dilation of a long vascular segment, varies in diameter and length, and can involve extensive portions of the aortic arch, abdominal aorta,and iliacs.

A

Fusiform aneurysms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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865
Q

Two most important causes of aortic aneurysms.

A

AtherosclerosisCystic medial degeneration of the arterial media(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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866
Q

Infection of a major artery that causes weakness to its wall.

A

Mycotic aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 357

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867
Q

This disease can more commonly affects men >50 years old. Lesion usually positioned below the renal arteries and above the aortic bifurcation. Can be saccular or fusiform.

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

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868
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm characterized by dense periaortic fibrosis containing abundant lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate with manybmacrophages and often giant cells.

A

Inflammatory AAA(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

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869
Q

Atherosclerotic lesions infected by lodging of circulating microorganisms in the wall, particularly in the setting of bacteremia from a Salmonella gastroenteritis. Suppuration further destroys the media, potentiating rapid dilation and rupture.

A

Mycotic abdominal aortic aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

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870
Q

Small blood vessels and vasa vasorum show luminal narrowing and obliteration (obliterative endarteritis), scarring of the vessel wall and a dense surrounding rim of lymphocytes and plasma cells that may extend into the media. Characteristic of the tertiary stage of syphilis.

A

Syphilitic aortitis(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 359

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871
Q

Most common point of origin of an aortic dissection.

A

Ascending aorta, 10 cms from the aortic valve(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 360

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872
Q

Most frequent pre-existing histologically detectable lesion in aortic dissection, characterized by elastic tissue fragmentation and separation of the elastic and smooth muscle cell elements of the media by cystic spaces filled with amorphous proteoglycan-rich extracellular matrix.

A

Cystic medial degeneration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 361

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873
Q

Classification of aortic dissection involving either them ascending aorta only or both the ascending and descending aorta.

A

Type A dissections (proximal) Type I DeBakey - ascending aorta only Type II DeBakey - ascending and descending aorta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 361

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874
Q

Classification of aortic dissections involving the descending aorta only, usually distal to the subclavian artery.

A

Type B dissection / type III DeBakey(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 361

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875
Q

Granulomatous inflammation frequently involving the temporal artery, occuring in patients >50 years old, associated with polymyalgia rheumatica.

A

Giant cell (Temporal) arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 363

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876
Q

Granulomatous inflammation usually occuring in patients younger than 50 years old. Classically involves the aortic arch, with intimal hyperplasia and irregular thickening of the vessel wall. Origin of great vessels are obliterated causing weakness of peripheral pulses.

A

Takayasu arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 364

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877
Q

Used to distinguish between giant cell arteritis and takayasu arteritis of the aorta.

A

Age of patient40 Giant cell arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 364

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878
Q

In this disease, affected blood vessels develop nodular intimal thickening, granulomatous inflammation within the inner media centered on the internal elastic membrane, and fragmentation of the internal elastic lamina. Typically involves temporal and ophthalmic arteries.

A

Giant - cell/Temporal arteritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 364

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879
Q

A systemic vasculitis causing transmural necrotizing inflammation of small to medium sized vessels, with mixed infiltvrate of neutrophils, eosinophils, and mononuclear cells, frequently accompanied by fibrinoid necrosis.Typically involves renal arteries but spares pulmonary vessels.

A

Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 365

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880
Q

Arteritis associated with mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, which usually occurs in children. Coronary arteries can be involved with aneurysm formation or thrombosis. Fibrinoid necrosis usually less prominent.

A

Kawasaki disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 366

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881
Q

Granulomatous inflammation involving the respiratory tract and necrotizing vasculitis affecting small vessels, including cresencteric glomerulonephritis. Associated with c-ANCA.

A

Wegener granulomatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 367

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882
Q

A necrotizing vasculitis that generally affects capillaries, arterioles and venules, with few or no immune deposits. Necrotizing glomerulonephritis and pulmonary capillaritis are common. Associated with p-ANCA.

A

Microscopic polyangiitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 368

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883
Q

Eosinophil-rich and granulomatous inflammation involving the respiratory tract and necrotizing vasculitis affecting small vessels. Associated with asthma and blood eosinophilia. Associated with p-ANCA.

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 368

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884
Q

Characterized by sharply segmental avute and chronic vasculitis of medium sized and small arteries, predominantly of the extremities. There is acute and chronic inflammation accompanied by luminal thrombosis, containing microabscess composed of neutrophils surrounded by granulomatous inflammation. Stromg relationship with cigarette smoking.

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 368

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885
Q

Results from an exaggerated vasoconstriction of digital arteries and arterioles, inducing paroxysmal pallor or cyanosis of the digits of the hands and feet.

A

Raynaud phenomenon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 369

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886
Q

Reflects an exaggeration of central and local vasomotor responses to cold or emotion. Structural changes in the arterial walls are absent except late in course when intimal thickening can appear.

A

Primary Raynaud phenomenon (Raynaud disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 369

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887
Q

Reflects vascular insufficiency of the extremities in the context of arterial disease caused by other entities including SLE, Buerger disease, or atherosclerosis.

A

Secondary Raynaud phenomenon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

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888
Q

Abnormally dilated, tortous veins produced by prolonged increase in intraluminal pressure and loss of vessel wall support. Veins show wall thinning at the points of maximal dilation with smooth muscle hypertrophy and intimal fibrosis. Focal thrombosis and venous valve deformities are common.

A

Varicose veins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

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889
Q

Most common blood vessels involved in development of varicose veins.

A

Superficial veins of the upper and lower leg(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

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890
Q

Three sites of varices produced in the presence of portal hypertension.

A

GEJ (Esophageal varices)Rectum (Hemorrhoids)Periumbillical veins (Caput medusae)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 370

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891
Q

Common and serious complication of of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

A

Pulmonary embolism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 371

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892
Q

The acute inflammation elicited when bacterial infections spread into and through the lymphatics.

A

Lymphangitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 371

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893
Q

These are bright red to blue lesions, that vary from a few millimeters tomseveral centimeters in diameter. Unencapsulated aggregates of closely packed, thin-walled capillaries, usually blood-filled and lined by flattened endothelium. Vessels are separated by scant connective tissue stroma.

A

Capillary hemangiomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 372

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894
Q

Appears as red-blue, soft, spongy masses 1-2 cm in diameter, which can affect large subcutaneous areas of the face, extremities, and othe body regions. Mass is sharply defined but not encapsulated, composed of large, cavernous, blood-filled spaces.

A

Cavernous hemangioma(TOPNOTCHRobbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 372

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895
Q

This form of capillar hemangioma is a rapidly growing peduncular red nodule on the skin, gingival, or oral mucosa, bleeds easily and is often ulcerated.

A

Pyogenic granuloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 373

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896
Q

These are round, slightly elevated, red-blue firm nodules, less than 1 cm diameter that can resemble a minute focus of hemorrhage UNDER THE NAIL. Histologically, these are aggregates, nests, and masses of tumor cells intimately associated with branching vascular channels.

A

Glomus tumor (Glomangioma)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 373

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897
Q

A specialized arteriovenous structure involved in thermoregulation.

A

Glomus body(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 373

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898
Q

This lesion is the ordinary “birthmark” and is the most common form of ectasia. Characteristically a flat lesion on the head or neck, ranging in color from light pink to deep purple.

A

Nevus flammeus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 374

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899
Q

This non-neoplastic vascular lesion grossly resembles a spider. There is radial, often pulsatile array of dilated subcutaneous arteries or arterioles about a central core, that blanches when pressure is applied to its center.

A

Spider telangiectasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 374

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900
Q

An opportunistic infection in immunocompromised persons that manifest as vascular proliferations involving skin, bone, brain and other organs. Characterized grossly by red papules and nodules, or rounded subcutaneous masses. Histologically, there is capillary proliferation with prominent epitheloid EC’s showing nuclear atypia and mitoses. Lesions contain stromal neutrophils, nuclear dust nd purplish granular material.

A

Bacillary angiomatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 374

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901
Q

Common in patients with AIDS, caused by HHV 8, causing skin lesions ranging from patches, plaques to nodules.

A

Kaposi sarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 375

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902
Q

These are malignant endothelial neoplasms, with varying histology from plump, anaplastic but recognizable endothelial cells producing vascular channels to widely undifferentiated tumors having solid, spindle cell appearance and producing nondefinite blood vessels.

A

Angiosarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 376

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903
Q

Form of hypertension characterized by systolic pressure more than 200 mmHg or diastolic pressure more than 120 mmHg, renal failure, and retinal hemorrhages and exudates.

A

Malignant Hypertension (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 488

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904
Q

The most important independent risk factor for atherosclerosis.

A

Family history(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 492.

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905
Q

The initial event in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis

A

Endothelial injury and dysfunction. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 494

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906
Q

The major lipoprotein involved in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.

A

LDL(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 494

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907
Q

2 most important causes of endothelial dysfunction

A

Hemodynamic disturbances and hypercholesterolemia. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 494

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908
Q

The key processes in atherosclerosis

A

Intimal thickening and lipid accumulation (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 496

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909
Q

The major structural component of fibrous cap in an atheromatous plaque

A

Collagen(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 500

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910
Q

Medial ischemia leading to degenerative changes of aorta, leading to scarring, loss of elastic fibers, inadequate extracellular matrix synthesis, and production of amorphous ground substance. This can be seen in Marfan syndrome and scurvy.

A

Cystic medial degeneration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 502

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911
Q

Most common etiology associated with ascending aortic aneurysm

A

Hypertension (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 502

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912
Q

A 70 y/o male, hypertensive, present with sudden severe abdominal pain. On physical examination, there is a presence of pulsatile abdominal mass. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)

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913
Q

The most frequent preexisting histologically detectable lesion in aortic dissection

A

Cystic medial degeneration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 504

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914
Q

Presents with sudden onset of excruciating pain, usually beginning in the anterior chest, radiating to the back between the scapulae, and moving downward.

A

Aortic dissection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 505

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915
Q

Most common cause of death in aortic dissection.

A

Rupture of the dissection into the pericardial, pleural or peririthoneal cavities.(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basica Pathology, 9th ed., p. 505

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916
Q

A 38 y/o male presents with severe headache and diplopia associated with fever and fatigue. Area along the course of the superficial temporal artery was painful to palpation. Biopsy done revealed intimal thickening of the artery, granulomatous inflmmation of the internal elastic lamina with infiltrate of T cells and macrophages. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Giant cell arteritis (TOPNOTCH)

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917
Q

Patient initially present with fatigue, weight loss and fever and then reduced blood pressure and weak pulses in the carotids and upper extremities, ocular disturbances and neurologic deficits. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Takayasu arteritis(TOPNOTCH)

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918
Q

Most common involved blood vessel in Takayasu arteritis.

A

Aortic arch (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 509

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919
Q

This disease presents with rapidly accelerating hypertension, abdominal pain, bloody stool, myalgia and peripheral neuritis. The most likely diagnosi:

A

Polyarteritis nodosa(TOPNOTCH)

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920
Q

A 4 y/o female presented with fever and maculopapular rash on her trunk and extremities. This is associated with conjunctival erythema, edema of the hands and feet, and cervical lymph node enlargement. The patient is at risk for what type of blood vessel involvement?

A

Coronary artery aneurysm which may lead to acute MI. (Case of Kawasaki Disease) (TOPNOTCH)

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921
Q

Patient presents with asthma, allergic rhinitis, palpable purpura, GI bleeding, renal disease, and cardiomyopathy. Histologic findings showed vascular granulomata and hypereosinophilia. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome(TOPNOTCH)

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922
Q

It presents as a clinical triad of recurrent oral apthous ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis.

A

Behcet Disease(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 511

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923
Q

This disease presents with persistent pneumonitis with bilateral nodular infiltrates, chronic sinusitis, mucosal ulceration of the nasopharynx, and renal disease. Histologic findings of upper respiratory tract lesion showed mucosal granuloma with geographic patterns of central necrosis and vasculitis. The most likely diagnosis:

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis/Wegener granulomatosis(TOPNOTCH)

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924
Q

A 30 y/o male, smoker, presents with severe leg pain aggravated by exercise and relieved on rest. It further progressed to extremity ulcerations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)(TOPNOTCH)

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925
Q

Most imprortant risk factor for DVT

A

Prolonged immobiliztion resulting in venous stasis. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 514

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926
Q

A 50 y/o male, diagnosed with lung cancer, presented with edema and cyanosis of the head , neck, and arms with cyanosis. This is a case of:

A

Superior vena cava syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

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927
Q

The most common etiologic agent in lymphangitis.

A

Group A beta hemolyitc streptococcus. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. p. 515

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928
Q

An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in genes that encode components of TGF-B signaling pathway. Presents with telengiectasia that are widely distributed over the skin and mucus membranes.

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telengiectasia/Osler-Weber-Rendu disease (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 516

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929
Q

Most common type of hemangioma

A

Capillary hemangioma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. p. 516

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930
Q

Painful tumors arising from modified smooth muscle cells of arteriovenous structure, most commonly found in the distal portion of the digits.

A

Glomus tumor (Glomangioma)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 517

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931
Q

A 13 year old male dies of a stray bullet to the head on New Year’s Eve. At autopsy, there is a flat yellowish streak seen on the intimal surface of his abdominal aorta, near the bifurcation of the renal arteries. This streak (A) causes minor disturbance in blood flow (B)is expected in his age group (C) is composed of hemosiderin-filled foam cells (D) would have certainly evolved into an atheromatous plaque if he lived to old age

A

expected in his age group (“fatty streak” (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp 348-349)

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932
Q

Early atherosclerotic lesions are usually focal, patchy, and eccentric because (A) there are differences in the vascular hemodynamics at various points (B) the expression of LDL receptors along the blood vessels is varied (C) concentrations of macrophage-activating cytokines are different along blood vessels (D) certain endothelial cells are more sensitive to toxins and hyperglycemia than others

A

there are differences in vascular hemodynamics at various points (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 349

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933
Q

A 65 year old diabetic female with poor glycemic control and a 5 year history of intermittent chest pain develops pallor, shortness of breath and diaphoresis. She dies 16 hours later. At autopsy, the left ventricular wall is thickened, with dark mottling of the anterior portion, along with the septum and apex. Which of the following describes the likely histology of her left anterior descending artery? (A) an eccentric atheromatous plaque with a fibrous cap (B) a ruptured fibrous cap with calcifications in the lumen of the vessel (C) a ruptured fibrous cap with thrombus formation (D) complete occlusion of the original lumen by fibrous tissue, with neovascularization in the periphery

A

a ruptured fibrous cap with thrombus formation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.351

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934
Q

What is the most common cause of aneurysms?

A

atherosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

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935
Q

What is the most common site of atherosclerotic aneurysms?

A

abdominal aorta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 358

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936
Q

A 75 year old male with heart failure symptoms of 10 years dies. At autopsy, his aortic trunk is dilated, with fibrous scars and wrinkling of the intima. The aortic valve is also dilated, and the left ventricle is markedly enlarged. Microscopic examination of the aorta shows narrowed or obliterated vasa vasorum to be narrowed, with a dense rim of lymphocytes and plasma cells, some extending into the media. Which of the following can suggest the etiology of the patient’s findings? (A) family history of diabetes (B) chronic alcohol intake (C) history of sexually transmitted infection (D) occupational exposure to benzene

A

history of sexually transmitted infection (tertiary/cardiovascular syphilis) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.359, 703

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937
Q

A 30 year old female with 3 year history of fever, weight loss and fatigue presents with right eye blindness. PE showed weak pulses in the upper extremities. Which of the following suggests that she has Takayasu arteritis, rather than temporal arteritis? (A) age (B) constitutional symptoms (C) giant cells in the large blood vessels (D) giant cells in the medium blood vessels

A

age (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 364-365

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938
Q

Classic polyarteritis nodosa affects small to medium sized vessels most commonly in which organ? (A) kidneys (B) heart (C) liver (D) GI tract

A

kidneys (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 365

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939
Q

A 2 year old boy presents with erythema of the conjunctiva, oral mucosa, palms and soles, with focal erosions. Palpation shows enlarged cervical lymph nodes. He suddenly dies a few hours after ER admission. Autopsy showed marked mononuclear infiltration of his left anterior descending artery, with fibrinoid necrosis and lumen occlusion. What could have prevented this fatal sequela? (A) low dose corticosteroids (B) Hepatitis B vaccine (C) Beta-lactam and aminoglycoside combination (D) intravenous immunoglobulin

A

intravenous immunoglobulin (Kawasaki disease) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.366

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940
Q

A 42 year old man with 2 weeks of epistaxis undergoes an intranasal biopsy, which showed chronic granulomatous inflammation with giant cells. Xray showed cavitary lung lesions. He is treated with anti-Koch’s for 6 months, but the epistaxis recurred. He also developed hematuria. Which of the following can help support a diagnosis of Wegener’s granulomatosis, rather than TB? (A) positive P-ANCA (B) positive C-ANCA (C) urinalysis with RBC morphology (D) biopsy of the lung lesion

A

positive C-ANCA (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 367-368

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941
Q

A 27 year old Israeli expat presents with intermittent pain and pallor of the right index and middle fingers, precipitated by smoking and cold temperature. He reports symptomatic relief whenever he stops smoking. What is expected in the arteries of the involved fingers? (A) thrombus with neutrophil aggregates and necrosis (B) histiocytes and giant cells (C) ruptured fibrous cap and underlying foamy cells (D) eosinophils and lymphocytes in the media and intima

A

thrombus with neutrophil aggregates and necrosis (Buerger disease) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.368

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942
Q

A 21 year old G1P0, 24 weeks AOG, has a reddish 1.0 cm diameter nodule on her left lower gum. She reports that the nodule appeared at 1 month of pregnancy. A biopsy showed shows capillaries with an acute and chronic inflammatory infiltrate and stromal edema. There is no pleomorphism, necrosis, or atypical mitosis. This nodule (A) can be found in 20% of pregnant women (B) is malignant (C) may spontaneously regress or fibrose after pregnancy (D) is metastatic from an ovarian primary

A

may spontaneously regress or fibrose after pregnancy (granuloma gravidarum/pregnancy tumor/pyogenic granuloma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.373

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943
Q

A 3 year old female with a large “port wine stain” on the right side of her face has occasional seizures. Further examination showed mental developmental delay. She may also have (A) more extensive vascular malformations (B) multiple colonic polyps (C) color blindness (D) alpha thalassemia

A

more extensive vascular malformations (Sturge-Weber syndrome) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.374

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944
Q

A 38 year old HIV-positive man has multiple reddish-purple plaques and nodules on his arms and legs. He has never been on antiretroviral therapy. Biopsy of one of the nodules showed sheets of plump spindle cells encompassing small vessels and slit-like spaces, with focal hemorrhage, hemosiderin deposits, lymphocytes, and macrophages. Mitotic figures are common. This neoplasm has been shown to be infected with (A) HPV 16 (B) HHV 8 (C) Hepatitic C (D) HPV 18

A

HHV8 (Kaposi Sarcoma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 375

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945
Q

The morphologic and clinical effects of this condition primarily result from progressive damming of blood within the pulmonary circulation. The left ventricle is hypertrophied and dilated, with secondary left atrial dilation. The lungs are heavy and boggy, with perivascular and interstitial transudate, alveolar septal edema, and intra-aleolar edema. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages are present.

A

Left sided heart failure(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

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946
Q

Hemosiderin laden macrophages are also called _______

A

Heart failure cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

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947
Q

This is usually the earliest and most significant compaint of patients in Left sided HF.

A

Dyspnea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

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948
Q

Most common cause of right sided HF.

A

Left sided HF(TOPNOTCH)

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949
Q

This is a particularly dramatic form of breathlessness, awakening patients from sleeo with attacks of extreme dyspnea bordering on suffocation.

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

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950
Q

Isolated right sided HF occuring in patients with intrinsic lung disease that result in chronic pulmonary hypertension.

A

Cor Pulmonale(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

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951
Q

Long standing severe right-sided HF leads to fibrosis of centrilobular areas, creating this condition.

A

Cardiac cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)

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952
Q

The liver is increased in size and weight, a cut section reveals congested red centers of liver lobules surrounded bybpaler, sometimes fatty peripheral regions.

A

Nutmeg liver (CPC of the liver)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

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953
Q

Right-sided HF produces a tense, enlarged spleen, achieving weights of 300-500 grams. Sinusoidal dilation present.

A

Congestive splenomegaly(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 381

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954
Q

This is a hallmark of right sided HF.

A

Pedal and pretibial edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 382

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955
Q

Most congenital heart disease arise from faulty embryogenesis during what AOG?

A

3 - 8 weeks AOG(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 382

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956
Q

An abnormal communication between chambers of the heart or blood vessels.

A

Shunt(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 383

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957
Q

These a typically smooth-walled defects near the foramen ovale, usually without associated cardiac abnormalities. Accompanied by right atrial and ventricular dilation, right ventricular hypertrophy and dilation of the pulmonary artery.

A

Ostium secundum ASD(TOPNOTCH)

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958
Q

Reversal of blood flow through a prolonged (left-to-right shunt) due to pulmonary hypertension, yielding right-sided pressures that exceed those on the left side. This causes unoxygenated blood to go into circulation, causing cyanosis.

A

Eisenmenger syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 383

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959
Q

These occur at the lowest part of the atrial septum and can extend to the mitral and tricuspid valves. Abnormalities of the AV Valves are usually present, forming a cleft in the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve or septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve.

A

Ostium primum ASD(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 384

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960
Q

Incomplete closure of the ventricular septum leading to left-to-right shunting. The right ventricle is hypertrophied and often dilated. Diameter of pulmonary artery is increased because of the increased volume by the right ventricle.

A

Ventricular Septal Defect(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

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961
Q

This arises from the left pulmonary artery and joins the aorta just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery.

A

Ductus arteriosus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

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962
Q

In this condition, some of the oxygenated blood flowing from the left ventricle is shunted back to the lungs. Proximal pumonary arteries, left atrium and ventricle may become dilated.

A

Patent ductus arteriosus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

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963
Q

The most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease. Heart is large and “boot shaped” as a result of right ventricular hypertrophy.

A

Tetralogy of Fallot(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 385

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964
Q

Components of Tetralogy of Fallot.

A

Pulmonary valve stenosisOverriding of aortaRight ventricular hypertrophyVentricular septal defect(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 386

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965
Q

It is a discordant connection of the ventricles to their vascular outflow. The defect is an abnormal formation of the truncal and aortopulmonary septa. Right ventricular hypertrophy becomes prominent, while the left ventricle becomes somewhat atrophic.

A

Transposition of the Great Arteries(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 386

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966
Q

Predominant manifestation of TGA?

A

Early cyanosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 387

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967
Q

Characterized by tubular narrowing of the aortic segment between the left subclavian artery and the ductus arteriosus. DA is usually patent and is the main source of blood to the distal aorta. RV is hypertrophied and dilated, pulmonary trunk is also dilated.

A

Preductal “infantile” coarctation of the aorta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 387

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968
Q

Aorta is sharply constricted by a ridge of tissue at or just distal to the ligamentum arteriosum. Constricted segment is made of smooth muscle and elastic fibers that are continuous with the aortic media, and lined by thickened intima. Ductus arteriosus is closed. Proximally, the aortic arch and its vessels are dilated, LV is hypertrophic.

A

Postductal “adult” coarctation of the aorta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 387

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969
Q

There is upper extremity hypertension, due to poor perfusion of the kidneys, but weak pulses and low blood pressure in the lower extremities. Claudication and coldness of the lower extremities also present. Enlarged intercostal and internal mammary arteries due to collateral circulation, seen as rib “notching” on xray.

A

Postductal coarctation of the aorta (without a PDA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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970
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?Atrial septal defect

A

Left-to-right(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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971
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?TOF

A

Right-to-Left(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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972
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?VSD

A

Left-to-right(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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973
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?Eisenmenger syndrome

A

Right-to-Left (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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974
Q

Left-to-right or Right-to-Left shunt?Transposition of great arteries

A

Right-to-Left(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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975
Q

A condition wherein ischemia causes pain but is insufficient to lead to death of myocardium.

A

Angina pectoris(TOPNOTCH)

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976
Q

A condition wherein ischemia causes pain but is insufficient to lead to death of myocardium.

A

Angina pectoris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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977
Q

A condition wherein the severity or duration of ischemia is enough to cause cardiac muscle death.

A

Acute Myocardial Infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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978
Q

This refers to progressive cardiac decompensation (heart failure) following myocardial infarction.

A

Chronic Ischemic Heart Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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979
Q

This can result from a lethal arrythmia following myocardial ischemia.

A

Sudden Cardiac Death(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 388

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980
Q

How many percent should the lumen of a blood vessel be obstructed for it to be symptomatic, in the setting of increased demand?

A

70-75% (critical stenosis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 389

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981
Q

How many percent should the lumen of a blood vessel be obstructed for it to be symptomatic at rest?

A

90%(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 389

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982
Q

Episodic chest pain associated with exertion or some other form of increased myocardial oxygen demand. Pain described as crushing or squeezing substernal sensation which can radiate to left arm. Relieved by rest or vasodilators.

A

Stable angina(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 390

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983
Q

Increasing frequency of pain, precipitated by progressively less exertion, episodes tend to be more intense and longer lasting.

A

Unstable angina(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 390

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984
Q

Angina occuring at rest due to coronary artery spasm.

A

Variant or Prinzmetal angina(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 390

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985
Q

Infarct involving >= 50% of the myocardial wall thickness.

A

Transmural infarcts(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 391

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986
Q

Most common blood vessel involved in myocardial infarction?

A

Left anterior descending artery (40-50%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 392

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987
Q

Electron microscope findings 30 minutes after an ischemic event.

A

Microfibril relaxation, glycogen loss and mitochondrial swelling(TOPNOTCH)

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988
Q

An infarct can be readily identified by a reddish blue discoloration after how many hours after MI?

A

12-24 hours(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 393

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989
Q

Coagulation necrosis ensues how many hours after MI?

A

4-12 hrs after an irreversible injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 394

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990
Q

Injury to infarcts mediated in part by oxygen free radicals generated by increased number of infiltrating leukocytes facilitated by reperfusion.

A

Reperfusion injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 394

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991
Q

Cardiac enzymes that become detectable 2-4 hours post-infarct peaks at 48 hours and remains elevated for 7-10 days.

A

Troponin I and Troponin T(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 395

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992
Q

This cardiac enzyme is detectable in the blood within 2-4 hrs of MI, peaks at 24-48 hrs and returns to normal within approximately 72 hrs.

A

CKMB(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 395

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993
Q

Myocardial rupture may occur how many days after MI?

A

3-7 days after infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 397

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994
Q

This occurs within 2-3 days of a transmural infarct and typically resolves within time. It is the epicardial manifestation of the underlying myocardial inflammation.

A

Pericarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 397

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995
Q

A late complication of MI, most commonly results from a large transmural anteroseptal infarct that heals with formation of a thin scar tissue.

A

Ventricular aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 397

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996
Q

This type of hypertrophy develops in pressure-overloaded ventricles, with an increase in wall thickness, and reduced cavity diameter.

A

Concentric hypertrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 399

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997
Q

Type of hypertrophybthat develops in patients with volume overload such as aortic valve insufficiency. Characterized by hypertrophy associated with ventricular dilation.

A

Eccentric hypertrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 399

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998
Q

In this disease the left ventricle may exceed 2.0cm in thickness and the heart may weigh >500 grams. Microscopically, myocyte diameter increases, associated with irregular nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia (“box-car nuclei”), and increased interstitial fibrosis.

A

Sytemic Hypertensive heart disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 399

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999
Q

It is the failure of a valve to open completely, obstructing forward flow.

A

Stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 401

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1000
Q

This results from failure of a valve to close completely, thereby allowing reversed flow.

A

Insufficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 401

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1001
Q

The hallmark of this disease is heaped-up calcified masses on the outflow side of the cusps, which protrude intonthe sinuses of Valsalva and mechanically impede valve opening. Cusps may become secondarily fibrosed and thickened.

A

Calcific aortic stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 401

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1002
Q

This is characterized by ballooning or hooding of the mitral leaflets. Affected leaflets are enlarged, redundant, thick and rubbery. The tendinous cords are elongated, thinned and occasionally ruptured. Histologically, there is thinning of the fibrosa layer of the valve, accompanied by expansion of the middle spongiosa layer with increased deposition of mucoid material.

A

Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 402

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1003
Q

Patients with this disease may complain of palpitations, dyspnea or atypical chest pain. Auscultation shows a midsystolic click associated with a regurgitant murmur.

A

Mitral valve prolapse(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 402

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1004
Q

Pathognomonic sign for rheumatic fever,consisting of of a cental zone of degenerating, hypereosinophilic ECM infiltrated by lymphocytes, ocassional plasma cells and plump, activated macrophages.

A

Aschoff bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 402

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1005
Q

These cells have abundant cytoplasm and central nuclei with chromatin arrayed in a slender, wavy ribbon (caterpillar cells) which can be found in all three layers of the heart in rheumatic fever. A component of Aschoff bodies.

A

Anitschkow cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 403

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1006
Q

Characterized by organization and subsequent scarring, as a sequelae of rheumatic fever. The mitral (or tricuspid) valve is involved, with leaflet thickening, commisural fission and shortening, thickening and fusiong of the chordae tendinae. Fibrous bridging across valvular commisures create “fishmouth” or “ buttonhole” deformity.

A

Chronic Rheumatic Heart Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 403

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1007
Q

Most common valve involved in RHD.

A

Mitral valve (upto 70% of cases with RHD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 405

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1008
Q

Major components Jones Criteria for RF.

A

CarditisMigratory polyarthritisSubcutaneous nodulesErythema marginatumSyndenham chorea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

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1009
Q

Minor components Jones criteria for RF

A

FeverArthralgiaElevated acute phase reactants (e.g. CRP)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

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1010
Q

How many major and/or minor manifestations are needed to diagnose RF?

A

Remember: 20122 major 0 minor or1 major 2 minor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

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1011
Q

Endocarditis of previously normal valves, the most common causative agent is S. aureus.

A

Acute bacterial endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)

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1012
Q

Serious infection characterized by microbial invasion of heart valves or mural endocardium, often with destruction of the underlying cardiac tissues. The heart valves are friable, bulky and potentially destructive.

A

Infective endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

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1013
Q

Endocarditis affecting previously damaged or abnormal valves, commonly caused by viridans Streptococci.

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 406

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1014
Q

Most consistent sign of infective endocarditis.

A

Fever(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 407

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1015
Q

Characterized by deposition of sterile, non-inflammatory, nondestructive and small (1mm) masses of fibrin, platelets and other blood components on cardiac valves, along the line of closure of leaflets or cusps.

A

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 407

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1016
Q

Sterile vegetations thatvcan develop on the valves of patients with SLE. These are small, granular, pinkish vegetations 1-4mm in diameter and can be located on the undersurface of AV valves, on the cords or endocardium.

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 408

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1017
Q

The lesions of this disease are distinctive, glistening white intimal plaquelike thickenings on the endocardial surfaces of the cardiac chambers and valve leaflets seen in patients with carcinoid tumors. The lesions are composed of muscle cells and sparse collagen fibers embedded in an acid mucopolysaccharide-rich matrix.

A

Carcinoid heart disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 408

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1018
Q

Cardiomyopathy which is characterized by progressive cardiac dilation and contractile dysfunction. The heart is characteristically enlarged and flabby, with dilation of all chambers,the ventricular thickness may be less than, equal to or greater than normal.

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 411

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1019
Q

Alcohol intake and infection with coxsackie B virus are some of the causes of this cardiomyopathy.

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 411

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1020
Q

Characterized by myocardial hypertrophy, abnormal diastolic filling and ventricular outflow obstruction. The heart is thick-walled, heavy and hypercontracting. There is an assymetrical septal hypertrophy described as “banana-like”. Histologically, there is severe myocyte hypertrophy and disarray with interstitial fibrosis.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 412

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1021
Q

Mechanism of heart failure in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

A

Diastolic dysfunction (impaired compliance)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 412

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1022
Q

A common cause of sudden death in young athlethes.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 412

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1023
Q

The ventricles are of approximately normal size or slightly enlarged, the cavities not dilated, and the myocardium is firm. Biatrial dilation is common. Microscopically, there is interstitial fibrosis, varying from minimal to patchy to extensive and diffuse.

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 413

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1024
Q

Mechanism of heart failure in restrictive cardiomyopathy.

A

Diastolic dysfunction or impaired compliance(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 413

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1025
Q

Inflammation of the myocardium.

A

Myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

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1026
Q

Most common type of myocarditis wherein lymphocytes infiltrate the interstitium. This may resolve or heal by progressive fibrosis.

A

Lymphocytic myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

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1027
Q

Myocarditis that has interstitial and perivascular infiltrates composed of lymphocytes, macrophages and a high proportion of eosinophils.

A

Hypersensitivity myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

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1028
Q

Myocarditis characterized by widespread inflammatory infiltrates containing multinucleated giant cells interspresed with lymphocytes, eosinophils and plasma cells. Poor prognosis.

A

Giant-cell myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

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1029
Q

Myocarditis distinctive by virtue of parasitization of scattered myofibers by trypanosomes accompanied by an inflammatory infiltrate of neutrophils, lymphocytes, macrophages and occasional eosinophils.

A

Chagas myocarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

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1030
Q

Viruses which account for most cases of myocarditis.

A

Coxsackie A and B(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 414

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1031
Q

Type of pericarditis found in patients with uremia or viral infection. The exudate imparts an irregular apperance to the pericardial surface (bread and butter pericarditis).

A

Fibrinous pericarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 416

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1032
Q

Bacterial pericarditis manifests with this type of exudate.

A

Fibrinopurulent (suppurative)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 416

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1033
Q

Heart is completely encased by dense fibrosis that it cannot expand normally during diastole.

A

Constrictive pericarditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 416

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1034
Q

Normal amount of pericardial fluid in pericardial sac.

A

30 - 50 mL of thin, straw-colored fluid(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

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1035
Q

Serous pericardial effusion can be caused by _________

A

CHF, hypoalbuminemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

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1036
Q

Chylous pericardial fluid can be caused by _______

A

Mediastinal lymphatic obstruction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

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1037
Q

Rapidly developing collections of fluid within the pericardial sac can restrict diastolic cardiac filling producing this fatal sequelae.

A

Cardiac tamponade(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

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1038
Q

The most common tumor of the heart.

A

Metastatic tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

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1039
Q

Most common primary tumor of the adult heart.

A

Myxoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 417

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1040
Q

Major clinical manifestations of this cardiac tumor are due to valvular “ball-valve” obstruction, embolization or a syndrome of constitutional symptoms.

A

Myxoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 418

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1041
Q

The most frequent primary tumor of the heart in infants and children. These are generally small gray-white myocardial masses composed of a mixed population of cells, the most characteristic of which are large, rounded or polygonal cells containing numerous glycogen-laden vacuoles separated by strands of cytoplasm, so-called spider cells.

A

Rhabdomyomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 418

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1042
Q

Serosanguinous pericardial effusion can be caused by ________

A

Blunt chest trauma, malignancy, ruptured MI, aortic dissection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 418

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1043
Q

The most severe pulmonary changes in congestive heart failure

A

Accumulation of edema fluid in the alveolar spaces (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 529

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1044
Q

Morphologic finding/telltale signs of previous episodes of pulmonary edema

A

Hemosiderin-laden macrophages (Heart failure cells) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 529

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1045
Q

Most common underlying etiology of diastolic failure

A

Hypertension (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 529

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1046
Q

Group of congenital heart disease characterized by increase pulmonary blood flow but are not initially associated with cyanosis

A

Left-to-right shunts (ASD, VSD, PDA) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 533

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1047
Q

Most common genetic cause of congenital heart disease

A

Trisomy 21 (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 533

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1048
Q

A 24 y/o female complained of shortness of breath and orthopnea lasting several days. The patient reported having diagnosed since childhood as having “hole in the heart.” Physical exam revealed holosystolic murmur most audible in the left parasternal area accompanied by thrill. Rales were heared in the bilateral lower lung field. The most likely cause of her condition:

A

VSD (TOPNOTCH)

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1049
Q

Most common cause of myocardial ischemia

A

Obstructive atherosclerotic lesions in the epicardial coronary arteries (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Patholgoy, 9th ed., p. 538

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1050
Q

The cause of sudden cardiac death in myocardial infarction

A

Ventricular arrythmia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 539

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1051
Q

Irreversible cell injury in MI occur in how many minutes?

A

20-40 minutes (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 541

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1052
Q

Irreversible injury of ischemic myocytes in MI occurs first in what zone in the heart?

A

Subendocardial zone (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 541

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1053
Q

What blood vessel supply the posterior third of the ventricular septum in majority of the individuals?

A

Right coronary artery (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 541

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1054
Q

Pattern of infarction caused by occlusion of an epicardial vessel

A

Transmural infarction (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 543

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1055
Q

Pattern of infarction caused by plaque disruption or hypotension, causing circumferential myocardial damage

A

Subendocardial infarction (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 543

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1056
Q

Pattern of infarct also referred to as an “ST elevation myocardial infarct”

A

Transmural infarction (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 543

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1057
Q

Pattern of infarct also referred to as a “non-ST elevation infarct”

A

Subendocardial infarction (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 543

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1058
Q

The typical changes of coagulative necrosis becomes detectable in how many hours of injury?

A

First 6-12 hours(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 545

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1059
Q

Microscopic findings in irreversibly injured myocytes characterized by intensely eosinophilic intracellular stripes composed of closely packed sarcomeres.

A

Contraction bands(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 546

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1060
Q

A 62 y/o obese male had sudden onset of heaviness in the chest, associated with diaphoresis and dyspnea which started 3 hours prior to consult at the ER. The biomarkers that are most sensitive and specific of myocardial damage that you will request:

A

Troponins I and T (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 547

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1061
Q

A 72 y/o female experienced chest pain and hypotension. A posterior transmural infarct was suspected. Most common complications in this type of infarct

A

Conduction blocks, right ventricular involvement, or both (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 549

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1062
Q

Free wall rupture, expansion, mural thrombi, and aneurysm are common in what type/location of infarct?

A

Anterior transmural infarct(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 549

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1063
Q

Most common cause of rhythm disorder

A

Ischemic injury(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 550

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1064
Q

A 24 y/o female presents with history of recurrent fever and joint pains accompanied by ECG changes and increased ASO titer in the past 2 years. Physical examination reveals cardiac murmur. What is the clinical impression?

A

Rheumatic heart disease (TOPNOTCH)

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1065
Q

Characteristic anatomic change in MVP

A

Interchordal ballooning of mitral leaflets (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 556

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1066
Q

Most frequent mechanism of SCD

A

Lethal arrythmia (asystole, ventricular fibrillation) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 552

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1067
Q

Earliest microscopic change in systemic hypertensive heart disease

A

increase in transverse diameter of myocytes (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 552

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1068
Q

Most common type of VSD

A

Membranous (Interventricular septum) VSD(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 535

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1069
Q

The common feature of pulmonary thromboembolism, obstructive sleep apnea, altitude disease, and parenchymal lung disease

A

Pulmonary hypertension. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 530

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1070
Q

A 5 wk old infant presents with tachypnea, diaphoresis, and difficulty feeding. A harsh, continuous, machinery-like murmur was noted upon auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus(TOPNOTCH)

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1071
Q

Presents with hypertension in the upper extremities, and manifestations of arterial insufficiency such as claudication and coldness. Produce a radiographical visible erosion (notching) of the undersurfaces of the ribs.

A

Coarctation of the aorta (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 537

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1072
Q

Major cause of infective endocarditis among intravenous drug abusers

A

Staphylococcus aureus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 559

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1073
Q

Most common cause of endocarditis of native but previously damaged or otherwise abnormal valves

A

Streptococcus viridans (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 559

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1074
Q

Predominant manifestations of RF

A

Carditis and arthritis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 559

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1075
Q

Classic hallmark of Infective endocarditis

A

Vegetations on heart valves(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 559

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1076
Q

A 72 year old hypertensive female last seen apparently well 3 days ago, is found dead in her bathroom with rigor mortis and no signs of foul play. At autopsy, her heart showed left ventricular hypertrophy and a pale tan area at the anteroseptal wall. There are no thrombi in the heart chambers. The valves are unremarkable. Microscopic examination of the pale area showed well-established granulation tissue with new blood vessels and collagen deposition. Neutrophils are rare. She died of (A) an MI that occured 1 hour prior to demise (B) an MI 12 hours prior to demise (C) an MI 2 days prior to demise (D) something else entirely

A

something else entirely (evolution of morphologic changes in myocardial infarction) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 393

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1077
Q

In hypertensive heart disease, there is concentric thickening of the left ventricular wall. A concomitant left atrial dilatation may also be seen due to (A) volume overload from a ventricle with narrowed lumen (B) pressure overload from a ventricle with narrowed lumen (C) cytokines secreted by hypertrophic ventricular myocytes cause atrophy of atrial myocytes (D) cytokines secreted by hypertrophic ventricular myocytes cause metaplasia of atrial myocytes

A

volume overload from a ventricle with narrowed lumen (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 399

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1078
Q

What feature in a stenotic aortic valve suggests rheumatic valvular disease, rather than calcific aortic stenosis? (A) bicuspid valve (B) masses of calcium on the outflow side of cusps (C) fibrotic cusps (D) fusion of the commmissures

A

fusion of the commisures (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P402

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1079
Q

A 20 year old asymptomatic female is found to have a midsystolic click on her preemployment physical examination. A 2D echo showed mitral valve prolapse. The involved leaflet would show (A) numerous fibroblasts with and dense collagen deposition (B) thinning of the fibrosa layer and myxoid expansion of the spongiosa layer (C) deposition of amorphous material that shows apple-green birefringence when stained with Congo red (D) fibrous stroma with gland-like structures secreting mucin

A

thinning of fibrosa layer and myxoid espansion of the spongiosa layer (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P402

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1080
Q

A 5 year old male who had a sore throat 3 weeks ago develops fever and joint pains. Auscultation revealed a friction rub, and ASO titers are increased. Which of the following is expected in the patient? (A) friable vegetations on the mitral valve containing fibrin, neutrophils and gram-positive cocci (B) small vegetations on the mitral valve with abundant eosinophils (C) myocardium with circumscribed aggregates of mononuclear cells and macrophages with prominent nucleoli (D) myocardium with poorly-circumsccribed aggregates of multinucleated giant cells

A

myocardium with circumscribed aggregates of mononuclear cells and macrophages with prominent nucleoli (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 403-404

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1081
Q

A 19 year old football player dies suddenly during one training session. At autopsy, his heart showed myocardial hypertrophy with disproportionate thickening of the septum, and a narrowed left ventricular lumen. Microscopic examination showed myocyte hypertrophy, myofiber disarray, and interestitial fibrosis. These findings are due to (A) a mutation in one of his genes encoding sarcomeric proteins (B) a silent Coxsackie virus B infection (C) an undisclosed 3 year history of alcohol intake (D) anabolic steroids he has been taking for 6 months

A

a mutation in one of his genes encoding sarcomeric proteins (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P. 412-413

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1082
Q

A 34 year old female on routine checkup is found to have a diastolic murmur. 2D echo showed a pedunculated 3 cm mass in her left atrium attached to the atrial septum. She has no other known masses on workup. She undergoes heart surgery where the atrial mass is resected. Which of the following is its most likely histology? (A) stellate cells admixed with endothelial and fibroblastic cells embedded in an abundant extracellular matrix (B) sheets of large polygonal cells containing glycogen-containing vacuoles arranged around a central nucleus (C) fascicles of fibroblasts and interspersed collagen bundles (D) sheets of pleomorphic cells lining vascular spaces, some with intracytoplasmic lumens, with atypical mitoses and areas of necrosis

A

stellate cells admixed with endothelial and fibroblastic cells embedded in an abundant extracellular matrix (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed. Pp 417-418

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1083
Q

Average volume per cell, expressed in femtoliters.

A

Mean cell volume (MCV)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

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1084
Q

A reduction in the oxygen-transporting capacity of blood.

A

Anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 422

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1085
Q

The average content of hemoglobin per red cell, expressed in picograms.

A

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

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1086
Q

The average concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of packed red cells, expressed in g/dL.

A

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

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1087
Q

The coefficient of variation of red cell volume.

A

Red cell distribution width (RDW)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

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1088
Q

Anemia of acute blood loss is described as ______.

A

Normocytic, normochromic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 423

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1089
Q

Life span of a normal red cell.

A

120 days(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

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1090
Q

Anemia characterized by an increased rate of cell destruction, a compensatory increase in erythropoeisis that results in reticulocytosis, and retention of products of cell destruction, including iron.

A

Hemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

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1091
Q

A circulating protein that binds and clears free hemoglobin.

A

Haptoglobin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

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1092
Q

Hemolysis that can result from mechanical trauma, or biochemical or physical agents that damage the red cell membrane.

A

Intravascular hemolysis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

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1093
Q

Hemolysis which takes place largely within phagocytic cells of the spleen and liver.

A

Extravascular hemolysis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

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1094
Q

This disorder is characterized by an intrinsic defect in the red cell membrane, that renders the cells spheroidal, less defomable and vulnerable to splenic sequestration and destruction.

A

Hereditary spherocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 424

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1095
Q

Small, dark nuclear remnants seen within red cells in PBS of hereditary spherocytosis.

A

Howell-Jolly bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 425

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1096
Q

On PBS, red cells are spherical which lack central pallor, and they show increased osmotic fragility when placed in hypotonic salt solutions.

A

Hereditary spherocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 425

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1097
Q

Structural proteins that are defective in hereditary spherocytosis.

A

Spectrin and ankyrin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 425

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1098
Q

This results from substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position of the B-chain, producing HbS.

A

Sickle cell anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 426

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1099
Q

Bizarre, elongated, spindled or boat-shaped cells on PBS.

A

Sickle cell anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 427

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1100
Q

Prominent cheekbones and changes in skull resembling a “crew-cut” skull x-ray.

A

Sickle cell anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 427

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1101
Q

Patients with sickle cell disease are predisposed to infections caused by these type of bacteria.

A

Encapsulated bacteria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

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1102
Q

Treatment for sickle cell disease by increasing levels of HbF.

A

Hydroxyurea(TOPNOTCH)

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1103
Q

Treatment for sickle cell disease by increasing levels of HbF.

A

Hydroxyurea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

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1104
Q

Feared complication of sickle cell disease which can be trigerred by pulmonary infections or fat emboli from necrotic marrow that secondarily involve the lung.

A

Acute chest syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

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1105
Q

Major complication of sickle cell disease which occurs in the setting of acute chest syndrome, causing ischemic injury to the CNS.

A

CNS stroke(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

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1106
Q

Represents a sudden but usually temporary cessation of erythropoeisis, usually trigerred by parvovirus B19 infections in patients with sickle cell disease.

A

Aplastic crises(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 428

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1107
Q

In beta thalassemia, an individual who inherits one abnormal allele (out of 2) has this asymptomatic to mildly symptomatic condition.

A

B- Thalassemia minor/trait(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 429

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1108
Q

Individuals with B-thalassemia who inherit two abnormal alleles, with severe anemia requiring regular blood tranfusions.

A

B- Thalassemia major(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 429

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1109
Q

Red cells with a central, dark-red puddle due to collection of hemoglobin.

A

Target cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

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1110
Q

Target cells are often seen in this condition.

A

B-thalassemia minor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

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1111
Q

In the PBS of this condition, nucleated red cells (normoblasts) are seen, which reflect underlying erythropoeisis.

A

B-thalassemia major(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

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1112
Q

Anemia of beta thalassemia.

A

Microcytic, hypochromic(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 430

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1113
Q

Disease caused by deletion of 3 alpha globin genes.

A

Hemoglobin H disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 431

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1114
Q

Condition caused by deletion of 1 alpha globin gene.

A

Silent carrier(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 431

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1115
Q

Condition caused by deletion of 2 alpha globin genes.

A

Alpha thalassemia trait(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 431

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1116
Q

Condition caused by deletion of all four alpha globin genes.

A

Hydrops fetalis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 429

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1117
Q

Precipitates of denatured globin seen in RBC’s.

A

Heinz bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

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1118
Q

Heinz bodies are seen in the blood smear of this condition.

A

G6PD Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

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1119
Q

Bite cells are seen in ________.

A

G6PD Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

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1120
Q

A rare disorder of unknown etiology, causes hemolytic anemia which results from an acquired membrane defect secondary to a mutation that affects myeloid stem cells. Hemolysis occurs during sleep.

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

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1121
Q

Hemolysis caused by IgG or IgA antiodies that are active at 37 degC, which results in opsonization of red cells by the autoantibodies.

A

Warm antibody immunohemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

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1122
Q

Anemia caused by low-affinity IgM which bind to red cell membranes only at temp

A

Cold antibody immunohemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

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1123
Q

Anemia observed in a variety of pathologic states, in which small vessels become particularly obstructed.(e.g. DIC, malignant HTN, SLE, etc.)

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

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1124
Q

Schistiocytes, burr cells, helmet cells, triangle cells are seen in this condition.

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 433

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1125
Q

X-linked disorder in which red cells are unusually susceptible to damage cause by oxidants.

A

G6PD Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 432

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1126
Q

Red blood cells in iron deficiency anemia.

A

Microcytic, hypochromic(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 436

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1127
Q

Diagnostic criteria for iron deficiency anemia:____ Ferritin____Serum iron level____Transferrin saturation____Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)

A

Low ferritinLow serum iron levelsLow transferrin saturationIncreased TIBC(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 435

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1128
Q

Diagnostic criteria for anemia of chronic disease:____ Ferritin____Serum iron level____Transferrin saturation____Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)

A

Increased ferritinLow serum iron levelsLow transferrin saturationDecreased TIBCNormocytic, normochromic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 435

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1129
Q

Principal causes of megaloblastic anemia.

A

Folate deficiencyVitamin B12 deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 437

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1130
Q

Bone marrow is markedly hypercellular as a result of increased number of megaloblasts, which are large cells that have delicate, finely reticulated nuclear chromatin and abundant basophilic cytoplasm.

A

Megaloblastic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 437

1131
Q

PBS finding in neutrophils and red cells of patients with megaloblastic anemia.

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils, large, egg-shaped macro-ovalocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 437

1132
Q

Difference between megaloblastic and pernicious anemia.

A

Presence of neurologic abnormalities in pernicious anemia.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

1133
Q

Deficiency in folate causes this type of anemia.

A

Megaloblastic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

1134
Q

Deficiency in Vitamin B12 causes this type of anemia.

A

Pernicious anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

1135
Q

Etiology of pernicious anemia.

A

1.Vitamin B12 malabsorption secondary to autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor which is needed in its absorption.2. Gastrectomy or ileal resection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 438

1136
Q

Principal neurologic lesion in pernicious anemia.

A

Demyelination of posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 439

1137
Q

Bone marrow is markedly hypocellular, with >90% of the intertrabecular space being occupied by fat.

A

Aplastic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 439

1138
Q

Tear drop cells are also called __________.

A

Dacrocytes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 440

1139
Q

Dacrocytes are found in peripheral blood of patients with this type of anemia.

A

Myelophthisic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 440

1140
Q

Increase in blood concentration of red cells, with an increase in Hgb concentration.

A

Polycythemia or erythrocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

1141
Q

Polycythemia secondary to reduced plasma volume.

A

Relative polycythemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

1142
Q

Polycythemia secondary to abnormal proliferation of myeloid stem cells and low erythropoeitin levels.

A

Primary polycythemia (Absolute)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

1143
Q

Polycythemia secondary to increased erythropoeitin levels due to lung disease, high-altitude living, cyanotic heart disease and EPO secreting tumors.

A

Secondary polycythemia (Absolute)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

1144
Q

Total white cell count is reduced to 1000 cells/uL. Affected persons are extremely susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections.

A

Neutropenia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 441

1145
Q

A self-limited disease of adolescents and young adults that is causd by B lymphocytotropic EBV characterized by fever, sore throat and generalized lymphadenitis, an increase of atypical lymphocytes in blood and an antibody and T cell response to EBV.

A

Infectious mononucleosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 442

1146
Q

Cells with abundant cytoplasm 12-16um in diameter that contains azurophilic granules, and an oval, indented or folded nucleus.

A

Atypical lymphocytes (Infectious mononucleosis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 442

1147
Q

Inflamed nodes are swollen, gray-red and engorged. There are large germinal centers containing numerous mitotic figures. Affected nodes are tender and fluctuant if with extensive abscess formation.

A

Acute nonspecific lymphadenitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

1148
Q

This pattern is associated with infections or inflammatory processes that activate B cells which create a follicular or germinal center reaction. Lymph node architecture is preserved, lymphoid nodules vary in shape and size, mixed lymphocytic infiltrates with prominent phagocytic and mitotic activity within germinal centers.

A

Follicular hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

1149
Q

Reactive pattern characterized by distention and prominence of the lymphatic sinusoids, due to marked hypertrophy of lining endothelial cells and an infiltrate of histiocytes. Encountered in lymph nodes draining cancers.

A

Sinus histiocytosis(TOPNOTCH)

1150
Q

Characterized by reactive changes within T-cell regions of the lymph node, usually encountered during viral infections, following certain vaccinations, and immune reactions induced by certain drugs.

A

Paracortical hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

1151
Q

Formation of sarcoid-like ganulomas that undergo central necrosis associated with neutrophil accumulation. This irregular stellate necrotizing granuloma is seen in patients presenting with a raised inflammatory node, vesicle or eschar at site of injury. History of exposure to cats.

A

Cat scratch disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

1152
Q

Causative agent for cat scratch disease(TOPNOTCH)

A

Bartonella henselae(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 444

1153
Q

Lymphoblasts with irregular nuclear contours, condensed chromatin , small nucleoli and scant agranular cytoplasm. Blasts compose >25% of marrow cellularity. Most common childhood leukemia.

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 447

1154
Q

Frequent small “cleaved” cells mixed with large cells, growth pattern nodular, centroblasts present. Occurs in older adults, usually involves nodes, marrow, spleen. Associated with t(14;18).

A

Follicular lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 451

1155
Q

Small to intermediate-sized irregular lymphocytes growing in a diffuse pattern, no centroblasts and proliferation centers. Occurs mainly in older males, GI tract commonly affected. Associated with t(11;14).

A

Mantle cell lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 452

1156
Q

Plasma cells in sheets, with prominent nucleoli or inclusion containing Ig. Presents as disseminated bone disease, with destructive lytic lesions.

A

Plasmacytoma / plasma cell myeloma(TOPNOTCH)

1157
Q

Intermediate-sized round lymphoid cells with 2-5 prominent nucleoli. Nuclear remnants phagocytosed by interspersed macrophages with abundant clear cytoplasm, “starry sky pattern”

A

Burkitt lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 453

1158
Q

Sheets of small, round lymphocytes and scattered ill-defined foci of larger, actively dividing cells diffusely efface involved LN. A foci of mitotically active cells called proliferation centers are pathognomonic.

A

Small lymphocytic leukemia (SLL) / Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 450

1159
Q

Fragile neoplastic lymphocytes that are frequently disrupted during smear preparation.

A

Smudge cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 450

1160
Q

Smudge cells are seen in this type of leukemia.

A

CLL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 450

1161
Q

Tumor cells have large nuclei with open chromatin and prominent nucleoli. Most important type of lymphoma in adults, accounting to ~50% of adult NHL.

A

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 452

1162
Q

Multifocal destructive bone lesions seen as punched-out defects in bone radiographs.

A

Multiple myeloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 455

1163
Q

Excess light or heavy chains along with complete Igs synthesized by neoplastic plasma cells.

A

Bence-Jones proteins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 454

1164
Q

Cells with two mirror-image nuclei or nuclear lobes, each containing a large acidophilic nucleolus surrounded by a distinctive clear zone, imparting an owl-like appearance.

A

Reed-Sternberg cell(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 456

1165
Q

A distinctive groups of neoplasms that arise almost invariably in a single lymph node or chain of lymph nodes and spread characteristically in a stepwise fashion to anatomically contiguous nodes.

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 456

1166
Q

Most common form of Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by a large cell which has a single multilobate nucleus with small nucleoli and an abundant pale-staining cytoplasm called lacunar cells.

A

Nodular sclerosis HL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 457

1167
Q

Most common form of HL in patients greater than 50 years old, with male predominance, plentiful RS cells and heterogenous cellular infiltrates.

A

Mixed cellularity HL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 458

1168
Q

Cells found in adult T-cell lymphoma which appear to have multilobulated nuclei.

A

Cloverleaf or flower cell(TOPNOTCH)

1169
Q

Subgroup of HL characterized by a large number of small resting lymphocytes admixed with a variable number of benign histiocytes. Variant RS cells described as multilobed, puffy nucleus Which appears like a “popcorn”. Excellent prognosis.

A

Lymphocyte-predominance HL(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 458

1170
Q

Cells with fiery red cytoplasm, seen in Multiple myeloma

A

Flame cells(TOPNOTCH)

1171
Q

Cells with pink globular cytoplasmic inclusions, seen in Multiple myeloma

A

Russell bodies(TOPNOTCH)

1172
Q

Cells with blue globular nuclear inclusions, seen in Multiple myeloma

A

Dutcher bodies(TOPNOTCH)

1173
Q

Multiple nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and cytoplasmic droplets containing Ig.

A

Bizarre, multinucleated cells(TOPNOTCH)

1174
Q

Bizarre multinucleated cells, flame cells, Russel bodies and Dutcher bodies are all seen in what disease?

A

Multiple myeloma(TOPNOTCH)

1175
Q

Bone marrow aspirate shows hypercellular martow packed with myeloblasts and azurophilic needle-like material called Auer rods.

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 462

1176
Q

Leukemia of children most responsive to chemotherapy.

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 461

1177
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma subgroup most commonly associated with EBV infection.

A

Lymphocyte depleted(TOPNOTCH)

1178
Q

Mature B-cell tumor in the elderly, where cells have fine hair-like projections (hairy cells).

A

Hairy cell leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 459

1179
Q

t(9;22) is also called ______.

A

Philadelphia chromosome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 465

1180
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma subgroup with highest count of RS cells.

A

Mixed cellularity type(TOPNOTCH)

1181
Q

This correlates with good prognosis in Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

High Lymphocyte : Reed-Sternberg cell ratio(TOPNOTCH)

1182
Q

Hodgin lymphoma subgroup not associated with EBV.

A

Nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominant(TOPNOTCH)

1183
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma subgroup with poorest prognosis.

A

Lymphocyte depleted HL(TOPNOTCH)

1184
Q

Tumor of the thymus associated with myastheni gravis and pure red cell aplasia.

A

Thymoma(TOPNOTCH)

1185
Q

Pentalaminar tubules, often with a dilated terminal end (tennis racket-like appearance).

A

Birbeck granules(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

1186
Q

Proliferative disorder of the dendritic cells which has birbeck granules.

A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

1187
Q

Pathology behind polycythemia vera.

A

Mutation in tyrosine kinase JAK2, which acts in signalling pathways of the erythropoeitin receptors, rendering them hypersensitive to erythropoeitin.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 466

1188
Q

Treatment for polycythemia vera.

A

Phlebotomy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 466

1189
Q

Collection of aggressive tumors that are comprised of immature myeloblasts which replace the marrow and suppress normal hematopoiesis.

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

1190
Q

Myeloid tumor arising from a pluripotent stem cell associated with mutatios of the BCR-ABL gene. If untreated, may progress to a blast crisis.

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

1191
Q

Most common myelodysplastic syndrome. A myeloid tumor in which abnormal megakaryocytes stimulate marrow fibroblasts to release collagen, replacing the marrow space, leading to pancytopenia and extramedullary hematopoeisis.

A

Myeloid metaplasia with Myelofibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 467

1192
Q

Other name for acute disseminated Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

A

Letterer-Siwe disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 468

1193
Q

Caused by a systemic activation of coagulation pathways, leading to formation of thrombi throughout the microcirculation.

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 469

1194
Q

Characterized by spontaneous bleeding, prolonged bleeding time, and normal PT and PTT.

A

Thrombocytopenia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 471

1195
Q

Drug-induced disorder caused by IgG antibodies that bind to platelet factor IV on platelet surfaces, which activates platelets and induce their aggregation.

A

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

1196
Q

Associated with pentad of fever, thrombocytopenia, microangipathic hemolytic anemia, transient neurologic deficits and renal failure.

A

Thrombotic thrombocytic purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

1197
Q

Associated with childhood onset microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure. No neurologic symptoms.

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

1198
Q

Caused by antiplatelet antibodies directed against glycoproteins IIb-IIIa, Ib-IX.

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

1199
Q

Decreased gp Ib leads to defective platelet adhesion, associated with decreased platelet count.

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)

1200
Q

Caused by deficiency of ADAMTS13, a vWF metalloprotease.

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

1201
Q

Caused by shiga-like toxin in EHEC (E. coli O157:H7) from improperly cooked burgers.

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 472

1202
Q

Decreased gp IIb-IIIa leads to defective platelet aggregation, associated with normal platelet count.

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia(TOPNOTCH)

1203
Q

Most common bleeding disorder.

A

vWF disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

1204
Q

Most common hereditary disease associated with life threatening bleeding,

A

Hemophilia A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

1205
Q

An X-linked recessive disorder caused by reduction in factor VII activity.

A

Classic Hemophilia/ Hemophilia A(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

1206
Q

An X-linked disorder caused by deficiency of Factor IX, or Christmas factor. Bleeding time is normal, PTT is prolonged.

A

Hemophilia B/ Christmas Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 474

1207
Q

A state associated with excessive removal of formed elements of blood, resulting in anemia, leukopenia or thrombocytopenia.

A

Hypersplenism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 476

1208
Q

A 17 y/o male presented with a short history of fever, tonsillitis and monolateral enlarged cervical lymph nodes. PE revealed enlargement of righ cervical lymph node, 3 cm in diameter hard , and pharyngeal hyperemia. Biopsy was done and showed a malignant population of round monomorphic B cells interspersed with macrophages forming the start in the “starry sky” pattern. This is a case of:

A

Burkitt lymphoma (TOPNOTCH)

1209
Q

An 18 y/o male presents with easy fatigability, fever, and cutaneous bleeding. Bone marrow biopsy showed 40% myeloblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

AML (TOPNOTCH)

1210
Q

The most common cause of agranulocytosis

A

Drug toxicity (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th ed., p. 582

1211
Q

What laboratory finding differentiate leukemoid reaction from CML?

A

Elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase. (TOPNOTCH)

1212
Q

An 8 month old presented with anemia. Red cells were noted to be oval and macrocytic. Nutritional history revealed that the infant was exclusively fed raw goat’s milk. The most likely cause of his anemia is:

A

Folate deficiency (TOPNOTCH)

1213
Q

A 2 y/o child arrived at well-child clinic. Mother reported that her child is exclusively breastfed for 6 months and then supplemented mainly by carrots. The patient is most likely prone to developing anemia caused by:

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency (TOPNOTCH)

1214
Q

Most common type of cancer in children; highly aggressive tumors manifest with signs and symptoms of bone marrow failure, or as rapidly growing masses

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/Lymphoblastic lymphoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 598

1215
Q

Most common leukemia of adults which usually presents with bone marrow and lymph node involvement.

A

Small lymphocytic lymphoma/CLL(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 598

1216
Q

Most common leukemia of adults which usually presents with bone marrow and lymph node involvement.

A

Follicular lymphoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 598

1217
Q

Most common lymphoma of adults

A

Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 598

1218
Q

Very aggressive tumor of mature B cells that usually arise at extranodal sites; strongly associated with translocations involving MYC proto-oncogene

A

Burkitt Lymphoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 598

1219
Q

Plasma cell neoplasm commonly associated with lytic bone lesions, pathologic fractures, chronic pain, hypercalcemia, renal failure, and acquired immune abnormalities.

A

Multiple Myeloma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 599

1220
Q

Major pathologic feature of multiple myeloma

A

Bone destruction mediated by neoplastic plasma cells(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 599

1221
Q

True or False. Cellular immunity is relatively unaffected in Multiple myeloma

A

True(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 600

1222
Q

Single most important factor in the pathogenesis of renal failure in Multiple myeloma

A

Bence-Jones proteinuria(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 600

1223
Q

True or False. Age younger 2 years is associated with a worse prognosis in ALL.

A

True(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 592

1224
Q

Abrupt stormy onset, symptoms of depressed marrow function, and mass effects by neoplastic infiltration , including bone pain are more common in ALL or AML?

A

ALL (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 592

1225
Q

The leading cause of cancer deaths in children

A

ALL (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 592

1226
Q

This lymphoma often presents a mass involving the mandible and shows an unusual predilection for involvement of abdominal viscera, particularly the kidneys, ovaries, and adrenal glands.

A

Endemic Burkitt lymphoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 597

1227
Q

A 40 y/o male presented with unexplained weight loss, fever, and night sweats. Chest radiograph showed a mediastinal mass. Histologic findings showed large cells with multiple nuclei with large inclusion-like nucleolus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma (Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells) (TOPNOTCH)

1228
Q

A 52 y/o female presents with dragging sensation in the abdomen associated with anemia, weakness, and weight loss. Chromosomal analysis showed presence of BCR-ABL fusion gene. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

CML (TOPNOTCH)

1229
Q

Presence of anemia, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, hemosiderinuria, and jaundice are manifestations of intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?

A

Intravascular hemolysis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 631

1230
Q

Patient presents with anemia, splenomegaly, and jaundice. Peripheral blood smear shows small, dark-staining red cells lacking the central zone of pallor. Father had prolonged jaundice since childhood. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis(TOPNOTCH)

1231
Q

A 5 y/o male presented with malaise and low grade fever for 10 days. He was diagnosed with toxoplasmosis and was given pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine. Three days after, patient presented with jaundice and dark urine. PBS showed Heinz bodies and bite cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

G6PD Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)

1232
Q

Hemolysis and vaso-occlusive crisis are common in this form of anemia caused by mutaion of glutamic acid to valine.

A

Sickle-cell anemia(TOPNOTCH)

1233
Q

The most common trigger for episodic hemolysis in G6PD Deficiency

A

Infection(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 634

1234
Q

A 19 y/o African-American male presented with severe pain in the chest and extremities, splenomegaly, and anemia. PBS showed reticulocytosis, presence of target cells, and sickled cells. Three days prior , patient developed cough and fever. For the past 3 years, patient had suffered from recurrent pains and jaundice. What is the pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for the most serious clinical features of this disease?

A

Microvascular occlusion (in Sickle cell disease) (TOPNOTCH)

1235
Q

Leading cause of disease-related death in individuals with PNH

A

Thrombosis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 642

1236
Q

The immediate cause of megaloblastosis, and a common denominator of folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Suppressed synthesis of DNA (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 648

1237
Q

Most common nutritional disorder in the world

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 649

1238
Q

An 18 y/o female complained of generalized weakness, lethargy, and light headedness. She revealed she was having excessive bleeding during menstruation from the previous 6 months. Upon examining, she was noted to have pallor, tachycardia, and swollen tongue. Most likely morphology of RBC:

A

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia (Case of IDA) (TOPNOTCH)

1239
Q

Presents signs and symptoms of anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia. Splenomegaly is characteristically absent. And the red cell are usually macrocytic and normochromic. (+) Reticulocytopenia. Bone marrow is hypocellular. What is the condition described?

A

Aplastic anemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. p. 654

1240
Q

Virus implicated in acute red cell aplasia

A

Parvovirus B19 (TOPNOTCH)) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 655

1241
Q

Most feared complication of thrombocytopenia

A

Intracranial bleeding (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 657

1242
Q

Most common presenting symptoms of this condition are spontaneous bleeding from mucous membranes, excessive bleeding from wounds, or menorrhagia. Bleeding tendency often goes unnoticed until some hemostatic stress, such as surgery, reveals its presence. Patients may have defects in platelet function despite a normal platelet count, prolonged PTT.

A

von Willebrand disease (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 662

1243
Q

Patient with this disease has a tendency toward easy bruising and massive hemorrhage after trauma or operative procedures, and recurrent bleeding into the joints. Petechiae are absent. Patients have a prolonged PTT and normal PT.

A

Hemophilia A and B (Factor VIII and IX Ddeficiency) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. p. 663

1244
Q

Two major mechanisms that trigger DIC

A

Release of tissue factor and widespread endothelial injury(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 663

1245
Q

A 5 year old male is observed by his mother to have tea-colored urine whenever he has infections. One particular episode of pneumonia required hospital admission, where the child developed jaundice also. A peripheral blood smear showed red cells with Heinz bodies, while other red cells had parts of their cytoplasm “plucked out”. The child likely has a deficient enzyme required in the production of reduced glutathione, the gene for which is found on (A) X chromosome (B) Y chromosome (C) chromosome 21 (D) chromosome 22

A

X chromosome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 431-432

1246
Q

An 8 year old child from the slums has easy fatigability and pallor. A peripheral blood smear shows large, egg-shaped red cell precursors, and hypersegmented neutrophils. Short of measuring serum folate and vitamin B12 levels, what finding will suggest a vitamin B12 deficiency, rather than a folate deficiency? (A) gastrointestinal symptoms (B) neurologic symptoms (C) development of congestive heart failure (D) megaloblasts on bone marrow aspirate smears

A

neurologic symptoms (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp 437-439

1247
Q

A 33 year old female presents with pallor, easy fatigability, and echymoses. Her spleen is not enlarged. A CBC showed profound anemia and markedly decreased WBC and platelet counts. A bone marrow core biopsy showed marrow that is predominantly replaced by fat, with few lymphocytic and plasma cells. The most common cause of her condition is (A) myelotoxic drugs (B) viral infection (C) bacterial infection (D) idiopathic

A

idiopathic (aplastic anemia) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P439

1248
Q

A 14 year old male develops fever, sore throat, lymphadenitis, and fatigue. His CBC shows leukocytosis, with a lymphocytic predominance. Peripheral blood smear shows some large leukocytes with abundant cytoplasm occasional azurophilic granules, and indented nuclei with fine chromatin. Monospot test and anti-EBV titers are positive. The large leukocytes seen are (A) monocytes (B) megakaryocytes (C) B cells (D) T cells

A

T cells (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 443

1249
Q

Lymph nodes that drain cancers but do not yet harbor metastatic deposits often show (A) follicular hyperplasia (B) paracortical hyperplasia (C) sinus histiocytosis (D) fibrous obliteration

A

sinus histiocytosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 444

1250
Q

A 55 year old male presents with pallor and easy fatigability. Physical exam showed massive splenomegaly. CBC showed marked leukocytosis, and a peripheral smear showed numerous neutrophils, metamyelocytes, and myelocytes. Basophils are also seen. A bone marrow aspirate shows a similar picture. This man likely has (A) a BCR-ABL fusion gene (B) a JAK2 mutation (C) an 8:22 translocation (D) an 11:22 translocation

A

a BCR-ABL fusion gene (Chronic myelogenous leukemia) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 464

1251
Q

In primary myelofibrosis, marrow fibroblasts are stimulated to proliferate by PDGF and TGF-beta released from (A) granulocyte precursors (B) erythroid precursors (C) lymphoid cells (D) neoplastic megakaryocytes

A

neoplastic megakaryocytes (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 466

1252
Q

A 28 year old female is found to have a mediastinal mass on chest xray during a preemployment medical exam. On history, she is found to have muscle fatigue that worsens as the day progresses. She undergoes surgery where her mediastinal mass is resected. Microscopic examination showed sheets of bland spindle cells with sparse inflammatory infiltrates. Her tumor is (A) a metastasis from an undiagnosed endometrial mass (B) a metastasis from an occult breast malignancy (C) a lymphoma(D) a thymoma

A

a thymoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 476

1253
Q

Loss of lung volume cause by inadequate expansion of airspaces, resulting in shunting of inadequately oxygenated blood from pulmonary arteries into veins.

A

Atelectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 480

1254
Q

Atelectasis which occurs when an obstruction prevents air from reaching distal airways.

A

Resorption atelectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 480

1255
Q

Atelectasis usually associated with accumulation of fluid, blood, or air within the pleural cavity, which mechanically collapse the adjacent lung.

A

Compression atelectasis (aka passive or relaxation atelectasis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 481

1256
Q

Atelectasis which occurs when either local or generalized fibrotic changes in the lung or pleura hamper expansion and increase elastic recoil during expiration.

A

Contraction or cicatricial atelectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 481

1257
Q

Lungs are dark red, firm, airless and heavy. There is capillary congestion, necrosis of alveolar epithelial cells, interstitial and intra-alveolar edema and hemorrhage and neutrophils in capillaries. Hyaline membrane is also characteristic, lining the alveolar ducts.

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 482

1258
Q

Diffuse pulmonary disease characterized by limitation of airflow, usually resulting from an increase in resistance caused by partial or complete obstruction atvany level.

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

1259
Q

Diffuse pulmonary disease characterized by reduced expansion of lung parenchyma accompanied by decreased total lung capacity.

A

Restrictive lung disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

1260
Q

Lung volumes in obstructive lung disease:FEV1FVCFEV1:FVC ratio

A

FEV1 - decreasedFVC - normal / increasedFEV1:FVC ratio - decreased(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

1261
Q

Lung volumes in restrictive lung diseaseFEV1FVCFEV1:FVC ratio

A

FEV1 - normal/decreasedFVC - decreasedFEV1:FVC ratio - near normal(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 483

1262
Q

Characterized by abnormal permanent enlargement of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls without obvious fibrosis. There is thinning oof the alveolar walls and loss of elastic tissue.

A

Emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 485

1263
Q

Type of emphysema involving the central or proximal parts of the acini, formed by respiratory bronchioles, while distal parts are spared. Lungs deep pink and less voluminous, affecting the upper 2/3 of the lungs. Occurs in smokers.

A

Centriacinar (centrilobular) Emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 485

1264
Q

Type of emphysema wherein the acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli. Occurs more commonly in the lower lung zones. Occurs in a-antitrypsin deficiency.

A

Panacinar (panlobular) emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 485

1265
Q

Type of emphysema wherein only the distal part is primarily involved. Lesion is adjacent to the pleura along the lobular connective tissue septa and at the lobe margins. More severe at the upper half of the lungs, forming bullae.

A

Distal acinar (paraseptal) emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 486

1266
Q

Barrel-chested, dyspneic, prolonged expiration, sits forward in a hunched-over position, adequate oxygenation of oxygen. “Pink puffers”.

A

COPD predominantly emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1267
Q

History of recurrent infections with purulent sputum, less prominent dyspnea and respiratory drive, becomes hypoxic and are pften cyanotic and obese. “Blue bloaters”.

A

COPD predominantly chronic bronchitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1268
Q

Defined as persistent productive cough for at least 3 consecutive months in at least 2 consecutive years.

A

Chronic bronchitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1269
Q

Mucosal lining of the larger airways is usually hyperemic and swollen with edema fluid, often covered by a layer of mucinous or mucopurulent secretions. Trachea and bronchi have enlarged mucus-secreting glands.

A

Chronic bronchitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1270
Q

Characterized by goblet cell metaplasia, mucus plugging, inflammation and fibrosis, and sometimes complete obliteration of the lumen due to fibrosis.

A

Chronic bronchiolitis (small airway disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1271
Q

Most important underlying risk factor for chronic bronchitis.

A

Cigarette smoking(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1272
Q

Triad of 1.intermittent and reversible airway obstruction2.chronic bronchial inflammation with eosinophils3.bronchial smooth muscle cell hypertrophy and hyperreactivity

A

Asthma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1273
Q

Collections of crystalloids made up of eosinophil proteins.

A

Charcot-Leyden crystals(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 492

1274
Q

Whorls of shed epithelium found in mucus plugs.

A

Curschmann spirals(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 492

1275
Q

Curshmann spirals and Charcot-Leyden crystals are found histologically in this disease.

A

Asthma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 492

1276
Q

Permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles caused by destruction of theuscle and elastic supporting tissue, resulting from chronic necrotizing infections.

A

Bronchiectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 493

1277
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder frequently associated with bronchiectasis and sterility in males.

A

Kartagener syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 493

1278
Q

Refers to a pulmonary disorder of unknown etiology characterized patchy interstitial fibrosis. Grossly, pleural surfaces of the lung have the appearance of cobblestones because of retraction scars along the interlobular septa.

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 495

1279
Q

A thrombus that lodges astride a pulmonary artery bifurcation, which causes pulmonary hypertension, which can lead to hypoxia and cor pulmonale.

A

Saddle embolus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 505

1280
Q

Most common symptom of pulmonary embolism.

A

None, asymptomatic 60-80% of the time.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 506

1281
Q

Mean pulmonary pressures reach one-fourth or more of systemic pressures.

A

Pulmonary hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 506

1282
Q

Encountered in young persons, more commonly in women, marked by fatigue, syncope, dyspnea on exertion, and sometimes chest pain. Cause of increased pulmonary pressures is unknown.

A

Primary pulmonary hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 506

1283
Q

Clinical features of this disease reflect the underlying disease, with accentuation of respiratory insufficiency and right-sided heart strain.

A

Secondary pulmonary hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 507

1284
Q

Pneumonia with a patchy distribution of inflammation involving more than one lobe.

A

Bronchopneumonia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 509

1285
Q

Four stages of pneumococcal pneumonia.

A

Congestion, red hepatization, gray hepatization, resolution(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 510

1286
Q

Affected areas are red-blue, congested and subcrepitant. Inflammatory reaction is largely confined within the walls of the alveoli. Septa widened and edematous, with mononuclear infiltrates of lymphocytes, histiocytes and plasma cells. Alveolar spaces are free of cellular exudate.

A

Atypical pneumonia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 513

1287
Q

A localized area of suppurative necrosis within the pulmonary parenchyma, resulting in the formation of one or more large cavities.

A

Lung abscess(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 515

1288
Q

Pulmonary abscess resulting from aspiration of infective material are much more common on the left or right side?

A

Right side since it’s shorter and more vertical.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 515

1289
Q

Form of tuberculosis that develops in a previously unexposed, unsensitized person.

A

Primary tuberculosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

1290
Q

Implantation of the inhaled M. tuberculosis bacilli in the distal airspaces of the lungs, causes the formation of this 1 - 1.5 cm area of gray-white inflammatory consolidation.

A

Ghon focus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

1291
Q

Ghon focus + nodal involvement = ________

A

Ghon complex(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

1292
Q

Radiographically detectable calcified Ghon complex.

A

Ranke complex(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 518

1293
Q

Pattern of disease that arises in previously sensitized host to M. tuberculosis.

A

Secondary or reactivation TB(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 520

1294
Q

Occurs when TB bacilli drain through the lymphtics into lymphatic ducts, which eventually empty into the rightside of the heart and into pulmonary circulation. Individual lesions are small, visible foci of yellow-white consolidation scattered through the parenchyma.

A

Miliary TB(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 520

1295
Q

The most frequent form of extrapulmonary TB.

A

TB Lymphadenitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 521

1296
Q

TB lymphadenitis of the cervical LN.

A

Scrofula(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 521

1297
Q

Round to oval small yeast forms measuring 2-5 um in diameter.

A

Histoplasma capsulatum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 523

1298
Q

Thick walled non-budding spherules 20-60 um diameter, often filled with small endospores.

A

Coccidiodomycosis immitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 523

1299
Q

Round to oval and larger fungi, which reproduce by broad-based budding.

A

Blastomycosis dermatitidis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 523

1300
Q

Cells infected by this virus exhibit gigantism of the cell and nucleus. An enlarged inclusion surrounded by a clear halo “owl’s eye” is seen. It is the most common opportunistic viral pathogen in AIDS.

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 524

1301
Q

Opportunistic infection of the lungs having a characteristic intra-alveolar foamy, pink-staining exudate “cotton candy exudate”, with thickened septa and mononuclear infiltrate.

A

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 526

1302
Q

Most frequent disease-causing fungus.

A

Candida albicans(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 526

1303
Q

The fungus is a 5-10 um yeast, has a thick, gelatinous capsule and reproduces by budding. Most likely acquired through bird droppings. Visualized by India ink or Giemsa stain.

A

Cryptococcus neoformans(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 527

1304
Q

Which type of lung cancer is treated by chemotherapy only? Why?

A

Small cell lung carcinomaIt is an aggressive tumor which usually have metastasized at the time of diagnosis.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 529

1305
Q

Lung carcinoma best treated with surgery since they respond poorly to chemotherapy.

A

Non-small cell lung carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 529

1306
Q

Types of lung cancer with strongest association with tobacco exposure.

A

Squamous cell carcinomaSmall-cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 530

1307
Q

Lung cancer which are peripherally located, most common type of lung cancer in women and nonsmokers. Grows slowly and metastasize early. Assumes a variety of forms, incliding acinar, papillary and solid types.

A

Adenocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 531

1308
Q

Lung carcinoma which typically have large, prominent nucleoli, and a moderate amount of cytoplasm, with minimal glandular or squamous differentiation.

A

Large-cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 531

1309
Q

Lung carcinoma which appear as pale gray, centrally located masses. Nests and cords of polygonal cells with scant cytoplasm, granular chromatin and inconspicuous nuclei. FNAB shows nuclear molding of adjacent cells. Associated with several paraneoplastic syndromes.

A

Small cell lung carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

1310
Q

Other name for small cell lung carcinoma.

A

Oat cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

1311
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with oat cell carcinoma.

A

Cushing syndromeSIADH Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

1312
Q

Hypercalcemia due to excessive production of PTH related protein is usually seen in patients with this type of lung carcinoma.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 532

1313
Q

Form of lung cancer that is thought to arise from neuroendocrine cells, called Kulchitsky cells, that line the bronchial mucosa and resemble intestinal carcinoids. Nests of small, rounded, uniform cells with “salt and pepper” chromatin.

A

Bronchial carcinoids(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 534

1314
Q

Presence of fluid in the pleural space.

A

Pleural effusion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

1315
Q

Air or other gas in the pleural sac.

A

Pneumothorax(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

1316
Q

A collection of whole blood in the pleural cavity.

A

Hemothorax(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

1317
Q

A pleural collection of a milky lymphatic fluid containing microglobules of lipid.

A

Chylothorax(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 535

1318
Q

A rare cancer seen in patients who work in shipyards, miners and insulators. Lesion is preceeded by extensive pleural fibrosis and plaque formation. May be epithelial, sarcomatoid or biphasic in morphology.

A

Malignant mesothelioma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 536

1319
Q

Rare neoplasm with strong links to EBV and high frequency among the Chinese population. Characterized by large epithelial cells having indistinct borders (syncitial growth) and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli.

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 537

1320
Q

Smoothe, hemispherical protrusions located on the true vocal cords, composed of fibrous tissue and covered by stratified squamous mucosa.

A

Vocal cord nodules(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 537

1321
Q

A benign neoplasm usually on the true vocal cords that forms a soft, raspberry-like excresence rarely more then 1 cm in diameter. Consists of multiple, slender, finger-like projections.

A

Laryngeal papilloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 537

1322
Q

Histologic manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome and acute lung injury.

A

Diffuse alveolar damage(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th Ed. p. 672

1323
Q

A 70 y/o male presented to the ER with a 10 day history of fever followed by rapidly progressive dyspnea for 3 days prior to admission. Physical examination revealed tachypnea, central cyanosis, and extensive fine inspiratory crackles of the chest. Severe hypoxemia was noted on ABG. Chest radiograph revealed bilateral diffuse alveolar infiltrates with normal cardiac size. An extensive ground glassing was also. Diagnosis? Characteristic histologic picture expected for this condition?

A

ARDS. Hyaline membranes lining the alveolar walls. (TOPNOTCH)

1324
Q

The key initiating events and the basis of lung damage in ARDS

A

Damage to endothelial and alveolar epithelial cells. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 674

1325
Q

Disease characterized by abnormally large alveoli separated by thin septa with only focal centriacinar fibrosis.

A

Emphysema (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 677

1326
Q

Mild chronic inflammation of the airways (predominantly lymphocytes) and enlargement of mucus-secreting glands of the trachea and bronchi are seen in:

A

Chronic bronchitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed. p. 679

1327
Q

A 55 y/o female presented with chronic cough, productive of thick, tenacious sputum, recurrent episodes of fever associated with pleuritic chest pain. Crackles were noted on auscultation. Chest radiograph showed presence of “tram tracks”. The most likely diagnosis:

A

Bronchiectasis(TOPNOTCH)

1328
Q

Dilation of bronchi and bronchioles, with acute and chronic inflammatory exudation, desquamation of the lining epithelium and extensive areas of ulceration, are characteristics of what disease?

A

Bronchiectasis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 683

1329
Q

Earliest feature of chronic bronchitis

A

Hypersecretion of mucus in the large airways. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 678

1330
Q

Subbasement membrane fibrosis, hyperplasia of bronchial wall muscle, hypertrophy of bronchial glands, and inflammatory infiltrate in the bronchial wall. These are morphologic findings in:

A

Asthma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th ed., p. 682

1331
Q

Fundamental abnormality in atopic asthma

A

Exagerrated TH2 response (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 680

1332
Q

Key inflammatory cells found in asthma

A

Eosinophils (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 683

1333
Q

Most common bacterial cause of acute exacerbation of COPD

A

Haemophilus influenzae. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 703

1334
Q

A 3 y/o child was brought to ER due to sudden onset of high fever, labored breathing, and drooling. The most likely cause of this condition is:

A

Haemophilus influenzae (TOPNOTCH)

1335
Q

3 most common causes of otitis media in children

A

Streptococcus penumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 703

1336
Q

Most freqent cause of gram negative bacterial pneumonia.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 703

1337
Q

A 45 y/o alcoholic male presented with fever, tachypnea, and cough with thick, mucoid, blood-tinged sputum. Chest radiograph showed right middle lobe opacification and bulging fissure sign. The most likely cause of pneumonia in this case is:

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae (TOPNOTCH)

1338
Q

An important cause of secondary bacterial pneumonia in children and adults following a viral respiratory illness (measles, influenza)

A

Staphylococcus aureus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 703

1339
Q

Cause of pneumonia associated with high incidence of lung abscess and empyema

A

Staphylococcus aureus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 703

1340
Q

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 707

1341
Q

Distribution of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, lobar or patchy consolidation?

A

Lobar (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 707

1342
Q

Predominant histologic pattern in viral pneumonia

A

Interstitial inflammatory reaction of the walls of alveoli (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 707

1343
Q

Cause of pneumonia seen particularly in organ transplant recipients.

A

Pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 708

1344
Q

Common cause of pneumonia in persons with cystic fibrosis, burn victims and in patients with neutropenia

A

Pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 708

1345
Q

Most frequent cause/mechanism of lung abscess

A

Aspiration of infective material (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 708

1346
Q

Cardinal histologic change in lung abscess

A

Suppurative destruction of lung parenchyma within the central area of cavitation (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 709

1347
Q

Major morphologic correlate of chronic rejection

A

Bronchiolitis obliterans (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 712

1348
Q

Type of emphysema in smoking

A

Centriacinar (centrilobular) Emphysema(TOPNOTCH)

1349
Q

Most common histologic pattern of bronchogenic carcinoma

A

Adenocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 715

1350
Q

Most common site of lung squamous cell carcinoma

A

Central/hilar region (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 715

1351
Q

Most common type of lung cancer in men

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 716

1352
Q

Histologic characteristics of this type of lung carcinoma is keratinization and/or intercellular bridges.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 716

1353
Q

Pulmonary embolism could lead to this type of shock

A

Cardiogenic shock (TOPNOTCH)

1354
Q

Mechanism of pulmonary edema in left sided CHF.

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 671

1355
Q

Associated with medial hypertrophy of the pulmonary muscular and elastic arteries, pulmonary arterial atherosclerosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

A

Pulmonary hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed. p. 700

1356
Q

An autoimmune disease characterized by rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and necrotizing hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis.

A

Goodpasture syndrome(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 701

1357
Q

Presents with cough, fever, and copious foul-smelling sputum, usually with antecedent primary lung infection. Cardinal histologic change in this condition is suppurative destruction of lung parenchyma within the central area of cavitaion.

A

Lung abscess(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 709

1358
Q

Pneumonia acquired by inhalation of dust particles from soil contaminated with bird or bat droopings that contain micronidia. Symptoms resemble those of tuberculosis.

A

Histoplasmosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9h Ed. p. 709

1359
Q

The most common site of metastatic neoplasm

A

Lung(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9h Ed. p. 721

1360
Q

Sudden death in pulmonary embolism is caused by:

A

Blockage of blood flow through the lungs.(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 698

1361
Q

Inflammatory cell implicated in the pathogenesis of ARDS (A) type II pneumocyte (B) neutrophil (C) fibroblast (D) eosinophil

A

neutrophil (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 482

1362
Q

Of the types of emphysema that cause clinically significant airway obstruction, which one is the commonest? (A) centriacinar (B) panacinar (C) distal acinar (D) irregular

A

Centriacinar (centrilobular) Emphysema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 485

1363
Q

In chronic bronchitis, a Reid index of more than 0.4 is diagnostic. The Reid index is the ratio of the thickness of the (A) metaplastic mucosa to the submucosal gland layer (B) submucosal gland layer to the bronchial wall (C) metaplastic mucos to the bronchial wall (D) cartilage to the submucosal gland layer

A

submucosal gland layer to the mucosal wall (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 489

1364
Q

Gross examination of lungs that show airways that can be followed almost to the pleural surfaces is characteristic of (A) emphysema (B) bronchiectasis (C) pulmonary sequestration (D) chronic bronchitis

A

Bronchiectasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 493

1365
Q

Usual interstitial pneumonia, or idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, is differentiated from other fibrosing interstitial diseases by (A) the temporal heterogeneity of the fibrosing lesions (B) presence of a lymphocytic infiltrate (C) exuberant fibroblastic proliferation (D) association with a connective tissue disease such as SLE

A

the temporal heterogeneity of the fibrosing lesions (B is nonspecific and may occur in any; C may be seen in cryptogenic organizing pneumonia; D is wrong because by definition, “idiopathic” must not be associated with other conditions) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp. 495-496

1366
Q

Which cell is the key element in the initiation and perpetuation of lung injury and fibrosis in pneumoconioses? (A) alveolar macrophage (B) neutrophil (C) respiratory epithelium basal cell (D) type II pneumocyte

A

alveolar macrophage (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 497

1367
Q

Which pneomoconiosis is associated with an increased susceptibility to tuberculosis? (A) anthracosis (B) silicosis (C) asbestosis (D) sarcoidosis

A

silicosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 499

1368
Q

Concomitant cigarette smoking in patients who have been exposed to asbestos greatly increases the risk of (A) bronchogenic carcinoma (B) mesothelioma (C) carcinoid tumor (D) hamartoma

A

bronchogenic carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 500, 530

1369
Q

Which of the following is more prevalent in nonsmokers than smokers? (A) sarcoidosis (B) centriacinar emphysema (C) desquamative interstitial pneumonia (D) respiratory bronchiolitis

A

sarcoidosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P. 501

1370
Q

What is the histopathologic sine qua non of sarcoidosis? (A) noncaseating epithelioid granuloma (B) Schaumann bodies (C) asteroid bodies (D) caseation necrosis

A

noncaseating epithelioid granuloma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P501

1371
Q

A 33 year old woman with mitral stenosis from rheumatic heart disease develops hepatomegaly and bipedal edema. She eventually dies of heart failure. An autopsy is done. Which of the following lung findings supports pulmonary hypertension? (A) coagulative necrosis of alveoli with intraparenchymal hemorrhage (B) medial hypertrophy and reduplication of elastic membranes in small arteries (C) medium arteries with chronic inflammatory infiltrate and fibrinoid necrosis (D) vessels of varying caliber with endothelial proliferation

A

medial hypertrophy and reduplication of elastic membranes in small arteries (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. P 507

1372
Q

A 40 year old lady develops progressive dyspnea and hemoptysis of 1 week. On further history, she reports tea-colored urine. Her condition worsens, and she dies. At autopsy, her lung alveoli have thickened fibrous septa, and the lumens diffusely filled with hemosiderin-laden macrophages. Immunofluorescence showed a linear pattern of immunoglobulin deposition along the alveolar septa. Kidney samples also showed the same pattern. Her dismal clinical picture is a consequence of antibodies against (A) fibrillin (B) elastin (C) collagen III (D) collagen IV

A

collagen IV (Goodpasture syndrome) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp 507-508

1373
Q

Patients with sickle cell disease have an increased risk of streptococcal pneumonia because (A) macrophages that remove the encapsulated organims are significantly reduced due to a nonfunctioning spleen (B) there is immunologic anergy to the streptococcal capsule which has structural similarity to hemoglobin S (C) the inherent resistance to malaria in sickle cell patients primes the cytotoxic T cells for protozoan, but not bacterial, infections (D) chronic hemolysis in sickle cell disease releases growth factors for the fastidious streptococcal bacteria

A

macrophages that remove the encapsulated organims are significantly reduced due to a nonfunctioning spleen (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp 428, 509

1374
Q

Which of the following patients with secondary tuberculosis have an increased likelihood of NEGATIVE sputum AFB smears? (A) 55 year old HIV-positive man with CD4+ counts 300 cells/mm3 (C) 43 year old HIV-negative man

A

55 year old HIV-positive man with CD4+ counts

1375
Q

A 55 year old man with a 50 pack year smoking history presents with a 5 cm right lung mass in the middle lobe. A CT-guided aspiration biopsy is performed, which shows round to polygonal cells twice the size of lymphocytes, with unappreciable cytoplasm, finely granular chromatin. Some of the cells demonstrate nuclear molding. What is the first line of treatment? (A) lobectomy (B) radiation therapy (C) chemotherapy (D) anti-Koch’s

A

chemotherapy (small cell carcinoma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp 531-534)

1376
Q

A 41 year old asymptomatic woman presents with a nodule on a routine xray. CT scan showed a 3-cm bronchial mucosal plaque penetrating the bronchial wall and fanning out into the peribrochial tissue, resembling a collar button. A bronchoscopy with core biopsy is done, which showed nests of uniform cells bearing regular round nuclei with salt-and-pepper chromatin, with little pleomorphism and mitosis. Which of the following is TRUE? (A) 70-80%% of patients with this tumor have hilar node metastasis at presentation (B) the tumor is thought to arise from the Kupffer cells that line the bronchial mucosa (C) Patients commonly present with the syndrome of diarrhea, flushing, and cyanosis (D) it can be considered as a less aggressive cousin to small cell carcinoma, both belonging in a spectrum of pulmonary neuroendocrine neoplasms

A

it can be considered as a less aggressive cousin to small cell carcinoma, both belonging in a spectrum of pulmonary neuroendocrine neoplasms (A- 5-15% nodal metastasis; B - arises from Kulchitsky cells; C - rarely presents with the syndrome) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp 534

1377
Q

A 28 year old man complains of epistaxis of one month duration. His otorhinolaryngologist finds an ill-defined erythematous mass in his nasopharynx, and performs a biopsy, which showed sheets and clusters of large epithelial cells having indistinct cell borders with eosinophilic nucleoli, with a background of lymphocytes. Which of the following is TRUE? (A) the mass is associated with EBV infection (B) the lymphocytes are neoplastic (C) the mass is usually resistant to radiotherapy (D) 5-year survival rates are less than 5%

A

the mass is associated with EBV infection (nasopharyngeal carcinoma) (B - the lymphocytes are not neoplastic; C - it is radiosensitive; D - 5-year survival rates 50% even for advanced cancers) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp 537

1378
Q

In laryngeal carcinoma, which tumor location has the best prognosis? (A) supraglottis (B) glottis (C) sublottis (D) epiglottis

A

glottis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. Pp 538

1379
Q

A glomerular syndrome dominated by the acute onset of usually grossly visible hematuria, mildly moderate proteinuria, azotemia, edema and hypertension.

A

Acute nephritic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 542

1380
Q

A glomerular syndrome characterized by heavy proteinuria, hypoalbunemia, severe edema, hyperlipidemia and lipiduria.

A

Nephrotic syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 542

1381
Q

Characterized by bacteriuria and pyuria, which may be asymptomatic.

A

Urinary tract infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 542

1382
Q

Most common type of collagen found in glomerular basement membrane.

A

Type IV(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 543

1383
Q

Most frequent cause nephrotic syndrome in children. Under light microscope, the glomerular basement membrane appears normal, but on electron microscopy, GBM shows uniform and diffuse effacement of foot processes of the podocytes. Good response to corticosteroid therapy.

A

Minimal change disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 550

1384
Q

A lesion characterized histologically by sclerosis affecting some but not all glomeruli and involving only segments of each affected glomerulus.

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 550

1385
Q

Slowly progressive disease characterized by the presence of subepithelial immunoglobulin-containing deposits along the glomerular basement membrane. Histologically, there is diffuse thickening of the BM. (+) spike and dome pattern on electron microscopy. Often resistant to steroid therapy.

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis (Membranous Nephropathy)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 551

1386
Q

Characterized by discrete SUBENDOTHELIAL electron-dense deposits in irregular granular pattern.

A

Type I MPGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 553

1387
Q

GBM is thickened, showing a “tram-track” appearance on PAS stains. There is proliferation of mesangial and endothelial cells as well as infiltrating leukocytes.

A

MPGN(Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 553

1388
Q

MPGN wherein the lamina densa and the SUBENDOTHELIAL space of the GBM are transformed into an irregular, ribbon-like extremely electron dense structure.

A

Type II MPGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 554

1389
Q

Caused by glomerular deposition of immune complexes resulting in diffuse proliferation and swelling of resident glomerular cells. There is uniformly increased cellularity of glomerular tufts. Electron microscopy show subepithelial “humps” against the GBM, with granular deposits of IgG and complement.

A

Acute postinfectious (poststreptococcal) Glomerulonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 555

1390
Q

Most common cause of recurrent microscopic or gross hematuria and is the most common glomerular disease revealed by renal biopsies.

A

IgA Nephropathy (Berger disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 555

1391
Q

Pathologic hallmark of this disease is the deposition of IgA in the mesangium.

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger Disease)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 556

1392
Q

Nephritis accompanied by nerve deafness, lens dislocation, posterior cataracts and corneal dystrophy.

A

Alport syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 556

1393
Q

Caused by mutations in genes encoding GBM collagen, manifest as hematuria and slowly progressing proteinuria and declining renal function. GBM has “basket-weave” appearance due to splitting and lamination of the lamina densa.

A

Hereditay nephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 557

1394
Q

A clinical syndrome characterized by rapid and progressive lossof renal function with features of nephritic syndrome,often with severe oliguria. Histologic feature is the presence of crescents.

A

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (Crescentic GN)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 557

1395
Q

CrGN characterized by linear deposits of IgG and C3 on the GBM. anti-GBM Ab also bind to pulmonary alveolar capillary basement membranes to produce pulmonary hemorrhages associated with renal failure.

A

Anti-Glomerular Basement Membrance Antibody (Type I) CrGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 557

1396
Q

CrGN which are immune complex-mediated disorders, as a complication of any of the IC nephritides including PSGN, IgA Nephropathy and HSP. There is segmental necrosis and characteristic granular pattern of the underlying immune complex disease.

A

Immune Complex-Mediated (Type II) CrGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 558

1397
Q

CrGN defined by the lack of anti-GBM Ab and immune complex deposition. Glomeruli show segmental necrosis, negative immunofluorescence.

A

Pauci-immune (Type III) CrGN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 558

1398
Q

An important cause of end-stage renal disease presenting as chronic renal failure. Kidneys are symmetrically contracted, surfaces are red-brown and diffusely granular. Glomeruli are obliterated with marked interstitial fibrosis.

A

Chronic glomerulonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 559

1399
Q

A common suppurative inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis caused by bacterial infection, either by hematogenous spread or through ascending infection.

A

Pyelonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 560

1400
Q

Hallmark of this disease is scarring involving the pelvis or calyces, or both, leading to papillary blunting and marked calyceal deformities.

A

Chronic pyelonephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 562

1401
Q

Nephritis with prominent eosinophilic and mononuclear inflitrate, with pronounced edema.

A

Acute Drug-Induced Interstitial Nephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 563

1402
Q

A clinicopatholigic entity characterized by damaged tubular epithelial cells and clinically by acute suppression of renal function.Most common cause of acute renal failure.

A

Acute tubular necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 564

1403
Q

Characterized by necrosis of short segments of the tubules, seen in the straight portions of the PCT and TALOH. There is a variety of tubular injuries, associated with proteinaceous casts in the distal tubules and collecting ducts.

A

Ischemic ATN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1404
Q

ATN characterized by necrosis and injury of the PCT with sparing of the tubular membranes.

A

Toxic ATN(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1405
Q

Phase of ATN lasting about 36 hrs, dominated by the inciting medical, surgical or obstetric event. Slight decline in renal output and a rise in serum creatinine.

A

Initiation phase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1406
Q

Phase of ATN where urine output falls markedly, between 50-400mL/day. Dominated by signs and symptoms of uremia and fluid overload.

A

Maintenance phase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1407
Q

Phase of ATN characterized by a steady increase in urine volume, electrolyte imbalance and increased vulnerability to infection.

A

Recovery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1408
Q

Chronic interstitial nephritis associated with renal papillary necrosis. The necrotic papillae appear yellowish-brown, showing coagulative necrosis associated with loss of cellular detail with preservation of tubular outlines.

A

Analgesic nephropathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 564

1409
Q

T-cell mediated immune reaction of the kidneys to an offending agent, characterized by interstitial inflammation, with abundant eosinophils and edema.

A

Drug-induced interstitial nephritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 564

1410
Q

Renal changes in benign hypertension, associated with hyaline arteriolosclerosis, appearing as homogenous, pink hyaline thickening of arterial walls. Larger blood vessels show fibroelastc hyperplasia.

A

Benign nephrosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 566

1411
Q

Acute renal injury assiciated with malignant hypertension. The kidneys show small, pinpoint petechial hemorrhages, “flea-bitten” appearance. Concentric arrangement of cells, described as “onion-skin” lesions cause marked narrowing of arterioles and small arteries.

A

Malignant nephrosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 567

1412
Q

Characterized by widespread thrombosis and presence of fibrin thrombi in glomeruli and small vessels resulting in acute renal failure. Consequence of childhood HUS and TTP.

A

Thrombotic microangiopathies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 568

1413
Q

One of the main causes of acute renal failure in children.

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 568

1414
Q

Innocuous lesions of the kidney, 1-5cm in diameter, translucent, lined by a gray, glistening, smooth membrane, filled with clear fluid. Composed of a single layer of cuboidal or flattened cuboidal epithelium, usually confined to the cortex.

A

Simple renal cyst(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1415
Q

Autosomal dominant. Kidneys are enlarged, composed solely of cysts without intervening parenchyma. Cysts are filled with clear or turbid fluid. Cysts may arise at any level of the nephron, with variable, often atrophic lining.

A

Adult polycystic kidney disease (APKD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1416
Q

What is the pathology behind APKD?

A

Defective gene PKD1,which codes for polycystin-1.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1417
Q

Function of policystin-1?

A

Protein that is involved in cell-cell or cell-matrix adhesion.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 569

1418
Q

Autosomal recessive. There are numerous small cysts in the cortex and medulla, giving the kidney a “sponge-like” appearance. Cysts have uniform cuboidal epithelium. Associated with multiple cysts in the liver.

A

Childhood Polycystic Kidney Disease (CPKD)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 570

1419
Q

An under-recognized cause of chronic kidney disease in children and young adults, associated with mutations in several genes that encode neohrocystins that may be involved in ciliary function. Kidneys are contracted and contain multiple cysts.

A

Medullary cystic disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 571

1420
Q

Calculus formation at any level of the urinary collecting system.

A

Urolithiasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 571

1421
Q

Most common composition of kidney stones. Precipitates in the presence of alkaline urine.

A

Calcium oxalate and/or calcium phosphate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 571

1422
Q

Most important cause of kidney stone formation.

A

Supersaturation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1423
Q

Kidney stones occuring in patients with alkaline urine due to UTI, particularly Proteus vulgaris and Staphylococci.

A

Struvite stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1424
Q

Component of struvite stones.

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1425
Q

Kidney stones seen in patients with gout and leukemias. Urine pH is decreased.

A

Uric acid stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1426
Q

Kidney stones associated with a defect in the renal transportation of certain amino acids. Forms in acidic urine.

A

Cystine stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1427
Q

Branching structures which create a cast of the renal pelvis and calyceal system.

A

Stagnorn calculi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1428
Q

Most common composition of staghorn calculi.

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (Struvite)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1429
Q

Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces, accompanied by atrophy of the renal parenchyma, caused by obstruction to urine outflow.

A

Hydronephrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 572

1430
Q

Dilation of the ureters secondary to obstruction.

A

Hydroureter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 573

1431
Q

Most common malignant tumor of the kidney.

A

Renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 573

1432
Q

Tumors derived from renal tubular epithelium, located primarily at the cortex. With three common forms, clear cell, papillary renal cell and chromophobe renal carcinomas.

A

Renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 573

1433
Q

Most common form of renal cell carcinoma.

A

Clear cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1434
Q

Renal carcinoma, usually solitary and large, spherical masses reaching up to 15cms in diameter. Cut surface show yellow orange to gray-white, with prominent areas of cystic softening and hemorrhage. Cells appear vacuolated or may be solid.

A

Clear cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1435
Q

Renal carcinoma exhibiting varying degrees of papilla formation with fibrovascular cores. Cells have clear to pink cytoplasm.

A

Papillary renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1436
Q

Renal cell carcinoma which tends to be tan-brown, cells have clear, flocculent cytoplasm with very prominent, distinct cell membranes. Nuclei surrounded by halos of cleared cytoplasm.

A

Chromophobe-type renal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 574

1437
Q

Tumor of the urinary bladder, characterized as small, frond-like structures having delicate fibrovascular core covered by multilayered, well-differentiated transitional epithelium.

A

Benign papilloma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 575

1438
Q

Dominant clinical presentation of bladder carcinoma.

A

Painless hematuria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 575

1439
Q

Protozoa associated with increased risk of bladder carcinoma.

A

Schistosoma haematobium(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 576

1440
Q

Chemotherapeutic agent associated with development of hemorrhagic cystitis and increased risk of bladder carcinoma.

A

Cyclophosphamide(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 576

1441
Q

Electron Microscopy: Subepithelial humps

A

PSGN (TOPNOTCH)

1442
Q

Light Microscopy: Hyalinized glomeruli

A

Chronic Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1443
Q

Electron Microscopy: Subepithelial deposits

A

Membranous glomerulopathy (TOPNOTCH)

1444
Q

Electron Microscopy: Loss of foot processes

A

Minimal Change Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1445
Q

Electron Microscopy: Subendothelial deposits

A

MPGN Type 1 (TOPNOTCH)

1446
Q

Flourescence Microscopy: Linear IgG and C3

A

Goodpasture’s disease (TOPNOTCH)

1447
Q

Light Microscopy: Normal, with lipid in tubules

A

Minimal Change Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1448
Q

What are the 3 classic diagnostic features of RCC?

A
  1. Costovertebral Pain (TOPNOTCH)2. Palpable Mass3. Hematuria
1449
Q

Among the 3 classic diagnostic features of RCC, which feature is the most reliable?

A

Hematuria (TOPNOTCH)

1450
Q

RCC morphology: pale eosinophilic cells, often with a perinuclear halo, arranged in solid sheets with a concentration of the largest cells around the blood vessels

A

Chromophobe RCC (TOPNOTCH)

1451
Q

RCC morphology: rounder or polygonal shape and have abundant clear or granular cytoplasm with stains with glycogen and lipid

A

Clear Cell RCC (TOPNOTCH)

1452
Q

RCC morphology: arise from DCT and are typically hemorrhagic and cystic

A

Papillary RCC (TOPNOTCH)

1453
Q

RCC morphology: irregular channels lined by highly atypical epithelium with a hobnail pattern.

A

Collecting Duct Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1454
Q

RCC morphology: Interstitial foam cells and psamomma bodies

A

Papillary Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1455
Q

Urolithiasis: most common type

A

Calcium Oxalate stones (TOPNOTCH)

1456
Q

Urolithiasis: staghorn calculi

A

Triple stones/ struvite stones/ Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate stones (TOPNOTCH)

1457
Q

Urolithiasis: caused by genetic defects in the renal absorption of amino acids

A

Cystine stones (TOPNOTCH)

1458
Q

Urolithiasis: associated with urea-splitting bacteria

A

Triple stones/ struvite stones/ Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate stones (TOPNOTCH)

1459
Q

Urolithiasis: radiolucent

A

Uric Acid Stones (TOPNOTCH)

1460
Q

Urolithiasis: common in patients with leukemia

A

Uric Acid Stones (TOPNOTCH)

1461
Q

What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis?

A

Occlusion by an atheromatous plaque at the origin of the renal artery (TOPNOTCH)

1462
Q

What is the most common type of Fibromuscular Dysplasia; intimal, medial, or adventitial?

A

Medial (TOPNOTCH)

1463
Q

Gross morphology: flea bitten appearance of the kidneys

A

Malignant Hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

1464
Q

What are the two histological alterations in the blood vessels of patients with malignant hypertension?

A
  1. Fibrinoid Necrosis of arterioles2. Onion-skinning (TOPNOTCH)
1465
Q

What are the 3 complications of acute pyelonephritis?

A
  1. Papillary Necrosis2. Pyonephrosis3. Perinephric Abscess (TOPNOTCH)
1466
Q

Among the 3 complications of acute pyelonephritis, which one is mainly seen in diabetics and in those with urinary tract obstruction?

A

Papillary necrosis (TOPNOTCH)

1467
Q

Morphology: acute neutrophilic exudate within tubules and the renal substance

A

Acute pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1468
Q

ATN morphology: focal tubular epithelial necrosis at multiple points along the nephron, with large skip areas in between

A

Ischemic ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1469
Q

ATN morphology: manifested by acute tubular injury with non specific tubular necrosis

A

Toxic ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1470
Q

ATN morphology: Eosinophilic hyaline casts containing Tamm Horsfall protein

A

Ischemic ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1471
Q

ATN morphology: severely injured cells that are not yet dead might contain large acidophilic inclusions

A

Mercuric Chloride ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1472
Q

ATN morphology: accumulation of neutral lipids in injured cells

A

Carbon Tetrachloride poisoning (TOPNOTCH)

1473
Q

ATN morphology: marked ballooning and hydrophic or vacuolar degeneration of proximal convulated tubules and often times calcium oxalate crystals are seen in the lumen

A

Ethylene Glycol ATN (TOPNOTCH)

1474
Q

Morphology: patchy interstitial suppurative inflammation, intratubular aggregates of neutrophils, and tubular necrosis

A

Acute pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1475
Q

Gross morphology: irregularly scarred; if bilateral, the involvement is asymmetric

A

Chronic pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1476
Q

Gross morphology: kidneys are diffusely and symmetrically scarred

A

Chronic glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1477
Q

Morphology: hallmark is the coarse, discrete, corticomedullary scar overlying a dilated, blunted, or deformed calyx

A

Chronic pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1478
Q

What is the main cause of renal dysfunction in Multiple Myeloma?

A

Bence Jones protein (TOPNOTCH)

1479
Q

Morphology: bence jones tubular casts appear as pink to blue amorphous masses, sometimes concentrically laminated, often with fractured and angulated appearance, filling and distending the lumens

A

Multiple Myeloma (TOPNOTCH)

1480
Q

Morphology: narrowing of the lumens of arterioles and small arteries, caused by thickening and hyalinization of the walls (hyaline arteriolosclerosis)

A

Benign nephrosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

1481
Q

Morphology: classic diagnostic finding is enlarged hypercellular glomeruli

A

PSGN (TOPNOTCH)

1482
Q

Gross morphology: wedge-shaped lesions, with base against the cortical surface and the apex pointing toward the medulla

A

Renal infarcts (TOPNOTCH)

1483
Q

What is the first step in the pathogenesis of ascending infection that leads to pyelonephritis?

A

Colonization of the distal urethra and introits by coliform bacteria (TOPNOTCH)

1484
Q

Morphology: “fibrin caps” and “capsular drops”

A

Diabetic kidney (TOPNOTCH)

1485
Q

Morphology: diffuse increase in mesangial matrix and characteristic PAS positive nodules

A

Diabetic glomerulosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

1486
Q

Flourescence microscopy: deposition of IgA, sometimes with IgG and C3, in the mesangial region

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpura (TOPNOTCH)

1487
Q

Gross morphology: wedge-shaped lesions, with base against the cortical surface and the apex pointing toward the medulla

A

Renal infarcts (TOPNOTCH)

1488
Q

What is the most common cause of clinical pyelonephritis?

A

Ascending infection (TOPNOTCH)

1489
Q

Morphology: “tram track” “double contour” glomerular capillary walls

A

Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1490
Q

Morphology: collapsed glomerular tufts and the crescent shaped mass of proliferating cells and leukocytes internal to Bowman capsule

A

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1491
Q

Morphology: glomeruli show thickening and sometimes splitting of capillary walls, due largely to endothelial and subendothelial swelling, and deposits of fibrin-related materials in the capillary lumens, subendothelially, and in the mesangium.

A

Childhood Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)

1492
Q

Gross morphology: fine, leathery granularity of the surface of the kidney

A

nephrosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)

1493
Q

What is the emerging viral pathogen that causes pyelonephritis in kidney allografts?

A

Polyoma virus(TOPNOTCH)

1494
Q

Morphology: enlarged tubular epithelial cells with nuclear inclusions

A

Polyoma kidney (TOPNOTCH)

1495
Q

Electron microscopy: irregular thickening of the BM of the glomerulus, lamination of the lamina densa, and foci of rarefaction

A

Alport Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

1496
Q

Morphology: lamina densa of the GBM is transformed into an irregular, ribbon like, extremely electron dense structure

A

Dense Deposit Disease or Type II MPGN (TOPNOTCH)

1497
Q

ESRD is defined as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

5%(TOPNOTCH)

1498
Q

Renal failure is defined as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

20%-25%(TOPNOTCH)

1499
Q

In renal insufficiency is defined as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

20%-50%(TOPNOTCH)

1500
Q

Diminished renal reserve is define as GFR less than how many percent of normal?

A

50%(TOPNOTCH)

1501
Q

An 18 y/o female presented with decreased in urine volume and edema. BP = 150/100. RBC cast was present in the urine. What is the most likely light microscopy pattern of this condition?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1502
Q

An 18 y/o female presented with decreased in urine volume and edema. BP = 150/100. RBC cast was present in the urine. Two weeks prior, patient had sore throat and tonsillar swelling. What is the clinical impression?

A

PSGN (TOPNOTCH)

1503
Q

Patient presented with fever, nausea, and flank pain. Urinalysis showed gross hematuria, increased pus cells, and presence of WBC cast. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Acute pyelonephritis (TOPNOTCH)

1504
Q

A 10 y/o male presents with generalized edema. BP is 90/60. Urinalysis showed Protein 3+, and presence of fatty cast. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Nephrotic syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

1505
Q

A 50 y/o patient with long standing hypertension and diabetes presented with complaints of pruritus, lower extremity edema, nausea and vomiting. Urinalysis showed presence of protein and waxy casts. Presence of waxy casts may indicate:

A

Chronic kidney disease (TOPNOTCH)

1506
Q

A 5 y/o child presents with short history of facial edema that has now progressed to swelling of the feet and abdomen. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. High levels of protein was noted in the urine. The parents reported that the child had fever few days before the development of the swelling. Biopsy was done. On light microscopy, no significant structural changes were noted except for the few lipids in the tubules. What can be expected on electron microscopy?

A

Loss of foot processes (TOPNOTCH)

1507
Q

Characterized by rapid decline in GFR, with concurrent dysreglation of fluid and electrolyte balance, and retention of metabolic waste products.

A

Acute kidney injury(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 898

1508
Q

Most frequent clinical presentation of this disease is rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. The anti-GBM antibodies cross react with pulmonary alveolar basement membranes to produce pulmonary hemorrhage, associated also with renal failure.

A

Goodpasture syndrome(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 912

1509
Q

The most common cause/mechanism of acut nephritic syndrome

A

immune-mediated glomerular injury(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 914

1510
Q

Its presence in the urine represents lipoprotein resorbed by tubular epithelial cells and then shed along with injured tubular cells.Present in Nephrotic syndrome

A

Oval fat bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 914

1511
Q

Most frequent systemic causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

Diabetes, amyloidosis, SLE(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 914

1512
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in older adults

A

Membranous glomerulopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 914

1513
Q

A 6 y/o male presented with massive proteinuria and edema. There is no hypertension or hematuria noted. Patient responded well to corticosteroid. The principal lesion in this condition:

A

Uniform and diffuse effacement of foot processes(Minimal change disease) (TOPNOTCH)

1514
Q

Most common type of glomerulonephritis worldwide

A

IgA Nephropathy/Berger Disease(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 923

1515
Q

Presents with gross hematuria after an infection of the respiratory, GIT or urinary tract, microscopic hematuria, with or without proteinuria. Hematuria last for several days, only to return every few months. These are the clinical features of what renal pathology?

A

IgA Nephropathy/Berger Disease(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 923

1516
Q

This childhood syndrome consists of purpuric skin lesions, abdominal pain, intestinal bleeding, and arthralgia along with renal abnormalities.

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpura (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 926

1517
Q

Most common renal manifestation of multiple myeloma

A

Chronic kidney disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 938

1518
Q

True or False. Patients with malignant hypertension have markedly elevated levels of plasma renin.

A

True (TOPNOTCH)

1519
Q

Most common cause of renal artery stenosis

A

Narrowing by an atheromatous plaque (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 940

1520
Q

Following a prodrome of influenza-like or diarrheal symptoms, this syndrome presents with sudden onset of bleeding manifestation, severe oliguria, hematuria, associated with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and prominent neurologic changes.

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed. p. 942

1521
Q

Earliest manifestation in bilateral partial obstruction of the ureter

A

Polyuria and nocturia(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 951

1522
Q

Patient presents with flank pain, hematuria, and flank mass. Abdominal CT revealed a mass on the upper pole of the left kidney. CT guided biopsy showed a tumor that are made up of cell with basophilic cytoplasm and are non-papillary. The most likely histologic type of renal carcinoma described is:

A

Clear cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

1523
Q

Most common site of metastasis of renal cell carcinoma

A

Lungs(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 955

1524
Q

A 32 year old woman develops tea-colored urine, periorbital edema, and decreasing urine output. A renal biopsy shows glomeruli with collapsed glomerular tufts and crescent-shaped masses of proliferating cells and leukocytes internal to the Bowman’s capsule. Which immunofluorescence pattern indicates that she is amenable to plasmapheresis? (A) linear staining of IgG and C3 along the GBM (B) granular “lumpy bumpy” deposits of Ig and/or complement in the GBM and/or mesangium (C) no distinct Ig or complement deposition (D) none of the above

A

linear staining of IgG and C3 (Anti-GBM antibody CrGN/Type I) (B - Type II - immune complex mediated; C - Type III - pauci immune; neither are helped by plasmapharesis) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 557-558.

1525
Q

An 18 year old female has sore throat and fever. The next day, she develops tea-colored urine for a week, which spontaneously resolves. Six months later, her hematuria recurs. She is also found to have increased serum IgA. Which of the following renal biopsy findings is consistent with her disease? (A) presence of C1q and C4 deposits in the glomeruli (B) IgA deposits in the mesangium (C) granular deposits of IgG and complement (D) subepthelial “humps” on electron microscopy

A

IgA deposits in the mesangium (Berger disease) (all other choices are seen in PSGN, which develops 1 to 4 weeks after infection)

1526
Q

A 10 year old male presents with periorbital edema. Urinalysis shows persistent albuminuria. Which renal biopsy finding will indicate that he will respond to short coursse corticosteroid therapy? (A) normal-looking glomerulus by light miscroscopy, with podocyte foot process effacement on electron microscopy (B) some glomeruli with segmental increased mesangial matrix and hyaline deposits (C) diffusely thickened GBM on light microscopy, with subepithelial deposits in a “spike and dome” pattern on electron microscopy (D) a “tram track” appearance of the thickened GBM on PAS stain

A

normal-looking glomerulus on light microscopy, with podocyte foot process effacement on electron microscopy (minimal change disease) (B - FSGS; C - membranous GN; D - membranoproliferative GN) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 550-554

1527
Q

A 38 year old male presents with gross hematuria. Imaging workup shows three renal masses. He undergoes radical nephrectomy, where gross examination of the kidney specimen showed yellowish masses with foci of hemorrhage. The mass nearest the hilum appears to infiltrate into the renal vein. On histopathology, the masses are composed of sheets of clear, vacuolated cells with round to oval nuclei, and occasional mitoses. The patient also had a history of brain surgery at 14 years old for a cerebellar hemangioblastoma. This association raises the possibility which syndrome? (A) Li Fraumeni (B) Von Hippel-Lindau (C) Tuberous sclerosis (D) Gardner

A

von Hippel-Lindau (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 573-74

1528
Q

Which of the following is the most important prognostic factor in bladder tumors? (A) histologic grade (B) painless hematuria (C) histologic type (D) depth of invasion

A

depth of invasion (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed. p. 576

1529
Q

Lesion of the female vulva characterized by thinning of the epidermis and disappearance of rete pegs, hydropic degeneration of basal cells, superficial hyperkeratosis, dermal fibrosis with scant perivascular, mononuclear inflammatory cell infiltrate. Occurs most commonly in postmenopausal women.

A

Lichen sclerosus(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1530
Q

This disorder of the vulva is marked by epithelial thickening, expansion of the stratum granulosum, significant surface hyperkeratosis and pronounced leukocytic infiltrate. Appears clinically as an area of leukoplakia.

A

Lichen simplex chronicus(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1531
Q

These are flat, moist, minimally elevated lesions that occur in secondary syphilis.

A

Condyloma lata(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1532
Q

Lesions of the anogenital area which may be papillary and distinctly elevated or may be somewhat flat and rugose. Characteristic cellular morphology is the presence of cytoplasmic vacuolization with nuclear angular polymorphism and koilocytosis. Hallmark of HPV infection.

A

Condyloma acuminata(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 713

1533
Q

Red, scaly plaque, microscopically characterized by the spread of malignant cells within the epithelium, occasionally with invasion of underlying dermis. May have underlying carcinoma of a vulvar or perineal gland.

A

Paget disease of the Vulva(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 715

1534
Q

A soft polypoid mass, which is a rare form of primary vaginal cancer. Usually encountered in infants and children less than 5 y/o.

A

Sarcoma botryoides (embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma)(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 716

1535
Q

Most commonly develops in the transformation zone of the cervix. Produces a “barrel cervix” if the tumor encircles the cervix and invades the underlying stroma.

A

Invasive carcinoma of the cervix(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 719

1536
Q

Protruding polypoid masses which are inflammatory in origin, soft, yields to palpation, and have a smooth, glistening surface with underlying cystically dilated spaces filled with mucinous secretion.

A

Endocervical polyp(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 721

1537
Q

Refers to the growth of the basal layer of the endometrium down to the myometrium. Nests of endometrial stroma, glands or both are found in the myometrium, in between muscle bundles.

A

Adenomyosis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 721

1538
Q

Characterized by the presence of endometrial glands and stroma in a location outside the endomyometrium. Undergoes cyclic bleeding. Also called “chocolate cysts”.

A

Endometriosis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 722

1539
Q

These are sharply circumscribed, firm, gray-white masses of the uterus, with “whorled” cut surface.

A

Leiomyoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 721

1540
Q

Solitary tumors of the uterus which arise de novo from the mesenchymal cells of the myometrium. Characterized byvtche presence of tumor necrosis, cytologic atypia and mitotic activity.

A

Leiomyosarcomas(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 725

1541
Q

Type of endometrial carcinoma associated with estrogen excess and endometrial hyperplasia.

A

Endometroid carcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 727

1542
Q

Type of endometrial carcinoma which occurs in older women and is usually associated with endometrial atrophy.

A

Serous carcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 727

1543
Q

Small, fluid-filled cysts which originate from the unruptured graafian follicles or in follicles that have ruptured and immediately sealed.

A

Follicle and luteal cysts(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 728

1544
Q

Triad of oligomenorrhea, infertility and obesity in young women secondary to excessive production of estrogens and androgens.

A

Polycystic ovaries(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 728

1545
Q

Other name for polycystic ovary syndrome?

A

Stein-Leventhal syndrome(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 728

1546
Q

Two most important risk factors for development of ovarian cancer.

A

Nulliparity and family history(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 729

1547
Q

Mutation of this gene is associated in the development of both ovarian and breast cancers.

A

BRCA 1(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 729

1548
Q

Mutation of this gene is associated with the development of breast cancer only,

A

BRCA 2(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 729

1549
Q

Benign lesion of the ovary most commonly seen in women 30-40 years old. Most frequent of the ovarian tumors. Serosal covering is smooth and glistening. Characterized histologically by tall, columnar epithelium and the presence of Psammoma bodies.

A

Serous tumor of the ovary(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 730

1550
Q

Large, multilocular tumors of the ovaries, without psammoma bodies. Composed of mucin-producing epithelial cells.

A

Mucinous Tumors (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1551
Q

Metastasis of mucinous tumor of the gastrointestinal tract to the ovaries is called?

A

Krukenberg tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1552
Q

A rare, solid, unilateral ovarian tumor consisting of an abundant stroma containing nests of transitional-like epithelium resembling that of the urinary tract.

A

Brenner Tumor (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1553
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor composed of sheets or cords of large cleared cells separated by scant fibrous strands. Stroma may contain lymphocytes and occasional granuloma. Usually occur on the 2nd-3rd decade of life.

A

Dysgerminoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1554
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor which occur during the 1st 3 decades of life. Characterized by small, hemorrhagic focus with syncitiothrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. Metastasize early.

A

Choriocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1555
Q

Sex cord tumor seen as small, gray to yellow-brown, and solid lesions. May resemble development of testis with tubules, or cords and plump pink Sertoli cells. May be masculinizing or defeminizing.

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1556
Q

Microscopically, the distinguishing feature is a variety of immature or barely recognizable areas of differentiation toward cartilage, bone, muscle, nerve, and other structures. Found early in life.

A

Immature Malignant Teratomas (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1557
Q

Tumor of the ovary composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue. May hyperfunction and produce hyperthyroidism. Appear as small, solid, unilateral brown ovarian masses

A

Struma ovarii (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1558
Q

A voluminous mass of swollen, sometimes cystically dilated, chorionic villi, appearing grossly as grapelike structures.

A

Hydatidiform Mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 735

1559
Q

This type of H. mole shows hydropic swelling of chorionic villi and virtual absence of vascularization of villi. No fetal parts seen.

A

Complete mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1560
Q

This type of H. mole shows villous edema that involves only some of the villi and the trophoblastic proliferation is focal and slight, with characteristic irregular scalloped margin. Fetal parts/embryo may be seen.

A

Partial mole(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1561
Q

These are complete moles that are more invasive locally but do not metastasize. Microscopically, the epithelium of the villi is marked by hyperplastic and atypical changes, with proliferation of both cuboidal and syncytial components.

A

Invasive Mole (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 736

1562
Q

Appear as very hemorrhagic, necrotic masses within the uterus. The tumor is purely epithelial, composed of anaplastic cuboidal cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, chorionic villi are not formed. High propensity for metastasis.

A

Choriocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 737

1563
Q

Term used to describe hyperplasia that cytologically resemble lobular carcinoma in situ, but the cells do not fill or distend more than 50% of the acini within a lobule.

A

Atypical lobular hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1564
Q

The lumen of the ducts, ductules, or lobules of the breast is filled with a heterogeneous population of cells of different morphologies. Irregular slit-like fenestrations are prominent at the periphery.

A

Epithelial Hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1565
Q

These lesions are characterized by proliferation of lining epithelial cells and myoepithelial cells in small ducts and ductules, yielding masses of small gland patterns within a fibrous stroma. The acini are arranged in a swirling pattern, and the outer border is usually well circumscribed.

A

Sclerosing Adenosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 741

1566
Q

A nonbacterial chronic inflammation of the breast associated with inspissation of breast secretions in the main excretory ducts.

A

Mammary duct ectasia (periductal or plasma cell mastitis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1567
Q

The lesion is small, often tender, rarely more than 2 cm in diameter, and sharply localized, with a central focus of necrotic fat cells surrounded by neutrophils and lipid-filled macrophages. Caused by some antecedent trauma to the breast.

A

Traumatic fat necrosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1568
Q

Small lobulated and cystic lesion of the breast that may grow rapidly. Exhibit “leaflike” clefts and slits on gross section.

A

Phyllodes Tumor (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 743

1569
Q

A neoplastic papillary growth within a duct, usually solitary and less than 1 cm in diameter, consisting of delicate, branching growths within a dilated duct or cyst.

A

Intraductal Papilloma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 743

1570
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast that tends to fill, distort, and unfold involved lobules and thus appears to involve ductlike spaces.

A

Ductal Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 745

1571
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast expands but does not alter the underlying lobular architecture. Cells are monomorphic with bland, round nuclei and occur in loosely cohesive clusters in ducts and lobules. Tend to be bilateral, and increases risk for development of breast CA.

A

Lobar Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 746

1572
Q

Caused by the extension of DCIS up to the lactiferous ducts and into the contiguous skin of the nipple.

A

Paget disease of the nipple (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 746

1573
Q

This type of cancer produces a desmoplastic response, replacing normal breast fat and forms a hard, palpable mass. Advanced cancers may cause dimpling of the skin, retraction of the nipple, or fixation to the chest wall.

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1574
Q

Breast cancer defined by the clinical presentation of an enlarged, swollen, erythematous breast, usually without a palpable mass. The blockage of numerous dermal lymphatic spaces by carcinoma results in the clinical appearance (e.g peau d’ orange)

A

Inflammatory carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1575
Q

Breast cancer which consists of cells morphologically identical to the cells of LCIS. Occasionally they surround cancerous or normal-appearing acini or ducts, creating a so-called “bull’s-eye pattern.”

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1576
Q

A rare subtype of carcinoma consisting of sheets of large anaplastic cells with pushing, well-circumscribed borders, with a pronounced lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.

A

Medullary carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1577
Q

A rare subtype of carcinoma which appear grossly as a soft and gelatinous mass which abundant quantities of extracellular mucin that dissects into the surrounding stroma.

A

Colloid (mucinous) carcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1578
Q

Usually present as irregular mammographic densities. Microscopically, the carcinomas consist of well-formed tubules with low-grade nuclei. Lymph node metastases are rare, and prognosis is excellent.

A

Tubular carcinomas (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 747

1579
Q

Grossly, appears as a button-like, subareolar swelling. in bilateral breasts of males.

A

Gynecomastia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 750

1580
Q

Large, multilocular tumors of the ovaries, without psammoma bodies. Composed of mucin-producing epithelial cells.

A

Mucinous Tumors (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1581
Q

Metastasis of mucinous tumor of the gastrointestinal tract to the ovaries is called?

A

Krukenberg tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1582
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor composed of sheets or cords of large cleared cells separated by scant fibrous strands. Stroma may contain lymphocytes and occasional granuloma. Usually occur on the 2nd-3rd decade of life.

A

Dysgerminoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1583
Q

Unilateral ovarian tumor which occur during the 1st 3 decades of life. Characterized by small, hemorrhagic focus with syncitiothrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. Metastasize early.

A

Choriocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1584
Q

Sex cord tumor characterized by solid gray fibrous cells to yellow (lipid-laden) plump thecal cells. Most hormonally inactive.

A

Thecoma-fibroma tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1585
Q

Sex cord tumor seen as small, gray to yellow-brown, and solid lesions. May resemble development of testis with tubules, or cords and plump pink Sertoli cells. May be masculinizing or defeminizing.

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1586
Q

On transection, filled with sebaceous secretion and matted hair, bonw and cartilage, nests of bronchial or gastrointestinal epithelium, and other recognizable lines of development are also present.

A

Benign (Mature) Cystic Teratomas / Dermoid Cyst(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1587
Q

Microscopically, the distinguishing feature is a variety of immature or barely recognizable areas of differentiation toward cartilage, bone, muscle, nerve, and other structures. Found early in life.

A

Immature Malignant Teratomas (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1588
Q

Appear as very hemorrhagic, necrotic masses within the uterus. The tumor is purely epithelial, composed of anaplastic cuboidal cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, chorionic villi are not formed. High propensity for metastasis.

A

Choriocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 737

1589
Q

A cystic dilation of an obstructed duct that arises during lactation.

A

Galactocele (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1590
Q

Multifocal, bilateral blue-brown cysts (“blue dome cysts”) of the breast, measuring 1-5 cm diameter, filled with serous turbid fluid. Occurs normally in the menstrual cycle.

A

Simple fibrocystic change of the breast(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1591
Q

Term used to describe hyperplasia that cytologically resemble lobular carcinoma in situ, but the cells do not fill or distend more than 50% of the acini within a lobule.

A

Atypical lobular hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1592
Q

The lumen of the ducts, ductules, or lobules of the breast is filled with a heterogeneous population of cells of different morphologies. Irregular slit-like fenestrations are prominent at the periphery.

A

Epithelial Hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 739

1593
Q

These lesions are characterized by proliferation of lining epithelial cells and myoepithelial cells in small ducts and ductules, yielding masses of small gland patterns within a fibrous stroma. The acini are arranged in a swirling pattern, and the outer border is usually well circumscribed.

A

Sclerosing Adenosis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 741

1594
Q

A nonbacterial chronic inflammation of the breast associated with inspissation of breast secretions in the main excretory ducts.

A

Mammary duct ectasia (periductal or plasma cell mastitis) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1595
Q

The most common benign neoplasm of the female breast.

A

Fibroadenoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1596
Q

A discrete, usually solitary, freely movable nodule, 1 to 10 cm in diameter, easily “shelled out” lesion of the breast. Histologically there is a loose fibroblastic stroma containing ductlike, spaces lined by a layer of epithelium that are regular and have a well-defined, intact basement membrane.

A

Fibroadenoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 742

1597
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast that tends to fill, distort, and unfold involved lobules and thus appears to involve ductlike spaces.

A

Ductal Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 745

1598
Q

A type of noninvasive carcinoma of the breast expands but does not alter the underlying lobular architecture. cells are monomorphic with bland, round nuclei and occur in loosely cohesive clusters in ducts and lobules. Tend to be bilateral, and increases risk for development of breast CA.

A

Lobar Carcinoma in Situ(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 746

1599
Q

Morphology: large macrophages with granular PAS positive cytoplasm and several dense, round Michaelis Gutmann bodies.

A

Malacoplakia (TOPNOTCH)

1600
Q

In gonococcal infection of the female reproductive system, inflammatory changes will appear about how many days after the inoculation of the organism?

A

2-7 days (TOPNOTCH)

1601
Q

These cells are distinguised by a clear separation “halo” from the surrounding epithelial cells and a finely granular cytoplasm containing mucopolysaccharide that stains with PAS, Alcian Blue, and Mucicarmine

A

Paget cells (TOPNOTCH)

1602
Q

What is the probable precursor of vaginal adenocarcinoma?

A

Vaginal adenosis (TOPNOTCH)

1603
Q

What do you call the glandlike structures filled with an acidophilic material similar to immature follicles that are seen in Granulosa Theca Cell tumors?

A

Call Exner bodies (TOPNOTCH)

1604
Q

Presence of these structures characterize serous tumors of the ovaries

A

Psammoma bodies (TOPNOTCH)

1605
Q

These tumors are distinguished from serous and mucinous tumors of the ovaries by the presence of tubular glands that resemble the endometrium

A

Endometriod tumor (TOPNOTCH)

1606
Q

A key factor in the development of endometrial hyperplasia and related cancers is the inactivation of what tumor suppressor gene?

A

PTEN (TOPNOTCH)

1607
Q

What is the most common location of vaginal adenocarcinoma?

A

Anterior wall of the upper third of Vagina (TOPNOTCH)

1608
Q

This is a condition in which glandular columnar epithelium of mullerian type either appears beneath the squamous epithelium or replaces it

A

Vaginal Adenosis (TOPNOTCH)

1609
Q

What are the 4 cardinal histologic features of Lichen Sclerosus of the Vulva or Chronic atrophic vulvitis?

A

Atrophy of the epidermis with disappearance, of the rete pegs, hydrophic degeneration of the basal cells, replacement of the underlying dermis by dense collagenous fibrous tissue, and monoclonal band like lymphocytic infiltrate (TOPNOTCH)

1610
Q

Morphology: acanthosis of the vulvar squamous epithelium frequently with hyperkeratosis

A

Lichen SImplex Chronicles (TOPNOTCH)

1611
Q

Morphology: presence of large tumor cells lying singly or in small lusters within the epidermis and its appendages

A

Extra mammary Paget Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1612
Q

Morphology: tumor cells resemble tennis racket with small protrusions of cytoplasms from one end

A

Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1613
Q

Clustering of tumor cells in a so called “Cambium Layer” is seen in what type of rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

1614
Q

On histological examination of the cervix, epithelial spongiosis is associated with what type of infection?

A

T. vaginal infection (TOPNOTCH)

1615
Q

On histological examination of the cervix, epithelial ulcers with intranuclear inclusions within the epithelial cells and lymphocytic infiltration is associated with what type of infection?

A

HSV (TOPNOTCH)

1616
Q

Morphology: these are composed of dense fibrous stroma covered with endocervical columnar epithelium

A

Endocervical polyp (TOPNOTCH)

1617
Q

What is considered the most important agent in cervical oncogenesis?

A

HPV (TOPNOTCH)

1618
Q

Koilocytic atypia is considered what type of CIN lesion?

A

CIN I (TOPNOTCH)

1619
Q

What is the most common pattern seen in invasive cervical carcinoma?

A

Fungating (TOPNOTCH)

1620
Q

On histological examination of the endometrium, what is the earliest morphological evidence of ovulation?

A

Basal vacuolation (TOPNOTCH)

1621
Q

Morphology: ectopic endometrial glands and stroma with numerous macrophages containing hemosiderin

A

Endometriosis (TOPNOTCH)

1622
Q

The combination of ovarian tumor, hydrothorax, and ascites is designated as

A

Meigs Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

1623
Q

What type of ovarian cancer is best considered as the counterpart of the seminoma of the testes?

A

Dysgerminoma (TOPNOTCH)

1624
Q

About 1% of the dermoids undergo malignant transformation of any one of the component elements present, but most commonly, they differentiate into what type of carcinoma?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1625
Q

Morphology: characterized by a lining of tall columnar epithelial cells with apical mucin and the absence of cilia, resembling cervical or intestinal epithelium

A

Mucinous tumors (TOPNOTCH)

1626
Q

Morphology: lined by a rim of bright yellow luteal tissue containing luteinized granulosa cells

A

Luteal cyst (TOPNOTCH)

1627
Q

Morphology: characterized chiefly by dilations of ducts, inspissation of breast secretions, and marked periductal and interstitial chronic granulomatous reaction

A

Mammary Duct Ectasia (TOPNOTCH)

1628
Q

What are the 3 principal patterns of morphologic changes seen in Fibrocystic Changes of the breast?

A
  1. Cyst formation with apocrine metaplasia2. Fibrosis3. Adenosis (TOPNOTCH)
1629
Q

Morphology: proliferation of intralobular stroma surrounding and often pushing and distorting the associated epithelium. The border is sharply delimited from the surrounding tissue

A

Fibroadenoma (TOPNOTCH)

1630
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor useful as a predictive factor for the response of therapy in patients with breast cancer?

A

Presence of estrogen and progesterone receptors (TOPNOTCH)

1631
Q

Morphology: characterized by solid syncytium like sheets occupying 75% of the tumor , prominent lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate and a non inflitrative border

A

Medullary carcinoma of the breast (TOPNOTCH)

1632
Q

The histologic hallmark of this tumor is the pattern of single infiltrating tumor cells, often only one cell in width, or in loose clusters or sheets

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1633
Q

This is a rare manifestation of breast cancer and presents as a unilateral erythematous eruption with a scale crust

A

Paget disease (TOPNOTCH)

1634
Q

These are stellate lesions characterized by a central nidus of entrapped glands in a hyalinized stroma

A

Complex Sclerosing Lesion or Radial Scar (TOPNOTCH)

1635
Q

Morphology: composed of multiple branching fibrovascular cores, each having a connective tissue axis lined by luminal and myoepithelial cells

A

Papillomas (TOPNOTCH)

1636
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of breast disease

A

Pain (TOPNOTCH)

1637
Q

The principal mammographic signs of breast carcinoma

A

Densities and calfications (TOPNOTCH)

1638
Q

Morphology: the main histologic feature is keratinizing squamous epithelium extending to an abnormal depth into the orifices of the nipple ducts

A

Periductal mastitis (TOPNOTCH)

1639
Q

Mammographic appearance: Large lobulated “popcorn” calcifications

A

Fibroadenoma (TOPNOTCH)

1640
Q

Morphology: characterized by solid sheets of pleomorphic cells with high-grade nuclei and central necrosis detected mamographically as clusters or linear and branching microcalcifications

A

Comedocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1641
Q

Morphology: Terminal ducts (without lobule formation) are lined by a multilayered epithelium with small papillary tufts and surrounding periductal hyalinization and fibrosis.

A

Gynecomastia (TOPNOTCH)

1642
Q

Morphology: terminal duct lobular unit is enlarged, and the acini are compressed and distorted within the lumens. Calcifications are often present within the lumens.

A

Sclerosing adenosis(TOPNOTCH)

1643
Q

Morphology: central fibrovascular core extends from the wall of a duct. The papillae arborize within the lumen and are lined by myoepithelial and luminal cells

A

Intraductal papilloma(TOPNOTCH)

1644
Q

Cellular proliferation resembling ductal carcinoma in situ or lobular carcinoma in situ but lacking sufficient qualitative or quantitative features for a diagnosis of carcinoma in situ

A

Atypical hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1645
Q

Refers to a proliferation of cells identical to those of LCIS but the cells do not fill or distend more than 50% of the acini within a lobule.

A

Atypical Lobular hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1646
Q

Recognized by its histologic resemblance to ductal carcinoma in situ, including a monomorphic cell population, regular cell placement, and round lumina. However, the lesions are characteristically limited in extend, and the cells are not completely monomorphic in type or they fail to completely fill ductal spaces

A

Atypical hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1647
Q

What are the two major risk factors for breast carcinoma?

A

Hormonal and Genetics/family history(TOPNOTCH)

1648
Q

This is a subtype of DCIS which is recognized by bulbous protrusions without a fibrovascular core, often forming complex intraductal patents.

A

Micropapillary DCIS(TOPNOTCH)

1649
Q

Earliest lesions consist of red papules progressing to vesicles then to painful coalescent ulcers on the vulvar or vaginal area. Smears shows multinucleated squamous cellswith basophilic viral inclusion with a ground-glass appearance. This is caused by:

A

HSV (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathologym 9th ed, p. 993

1650
Q

Presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with a dimpled center. Central waxy core contains cells with cytoplasmic viral inclusion. The lesion described is:

A

Molluscum contagiosum(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 993

1651
Q

Manifests with vulvovaginal pruritus, erythema, swelling, and curdlike vaginal discharge. Wet KOH mount of discharge shows pseudospore or filamentous fungal hyphae.

A

Candidiasis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 994

1652
Q

Presents with yellow, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginal discomfort, dysuria, and dyspareunia. The vaginal and cervical mucosa typically has a fiery red appearance, with marked dilatation of cervical mucosal vessels (“strawberry cervix”). The cause is:

A

Trichomonas vaginalis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 994

1653
Q

Presents with thin, green-gray, fishy vaginal discharge. Pap smear reveal squamous cells covered with a shaggy coating coccobacilli.

A

Bacteria vaginosis(caused by Gardnerella vaginalis)(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 994

1654
Q

This infection is characterized by marked acute inflammation of mucosa; smears of inflammatory exudate shows phagocytosed gram-negative diplococci within neutrophils.

A

Gonococcal infection(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 995

1655
Q

Most common site of vaginal carcinoma

A

Upper vagina, posterior wall at the junction with ectocervix(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1000

1656
Q

True or False: All HSILS are considered to be at high risk for progression to carcinoma.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1003

1657
Q

Viral proteins implicated in the ability of HPV to act as carcinogen by interfering with the activity of tumor suppressor proteins.

A

E6 and E7(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1002

1658
Q

Most common histologic subtype of cervical carcinoma

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

1659
Q

Most common high-risk HPV type causing cervical precursor lesions and cervical carcinomas.

A

HPV-16.(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1007

1660
Q

Most frequent cause of dysfunctional bleeding

A

Anovulation(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1009

1661
Q

Disease of women in active reproductive life; causes infertility, dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain. Endometrial glands and stroma outside of the uterus.

A

Endometriosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1012

1662
Q

An important cause of abnormal uterine bleeding; frequent precursor to endometrial carcinoma; most commonly caused by by unopposed estrogen stimulation.

A

Endometrial hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1013

1663
Q

Most common invasive cancer of the female genital tract

A

Endometrial carcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1013

1664
Q

True or False. Malignant transformation of leiomyoma to leiomyosarcoma is rare.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1020

1665
Q

The majority of ovarian neoplasm arise from?

A

Mullerian epithelium(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1023

1666
Q

The most common primary malignant ovarian tumor

A

Serous adenocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1023

1667
Q

Most common germ cell tumor of the ovary in women of reproductive age

A

Mature cystic teratoma/dermoid cyst(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1031

1668
Q

Glomerulus-like structure composed of a central blood vessel enveloped by tumor cells within a space lined by tumor cells

A

Schiller-Duval body(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1031

1669
Q

Characteristic histologic feature of Yolk Sac Tumor

A

Schiller-Duval body(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1031

1670
Q

Ovarian tumor that may elaborate large amounts of estrogen; Two thirds occur in post-menopausal women; potentially malignant

A

Granulosa cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1032

1671
Q

Biomarker useful for identifying granulosa an other sex cord-stromal tumors, and monitoring treatment.

A

Serum inhibin(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1032

1672
Q

Serum marker for ovarian carcinoma

A

CA-125(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1029

1673
Q

Ovarian tumor that often functional and commonly produce masculinization or defeminization; peak incidence 20-30 y/o; cut surface is usually solid, gray to golden brown in appearance.

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. `033

1674
Q

Most common extra-mullerian tumors metastatic to the ovary

A

Carcinoma of the breast and GIT(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1034

1675
Q

Systemic syndrome characterized by widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction that presents during pregnancy with hypertension, edema, and proteinuria.

A

Preeclampsia(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, p. 1034

1676
Q

Morphology: placental infarcts, retroplacental hematoma, abnormal decidual vessels, fibrin thrombi in the portal capillaries and hemorrhagic necrosis of the liver, kidney glomeruli show marked swelling of endothelial cells, mesangial cell hyperplasia, amorphous dense deposits on the endothelial side of basement membrane.

A

Preeclampsia(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, p. 1039

1677
Q

Choriocarcinoma is most often preceded by:

A

Complete H. mole(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1041

1678
Q

Most common cause of acute bacterial mastitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1046

1679
Q

Most important risk factors of breast cancer

A

Estrogenic stimulation and age(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1057

1680
Q

Most common molecular subtype of invasive breast cancer

A

ER-positive, HER2-negative, low proliferation(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1060

1681
Q

Histologic hallmark: presence of discohesive infiltrating tumor cells, often including signet-ring cell containing mucin droplets.

A

Lobular carcinoma of the breast(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1065

1682
Q

Most important prognostic factor for invasive carcinoma of the breast in the absence of lymph node status.

A

Axillary lymph node status(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1066

1683
Q

A 44 year old G3P3 has a routine Pap smear, which reported “LSIL.” A colposcopy showed a reddish area in the posterior cervix. Biopsy showed an intact squamous epithelium with some cells showing dark, angulated nuclei surrounded by a clear cytoplasm. The biopsy will be read as (A) normal (B) CIN I (C) CIN II (D) CIN III

A

CIN I (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 718-719

1684
Q

A 38 year old G2P2 presents with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Ultrasound shows a symmetrically enlarged uterus, with a 4 cm thick myometrium, and endometrium with normal thickness. She opts to have a hysterectomy. The histopathology showed nests of endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium between the muscle bundles. The endometrium is described as “proliferative.” She has (A) a leiomyoma (B) adenomyosis (C) endometrial stromal sarcoma (D) endometrial carcinoma

A

Adenomyosis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 721

1685
Q

A 42 year old G4P4 has had a 20 year history of dysmenorrhea. An ultrasound shows a right adnexal cyst. She undergoes a right salpingoophorectomy. The right ovary has been converted to a 10 cm diameter brown cystic mass, filled with dark brown fluid. The internal surface is shaggy. Microscopic examination shows hemorrhage and hemosiderin deposits, and occasional endometrial glands and stroma. This lesion (A) contains nonfunctioning endometrium (B) probably originated from retrograde implantation of menstrual endometrium (C) is malignant (D) all of the above

A

probably originated from retrograde implantation of menstrual endometrium (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 722

1686
Q

Which of the following is associated with endometrial hyperplasia? (A) Stein-Leventhal syndrome (B) granulosa-theca cell tumors (C) obesity (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 723

1687
Q

Which of the following has the highest risk of developing endometrial carcinoma? (A) cystically dilated endometrial glands, with single layer of endometrial cells (B) crowded branched endometrial glands, with tall, columnar epithelium exhibiting stratification and nuclear atypia (C) nests of closely packed glands with single layer of endometrial cells (D) regularly spaced endometrial glands, with epithelium exhibiting supranuclear vacuoles, and stromal edema

A

crowded branched endometrial glands, with tall, columnar epithelium exhibiting stratification and nuclear atypia (complex hyperplasia with atypia) (A- disordered endometrium; C - hyperplasia without atypia; D - secretory endometrium) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 723-724

1688
Q

A 48 year old G0P0 woman has menorrhagia. Ultrasound shows multiple sharply circumscribed myometrial and submucosal masses. She undergoes hysterectomy. Histopathology showed whorled bundles of smooth muscle cells, with rare mitoses, and no necrosis. These masses (A) commonly transform into sarcomas (B) may shrink postmenopausally (C) are polyclonal (D) all of the above are true

A

may shrink postmenopausally (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 724

1689
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma? (A) obesity (B) diabetes mellitus (C) hypertension (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 725

1690
Q

In endometrial carcinomas, which histologic pattern is associated with p53 mutations, arises in a background of endometrial atrophy, and has a poor prognosis? (A) serous (B) mucinous (C) endometrioid (D) adenosquamous

A

serous (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 726

1691
Q

A 22 year old presents with signs of acute abdomen. On history, she has been amenorrheic for 8 weeks. Pelvic examination showed a tender right adnexal mass. She undergoes emergency laparotomy with right salpingectomy. At histopathology, the fallopian tube is dilated with a point of rupture. The lumen is filled with blood clots. Which of the following histopathologic findings proves tubal pregnancy? (A) decidualized tubal epithelium (B) infiltrates of neutrophilic agreggates and necrosis (C) diffuse hemorrhage and fibrin deposition (D) chorionic villi

A

chorionic villi (TOPNOTCH) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 734

1692
Q

Which of the following statements on ovarian cancer is true? (A) the risk is higher in BRCA 2 mutations than in BRCA1 (B) multiparity is a risk factor (C) oral contraceptives somewhat reduces the risk (D) all of the above

A

oral contraceptives somewhat reduces the risk (A - higher in BRCA1, B - nulliparity is a risk) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 729

1693
Q

Epithelial tumors of the ovary can be benign, borderline, or malignant. Which histologic type is more likely to be malignant than benign? (A) serous (B) mucinous (C) endometrioid

A

endometrioid (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 731

1694
Q

A 17 year old female presents with a 10 cm left ovarian cyst and undergoes oophorectomy. On histopathology, the cyst is filled with sebum and hair. There is a solid area with a gritty cut surface. Which of the following histologic findings characterizes the tumor as immature? (A) islands of cartilage and bone (B) nests of pseudostratified epithelium (C) sheets of round cells with scant cytoplasm, some forming rosettes (D) foci of glial cells admixed with neuropil

A

sheets of round cells with scant cytoplasm, some forming rosettes (neuroepithelial differentiation) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 733

1695
Q

Which of the following ovarian tumors can produce virilizing signs and symptoms? (A) granulosa cell tumor (B) thecoma (C) sertoli-leydig tumor (D) dysgerminoma

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 732

1696
Q

Which of the following trophoblastic lesions has a triploid karyotype? (A) complete mole (B) partial mole (C) invasive mole (D) placental site trophoblastic tumor

A

Partial mole(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 735-736

1697
Q

Which of the following tumors is most responsive to chemotherapy? (A) gonadal choriocarcinoma (B) gestational choriocarcinoma (C) placental site trophoblastic tumor

A

gestational choriocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 737

1698
Q

A 32 year old female presents with a 5 year history of a right breast lump. A core needle biopsy is performed. Which of the following findings represents a lesion that can progress to ductal carcinoma? (A) small and large cysts with cuboidal to columnar epithelium and surrounding fibrous stroma (B) lymphocytes and plasma cells infiltrating the periductal stroma (C) loose fibroblastic stroma with compressed, slit-like epithelium lined spaces (D) expanded ducts with proliferating monomorphic epithelial cells, with rigid, round fenestrations

A

expanded ducts with proliferating monomorphic epithelial cells, with rigid, round fenestrations (atypical ductal hyperplasia) (A - fibrocystic changes; B - chronic mastitis; (C) - fibroadenoma) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp 739-743

1699
Q

A 39 year old female presents with bloody discharge from the right nipple. A subareolar lump is palpated. It is excised and submitted to histopathology, which showed multiple papillae with connective tissue cores and lined by an outer cuboidal epithelial layer, and an inner myoepithelial layer. This lesion (A) is also known as cystosarcoma phyllodes (B) is malignant (C) usually arises in a lactiferous duct (D) all of the above

A

usually arises in a lactiferous duct (intraductal papilloma) (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p743

1700
Q

A 45 year old female presents with a right breast lump. An excision is performed, showing an ill-defined firm mass. Histopathology shows cells invading individually into the stroma, some forming aligned strands or chains. Other cells encircle normal-appearing ducts, forming a bull’s eye pattern. This carcinoma (A) is almost always associated with HER2/NEU overexpression (B) frequently metastasizes into CSF, serosal surfaces and gastrointestinal tract (C) consists more than 80% of breast carcinomas (D) all of the above are true

A

frequently metastasizes into CSF, serosal surfaces and gastrointestinal tract (invasive lobular carcinoma) (A - Her2/Neu overexpression very rare; C - uncommon type,

1701
Q

Which of the following breast carcinomas has the worst prognosis? (A) pure medullary carcinoma (B) mucinous carcinoma (C) tubular carcinoma (D) ductal carcinomas of no special type

A

ductal carcinoma of no special type (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp 748-749

1702
Q

Small, painful, rounded superficial erosions of the mouth, covered with a gray-white exudate and having an erythematous rim.

A

Aphthous ulcers (canker sores)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1703
Q

Extremely common infection caused by herpes simplex virus type 1.

A

Herpetic stomatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1704
Q

Test used to identify HSV infection.

A

Tzanck test(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1705
Q

Glassy, intranuclear acidophilic inclusion bodies.

A

Herpes simplex virus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 580

1706
Q

Adherent white, curd-like, circumscribed plaque within the oral cavity. The pseudomembrane can be scraped off revealing an underlying granular erythematous inflammatory base.

A

Oral candidiasis /”thrush”(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1707
Q

An oral lesion seen in patients with HIV. White confluent patches with “hairy” or corrugated surface with marked epithelial thickening.

A

Hairy leukoplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1708
Q

Hairy leukoplakia is caused by what infectious agent?

A

Epstein-Barr virus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1709
Q

A whitish, well-defined mucosal patch or plaque caused by epidermal thickening or hyperkeratosis, commonly seen in the vermillion border of the lower lip, buccal mucosa, hard and soft palates.

A

Leukoplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1710
Q

Oral lesion showing a corrugated surface caused by excessive hyperkeratosis. Recurring and spreads insiduously, resulting in a warty-type lesion.

A

Verrucous leukoplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 582

1711
Q

Red, velvety, granular, circumscribed lesions of the mouth with poorly defined, irregular boundaries. High malignant transformation rate.

A

Erythroplakia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 582

1712
Q

Most frequent site of oral cavity carcinomas.

A

Vermillion border of the lateral margins of the lower lip(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 582

1713
Q

Pearly white to gray, circumscribed thickenings of the oral mucosa, which grows in exophytic pattern to produce a visible and palpable nodular, eventually fungating lesions.

A

Oral cavity carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1714
Q

Most common lesion of the salivary glands resulting from blockage or rupture of a salivary gland duct.

A

Mucocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1715
Q

Inflammation of the salivary glands.

A

Sialadenitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1716
Q

Salivary and lacrimal gland inflammatory enlargement presenting as painless lesions, and dry mouth. Can be caused by sarcoidosis, leukemia, and lymphoma.

A

Mikulicz syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 583

1717
Q

Incomplete relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter in response to swallowing.

A

Achalasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1718
Q

Destruction of the myenteric plexus of the esophagus, duodenum, colon and ureter caused by a flagellate protozoa.

A

Chagas disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1719
Q

Causative agent for Chagas disease.

A

Trypanosoma cruzi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1720
Q

Adult with progressive dysphagia to solids and eventually to all foods, caused by a narrowing of the lower esophagus, usually as a result of chronic inflammatory disease.

A

Stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1721
Q

A congenital defect which causes the esophagus to end in a blind-ended pouch.

A

Esophageal atresia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1722
Q

Most common type of esophageal atresia.

A

Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula(Type C)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1723
Q

Thin membranes of normal esophageal tissue consisting of mucosa and submucosa that can partially obstruct the esophagus.

A

Esophageal web(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1724
Q

Congenital esophageal webs commonly appear in which segment of the esophagus?

A

Middle and inferior third of the esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585

1725
Q

A diverticulum of the mucosa of the pharynx just above the cricopharyngeal muscle.

A

Zenker’s diverticulum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1726
Q

A triangular area in the pharyngeal wall where a Zenker’s diverticulum may develop.

A

Killian’s triangle(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1727
Q

Protrusion of the stomach above the diaphragm, creating a bell-shaped dilation, bounded below by the diaphragmatic narrowing.

A

Sliding hernia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1728
Q

Hernia wherein a portion of the stomach, usually along the greater curvature, enters the thorax through the widened space between the muscular crura.

A

Paraesophgeal (rolling) hernia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1729
Q

Longitudinal tears along the gastroesophageal junction seen in chronic alcoholics after a bout of retching or vomiting.

A

Mallory-Weiss tears(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 586

1730
Q

Tortuous dilated veins lying within the submucosa of the distal esophagus and proximal stomach due to increased portal pressure, usually due to cirrhosis. May cause massive hemorrhage if ruptured.

A

Esophageal varices(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 587

1731
Q

Presence of eosinophils in the epithelial layer, basal zone hyperplasia and elongation of lamina propria papillae are histologic findings in this condition.

A

Reflux esophagitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 588

1732
Q

Defined as the replacement of the normal distal stratified squamous mucosa by metaplastic columnar epithelium containing goblet cells. A complication of long-standing GERD.

A

Barrett esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1733
Q

Esophageal lesion at risk of developing adenocarcinoma:Reflux esophagitis or Barrett esophagus?

A

Barrett esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 589

1734
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus commonly occur at which segment of the esophagus?

A

Proximal 2/3 of the esophagusAdenocarcinoma- distal 1/3(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1735
Q

Most common symptoms of esophageal cancer.

A

Dysphagia and odynophagia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1736
Q

Mucin-producing glandular tumors of the distal esophagus showing intestinal-type features.

A

Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 591

1737
Q

Presence of chronic inflammatory changes in the mucosa of the stomach eventually leading to mucosal atrophy and epithelial metaplasia.

A

Chronic gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1738
Q

Most important etiologic association with chronic gastritis. A non-invasive, non-spore forming S-shaped gram negative rod.

A

Helicobacter pylori(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1739
Q

Gastritis resulting from production of autoantibodies to the gastric gland parietal cells, leading to gland destruction and mucosal atrophy with loss of acid and intrinsic factor.

A

Autoimmmune gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1740
Q

Refers to the replacement of gastric epithelium with columnar and goblet cells of intestinal variety.

A

Intestinal metaplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1741
Q

A acute mucosal inflammatory process of the stomach, marked by mucosal edema and inflammatory infiltrate of neutrophils and chronic inflammatory cells. Regenerative replication of cells in the gastric pit is prominent.

A

Acute gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1742
Q

One of the major causes of hematemesis, especially in alcoholics.

A

Acute gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1743
Q

A breach in the mucosa that extends through the muscularis mucosae into the submucosa or deeper.

A

Ulcers(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1744
Q

Breach in the epithelium of the gastrointestinal mucosa only.

A

Erosions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 593

1745
Q

Chronic, solitary lesions that occur in any portion of the GIT exposed to the aggressive action of acidic peptic juices.

A

Peptic ulcers(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 594

1746
Q

Major cause of peptic ulcer disease in patients without H. pylori disease.

A

NSAID use(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 595

1747
Q

Histologic layers in a chronic, nonperforated, open ulcer.

A

From luminal surface:NecrosisInflammationGranulation tissueScar(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1748
Q

Chief complication of peptic ulcer.

A

Bleeding(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1749
Q

Increases risk of developing gastric adenocarcinoma:Acute gastritis vs. peptic ulcer disease?

A

Acute gastritisPUD is NOT a premalignant lesion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1750
Q

Acute gastric ulceration which occurs in the presence of extensive burns.

A

Curling ulcer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1751
Q

Acute gastric ulceration which occurs in the presence of injury to the CNS.

A

Cushing ulcer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1752
Q

Composed of hyperplastic gastric mucosal epithelium and an inflamed edematous stroma. A mass lesion arising from the mucosa.

A

Gastric polyp(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 597

1753
Q

Most common site of gastric carcinoma within the stomach.

A

Pylorus and antrum (50-60%), along the lesser curvatureCardia (25%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 598

1754
Q

What are the two most important factors in the genesis of colonic diverticula?

A

Focal weakness in the colonic wall and increased intraluminal pressure(TOPNOTCH)

1755
Q

Morphologic feature of gastric carcinomas with greatest impact on prognosis.

A

Depth of invasion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1756
Q

Gastric carcinoma confined to the mucosa and submucosa, regardless of the presence or absence of perigastric LN metastasis.

A

Early gastric carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1757
Q

Gastric carcinoma which has extended below the submucosa into the muscular wall.

A

Advanced gastric carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1758
Q

Three macroscopic growth patterns of gastric carcinoma.

A

Exophytic - protrusion of mass into lumenFlat or depressed - no obvious tumor mass within the mucosaExcavated - a shallow or deeply eroded crater(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1759
Q

Rigid and thickened stomach, secondary to extensive malignant infiltration.

A

Linitis plastica(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1760
Q

Histologic classification of gastric carcinoma composed of malignant cells forming neoplastic intestinal glands resembling colonic adenocarcinoma. Associated with H. pylori induced chronic gastritis.

A

Intestinal variant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1761
Q

Histologic classification of gastric carcinoma composed of gastric-type mucous cells that do not form glands but permeate the mucosa and wall as “signet-ring” cells in an infiltrative growth pattern.

A

Diffuse variant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1762
Q

A malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a gastric adenocarcinoma.

A

Krukenberg tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 599

1763
Q

Complete failure of development of the intestinal lumen.

A

Atresia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1764
Q

Narrowing of the intestinal lumen with incomplete obstruction.

A

Stenosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1765
Q

Most common intestinal anomaly which results from the failure of involution of the omphalomesenteric duct, leaving a persistent blind-ended tubular protrusion as long as 5-6cm.

A

Meckel diverticulum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1766
Q

A congenital defect of the periumbillical abdominal musculature that creates a membranous sac, into which intestines herniate.

A

Omphalocoele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1767
Q

Extrusion of the intestines caused by lack of formation of a portion of the abdominal wall.

A

Gastroschisis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1768
Q

Condition that prevents the intestines from assuming their normal intra-abdominal positions.

A

Malrotation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1769
Q

Critical lesion in the development of Hirschprung disease.

A

Lack of ganglion cells in the muscle wall and submucosa of the affected segment.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1770
Q

Ischemic lesion of the intestines which extends only up to the muscularis mucosae.

A

Mucosal infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1771
Q

Ischemic lesion of the intestines involving the mucosa and submucosa, sparing the muscular wall.

A

Mural infarction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1772
Q

Ischemic lesion of the intestines involving all of the visceral layers.

A

Transmural infarct(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1773
Q

Most common cause of transmural infarction of the intestines.

A

Acute occlusion of a major mesenteric artery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 602

1774
Q

Development of sudden abdominal pain out of proportion to the physical signs. Sometimes accomplanied by bloody diarrhea. May progress to shock and vascular collapse within hours.

A

Ischemic bowel injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 602

1775
Q

A weakness or defect in the wall of the peritoneal cavity, which permits protrusion of a pouch-like serosa lined sac of peritoneum.

A

Hernia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 603

1776
Q

A blind pouch that communicates with the lumen of the gut. Histologically describes as small, flask-like or spherical outpouchings, usually 0.5 to 1 cm diameter.

A

Diverticula(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 602

1777
Q

Telescoping of a proximal segment of a bowel into the immediately distal segment

A

Intussusception(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 604

1778
Q

Refers to twisting of a loop of bowel or other structure about its base of attachment, constricting venous outflow and sometimes the arterial supply.

A

Volvulus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 604

1779
Q

Characterized by transmural inflammation of the bowel, associated with noncaseating granulomas and fistula formation. Intestinal walls are rubbery and thick. (+) skip lesions, creeping fat mesentery

A

Crohn’s disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 613

1780
Q

An ulceroinflammatory disease of the colon which is limited to the mucosa and submucosa. No granulomas, no skip lesions. High risk of carcinoma development.

A

Ulcerative colitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 614

1781
Q

Small, nipple-like, hemispherical, smooth protrusions of the intestinal mucosa. May occur singly or multiple.contains abundant crypts luned by well-differentiated goblet or epithelial cells separated by scant lamina propria.

A

Hyperplastic polyps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 617

1782
Q

Hamartomatous proliferations mainly of lamina propria, enclosing widely spaced, dilated cystic glands. Occur most frequently in children younger than 5 years old.

A

Juvenile polyps(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1783
Q

Most common type of intestinal adenoma, which are tubular glands with slender stalks and raspberry-like heads composed pf neoplastic epithelium forming branching glands lined by tall, hyperchromatic cells.

A

Tubular adenomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1784
Q

Larger, more ominous intestinal epithelial polyp. Tends to occur in older persons at the rectum or rectosigmoid. Sessile, velvety and cauliflower-like mass projecting 1-3cm above the surrounding mucosa. Frondlike villiform extensions covered by dysplastic columnar epithelium.

A

Villous adenomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1785
Q

Composed of broad mix of tubular and villous areas, an intermediate between tubular and villous lesions.

A

Tubulovillous adenomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1786
Q

Uncommon autosomal dominant disorder with propensity for malignant transformation. Patients with this disease typically develop 500 to 2500 colonic adenomas that carpet the mucosal surface.

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 619

1787
Q

Uncommon hamartomatous polyps associated with melanotic mucosal and cutaneous pigmentation. Caused by germ-line mutations in LKB1 gene.

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 619

1788
Q

Polypoid, exophytic masses that extend along the wall of capacious cecum and ascending colon. Symptoms of fatigue, weakness and iron deficiency anemia.

A

Right sided colorectal carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 623

1789
Q

Annular, encircling lesions, “napkin-ring” constrictions of the bowel and narrowing of the lumen. Symptoms pf occult bleeding, changes in bowel habit or crampy left lower quadrant discomfort.

A

Left-sided colorectal carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 623

1790
Q

Tumor of the small intestines, showing spindle cells with elongated nuclei with fine chromatin and eosinophilic fibrillar cytoplasm. (+) c-KIT gene mutation

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 628

1791
Q

Most common site of carcinoid tumors.

A

Small intestine(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 774

1792
Q

Tumors arising from endocrine cells along the GIT. Solid, yellow-tan appearance on transection. Neoplastic cells have a scant, pink granular cytoplasm and a round-to-oval stippled nucleus.

A

Carcinoid tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 627

1793
Q

What is the most common ectopic tissue rests seen in the esophagus?

A

Ectopic Gastric Mucosa seen in the upper third of the esophagus (TOPNOTCH)

1794
Q

What is the most common location of Mallory Weiss Tears?

A

Esophagogastric junction or in the proximal gastric (TOPNOTCH)

1795
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Barret Esophagus is made when what type of cells is seen in the columnar mucosa?

A

Intestinal Goblet Cells(TOPNOTCH)

1796
Q

What type of esophagitis presents with punched out linear ulcers with nuclear inclusions seen in degenerating epithelial cells?

A

Herpesvirus esophagitis(TOPNOTCH)

1797
Q

What type of esophagitis presents with linear ulcerations of the esophageal mucosa with histologic findings of intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions?

A

CMV esophagitis(TOPNOTCH)

1798
Q

98% of Peptic Ulcers are located in what part of the GIT?

A

First portion of the anterior part of the duodenum(TOPNOTCH)

1799
Q

What is the most common location of gastric ulcer?

A

Lesser curvature (TOPNOTCH)

1800
Q

What is the most common location of gastric carcinoma is?

A

Pylorus and antrum > Cardia > body and fundus(TOPNOTCH)

1801
Q

What is the morphologic feature of gastric carcinoma that has the greatest impact on the clinical outcome?

A

Depth of invasion(TOPNOTCH)

1802
Q

What is the most common primary source of gastric metastasis?

A

Systemic lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)

1803
Q

What is the usual organism that cause spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

A

E. coli(TOPNOTCH)

1804
Q

In bacterial peritonitis, approximately how many hours from the time of initiation before there is loss of the gray, glistening quality of the peritoneal surface and it becomes dull and lusterless?

A

2-4 hours(TOPNOTCH)

1805
Q

What is the histologic criterion for the diagnosis of acute appendicitis?

A

Presence of neutrophilic infiltration of the muscularis propria.(TOPNOTCH)

1806
Q

What is the most important prognostic indicator of colorectal carcinoma?

A

The extent of the tumor at the time of diagnosis or the stage(TOPNOTCH)

1807
Q

Morphology: a type of adenoma that has frondlike villiform extensions of the mucosa, covered by dysplastic, sometimes very disorderly columnar epithelium

A

Villous adenomas(TOPNOTCH)

1808
Q

These structures represent islands of inflamed regenerating mucosa surrounded by ulceration

A

Inflammatory or pseudopolyps(TOPNOTCH)

1809
Q

Most adenomas are seen in what part of the GIT?

A

Ampulla of Vater(TOPNOTCH)

1810
Q

Most tubular adenomas are found in what part of the GIT?

A

Colon(TOPNOTCH)

1811
Q

Gross morphology: small, flask like or spherical outpouchings, usually 0.5 to 1 cm and located in the sigmoid colon

A

Colonic diverticula(TOPNOTCH)

1812
Q

Morphology: thin wall composed of flattened or atrophic mucosa, compressed submucosa, and attenuated or totally absent muscularis propria.

A

Colonic diverticula(TOPNOTCH)

1813
Q

What are the two most important factors in the genesis of colonic diverticula?

A

Focal weakness in the colonic wall and increased intraluminal pressure(TOPNOTCH)

1814
Q

What is the most common site of angiodysplasia?

A

Cecum(TOPNOTCH)

1815
Q

Morphology: these are tortuous dilations of submucosal and mucosal blood vessels

A

Angiodysplasia(TOPNOTCH)

1816
Q

What area of the GIT is at greatest risk of ischemic injury?

A

Splenic flexure(TOPNOTCH)

1817
Q

Morphology: diffuse active inflammation with crypt abscess and glandular architectural distortion

A

Ulcerative Colitis(TOPNOTCH)

1818
Q

What is the earliest lesion seen in Crohn Disease?

A

Focal neutrophilic infiltration into the epithelial layer, particularly overlying mucosal lymphoid aggregates(TOPNOTCH)

1819
Q

What is the hallmark of inflammatory bowel disease, both CD and UC?

A

Chronic mucosal damage(TOPNOTCH)

1820
Q

Gross morphology: narrowing of lumen, bowel wall thickening, serosal extension of mesenteric fat, and linear ulceration of the mucosal surface

A

Crohn disease(TOPNOTCH)

1821
Q

What are the two key pathogenic abnormalities seen in Idiopathic Inflammatory Bowel disease?

A

Strong immune response against normal flora and defects in epithelial barrier function(TOPNOTCH)

1822
Q

Gross morphology: intestinal wall is rubbery and thick, as a consequence of edema, inflammation, fibrosis and hypertrophy of the muscularis propria

A

Crohn disease(TOPNOTCH)

1823
Q

Morphology: small intestinal mucosa laden with distended macrophages in the lamina propria which are PAS positive and contains numerous bacilli and diastase resistant granules

A

Whipple disease(TOPNOTCH)

1824
Q

Intestinal lipodystrophy is associated with what disease entity?

A

Whipple disase(TOPNOTCH)

1825
Q

Morphology: diffuse severe atrophy and blunting of villi, with a chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria

A

Celiac disease(TOPNOTCH)

1826
Q

Morphology: focal crypt cell necrosis or apoptosis with minimal to absent inflammatory cell response in the lamina propria

A

Acute GVHD(TOPNOTCH)

1827
Q

Morphology: marked blunting of the small intestinal villi with a mixed inflammatory infiltrate resembling the atrophic stage of celiac disease

A

Giardiasis(TOPNOTCH)

1828
Q

Morphology: superficial erosion of the mucosa and an adherent pseudomembrane of fibrin, mucus, and inflammatory debris

A

Pseudomembranous colitis(TOPNOTCH)

1829
Q

Morphology: small intestinal mucosa usually exhibits modestly shortened villi and infiltration of the lamina propria by lymphocytes

A

Viral gastroenteritis(TOPNOTCH)

1830
Q

What virus affecting the GIT can produce a flat mucosa resembling celiac sprue?

A

Rotavirus(TOPNOTCH)

1831
Q

Morphology: characterized by the absence of ganglion cells and ganglia in the muscle wall and submucosa of the affected segment

A

Hirchsprung Disease/Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon(TOPNOTCH)

1832
Q

Stercoral ulcers are seen in what disease entity?

A

Hirchsprung Disease/Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon(TOPNOTCH)

1833
Q

The majority of these tumors are positive for c-KIT (CD 117)

A

Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor(TOPNOTCH)

1834
Q

What is the most common site of gastric carcinoma?

A

Pylorus and antrum 50%-60%(TOPNOTCH)

1835
Q

What is the most favored site of gastric carcinoma?

A

lesser curvature of the anthropyloric region(TOPNOTCH)

1836
Q

What is the most common type of gastric polyp?

A

Hyperplastic polyp(TOPNOTCH)

1837
Q

In gastritis, histologically, what signifies an active inflammation?

A

Presence of neutrophils above the basement membrane.(TOPNOTCH)

1838
Q

H. pylori infection in duodenal ulcers is present in about how many percent of patients?

A

Virtually ALL (70% in patients with gastric ulcer(TOPNOTCH)

1839
Q

Most common site of diverticulitis

A

Sigmoid colon (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th ed., p. 803

1840
Q

A 10 y/o male presented with recurrent painless rectal bleeding with no other associated symptoms. PE findings were unremarkable. The abdomen was soft, non tender, with no palpable mass. What is the clinical impression?

A

Meckel Diverticulum (TOPNOTCH)

1841
Q

Most common site of Meckel Diverticulum

A

Antimesenteric border of ileum (TOPNOTCH)

1842
Q

True or False. Meckel diverticulum is a true diverticulum

A

True (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 751

1843
Q

Most common site of acquired diverticula.

A

Sigmoid colon (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 751

1844
Q

The most common true diverticulum

A

Meckel Diverticulum (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 751

1845
Q

A 3 week old male infant presented to the ER due to vomiting. Mother denies bilious or bloody emesis. Mother states he is always hungry and vomits after nearly every bottle. PE reveals firm, ovoid, 2 cm abdominal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pyloric stenosis (TOPNTOCH)

1846
Q

Pathology of Pyloric stenosis

A

Hyperplasia of pyloric muscularis propria (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 751

1847
Q

Pyloric is more common in male or female?

A

3-5x more common in male (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 751

1848
Q

A 3-day-old infant presented with emesis and failure to pass meconium for the first 36 hours. PE revealed a moderately distended abdomen. Bowel sound are active. No organs or abdominal masses were palpated. Anus was patent. What is the clinical impression?

A

Hirchsprung’s Disease (TOPNOTCH)

1849
Q

Most important diagnostic test in Hirchsprung Disease

A

Rectal biopsy (TOPNOTCH)

1850
Q

Histologic findings in Hirchsprung Disease

A

Absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses.(and hypertrophic extrinsic nerve fibers) (TOPNOTCH)

1851
Q

Typically presentes with failure to pass mecondium in the immediate postnatal period, followed by obstruction or constipation, often with visible ineffective peristalsis, progressing to abdominal distention and bilious vomiting.

A

Hirchsprung’s Disease(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 752

1852
Q

Most frequent site of ectopic gastric mucosa

A

Upper third of esophagus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 750

1853
Q

Aganglionic segment of the colon presents with distention or contracted appearance?

A

Grossly normal or contracted appearance. Normal proximal colon-dilated. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 752

1854
Q

Dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, aspiration, and halitosis strongly suggest diagnosis of ______.

A

Zenker diverticulum (TOPNOTCH)

1855
Q

It is characterized by the triad of incomplete LES relaxation, increased LES tone, and aperistalsis of the esophagus

A

Achalasia(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.753

1856
Q

Patient presented with dysphagia for both solid and liquid, difficulty in belching, and chest pain. The esophageal obstruction is most likely caused by?

A

Impaired smooth muscle relaxation of LES (Case of Achalasia) (TOPNOTCH)

1857
Q

It is the result of distal esophageal inhibitory neuronal/ganglion cell degeneration.

A

Primary achalasia (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 753

1858
Q

Characterized by transmural tearing and rupture of the distal esophagus. Patients present with severe chest pain, tachypnea and shock.

A

Boerhaave syndrome. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 754

1859
Q

Most frequent cause of esophagitis

A

Reflux of gastric contents in the lower esophagus. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 755

1860
Q

Most common cause of gastroesophageal reflux

A

Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxation. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 755

1861
Q

Severe form of this condition may have histologic finding of eosinophils recruited into the squamous mucosa followed by neutrophils. Basal zone hyperplasia and elongation of lamina propria papillae of the esophagus may be present.

A

GERD (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 755

1862
Q

Barrett esophagus confers an increased risk of what cancer?

A

Esophageal adenocarcinoma (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 757

1863
Q

A 55 y/o patient with a chronic history of heartburn and acid regurgitation underwent EGD, and revealed patches of red, velvety mucosa with interface of light-brown columnar epithelium with goblet cells. He is at risk for developing___.

A

Esophageal adenocarcinoma. This is a case of Barret esophagus. (TOPNOTCH)

1864
Q

Patient presented with odynophagia, dysphagia, progressive weight loss, chest pain and vomiting. A 5 cm mass was noted at the distal 3rd of the esophagus, which ulcerate and invade deeply. The most likely diagnosis is

A

Esophageal adenocarcinoma. It usually occurs in the distal 3rd of esophagus. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 758

1865
Q

Most common site of volvulus

A

Sigmoid colon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 778

1866
Q

Most common cause of intestinal obstruction in children younger than 2 years of age

A

Intussusception(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 778

1867
Q

Presents with sudden onset of cramping, left lower abdominal pain, a desire to defecate, and passage of blood or bloody diarrhea.

A

Acute colonic ischemia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 780

1868
Q

Most common acquired GI emergency of neonates, particularly those who are premature or of low birth weight.

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 780

1869
Q

Immune-mediated enteropathy triggered by ingestion of gluten-containing food in genetically predisposed individual

A

Celiac disease/Celiac sprue/Gluten-sensitive enteropathy(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 782

1870
Q

Most sensitive test for Celiac sprue

A

IgA antibodies against tissue transglutaminase(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 783

1871
Q

Most common bacterial enteric pathogen; an important cause of traveler’s diarrhea

A

Campylobacter jejuni(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 786

1872
Q

Watery diarrhea associated with ingestion of improperly cooked chicken, unpasteurized milk or contaminated water. It is an important bacterial cause of food poisoning.

A

Campylobacter enterocolitis(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 786

1873
Q

Diagnosis of Campylobacter enterocolitis, stool culture or biopsy?

A

Stool culture(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 787

1874
Q

Presents with 1 week of diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain, constitutional symptoms for about 1 month. May also present with waxing and waning diarrhea. Caused by gram-negative, facultative anaerobe.

A

Shigellosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 787

1875
Q

Complications of Shigella infection(Triad)

A

Sterile reactive arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis.(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 788

1876
Q

Infection by a gram-negative bacilli causing diarrhea, common in young children and older adults by ingestion of contaminated food, particularly raw or undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, and milk.

A

Salmonella(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 789

1877
Q

Patients with sickle cell disease are particularly susceptible to osteomyelitis caused by:

A

Salmonella(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 789

1878
Q

The principal cause of traveler’s diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 790

1879
Q

Mechanism of diarrhea in this infection : adenylate cyclase activation, increase intracellular cAMP, opens CFTR to drive chloride secretion and diarrhea.

A

Cholera(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 785

1880
Q

Most common etiologic agent causing pseudomembranous colitis/antibiotic-associated colitis.

A

Clostridium difficile(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 791

1881
Q

Most frequent complication of Peptic ulcer disease

A

Bleeding(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 768

1882
Q

Most frequent etiology of noninfectious chronic gastritis

A

Autoimmmune gastritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 768

1883
Q

Characterized by irregular enlargement of gastric rugae associated with excessive secretion of TFG-alpha.

A

Menetrier disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 768

1884
Q

Syndrome most commonly found in the small intestine or pancreas, caused by gastrin-secreting tumors; most remarkable feature is doubling of oxyntic mucosal thickness

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 769

1885
Q

Most common site of gastric adenoma in the stomach

A

Antrum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 770

1886
Q

Most common malignancy of the stomach

A

Adenocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 771

1887
Q

Most common type of cancer the predominates in high-risk areas and develops from flat dysplasia and adenomas

A

Intestinal-type gastric cancer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 772

1888
Q

Most common site of extranodal lymphoma

A

Stomach(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 773

1889
Q

Most common inducer of MALToma in the stomach

A

H. pylori(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 773

1890
Q

GI Tumor characterized by cutaneous flushing, sweating, bronchospasm, colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea, and right-sided cardiac valvular fibrosis.

A

Carcinoid tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 774

1891
Q

The most common mesenchymal tumor of the abdomen

A

GI stromal tumor(GIST) tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 775

1892
Q

The most important prognostic factor for GI Carcinoid tumor

A

Location(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 775

1893
Q

Most common site of GIST

A

Stomach(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 777

1894
Q

Most frequent cause of intestinal obstruction

A

Hernias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 777

1895
Q

Most common sites of ischemic bowel disease

A

Splenic flexure, sigmoid colon, rectum(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 784

1896
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder presenting with explosive diarrhea with watery, frothy stools, and abdominal distention.

A

Congenital lactase (disaccharidase) deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 784

1897
Q

IBD presenting with thick wall appearance, transmural inflammation, skip lesions, knife-like ulcer, marked fibrosis and serositis

A

Crohn disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., . 797

1898
Q

IBD which may presents with thin wall appearance, inflammation limited only to mucosa, marked pseudopolyps, broad-based ulcer, moderate lymphoid reaction, and toxic megacolon (complication)

A

Ulcerative colitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 797

1899
Q

Most important characteristic of colorectal adenomas that correlates with risk of malignancy.

A

Size of the tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 808

1900
Q

An autosomal dominant disorder in which patients develop numerous colorectal adenomas as teenager caused by mutation of APC

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th Ed p. 809

1901
Q

Most common syndromic form of colon cancer; colon cancers tend to occur at younger ages

A

HNPCC or Lynch syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathoogy, 9th ed., p. 809

1902
Q

Most common location of HNPCC

A

Right colon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 809

1903
Q

Autosomal dominant disorder characterized by familial clustering of cancers at several sites caused by DNA mismatch repair

A

HNPCC or Lynch syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathoogy, 9th ed., p. 809

1904
Q

Location of colorectal cancer presenting with fatigue and weakness due to iron deficiency anemia

A

Right-sided colorectal carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 623

1905
Q

Most common site of metastasis of colorectal adenocarcinoma

A

Liver(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 813

1906
Q

Which of the following statements regarding oral plaques is TRUE? (A) leukoplakia has a strong association with tobacco use (B) among the oral leukoplakias, those on the floor of the mouth have the highest rate of transformation to squamous cell carcinoma (C) hairy leukoplakia in AIDS patients have a high risk of malignant transformation (D) erythroplakia is less likely to undergo malignant transformation than leukoplakia

A

leukoplakia has a strong association with tobacco use (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed pp 581-82

1907
Q

Which of the following is the most common site of oral cavity carcinoma? (A) lateral orders of the mobile tongue (B) floor of mouth (C) vermilion border of the lateral margins of the lower lip (D) hard palate

A

Vermillion border of the lateral margins of the lower lip(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 582

1908
Q

A 28 year old man presents with a 5 year history of a slow growing, painless, preauricular mass. FNAB showed clusters of bland cells admixed with myxoid material. He undergoes parotidectomy, and histopathologic examination of the mass shows bland epithelial cells forming clusters, ducts, and sheets, with surrounding myxoid stroma. There are also islands of cartilage. His tumor (A) can metastasize (B) is a chondrosarcoma (C) is the commonest tumor of the parotid gland (D) does not undergo malignant transformation

A

is the commonest tumor of the parotid gland (pleomorphic adenoma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 584

1909
Q

A 55 year old male smoker undergoes parotidectomy for a cystic mass. Histopathology shows cystic spaces lined by abranching, two-tiered layer of epithelial cells, with well developed lymphoid tissue right beneath the lining. This tumor is thought to arise from (A) respiratory epithelium (B) heterotopic salivary tissue trapped within a lymph node (C) myoepithelial cells (D) macrophages

A

heterotopic salivary tissue in a lymph node (Warthin tumor) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 585.

1910
Q

A 60 year old chronic alcoholic man suddenly has massive hematemesis and dies. At autopsy, his lower esophagus shows bluish, dilated veins in the submucosa with surrounding erythema. One of the veins is ruptured. Which of the following is expected of his liver? (A) smaller than normal, firm, with nodular external surface (B) markedly enlarged, with multiple hemorrhages on cut section (C) smaller than normal, with a nutmeg appearance on cut section (D) markedly enlarged, with a greasy yellowish cut surface

A

smaller than normal, firm, with a nodular external surface (cirrhosis) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 587

1911
Q

A 24 year old female complains of heartburn, usually following spicy or sour meals. She takes antacids, with partial relief. She undergoes endoscopy where her lower esophagus appears diffusely erythematous with some epithelial erosions. A biopsy showed eosinophils in the epithelial layer, with basal zone hyperplasia. This is (A) reflux esophagitis (B) Barrett esophagus (C) esophageal candidiasis (D) squamous cell carcinoma

A

Reflux esophagitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 588

1912
Q

A 33 year old man with a 10 year history of intermittent heartburn undergoes endoscopy, where his lower esophagus appears salmon-pink and velvety. Biopsy of the velvety area shows an epithelium composed of columnar cells with dark basal nuclei, and interspersed goblet cells. Compared to the normal population, this man has a 30- to 100-fold greater risk of developing (A) lymphoma (B) squamous cell carcinoma (C) adenocarcinoma (D) carcinoid

A

adenocarcinoma of the esophagus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 581

1913
Q

Which is the most common site of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma? (A) cervical (B) upper thoracic (C) middle third (D) distal third

A

middle third (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 590

1914
Q

What is the most important etiologic association of chronic gastritis? (A) Helicobacter pylori (B) Smoking (C) Alcohol abuse (D) NSAIDS

A

Helicobacter pylori(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 592

1915
Q

The histologic changes in chronic gastritis may predispose to the development of (A) squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma (B) adenocarcinoma and lymphoma (C) lymphoma and gastrointestinal stromal tumour (D) gastroinstestinal stromal tumor and squamous cell carcinoma

A

adenocarcinoma and lymphoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.592

1916
Q

A 34 year old triathlete on chronic NSAIDs consults for chronic epigastric pain. An endoscopy showed a punched out, 2cm diameter ulcer in the duodenum, with perpendicular margins, extending into the submucosa. If a biopsy is performed, arrange the following layers from internal to external: (A) inflammation (B) necrosis (C) scar (D) granulation tissue

A

necrosis, inflammation, granulation tissue, scar (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 596

1917
Q

A 25 year old man who suffered from a scalding burn, 80% of his body surface area, is admitted. In the burn unit, coffee ground material is observed in his NGT. Which of the following describes the type of gastric ulcer expected? (A) multiple,

A

multiple,

1918
Q

Which of the following gastric polyps is a true neoplasm? (A) hyperplastic polyp (B) hypoplastic polyp (C) fundic gland polyp (D) adenoma

A

adenoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 597-598

1919
Q

Which of the following is a known risk factor for the diffuse type of gastric adenocarcinoma? (A) intestinal metaplasia (B) dietary nitrites (C) E-cadherin mutation (D) Her2-neu amplification

A

E cadherin mutation (all other choices are risk factors for intestinal type) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 598

1920
Q

Why do infants and children with Meckel diverticulum often present with melena? (A) the mucosa of the diverticulum is highly vascular (B) the diverticulum may have functioning gastric mucosa (C) patients with Meckel diverticulum have an increased likelihood of developing adenomas that can bleed (D) Meckel diverticulum is susceptible to Entamoeba histolytica infection

A

the diverticulum may have functioning gastric mucosa (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 600

1921
Q

A 3 month old female with a perinatal history of delayed passage of meconium presents with alternating diarrhea and constipation. Imaging studies show a dilated cecum, ascending and transverse colon. The remaining distal colon is not dilated. Which of the following biopsy findings confirms Hirschprung disease? (A) absence of ganglion cells in the sigmoid (B) presence of ganglion cells in the transverse colon (C) presence of ganglion cells in the cecum (D) presence of ganglion cells in the descending colon

A

absence of ganglion cells in the sigmoid (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 601

1922
Q

A 65 year old diabetic suffers an acute MI and is admitted at the ICU. The next day, he develops severe abdominal pain and melena, and dies a few hours later. Autopsy showed a dark red jejunum and ileum. Examination of one of the mesenteric artery branches shows 95% narrowing by atherosclerosis. Which of the following is the expected histologic finding of the affected bowel? (A) increased mitotic rate in mucosal crypts, decreased maturation of surface epithelial cells, variable neutrophilic infiltration (B) hemorrhagic and necrotic mucosa and submucosa with sloughing off of epithelium (C) tortuous mucosal and submucosal vessels (D) flask like submucosal ulcers filled with necrotic debris

A

hemorrhagic and necrotic mucosa and submucosa with sloughing off of epithelium (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 602

1923
Q

Which of the following features of intestinal adenomas is the main determinant of risk of harboring an adenocarcinoma? (A) size (B) histologic architecture (C) severity of dysplasia (D) degreee of inflammation

A

size (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 618

1924
Q

Which of the following is most likely affected by Familial Adenomatous Polyposis? (A) 44 year old female with 150-160 tubular adenomas in the colon (B) 65 year old male with 20-30 tubulovillous adenomas in the colon (C) 54 year old female with 120-130 hyperplastic polyps in the colon (D) 13 year old male with 30-40 hamartomatous polyps in the colon

A

44 year old female with 150-160 tubular adenomas in the colon (minimum of 100 colonic adenomas) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p. 619

1925
Q

Carcinoids in which of the following location is least likely to have metastasized at the time of diagnosis? (A) appendix (B) ileum (C) stomach (D) colon

A

appendix (also, rectum) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed p.626

1926
Q

Marked cell enlargement with irregularly clumped cytoplasm showing large, clear space

A

Ballooning degeneration (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed,. 633

1927
Q

Multiple tiny fat droplets that do not displace the nucleus which appear in such conditions as alcoholic liver disease, Reye syndrome, and acute fatty liver of pregnancy.

A

Microvesicular steatosis Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 633

1928
Q

A single large fat droplet that displaces the nucleus seen in alcoholic liver disease or in the livers of obese or diabetic individuals.

A

Macrovesicular steatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 633

1929
Q

Diffuse, foamy, swollen appearance to the hepatocyte caused by retained biliary material.

A

Feathery degeneration(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 633

1930
Q

Poorly stained mummified hepatocytes

A

Coagulative necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 633

1931
Q

Isolated hepatocytes become shrunken, pyknotic, and intensely eosinophilic.

A

Apoptosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 633

1932
Q

Hepatocyte necrosis is distributed immediately around the central vein, extending into the midzonal area in the setting of ischemia and several drug and toxic reactions.

A

Centrilobular necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 633

1933
Q

A pattern of nonrhythmic, rapid extension-flexion movements of the head and extremities, best seen when the arms are held in extension with dorsiflexed wrists, seen in patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

A

Asterixis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 635

1934
Q

A diffuse process characterized by bridging fibrous septa, in the form of delicate bands or broad scars around multiple adjacent lobes, and the conversion of normal liver architecture into structurally abnormal nodules, encircled by fibrotic bands. Liver architecture is disrupted.

A

Liver Cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 635

1935
Q

Presence of ground-glass hepatocytes, a finely granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm and sanded nuclei, shown by electron microscopy

A

Hepatitis B infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 645

1936
Q

Necrotic cells appear to have dropped out with collapse of the sinusoidal collagen reticulin framework where the cells have disappeared; scavenger macrophage aggregates mark sites of dropout.

A

Hepatocyte cytolysis (in viral hepatitis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 647

1937
Q

Hepatocytes shrink, become intensely eosinophilic, and have fragmented nuclei; effector T cells may be present in the immediate vicinity.

A

Hepatocyte apoptosis (in viral hepatitis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 647

1938
Q

The hallmark of serious liver damage

A

Fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 647

1939
Q

May occur as solitary or multiple lesions, ranging from millimeters to massive lesions, many centimeters in diameter. They are generally produced by gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella sp.

A

Pyogenic (bacterial) hepatic abscesses (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 648

1940
Q

Liver is enlarged, soft, yellow and greasy. Lipid accumulates to the point of creating large clear macrovesicular globules, compressing and displacing the nucleus to the periphery of the hepatocyte.

A

Hepatic Steatosis (Fatty Liver)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 649

1941
Q

Eosinophilic, cytoplasmic inclusions characteristic of alcoholic hepatitis.

A

Mallory bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 650

1942
Q

Almost always accompanied by a brisk sinusoidal and perivenular fibrosis; occasionally periportal fibrosis may predominate.

A

Alcoholic hepatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 650

1943
Q

Liver is yellow-tan, fatty, and enlarged, usually weighing over 2 kg. Over the span of years it is transformed into a brown, shrunken, nonfatty organ, sometimes weighing less than 1 kg.

A

Alcoholic Cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 650

1944
Q

Pattern of cirrhosis in viral hepatitis.

A

Macronodular(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 650

1945
Q

Pattern of cirrhosis in alcoholic hepatitis.

A

Micronodular(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 650

1946
Q

The liver may shrink to 500 to 700 gm and become transformed into a limp, red organ covered by a wrinkled, overly large capsule. Necrotic areas have a muddy red, mushy appearance with blotchy bile staining. Complete destruction of hepatocytes in contiguous lobules leaves only a collapsed reticulin framework and preserved portal tracts.

A

Massive hepatic necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 653

1947
Q

Golden-yellow granules in the cytoplasm of periportal hepatocytes, which stain blue with the Prussian blue stain.

A

Hemosiderin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 655

1948
Q

Green to brown deposits of copper in Descemet membrane in the limbus of the cornea.

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 656

1949
Q

Excessive copper deposition in the liver causing hepatic changes ranging from mild fatty change to massive liver necrosis. In the brain, injury affects the basal ganglia, demonstrating atrophy and cavitation. Kayser-Fleischer rings are characteristic.

A

Wilson disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 655

1950
Q

Hepatocytes with round to oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions which are strongly positive in a periodic acid-Schiff stain. By electron microscopy they lie within smooth, and sometimes rough, endoplasmic reticulum.

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin Deficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 657

1951
Q

A rare disease characterized by microvesicular fatty change in the liver and encephalopathy. Microscopy of hepatocellular mitochondria reveals pleomorphic enlargement and electron lucency of the matrices, with disruption of cristae and loss of dense bodies.

A

Reye syndrome / “mitochondrial hepatopathies” (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p658

1952
Q

A chronic, progressive, and often fatal cholestatic liver disease, characterized by a nonsuppurative destruction of small and medium-sized intrahepatic bile ducts florid duct leesion. On cut surface, the liver is hard, with a finely granular appearance, with extraordinary yellow-green pigmentation.

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 659

1953
Q

A chronic cholestatic disorder, characterized by progressive fibrosis and destruction of extrahepatic and large intrahepatic bile ducts. Affected portal tracts show concentric periductal onion-skin fibrosis and a modest lymphocytic infiltrate. Progressive atrophy of the bile duct epithelium leads to obliteration of the lumen, leaving behind a solid, cordlike fibrous scar.

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 660

1954
Q

Liver is slightly enlarged, tense, and cyanotic, with rounded edges. Microscopically, there is congestion of centrilobular sinusoids. With time, centrilobular hepatocytes become atrophic, resulting in markedly attenuated liver cell cords. Liver fibrosis mostly “centrilobular”.

A

Passive congestion of the liver secondary to right-sided heart failure.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 660

1955
Q

Hepatocytes in the central region of the lobule undergo ischemic necrosis. The liver takes on a variegated mottled appearance, reflecting hemorrhage and necrosis in the centrilobular regions, alternating with pale midzonal areas, known traditionally as the “nutmeg” liver.

A

Passive congestion of the liver secondary to left-sided heart failure.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 661

1956
Q

A rare condition wherein there is primary dilation of sinusoids, impeding hepatic blood efflux. Associated with exposure to anabolic steroids, OCP’s and danazol.

A

Peliosis hepatis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 661

1957
Q

Results from the thrombosis of two or more major hepatic veins and is characterized by hepatomegaly, weight gain, ascites, and abdominal pain. The liver is swollen, is red-purple, and has a tense capsule. The affected hepatic parenchyma reveals severe centrilobular congestion and necrosis.

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 662

1958
Q

Caused by toxic injury to sinusoidal endothelium. Damaged endothelial cells slough off and create emboli that block blood flow. Accompanied by passage of red blood cell into the space of Disse, proliferation of stellate cells, and fibrosis of terminal branches of the hepatic vein.

A

Sinusoidal Obstruction Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 662

1959
Q

Well-demarcated but poorly encapsulated lesion, consisting of hyperplastic hepatocyte nodules with a central fibrous scar. Appears in noncirrhotic livers and may reach up to many centimeters in diameter. It occurs in response to local vascular injury.

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 664

1960
Q

These appear in cirrhotic livers, are larger than surrounding cirrhotic nodules but do not display atypical features. Contains more than one portal tract, have an intact reticulin framework, and do not seem to be precursors of malignant lesions.

A

Macroregenerative nodules (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 664

1961
Q

These are lesions larger than 1 mm in diameter that appear in cirrhotic livers. Considered to be precursors of hepatocelluar cancers, are often monoclonal, and may contain chromosome aberrations similar to those present in liver cancers.

A

Dysplastic nodules (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 664

1962
Q

May appear grossly as (1) a unifocal, usually massive tumor, (2) a multifocal tumor made of nodules of variable size or (3) a diffusely infiltrative cancer, permeating widely and sometimes involving the entire liver, blending imperceptibly into the cirrhotic liver background.

A

Primary Hepatocellular Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 665

1963
Q

A distinctive variant of HCC, which occurs in adults (

A

Fibrolamellar carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 873

1964
Q

Gallbladder stones that are mostly radiolucent, ovoid and firm; can occur singly but most often there are several, with faceted surfaces resulting from apposition to one another. They are pale yellow but w/ increasing proportions of CaCO3, phosphates and bilirubin, they turn gray-white to black and radiopaque.

A

Cholesterol stones (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 668

1965
Q

May arise anywhere in the biliary tree and are trivially classified as black and as brown. Contain calcium salts of unconjugated bilirubin and lesser amounts of other calcium salts, mucin glycoproteins, and cholesterol.

A

Pigment stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 668

1966
Q

A type of pigment stone found in sterile gallbladder bile, usually small and present in large quantities and crumble easily. 50% to 75% are radiopaque.

A

Black pigment stones (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 668

1967
Q

A type of pigment stone found in infected intrahepatic or extrahepatic ducts. Tends to be single or few in number and are soft with a greasy, soaplike consistency that results from the presence of retained fatty acid salts released by the action of bacterial phospholipases on biliary lecithins. Contains calcium soaps, and are radiolucent.

A

Brown pigment stones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 668

1968
Q

Gallbladder is usually enlarged (twofold to threefold) and tense, and it assumes a bright red or blotchy, violaceous to green-black discoloration, imparted by subserosal hemorrhages. The gallbladder lumen is filled with a cloudy or turbid bile that may contain fibrin, blood, and frank pus.

A

Acute cholecystitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 669

1969
Q

Condition wherein the exudate contained in the gallbladder is composed virtually of pure pus.

A

Empyema of the gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 669

1970
Q

Severe cholecystitis wherein the GB is transformed into a green-black necrotic organ.

A

Gangrenous cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 669

1971
Q

The gallbladder may be contracted, of normal size, or enlarged. Presence of stones in the absence of inflammation is diagnostic.

A

Chronic cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 669

1972
Q

Defined as a complete obstruction of bile flow caused by destruction or absence of all or part of the extrahepatic bile ducts.

A

Biliary atresia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 670

1973
Q

Appears as a poorly defined area of diffuse thickening and induration of the gallbladder wall that may cover several square centimeters or involve the entire gallbladder, scirrhous and very firm in consistency.

A

Infiltrating pattern of gallbladder carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 671

1974
Q

This pattern of GB carcinoma grows into the lumen as an irregular, cauliflower mass, but at the same time it invades the underlying wall.

A

Exophytic pattern of gallbladder carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 671

1975
Q

Appear typically with an abundant fibrous stroma (desmoplasia) explaining their firm, gritty consistency. Most exhibit clearly defined glandular and tubular structures lined by somewhat anaplastic cuboidal to low columnar epithelial cells. Bile pigment and hyaline inclusions are not found within the cells.

A

Cholangiocarcinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p. 672

1976
Q

Morphology: Characterized by fibrosing cholangitis of bile ducts, with a lymphocytic infiltrate, and progressive atrophy of the bile duct epithelium, and obliteration of the lumen

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis(TOPNOTCH)

1977
Q

Morphology: Concentric periductal fibrosis or Onion-Skin fibrosis with solid, cordlike fibrous scar.

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis(TOPNOTCH)

1978
Q

Morphology: Panlobular giant cell transformation of hepatocytes and formation of hepatocyte “rosettes”

A

Neonatal Cholestasis(TOPNOTCH)

1979
Q

What is the histological hallmark of irreversible liver damage?

A

Deposition of fibrous tissue(TOPNOTCH)

1980
Q

“Ground Glass Hepatocytes” are seen in what type of Viral Hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis B(TOPNOTCH)

1981
Q

What type of viral hepatitis frequently show lymphoid aggregates within portal tracts?

A

Hepatitis C(TOPNOTCH)

1982
Q

What is the most common liver tumor of young childhood?

A

Hepatoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

1983
Q

What are the most common benign neoplasm in the liver?

A

Hemangiomas(TOPNOTCH)

1984
Q

These benign neoplasms tend to occur in young women who have used oral contraceptives and regress on discontinuance of their use.

A

Liver cell Adenoma(TOPNOTCH)

1985
Q

Rokitansky- Aschoff sinuses are structures seen in what organ?

A

Gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)

1986
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the gallbladder?

A

Presence of Phrygian Cap (folded fundus)(TOPNOTCH)

1987
Q

What is the tetralogy of cholesterol stone formation?

A
  1. Supersaturation of bile with cholesterol2. Gallbladder hypomotility3. Cholesterol nucleation4. Hypersecretion of GB mucus(TOPNOTCH)
1988
Q

AKA Strawberry Gallbladder

A

Cholesterolosis(TOPNOTCH)

1989
Q

Acute calculous cholecystitis is most commonly precipitated by what condition?

A

Obstruction of the neck or cystic duct by a Gallbladder stone(TOPNOTCH)

1990
Q

Morphology: Prominence of Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

A

Chronic Cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)

1991
Q

What is the most common cause of cholangitis?

A

Choledocholithiasis(TOPNOTCH)

1992
Q

True or False. Gallstones are seen in 60%-90% of Carcinoma of the Gallbladder.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)

1993
Q

What is the most common growth pattern of Gallbladder carcinoma? Infiltrating or Exophytic?

A

Infiltrating(TOPNOTCH)

1994
Q

These are tumors arising from the part of the common bile duct between the cystic duct junction and the confluence of the right and left hepatic ducts at the liver hilus

A

Klatskin tumors(TOPNOTCH)

1995
Q

Morphology: feathery degeneration and focal detergent dissolution of hepatocytes, giving rise to bile lakes filled with cellular debris and pigment

A

Cholestasis(TOPNOTCH)

1996
Q

What does unrelieved cholestasis lead to?

A

Portal tract fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)

1997
Q

What is the outcome of 85% of Acute Hepatitis infection?

A

Chronic Hepatitis(TOPNOTCH)

1998
Q

These inclusions are a characteristic but not specific feature of alcoholic liver disease.

A

Mallory bodies(TOPNOTCH)

1999
Q

Morphology: macrovesicular steatosis, involving most regions of the hepatic lobule. The intracytoplasmic fat is seen as clear vacuoles.

A

Alcoholic liver disease(TOPNOTCH)

2000
Q

What zone of the liver if particularly vulnerable of ischemic injury and number of drug and toxic reactions?

A

Centrilobular zone(TOPNOTCH)

2001
Q

What zone of the liver is particularly affected in eclampsia?

A

Periportal zone(TOPNOTCH)

2002
Q

At least how many percent of the liver must be damaged before hepatic failure ensues?

A

at least 80%(TOPNOTCH)

2003
Q

What are the 4 major consequences of portal hypertension?

A

Ascites, formation of portosystemic venous shunts, congestive splenomegaly, and hepatic encephalopathy(TOPNOTCH)

2004
Q

Ascites becomes clinically detectable at what amount?

A

500 ml(TOPNOTCH)

2005
Q

Morphology: portal tract expansion with inflammatory cells and fibrous tissue and interface hepatitis with spillover of inflammation into the adjacent parenchyma. Lymphoid aggregates can also be seen.

A

Chronic Viral Hepatitis C(TOPNOTCH)

2006
Q

Morphology: liver biopsy shows steatosis, multifocal parenchymal inflammation, Mallory hyaline, hepatocyte death, and sinusoidal fibrosi

A

Steatohepatitis or Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis(TOPNOTCH)

2007
Q

In Hemochromatosis, what is the most common site of hemosiderin deposition?

A

Liver(TOPNOTCH)

2008
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of Hemochromatosis?

A

Deposition of hemosiderin, cirrhosis, and pancreatic fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)

2009
Q

Morphology: characterized by the presence of round to oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions in hepatocytes, which in routine H and E stains are acidophilic and indistinctly demarcated from the surrounding cytoplasm

A

A1 antitrypsin deficiency(TOPNOTCH)

2010
Q

Morphology: characterized by coarse fibrous septae that subdivide the liver in a jigsaw like pattern

A

Secondary biliary cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)

2011
Q

Morphology: florid duct lesion

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)

2012
Q

The combination of hypoperfusion and retrograde congestion acts synergistically to generate what type of necrosis in the liver?

A

Centrolobular hemorrhagic necrosis(TOPNOTCH)

2013
Q

Morphology: periportal sinusoids contain fibrin deposits with hemorrhage into the space of Disse, leading to periportal hepatocellular coagulative necrosis

A

Pre-Eclampsia/Eclampsia(TOPNOTCH)

2014
Q

Type of liver transplant rejection : severe obliterative arteritis of small and larger arterial vessels results in ischemic changes in the liver parenchyma

A

Chronic Rejection(TOPNOTCH)

2015
Q

Type of liver transplant rejection: infiltration of a mixed population of inflammatory cells into portal tracts, bile ducts, and hepatocyte injury and endothelitis

A

Acute cellular rejections(TOPNOTCH)

2016
Q

What do you call the small tubular channels that are sometimes burried within the gallbladder wall adjacent to the liver?

A

Ducts of Luschka(TOPNOTCH)

2017
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly seen in the Gallbladder?

A

A folded fundus or so called phrygian cap(TOPNOTCH)

2018
Q

Gross morphology: the mucosal surface of the gallbladder is studded with minute yellow flecks

A

Strawberry Gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)

2019
Q

What type of pigment stones are generally seen in infected intrahepatic or extra hepatic ducts?

A

Brown pigment stones(TOPNOTCH)

2020
Q

Gross morphology: GB is shrunken, nodular, and chronically inflamed with foci of necrosis and hemorrhage

A

Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis(TOPNOTCH)

2021
Q

Hallmarks of HCV infection

A

Persistent infection and chronic hepatitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th ed., p. 834

2022
Q

Defining histologic feature of chronic viral hepatitis

A

Mononuclear portal infiltration (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 837

2023
Q

Diagnostic hallmark of Hepatitis B; these are cells with ER swollen by HBsAg

A

Ground-glass hepatocytes(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 837

2024
Q

Characteristic feature of alcoholic hepatitis which present as clumped, amorphous, eosinophilic material in ballooned hepatocytes. May also be present in Wilson disease and in chronic biliary tract disease.

A

Mallory-Denk bodies (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 843

2025
Q

Deeply eosinophilic staining apoptotic hepatocytes seen in acute and chronic hepatitis.

A

Acidophilic bodies (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 823

2026
Q

The principal cell type involve in scar deposition in the liver

A

Hepatic stellate cell(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 823

2027
Q

Associated with encephalopathy and coagulopathy that occurs within 26 weeks of initial liver injury in the absence of pre-existing liver disease, caused by massive hepatic necrosis

A

Acute liver failure(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 825

2028
Q

Most common intrahepatic cause of portal hypertension

A

Cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 828

2029
Q

Most frequent mode of transmission of HBV in high prevalence regions

A

Transmission during childbirth(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 832

2030
Q

Most frequent mode of transmission of HBV in low prevalence regions

A

Unprotected sex and IV drug abuse(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 832

2031
Q

Serologic marker detected during window period of HBV infection

A

IgM anti-HBc antibody(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 833

2032
Q

Best predictor of chronicity of HBV infection

A

Age at the time of infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 833

2033
Q

Most common risk factor for HCV infection

A

IV drug abuse(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 834

2034
Q

Type of viral hepatitis associated with metabolic syndrome

A

Hepatitis C virus infection (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 835

2035
Q

Type of viral hepatitis implicated in the high mortality rate among pregnant women

A

Hepatitis E Virus infection(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 835

2036
Q

Main inflammatory cells in both acute and chronic viral hepatitis

A

T cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 839

2037
Q

Type of autoimmune hepatitis most often seen in middle-aged women and is most characteristically associated with antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies

A

Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 840

2038
Q

Type of autoimmune hepatitis most often seen in children or teenager and is associated with anti-liver kidney microsomal autoantibodies

A

Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 840

2039
Q

Predominant cells and characteristic component of inflammatory infiltrate in biopsy specimens showing autoimmune hepatitis

A

Plasma cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 840

2040
Q

Most common hepatotoxin causing acute liver failure

A

Acetaminophen(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 841

2041
Q

Most common hepatotoxin causing chronic liver disease

A

Alcohol(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 841

2042
Q

Characterized by hepatocyte swelling and necrosis, Mallory-Denk bodies, neutrophilic reaction, fibrosis, perisinosoidal scar in the space of Disse of the centrilobilar region

A

Alcohol Hepatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 843

2043
Q

Micronodular cirrhosis described for end-stage alcoholic liver disease due o long-term alochol use

A

Laennec cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 843

2044
Q

Volume threshold for the developmet of alcoholic liver disease

A

80gm/day of alcohol(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 845

2045
Q

Most common site of hemosiderin deposition

A

Liver(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 848

2046
Q

An autosomal disorder caused by mutation of ATP7B gene resulting in impaired copper excretion into bile and failure to incorporate copper into ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 849

2047
Q

Presents with movement disorders (tremor, chorea, tremor),rigid dystonia, psychiatric symptoms, hemolytic anemia, green to brown deposits in Descemet membrane in the limbus

A

Wilson Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 849

2048
Q

Most sensitive and accurate test for Wilson disease

A

Increase in hepatic copper content(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 850

2049
Q

Most specific screening test for Wilson Disease

A

Increased urinary excretion of copper copper content(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 850

2050
Q

Most characteristic laboratory finding in primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Antimitochondrial antibodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 858

2051
Q

Mechanism of physiologic jaundice of the newborn

A

Impaired bilirubin conjugation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 853

2052
Q

Hereditary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia caused by severe UGT1A1 deficiency and is fatal around the time of birth

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome type 1(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 853

2053
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder caused by impaired biliary excretion of bilirubin glucoronides due to mutation in canalicular multidrug resistance protein 2(MRP2)

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 854

2054
Q

Most common cause of bile duct obstruction in adults

A

Extrahepatic cholelithiasis(gallstones)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,9th ed., p. 854

2055
Q

Histologic hallmark: influx of periductular neutrophils directly into the bile duct epithelium and lumen

A

Ascending cholangitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,9th ed., p. 854

2056
Q

Most common form of cholestasis of sepsis wherein bile plugs within predominantly centrilobular canaliculi

A

Canalicular cholestasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,9th ed., p. 855

2057
Q

Disorder of intrahepatic gallstone formation leading to repeated bouts of ascending cholangitis; has pigmented calcium bilirubinate stones in distended intrahepatic bile ducts

A

Hepatolithiasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 856

2058
Q

Presents with neonatal cholestasis, normal birthweight and postnatal weight gain, initially normal stools change to acholic stools.

A

Biliary atresia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 857

2059
Q

Morphology: Inflammation and fibrosing stricture of the hepatic or common bile ducts; cirrhosis develops within 3-6 mos of birth if uncorrected

A

Biliary atresia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 857

2060
Q

Florid duct lesion by liver biopsy, elevated alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyltransferase, hypercholesterolemia,

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 858

2061
Q

Presents with characteristic beading on radiographs of intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary tree; strong association with IBD particularly ulcerative colitis

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 861

2062
Q

Presents most often in children before age 10 as jaundice, recurrent abdominal pain, symptoms that are typical of biliary colic; caused by congenital dilations of CBD

A

Choledochal cyst(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 861

2063
Q

Presents with liver enlargement, pain, and ascites due to obstruction of two or more hepatic veins.

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 863

2064
Q

Most important premalignant lesions for cholangiocarcinoma

A

Biliary intraepithelial neoplasias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 874

2065
Q

Most common malignancy of the extrahepatic biliary tract

A

Carcinoma of the gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 879

2066
Q

Most important risk factor for gallbladder cancer

A

Gallstones(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 879

2067
Q

Atrophic, chronically obstructed, often dilated gallbladder, containing clear secretions

A

Hydrops of the gallbladder(TOPNOTCH)

2068
Q

Patients with chronic hemolytic anemias, severe ileal dysfunction or bypass, and bacterial contamination of the biliary tree are at risk for developing what kind of gallbladder stones?

A

Pigment stones(TOPNOTCH)

2069
Q

In severe form of this condition, patient presents with micronodular cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, and abnormal skin pigmentation.

A

Hemochromatosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 847

2070
Q

A 28 year old man with a history of IV drug abuse develops jaundice and malaise. Which of the following liver biopsy findings particularly suggests a hepatitis C infection? (A) ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes (B) ground glass appearance of hepatocyte cytoplasm, with “sanded” nuclei (C) bile duct proliferation and lymphoid aggregate formation (D) tangled skeins of pink cytoplasmic inclusions in degenerating hepatocytes, with neutrophilic infiltrates

A

bile duct proliferation and lymphoid aggregate formation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p646-647

2071
Q

A 25 year old medical intern draws blood from a chronic hepatitis B patient sustains a needlestick injury. He forgets to consult the infection control unit, and develops jaundice 2 months later. A biopsy of his liver will show (A) hemosiderin-laden periportal hepatocytes ((B) ground glass appearance of hepatocyte cytoplasm, with “sanded” nuclei (C) bile duct proliferation and lymphoid aggregate formation (D) tangled skeins of pink cytoplasmic inclusions in degenerating hepatocytes, with neutrophilic infiltrates

A

ground glass appearance of hepatocyte cytoplasm, and “sanded” nuclei (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p646-647

2072
Q

A 45 year old male during a drinking spree gets into a fight, and is stabbed. A medicolegal autopsy is performed. Given his chronic alcoholism, his liver will likely show (A) hemosiderin-laden periportal hepatocytes (B) ground glass appearance of hepatocyte cytoplasm, with “sanded” nuclei (C) bile duct proliferation and lymphoid aggregate formation (D) tangled skeins of pink cytoplasmic inclusions in degenerating hepatocytes, with neutrophilic infiltrates

A

tangled skeins of pink cytoplasmic inclusions in degenerating hepatocytes (Mallory bodies), with neutrophilic infiltrates (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 649-650

2073
Q

Which of the following is most likely to have nonalcoholic fatty liver disease? (A) 28 year old overweight man with dyslipidemia and family history of Type 2 DM (B) 14 year old student with alpha thalassemia with history of multiple blood transfusions since childhood (C) 33 year old teacher on his 1st month of taking anti-Koch’s medication (D) 44 year old architect with a 30 pack year smoking history

A

28 year old overweight man with dyslipidemia and family history of Type 2 DM (insulin resistance) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 654

2074
Q

A 40 year old man with beta thalassemia and long history of blood transfusions dies of congestive heart failure. At autopsy, his liver, heart, and pancreas appear dark brown. Histologic examination of his liver shows hepatocytes with golden brown cytoplasmic granules. These granules will stain with (A) prussian blue (B) rhodanine (C) periodic acid schiff (D) hematoxylin

A

Prussian blue (iron stain)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 654-655

2075
Q

Patients with hemochromatosis have a 200-fold higher risk of developing which malignancy compared to the normal population?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 656

2076
Q

A 30 year old male with inflammatory bowel disease develops jaundice. On hepatic ultrasound, there are strictures and beading of the large bile ducts, and pruning of the small bile ducts. A liver biopsy showed portal tracts with concentric periductal onion-skin fibrosis, and a modest lymphocytic infiltrate. In five years, he has a 10 to 15% chance of developing (A) colorectal carcinoma (B) hepatocellular carcinoma (C) cholangiocarcinoma (D) hepatic lymphoma

A

cholangiocarcinoma (primary sclerosisng cholangitis) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 659

2077
Q

In which of the following conditions is Budd-Chiari syndrome most likely? (A) Christmas disease (B) von Willebrand disease (C) Factor VIII deficiency (D) pregnancy

A

pregnancy (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 662

2078
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of cholangiocarcinoma? (A) primary sclerosing cholangitis (B) exposure to the radiologic agent Thorotrast (C) infection with Clonorchis (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 671

2079
Q

This disease is characterized by the following morphological changes:(1) microvascular leakage causing edema, (2) necrosis of fat by lipases, (3) an acute inflammatory reaction, (4) proteolytic destruction of parenchyma,(5) destruction of blood

A

Acute pancreatitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 677

2080
Q

Cardinal manifestation of acute pancreatitis

A

Abdominal pain(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 679

2081
Q

Necrosis of pancreatic tissue affecting acinar and ductal tissues as well as the islets of Langerhans; vascular damage causes hemorrhage into the parenchyma.

A

Acute necrotizing pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 678

2082
Q

Characterized by parenchymal fibrosis, reduced number and size of acini, and variable dilation of the pancreatic ducts. With relative sparing of Islets of Langerhans. Ductal concretions are present

A

Chronic pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 680

2083
Q

Presents as painless, slow-growing cystic masses filled with thick, tenacious mucin, lined with columnar mucinous epithelium, associated with densely cellular stroma. Almost always arise in women

A

Mucinous cystic neoplasm of the pancreas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 681

2084
Q

Similar to mucinous cystic neoplasms but appear more frequently in men

A

Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms (IPMNs) of the pancreas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pg. 682

2085
Q

Most common location of pancreatic cancer.

A

Head of pancreas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 684

2086
Q

Most common symptom of pancreatic carcinoma located at the tail and body of the gland?

A

None/AsymptomaticSince it does not impinge on the biliary tract, it may be quite large and widely disseminated by the time they are discovered.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 684

2087
Q

Moderately to poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma forming abortive tubular structures or cell clusters and exhibiting an aggressive, deeply infiltrative growth pattern.

A

Pancreatic carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 684

2088
Q

Type of pancreatic carcinoma showing prominent acinar cell differentiation with zymogen granules and exocrine enzyme production

A

Acinar cell carcinomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 684

2089
Q

Type of pancreatic carcinoma with focal squamous differentiation in addition to glandular differentiation.

A

Adenosquamous carcinomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 684

2090
Q

What is the most common clinically significant congenital anomaly of the pancreas?

A

Pancreas Divisum(TOPNOTCH)

2091
Q

This congenital abnormality develops embryologically when one portion of the ventral pancreatic primordium becomes fixed, while the other portion of this primordium is drawn around the duodenum

A

Annular Pancreas(TOPNOTCH)

2092
Q

The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is?

A

Excessive alcohol intake(TOPNOTCH)

2093
Q

5 morphological alterations in Acute pancreatitis

A
  1. Edema caused by microvascular leakage2. Necrosis of fat caused by lipolytic enzymes3. Acute inflammatory reaction4. Destruction of pancreatic parenchyma by proteolytiz enzymes5. Destruction of blood vessels with subsequent interstitial hemorrage(TOPNOTCH)
2094
Q

The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is?

A

Long term alcohol abuse(TOPNOTCH)

2095
Q

This condition is characterized by parenchymal fibrosis, reduced number and size of acini with relative sparing of the islets of Langerhans, and variable dilation of the pancreatic ducts.

A

Chronic Pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)

2096
Q

What is the most constant morphological feature of Chronic Pancreatitis?

A

Acinar Loss(TOPNOTCH)

2097
Q

60% of cancers of the pancreas arise in what area?

A

Head > Body > Tail(TOPNOTCH)

2098
Q

What is the most frequently altered oncogene in pancreatic cancer?

A

K-RAS (TOPNOTCH)

2099
Q

What is the most frequently inactivated tumor suppressor gene in pancreatic cancer?

A

p16(TOPNOTCH)

2100
Q

What is the strongest environmental risk factor for developing Pancreatic Cancer?

A

Smoking(TOPNOTCH)

2101
Q

What are the two characteristic features of Pancreatic Cancer?

A

Highly invasive and it elicits an intense non neoplastic host reaction called a desmoplastic response(TOPNOTCH)

2102
Q

Where do Pancreatic cancers usually metastasize?

A

Lungs and bones(TOPNOTCH)

2103
Q

This variant of Pancreatic cancer is characterized by formation of zymogen granules and the production of exocrine enzymes including trypsin and lipase`

A

Acinar cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

2104
Q

What is the first symptom of pancreatic cancer?

A

Pain(TOPNOTCH)

2105
Q

These structures are formed by the walling off of areas of peripancreatic hemorrhagic fat necrosis with fibrous tissue and are usually composed of central necrotic hemorrhagic material rich in pancreatic enzymes surrounded by non epithelial lined fbrous w

A

Pseudocyts(TOPNOTCH)

2106
Q

These kinds of cyst account for 75% of cysts seen in the pancreas

A

Pseudocyts(TOPNOTCH)

2107
Q

Morphology: Pancreas shows region of fat necrosis and focal pancreatic parenchymal necrosis

A

Acute pancreatitis(TOPNOTCH)

2108
Q

What is the most important triggering event in acute pancreatitis?

A

Activation of trypsinogen and subsequent autodigestion of the pancreatic substances(TOPNOTCH)

2109
Q

2 most common causes of acute pancreatitis

A

Biliary tract disease and alcoholism. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th ed., p. 884

2110
Q

A 32 y/o male presented with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Pain was described as constant and intense with radiation to the upper back. Lab result showed elevated plasma amylase. The clinical impression is:

A

Acute pancreatitis (TOPNOTCH)

2111
Q

Morphology: mild inflammation, interstitial edema, and focal fat necrosis in the pancreas and peripancreatic fat.

A

Acute interstitial pancreatitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 887

2112
Q

Morphology: pancreatic substance is red-black form hemorrhage and contains interspersed foci of yellow-white, chalky fat necrosis. Peritoneal cavity contains serous, turbid, brown-tinged fluid containing globules of fat.

A

Acute necrotizing pancreatitis (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 887

2113
Q

Morphology: Extensive parenchymal necrosis accompanied by dramatic hemorrhage within the substance of the gland.

A

Hemorrhagic pancreatitis (TOPNOTCH)

2114
Q

Clinical features include intermittent or persistent abdominal pain, intestinal malabsorption, and diabetes. It is characterized by irreversible injury of the pancreas.

A

Chronic pancreatitis. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 889

2115
Q

A 53 y/o male, smoker, presented with abdominal pain, weight loss, and jaundice since 1 month. The abdominal CT revealed a mass on the pancreas. What part of the pancreas is most likely affected?

A

Head of the pancreas. Obstructive jaundice is associated with most cases of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 894

2116
Q

Migratory thrombophlebitis occuring in pancreatic cancer due to elaboration of PAF and procoagulants from the carcinoma or its necrotic products.

A

Trosseau sign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 894

2117
Q

Most patients with this disease present with abdominal pain and weight loss, sometimes accompanied by jaundice and DVT, and succumb to the disease within 1 to 2 years.

A

Pancreatic cancer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 895

2118
Q

Poorly defined cyst with a necrotic brown-black wall, lacks epithelial lining. It is usually solity and may be situated within the pancreas or in the lesser omental sac or in the retroperitoneum. Formed when areas of intrapancreatic or peripancreatic hemorrhagic fat necrosis are walled off by fibrous tissue and granulation tissue.

A

Pancreatic pseudocysts(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., pg. 890

2119
Q

A 44 year old alcoholic woman has been having intermittent postprandial epigastric pain of 5 years. An imaging study done showed a solitary 3 cm cyst at the anterior portion of his pancreatic head. Fearing the worst, she opts to undergo a Whipple procedure, and the definitive specimen showed a cyst with a smooth internal surface and surrounding fibrosis. Microscopic examination showed a cyst wall lined by fibrin, granulation tissue, and chronic inflammation. There is no epithelial lining observed. The cyst (A) is a common sequela of acute pancreatitis (B) is hormonally responsive to estrogen (C) is a precursor to pancreatic adenocarcinoma (D) is known to harbor K-RAS mutations

A

is a common sequela of acute pancreatitis (pancreatic pseudocyst) is (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 680.

2120
Q

Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of pancreatic carcinoma? (A) smoking (B) chronic pancreatitis (C) diabetes mellitus (D) all of the above

A

all of the above is (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., 683

2121
Q

An abnormal opening of the urethra along the ventral aspect of the penis.

A

Hypospadias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 687

2122
Q

An abnormal opening of the urethra along the dorsal aspect of the penis.

A

Epispadias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 687

2123
Q

A congenital malformation of the bladder associated with epispadias.

A

Bladder extrophy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

2124
Q

A condition in which the prepuce cannot be retracted easily over the glans penis

A

Phimosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

2125
Q

Appears grossly as a solitary, plaquelike lesion on the shaft of the penis. Histologic examination reveals morphologically malignant cells throughout the epidermis with no invasion of the underlying stroma. Has potential for malignant transformation.

A

Bowen disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

2126
Q

Bowen disease which presents as an erythematous patch on the glans penis.

A

Erythroplasia of Queyrat(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

2127
Q

Occurs in young, sexually active males, histologically identical to Bowen disease. Presents with multiple reddish brown papules on the glans and is most often transient, with rare progression to carcinoma in immunocompetent patients.

A

Bowenoid papulosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

2128
Q

Appears as a gray, crusted, papular lesion, most commonly on the glans penis or prepuce, which infiltrates the underlying connective tissue to produce an indurated, ulcerated lesion with irregular margins.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 689

2129
Q

A variant of squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary architecture, less striking cytologic atypia, and rounded, pushing deep margins.

A

Verrucous carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 689

2130
Q

Most common cause of scrotal enlargement, which is an accumulation of serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis usually secondary to infection or malignancy.

A

Hydrocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 689

2131
Q

Represents failure of testicular descent into the scrotum which involves the right testis more commonly than the left. Causes increased risk of sterility and development of testicular cancer.

A

Cryptorchidism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 690

2132
Q

Most important cause of firm, painless enlargement of the testis.

A

Testicular neoplasms(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 690

2133
Q

Composed of sheets of large, uniform cells with distinct cell borders, clear, glycogen-rich cytoplasm, and round nuclei with conspicuous nucleoli. The cells are often arrayed in small lobules with intervening fibrous septa.

A

Seminomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 691

2134
Q

These tumors contain a mixture of medium-sized cells, large uninucleate or multinucleate tumor cells, and small cells with round nuclei that are reminiscent of secondary spermatocytes.

A

Spermatocytic seminoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 691

2135
Q

Ill-defined, invasive masses containing foci of hemorrhage and necrosis. Poorly differentiated, pleomorphic cells in cords, sheets, or papillary formation; most contain some yolk sac and choriocarcinoma cells

A

Embryonal carcinoma of the testis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2136
Q

Most common primary testicular neoplasm in children younger than 3 years of age.

A

Yolk sac tumors/endodermal sinus tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2137
Q

Low cuboidal to columnar epithelial cells forming microcysts, sheets, glands, and papillae, often associated with eosinophilic hyaline globules. (+) Schiller-Duval bodies

A

Yolk sac tumors/endodermal sinus tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2138
Q

Structures resembling primitive glomeruli, seen in yolk sac tumors.

A

Schiller-Duval bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2139
Q

Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast without villus formation

A

Choriocarcinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2140
Q

Tissues from all three germ-cell layers with varying degrees of differentiation

A

Teratomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2141
Q

Teratoma which contain fully differentiated tissues from one or more germ cell layers (e.g., neural tissue, cartilage, adipose tissue, bone, epithelium) in a haphazard array.

A

Mature teratomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2142
Q

Teratoma which contain immature somatic elements reminiscent of those in developing fetal tissue.

A

Immature teratomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2143
Q

Characterized by the presence of an acute, neutrophilic inflammatory infiltrate, congestion, and stromal edema of the prostate.

A

Acute prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 695

2144
Q

Characterized by variable amount of lymphoid infiltrate, evidence of glandular injury, and, frequently, concomitant acute inflammatory changes of the prostate.

A

Chronic prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 695

2145
Q

Nodular hyperplasia is usually more pronounced in what part/s of the prostate?

A

Inner (central and transitional) region of the prostate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 696

2146
Q

Composed of proliferating prostatic glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma. The glandular lumina often contain inspissated, proteinaceous secretory material, termed corpora amylacea.

A

Nodular Hyperplasia of the Prostate (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 697

2147
Q

Major hormonal stimulus for proliferation in nodular hyperplasia of the prostate.

A

DHT (Dihydrotestosterone)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 698

2148
Q

Most common area of the prostate affected by prostatic carcinoma.

A

Outer (peripheral) glands (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 698

2149
Q

Concentration of this biochemical marker is of great value in monitoring patients after treatment for prostate cancer.

A

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 700

2150
Q

A commonly used method for grading prostatic carcinoma, which is based on features such as the degree of glandular differentiation, the architecture of the neoplastic glands, nuclear anaplasia, and mitotic activity.

A

Gleason system(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 700

2151
Q

A chronic venereal infection caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum, whose fundamental microscopic lesion is a proliferative endarteritis and an accompanying inflammatory infiltrate rich in plasma cells.

A

Syphilis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

2152
Q

An irregular, firm mass of necrotic tissue surrounded by resilient connective tissue. Contains a central zone of coagulation necrosis surrounded by a mixed inflammatory infiltrate composed of lymphocytes, plasma cells, epithelioid cells, giant cells, and a peripheral zone of dense fibrous tissue. Seen in tertiary syphilis.

A

Gumma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

2153
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by the presence of an indurated chancre at the site of initial inoculation, associated with painless regional lymphadenopathy.

A

Primary Syphilis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

2154
Q

Both nontreponemal and antitreponemal antibody tests are strongly positive in virtually all cases of this stage of syphilis.

A

Secondary syphilis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 702

2155
Q

In males this is manifested most often as a purulent urethral discharge, associated with an edematous, congested urethral meatus. Gram stain of urethral discharge, demonstrates the characteristic gram-negative, intracellular diplococci.

A

Gonorrhea (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 705

2156
Q

A gram-negative intracellular bacterium that causes a disease that is clinically indistinguishable from gonorrhea in both men and in women.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

2157
Q

C. trachomatis infection causing a triad of reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis and generalized mucocutaneous lesions.

A

Reiter syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

2158
Q

This STD is a chronic, ulcerative disease caused by certain strains of C. trachomatis, which presents with nonspecific urethritis, papular or ulcerative lesions involving the lower genitalia, regional adenopathy, or an anorectal syndrome.

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

2159
Q

This STD is an acute, ulcerative infection caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, a small, gram-negative coccobacillus. The lesion is an irregular ulcer, whose base is covered by a shaggy, yellow-gray exudate. Regional lymph nodes are enlarged and tender.

A

Chancroid (Soft Chancre) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 707

2160
Q

A chronic inflammatory disease caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. The organisms are demonstrable in Giemsa-stained smears of the exudate as minute coccobacilli within vacuoles in macrophages (Donovan bodies). Regional lymph nodes are typically spared.

A

Granuloma Inguinale (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 708

2161
Q

The initial lesions of this infection are painful, erythematous vesicles on the mucosa or skin of the lower genitalia and adjacent extra-genital sites. Cowdry type A inclusions appear as light purple, homogeneous intranuclear structures surrounded by a clear halo.

A

HSV 2(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 708

2162
Q

Caused by HPV types 6 and 11. Lesions vary from small, sessile lesions to large, papillary proliferations measuring several centimeters in diameter.

A

Condylomata acuminata (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 709

2163
Q

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in infants and children?

A

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction (TOPNOTCH)

2164
Q

Fiery red appearance of the cervix is associated with what type of infection?

A

Strawberry cervix is associated with T. vaginalis infection (TOPNOTCH)

2165
Q

Approximately 70% of prostate carcinoma will arise in what zone of the gland?

A

Peripheral zone ( posterior location) (TOPNOTCH)

2166
Q

Morphology: hallmark is nodularity due to glandular proliferation or dilation and to fibrous or muscular proliferation of the stroma

A

BPH (TOPNOTCH)

2167
Q

Morphology: appear as minute, disseminated abscesses or diffuse edema, congestion, and boggy suppuration of the entire prostate

A

Acute prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)

2168
Q

Morphology: aggregation of numerous lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages as well as neutrophils within the prostatic substance

A

Chronic prostatitis (TOPNOTCH)

2169
Q

Morphology: tumor cells are arranged in distinctive trabeculae with a tendency to form cordlike structures resembling immature seminiferous tubules

A

Sertoli Cell Tumors or Androblastoma (TOPNOTCH)

2170
Q

Morphology: rod shaped crystalloids of Reinke

A

Leydig/Interstitial Cell Tumors (TOPNOTCH)

2171
Q

What is the most common form of testicular neoplasm in men over the age of 60?

A

Testicular Lymphoma (TOPNOTCH)

2172
Q

Morphology: disorganized collection of lands, cartilage, smooth muscle, and immature stroma

A

Teratoma of the testes (TOPNOTCH)

2173
Q

What do you call the structures resembling endodermal sinuses that may be seen in Yolk Sac Tumor?

A

Schiller Duval Bodies (TOPNOTCH)

2174
Q

Morphology: reveals large cells with distinct cell borders, pale nuclei, clear or watery appearing cytoplasm, prominent nucleoli, and a sparse lymphocytic infiltrate

A

Seminona (TOPNOTCH)

2175
Q

Within how many hours should the testes be explored surgically and untwisted manually so the testes will be viable after a testicular torsion?

A

Within 6 hours(TOPNOTCH)

2176
Q

Morphology: clear vacuolization of the prickle cells

A

Condylomata acuminatum (koilocytosis) (TOPNOTCH)

2177
Q

What HPV DNA type is found in approximately 80% of Bowen Disease and bowenoid papulosis?

A

HPV Type 16 (TOPNOTCH)

2178
Q

What type of bladder cancer is associated with long standing schistosomiasis?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

2179
Q

In bladder carcinoma, the major decrease in survival is associated with tumor invading what layer of the bladder?

A

Muscularis propria (detrussor muscle) (TOPNOTCH)

2180
Q

Umbrella cells with abundant cytoplasm, cells with oval nuclei often with nuclear grooves can be seen in what type of epithelium?

A

Urothelium(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 959

2181
Q

Most common primary malignant tumor of the ureter

A

Urothelial carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 960

2182
Q

Ureteral narrowing or obstruction characterized by fibrotic proliferative inflammatory process encasing retroperitoneal structures and causing hydronephrosis

A

Sclerosing Retroperitotneal Fibrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p 961

2183
Q

Primary or idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis is also called___.

A

Ormond Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p 961

2184
Q

Most common and serious congenital anomaly of the urinary bladder

A

Vesicoureteral reflux(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 961

2185
Q

Most common cause of acute cystitis

A

E. coli (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p. 962

2186
Q

Laminated mineralized concretions resulting from deposition of calcium in enlarged lysosomes, present within the macrophages; seen in Malakoplakia.

A

Michaelis-Gutmann bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 963

2187
Q

Most common precursor lesions to invasive urothelial carcinoma

A

Non-invasive papillary tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 964

2188
Q

Most important risk factor for bladder carcinoma

A

Cigarette smoking(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 964

2189
Q

True or False. Patients with exstrophy of the bladder have an increased risk of adenocarcinoma.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 962

2190
Q

A newborn baby was noted to pass out out urine through a small opening at the area of the umbilicus. This is due to :

A

A patent urachus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 962

2191
Q

True or False. Patients with urachal cyst are are risk for carcinoma.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 962

2192
Q

Most common bladder tumors

A

Urothelial tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 964

2193
Q

Dominant and sometimes only clinical manifestation of bladder cancer

A

Painless hematuria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 967

2194
Q

Urothelial carcinoma associated with loss of the TP53 and RB tumor suppressor genes and frequently progresses to muscle-invasive disease.

A

Non-invasive high grade urothelial carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 968

2195
Q

Urothelial carcinoma associated with gain of function FGFR3 and HRAS mutation.

A

Non-invasive low-grade urothelial carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 968

2196
Q

Most common cause of bladder obstruction in males

A

BPH (TOPNOTCH)

2197
Q

Inflammatory lesion that presents as a small, red, painful mass about the external urethral meatus, consisting of inflamed granulation tissue covered by friable mucosa which may ulcerate and bleed with the slightest trauma, typically in older females.

A

Urethral caruncle(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 969

2198
Q

Characterized by arrested germ cell development associated with marked hyalinization and thickening of the basement membrane of the spermatic tubules.

A

Cryptorchidism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 972

2199
Q

Most frequent causes of epididymitis in sexually active men younger than age 35 years.

A

C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 974

2200
Q

Most frequent causes of epididymitis in men older than age 35 years.

A

E. Coli and Pseudomonas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 974

2201
Q

Most common benign paratesticular tumor

A

Adenomatoid tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 975

2202
Q

Most common malignant paratesticular tumors in children

A

Rhabdomyosarcroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 975

2203
Q

Most common malignant paratesticular tumors in adults

A

Liposarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 975

2204
Q

The most common testicular tumor in men agest 15-34 years old

A

Germ Cell tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 975

2205
Q

Syndrome composed of cryptorchidims, hypospadias, and poor sperm quality; also associated with germ cell tumors

A

Testicular dysgenesis syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 975

2206
Q

Most common type of germ cell tumor

A

Seminoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 976

2207
Q

Most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age

A

Yolk sac tumor(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 976

2208
Q

Lymphatic spread is common to all forms of testicular tumors. Which group of nodes are initially involved?

A

Retroperitoneal para-aortic nodes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 979

2209
Q

Most aggressive nonseminomatous germ cell tumors

A

Pure choriocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 979

2210
Q

Biomarker elevated in yolk sac tumor

A

Serum AFP(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 979

2211
Q

Biomarker elevated in choriocarcinoma

A

Serum HCG(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 979

2212
Q

Its most common presenting feature is testicular swelling; may manifest with gynecomastia and sexual precocity due to elaboration of androgens, and even corticosteroids.

A

Leydig Cell Tumors (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 980

2213
Q

It has a distinctive golden brown homogeneous cut surface. Histologically, cells are large and have round, polygonal cell outlines, abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm, and round central nucleus. Cytoplasm contains lipid droplets, vacuoles, lipofuscon, or crystalloid of Reinke.

A

Leydig Cell Tumors (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 980

2214
Q

Presents as a testicular mass. These neoplasm appear as firm, small nodules with a homogeneous gray-white to yellow cut surface. Tumor cell are arranged in distinctive trabeculae and form cordlike structures and tubules.

A

Sertoli cell tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 980

2215
Q

It is characterized by formation of large, fairly discrete nodules in the periurethral region of the prostate. The most common benign prostatic disease in men older than age 50 years.

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia or Nodular Hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 982

2216
Q

Major clinical problem in BPH

A

Urinary obstruction(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 983

2217
Q

The most common form of cancer in men.

A

Adenocarcinoma of the prostate(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 983

2218
Q

DRE was performed in a patient and demonstrated a gritty and firm prostate. PSA was 6 ng/ml. Biopsy of prostate was done and showed crowded glands lined by a single uniform layer of cuboidal epithelium, lack branching and papillary infolding, and absent outer basal cell layer. What is the diagnosis?

A

Prostate adenocarcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

2219
Q

Most common location of prostate cancer

A

Posterior location, peripheral zone of the gland(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 985

2220
Q

The most common tumor to secondarily involve the prostate

A

Urothelial cancer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 990

2221
Q

Which of the following has been implicated in the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the penis? (A) smegma (B) smoking (C) HPV infection (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 688

2222
Q

A 3 year old male presents with only one palpable testicle. Imaging showed an undescended right testis. Which of the following is true? (A) his left testis has an increased risk for developing cancer (B) surgical placement of his right testis into his scrotum before puberty eliminates the risk of cancer (C) surgical placement of his right testis into his scrotum after puberty eliminates the risk of cancer (D) all of the above are true

A

his right testis has an increased risk for developing cancer (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 689

2223
Q

A 25 year old develops bilateral parotitis and fever. He was never vaccinated with MMR. A few days later, he develops bilateral testicular pain and swelling. This complication (A) is more common in children (B) occurs in 80% of adult males (C) consists of a predominantly lymphoplasmacytic inflammatory infiltrate (D) all of the above are true

A

consists of a predominantly lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate (A- rare in children, B - 20% in adults) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 690

2224
Q

Which of the following confers an increased risk of testicular cancer? (A) intersex syndromes (B) a brother who has testicular cancer (C) cancer in the contralateral testis (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 690

2225
Q

A 44 year old cyclist presents with a unilateral painless testicular mass. Serum HCG is slightly elevated, while serum AFP is normal. Orchiectomy is performed, and the mass is fairly circumscribed, pale, and fleshy. Microscopic examination showed large, uniform cells with distinct borders, clear glycogen-rich cytoplasm, and conspicuous nucleoli. The stroma has a lymphocytic infiltrate. His tumor (A) is exquisitely radiosensitive (B)may be associated with foci of intratubular germ cell neoplasia elsewhere in the testis (C) is histologically identical to ovarian dysrgerminoma (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 691

2226
Q

A 2 year old boy presents with marked right testicular enlargment. Serum HCG is slightly elevated, while serum AFP is markedly elevated. Orchiectomy is performed, and on microscopic examination, the tumor is composed of low cuboidal to columnar epithelial ccells forming microcysts, sheets, glands, and papillae, with eosinophilic hyaline globules. This tumor (A) is rare in this age group (B) may harbor structures resembling primitive glomeruli (C) has a more benign behavior than seminomas (D) all of the above are true

A

may harbor structures resembling primitive glomeruli (Schiller Duvall bodies) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 692

2227
Q

A 55 year old man complains of urinary frequency, intermittency, and weak stream. A digital rectal exam showed a diffusely enlarged, doughy prostate. Serum PSA is 2 ng/L. He undergoes TURP. Histopathology will likely show (A) glands with inner columnar cells and outer flattened cells, some areas thrown into folds, admixed with fibrous stroma (B) small crowded round glands, some coalescing, with cells containing prominent nucleoli (C) nests and sheets of cells with amphophilic cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli (D) glands forming glomeruloid structures

A

glands with inner columnar cells and outer flattened cells, some areas thrown into folds, admixed with fibrous stroma (nodular prostatic hyperplasia) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 696-697

2228
Q

In nodular prostatic hyperplasia, (A) epithelial cells have prominent nucleoli (B) the pathology usually arises in the peripheral zone (C) circulating systemic androgens are consistently elevated (D) clinical symptoms are seen in 10% of patients

A

clinical symptoms are seen in 10% of patients (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 697-698

2229
Q

A 28 year old male sex worker presents with multiple maculopapular lesions of the palms and soles and generalized lymphadenopathy. His oral cavity also shows similar lesions. He reports that two months ago, he noticed a painless ulcer with indurated margins on the shaft of his penis, which has now disappeared. Which of the following is accurate? (A) if a biopsy of his penile ulcer and his present lesions were done, they would both show proliferative endarteritis with lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate (B) his present lesions are not infectious (C) if he is left untreated, the commonest tertiary form of his disease are gummas in the bone and skin (D) he is likely negative for antitreponemal antibody at his present stage

A

if a biopsy of his penile ulcer and his present lesions were done, they would both show proliferative endarteritis with lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate (B - present lesions are infectious; (C) commonest tertiary is cardiovascular (D) positive in virtually all 2ndary syphilis) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 701-703

2230
Q

A 19 year old college student consults for penile discharge. He discloses a history of unprotected sex. A gram stain of the smear of the discharge shows numerous neutrophils, some of which harbor gram negative cocci in pairs in the cytoplasm. The likely etiologic agent is (A) Trichomonas (B) Chlamydia (C) Treponema (D) Neisseria

A

Neisseria (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 705

2231
Q

A 31 year old male with multiple sexual partners presents with several painless verrucous papules around the coronal sulcus of his penis. Excision is done, and microscopic examination showed stratified squamous epithelium in a papillary architecture. Some of the squamous cells have irregular, hyperchromatic nuclei surrounded by a perinuclear halo. His lesions are caused by (A) HSV-2 (B) HPV (C) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis (D) Haemophilus ducreyi

A

HPV (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p709

2232
Q

A benign, well-circumscribed, soft lesion of the pituitary gland that may compress the optic chiasm and adjacent structures. Composed of relatively uniform, polygonal cells arrayed in sheets, cords, or papillae.

A

Pituitary adenoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 754

2233
Q

Most common type of hyperfunctioning pituitary adenoma.

A

Prolactinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 754

2234
Q

Microscopically, these are composed of densely or sparsely granulated cells, and immunohistochemical stains demonstrate growth hormone within the cytoplasm of the neoplastic cells.

A

Growth Hormone-Producing Adenomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 754

2235
Q

A condition characterized by excessive urination (polyuria) caused by an inability of the kidney to properly resorb water from the urine.

A

Diabetes insipidus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

2236
Q

Enzyme deficient in central Diabetes insipidus.

A

Anti-diuretic hormone(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

2237
Q

Disease caused by excessive levels of ADH, leading to resorption of excess water, with resultant hyponatremia.

A

syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

2238
Q

The most common cause of hypothyroidism in areas of the world where iodine levels are sufficient. Presents as painless enlargement of the gland, associated with hypothyroidism.

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 757

2239
Q

The thyroid is diffusely and symmetrically enlarged, with intact capsule. Microscopically, reveals a mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate and the presence of Hurthle or oxyphil cells, which are cells with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm.

A

Chronic Lymphocytic (Hashimoto) Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 761

2240
Q

A rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis involving the thyroid and contiguous neck structures. Idiopathic in nature.

A

Riedel thyroiditis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 762

2241
Q

Believed to be caused by a viral infection or a postviral inflammatory process, this lesion of the thyroid gland is characterized by unilateral or bilateral enlargement of the thyroid, with disruption of thyroid follicles. Extravasation of colloid leads to a granulomatous reaction. Healing occurs by resolution of inflammation and fibrosis.

A

Subacute Granulomatous (de Quervain) Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 762

2242
Q

Also known as “silent” or “painless” thyroiditis n a subset of patients the onset of disease follows pregnancy. Unlike Hashimoto thyroiditis, follicular atrophy or Hurthle cell metaplasia are not commonly seen.

A

Postpartum thyroiditis/ Subacute Lymphocytic Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 762

2243
Q

Thyroid gland is diffusely enlarged due to hyperplasia and hypertrophy of the thyroid follicular cells. The follicular epithelial cells are tall, columnar, and more crowded than usual. These cells actively resorb the colloid in the centers of the follicles, resulting in the “scalloped” appearance of the edges of the colloid.

A

Graves Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 764

2244
Q

Goiter which occurs in areas where the soil, water and food supply contain little iodine.

A

Endemic goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

2245
Q

Diffuse, symmetric enlargement of the gland due to TSH-induced hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thyroid follicular cells.

A

Diffuse goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

2246
Q

Goiter characterized by enlarged, colloid-rich gland. On cut surface, the thyroid is usually brown, glassy and translucent.

A

Colloid goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

2247
Q

Irregular enlargement of the thyroid as a result of recurrent episodes of hyperplasia and involution.

A

Multinodular goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 765

2248
Q

Probability of being benign or malignant.A solitary nodule seen in a 20-yr old male.

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

2249
Q

Probability of being benign or malignant.Multiple, hot nodules.

A

Benign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

2250
Q

Probability of being benign or malignant.A solitary, cold nodule.

A

Malignant(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

2251
Q

A solitary, spherical lesion that compresses the adjacent non-neoplastic thyroid. Neoplastic cells are demarcated from the adjacent parenchyma by a well-defined, intact capsule, which is a hallmark of this tumor.

A

Thyroid adenoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 766

2252
Q

Most common carcinoma of the thyroid.

A

Papillary carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 767

2253
Q

Thyroid carcinoma which may occur at any age and is associated with previous exposure to ionizing radiation. The nuclei of cells contain very finely dispersed chromatin, which imparts an optically clear appearance, giving rise to the designation “ground-glass” or “Orphan Annie eye” nuclei.

A

Papillary carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 767

2254
Q

The second most common form of thyroid cancer. Usually present at an older age a peak incidence in the middle adult years. Microscopically, these are composed of fairly uniform cells forming small follicles, reminiscent of normal thyroid.

A

Follicular Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 769

2255
Q

Neuroendocrine neoplasms derived from the parafollicular cells, or C cells, of the thyroid, which secrete calcitonin. Associated with MEN 2A and 2B. May be solitary or multicentric, composed of polygonal to spindle-shaped cells, which may form nests, trabeculae, and follicles, contains amyloid.

A

Medullary carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 770

2256
Q

Carcinoma of the thyroid usually seen in the elderly. Associated with high mortality rate. These present as bulky masses that typically grow rapidly beyond the thyroid capsule into adjacent neck structures.

A

Anaplastic carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 771

2257
Q

A solitary lesion of the parathyroid gland which are composed predominantly of chief cells almost invariably confined to a single gland. A rim of compressed, non-neoplastic parathyroid tissue, generally separated by a fibrous capsule, is often visible at the edge of the adenoma.

A

Parathyroid adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 773

2258
Q

These tumors of the parathyroid glands are usually firm or hard tumors, adhering to the surrounding tissue as a result of fibrosis or infiltrative growth. May weigh >5 grams. The cytologic features and mitotic activity are variable.

A

Parathyroid carcinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 773

2259
Q

Inadvertent removal of parathyroids during thyroidectomy.

A

Surgical ablation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 775

2260
Q

An autoimmune disease characterized by progressive destruction of islet beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency.

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 781

2261
Q

Caused by a combination of peripheral resistance to insulin action and an inadequate compensatory response of insulin secretion by the pancreatic beta cells.

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 781

2262
Q

Vascular lesion associated with hypertension, which is more prevalent in diabetics.

A

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 781

2263
Q

A diffuse increase in mesangial matrix along with mesangial cell proliferation and is always associated with basement membrane thickening of the glomerulus. Seen in patients with diabetes mellitus.

A

Diffuse mesangial sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 783

2264
Q

A glomerular lesion made distinctive by ball-like deposits of a laminated matrix situated in the periphery of the glomerulus .

A

Nodular glomerulosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 783

2265
Q

The ball-like deposit seen in nodular glomerulosclerosis.

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 783

2266
Q

A special pattern of acute pyelonephritis seen more often in diabetics.

A

Necrotizing papillitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 784

2267
Q

Most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasms.

A

beta-cell tumors (insulinomas) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 788

2268
Q

These benign tumors look remarkably like giant islets, with preservation of the regular cords of monotonous cells and their orientation to the vasculature.

A

Insulinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 788

2269
Q

What syndrome is described by the association of pancreatic islet cell lesions with hypersecretion of gastric acid and severe peptic ulceration?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 788

2270
Q

Tumors associated with increased serum glucagon and a syndrome consisting of mild diabetes mellitus, a characteristic skin rash (necrolytic migratory erythema), and anemia.

A

alpha-Cell tumors (glucagonomas) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 789

2271
Q

Most common cause of Cushing syndrome.

A

Administration of exogenous glucocorticoids(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 789

2272
Q

Primary hypothalamic-pituitary disease associated with oversecretion of ACTH. The adrenal glands characterized by variable degrees of bilateral nodular cortical hyperplasia.

A

Cushing disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 789

2273
Q

In this condition, the normal granular, basophilic cytoplasm of the ACTH-producing cells in the anterior pituitary is replaced by homogeneous, lightly basophilic material. This results from high levels of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

A

Crooke hyaline change(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 790

2274
Q

Lung cancer associated with a paraneoplastic syndrome leading to excessive production of ACTH.

A

Small-cell lung cancer(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 792

2275
Q

Caused either by an aldosterone-producing adrenocortical neoplasm, usually an adenoma, or by primary adrenocortical hyperplasia, resulting in suppression of the renin-angiotensin system and decreased plasma renin activity.

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism/ Conn syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 792

2276
Q

A characteristic feature of aldesterone-producing adenomas which is the presence of eosinophilic, laminated cytoplasmic inclusions. These are typically found after treatment with the anti-hypertensive drug which is the DOC for primary hyperaldosteronism.

A

Spironolactone bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 792

2277
Q

The adrenals are hyperplastic bilaterally, sometimes expanding to 10 to 15 times their normal weights,due to sustained elevation in ACTH. The adrenal cortex is thickened and nodular, and on cut section, the widened cortex appears brown as a result of depletion of all lipid

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 793

2278
Q

Acute adrenal insufficiency caused by severe bilateral adrenal hemorrhage in an infant with overwhelming sepsis. The adrenals are grossly hemorrhagic and shrunken; microscopically, little residual cortical architecture is discernible

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 794

2279
Q

An uncommon disorder resulting from progressive destruction of the adrenal cortex. May be due to autoimmune adrenalitis, tuberculosis, AIDS, or metastatic cancers.

A

Addison disease/ chronic adrenocortical insufficiency(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 794

2280
Q

The adrenals are reduced to small, flattened structures that usually retain their yellow color because of a small amount of residual lipid. Histologically, there is atrophy of cortical cells with loss of cytoplasmic lipid, particularly in the zonae fasciculata and reticularis, due to decreased ACTH stimulation.

A

Secondary hypoadrenalism (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 795

2281
Q

Characterized by irregularly shrunken glands, which may be exceedingly difficult to identify within the suprarenal adipose tissue. Histologically, the cortex contains only scattered residual cortical cells in a collapsed network of connective tissue.

A

Primary autoimmune adrenalitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 795

2282
Q

Neoplasms composed of chromaffin cells which synthesize and release catecholamines and other peptide hormones. Composed of polygonal to spindle-shaped chromaffin cells compartmentalized intonests, or “Zellballen,” by a rich vascular network.

A

Pheochromocytomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 797

2283
Q

Most common extra-cranial solid tumor of childhood. Occur most commonly during the first 5 years of life and may arise during infancy.

A

Neuroblastoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 798

2284
Q

Components of MEN1?

A

Parathyroid: Primary hyperparathyroidismPancreas: ZES, insulinoma, etc.Pituitary: prolactin-secreting macroadenoma, somatotrophin-secreting tumors(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 798

2285
Q

Components of MEN2A?

A

Thyroid: Medullary carcinomaAdrenal medulla: pheochromocytomasParathyroid: parathyroid gland hyperplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 799

2286
Q

Components of MEN2B?

A

Thyroid: Medullary carcinomaAdrenal medulla: pheochromocytomaExtraendocrine manifestations: ganglioneuromas of mucosal sites (gastrointestinal tract, lips, tongue) and marfanoid habitus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 799

2287
Q

All individuals carrying germ-line RET mutations are advised to undergo prophylactic thyroidectomy to prevent the development of what type of carcinoma?

A

Medullary Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

2288
Q

What is the most common site of gastrinomas in individuals with MEN-1?

A

Duodenum (TOPNOTCH)

2289
Q

What is the most frequent anterior pituitary tumor encountered in individuals with MEN-1?

A

Prolactinoma (TOPNOTCH)

2290
Q

Morphology: demonstrates characteristic nests of cells (zellballen) with abundant cytoplasm

A

Pheochromocytomas (TOPNOTCH)

2291
Q

Morphology: the adrenals are grossly hemorrhagic and shrunken with little residual cortical architecture discernable

A

Waterhouse Friederichsen Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

2292
Q

What is the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in developed countries?

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis (TOPNOTCH)

2293
Q

Spirinolactone bodies are seen in what tumor?

A

Aldosterone producing adenomas (TOPNOTCH)

2294
Q

Crook hyaline change is seen in?

A

Cushing syndrome (TOPNOTCH)

2295
Q

Watery Diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria or WDHA syndrome is seen in?

A

VIPoma (TOPNOTCH)

2296
Q

Syndrome of mild DM, characteristic rash (necrolytic migratory erythema), and anemia is seen in what tumor?

A

Glucagonomas or alpha cell tumors (TOPNOTCH)

2297
Q

Syndrome of DM, cholelithiasis, steatorrhea, and hypochlorhydria is seen in what tumor?

A

Somatostatinoma or delta cell tumor (TOPNOTCH)

2298
Q

Approximately 60%-80% of patients with DM will develop some form of diabetic retinopathy after how many years from the time of diagnosis?

A

15-20 years (TOPNOTCH)

2299
Q

The fundamental lesion of DM retinopathy

A

neovascularization (TOPNOTCH)

2300
Q

What special pattern of acute pyelonephritis is common in diabetics compared to non diabetics?

A

Necrotizing papillitis or papillary necrosis (TOPNOTCH)

2301
Q

These are PAS positive glomerular lesions made distinctive by ball like deposits of laminated matrix situated in the periphery of the glomerulus

A

Nodular glomerulosclerosis or Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion (TOPNOTCH)

2302
Q

What are the three most important glomerular lesions seen in DM?

A

Basement membrane thickening, diffuse mesangial sclerosis, and nodular glomerulosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

2303
Q

What is the hallmark of diabetic macrovascular disease?

A

Accelerated atherosclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

2304
Q

What is the most common cause of death in diabetics?

A

Myocardial Infarction (TOPNOTCH)

2305
Q

What morphological change seen in pancreas is more commonly associated with DM Type 2 than DM Type 1?

A

Amyloid replacement of islets (TOPNOTCH)

2306
Q

What is the hallmark of hypocalcemia?

A

Tetany (TOPNOTCH)

2307
Q

The most common cause of clinically apparent hypercalcemia

A

Malignancy (TOPNOTCH)

2308
Q

The most common cause of asymptomatic elevated blood calcium

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism (TOPNOTCH)

2309
Q

A peculiar feature of this type of thyroid carcinoma is the presence of multicentric C cell hyperplasia

A

Familial Medullary Cancers of the thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

2310
Q

Acellular amyloid deposits are seen in what type of thyroid cancer?

A

Medullary Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

2311
Q

Morphology: fairly uniform cells forming small follicles containing colloid, quite reminiscent of normal thyroid

A

Follicular Carcinoma of the thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

2312
Q

These are concentrically calfcified structures that are often present in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

A

Psamomma bodies (TOPNOTCH)

2313
Q

Morphology: the nuclei of these tumor cells contain finely dispersed chromatic which imparts an optically clear or empty appearance, giving rise to the designation ground glass or Orphan Annie eye

A

Papillary Carcinoma of the thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

2314
Q

The major risk factor predisposing to thyroid cancer

A

Ionizing radiation, particularly in the first two decades of life (TOPNOTCH)

2315
Q

Morphology: diffuse hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thyroid follicular epithelial cells with scalloping of the margins

A

Graves disease (TOPNOTCH)

2316
Q

Morphology: lymphocytic infiltration with hyperplastic germinal centers within the thyroid parenchyma and patch disruption and collapse of thyroid follicles

A

Subacute lymphocytic or Painless thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

2317
Q

Morphology: thyroid parenchyma contains a chronic inflammatory infiltrate with multinucleate giant cells enclosing naked pools and fragments of colloid

A

Subacute or granulomatous thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

2318
Q

Morphology: the thyroid parenchyma contains a dense lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centers and deeply eosinophilic Hurthle cells line the residual thyroid follicles

A

Hashimoto Thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

2319
Q

What variant of craniopharyngoma frequently contains radiologicaly demonstrable calcifications?

A

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngoma (TOPNOTCH)

2320
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperpituitarism?

A

Adenoma (TOPNOTCH)

2321
Q

Hypofunction of the anterior pituitary occurs when approximately how much of the parenchyma is lost?

A

75% (TOPNOTCH)

2322
Q

These cysts are lined by ciliated cuboidal epithelium with occasional goblet cells and anterior pituitary cells, can accumulate proteinaceous fluid and expand, compromising the normal gland

A

Rathke Cleft Cyst (TOPNOTCH)

2323
Q

The craniopharyngomas are thought to arise from what structure?

A

Vestigial remnants of Rathke pouch (TOPNOTCH)

2324
Q

What is the earliest and most consistent feature of hyperthyroidism?

A

Cardiac manifestations (TOPNOTCH)

2325
Q

This condition presents with impaired developments of the skeletal system and central nervous system, manifested by severe mental retardation, short stature, coarse facial features, a protruding tongue, and umbilical hernia

A

Cretinism (TOPNOTCH)

2326
Q

These are epithelial cells with abudant eosinophilic, granular ctyoplasm seen in Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

Hurthle cells (TOPNOTCH)

2327
Q

What is the most important feature in making the distinction between a thyroid adenoma and a multinodular goiter?

A

In adenoma, the neoplastic cells are demarcated from the adjacent parenchyma by a well defined intact capsule. In multinodular goiters, they lack a well formed capsule (TOPNOTCH)

2328
Q

What is the hallmark of all follicular adenomas?

A

Well formed capsule encircling the tumor. So, careful evaluation of the integrity of the capsule is therefore critical in distinguishing follicular adenomas from follicular carcinomas which demostrate capsular and or vascular invasion (TOPNOTCH)

2329
Q

What is the most common clinically significant congenital anomaly of the thyroid?

A

Thyroglossal duct or cyst (TOPNOTCH)

2330
Q

Lamellar keratin formation or “wet keratin” is a diagnostic feature of what tumor?

A

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngoma (TOPNOTCH)

2331
Q

Morphology: extensive infiltration of the parenchyma by a mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate containing small lymphocytes, plasma cells, and well developed germinal centers

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis (TOPNOTCH)

2332
Q

Morphology: in its hyperplastic phase, they thyroid gland is diffusely and symmetrically enlarged and the follicles are lined by crowded columnar cells, which may pile up and form projections similar to those seen in Grave’s disease

A

Diffuse nontoxic (simple) goiter (TOPNOTCH)

2333
Q

Morphology: Variant of papillary carcinos ma that is marked with tall columnar cells with intensely eosinophilic cytoplasm lining the papillary structures. The cells are at least twice as tall as they are wide.

A

Tall cell variant (TOPNOTCH)

2334
Q

Morphology: nuclei are usually round to ovoid, with stippled “salt and pepper” chromatin

A

Pheochromocytoma (TOPNOTCH)

2335
Q

Pathogenesis: Dysfunction in T cell selection and regulation leading to breakdown in self-tolerance to islet autoantigens

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1108

2336
Q

Pathogenesis: Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues and failure of compensation by beta cells

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1108

2337
Q

Characterized by inflammatory infiltrate of T cells and macrophages, beta cell depletion and islet atrophy

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1108

2338
Q

Characterized by amyloid deposition in islets and mild beta cell depletion. No insulitis.

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1108

2339
Q

Most potent anabolic hormone with multiple synthetic and growth-promoting effects.

A

Insulin (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1109

2340
Q

The most important environmenta risk factor for type 2 diabetes

A

Obesity(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1111

2341
Q

The most common precipitating factor in DKA

A

Failure to take insulin(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1114

2342
Q

What explains the wide, staring gaze and lid lag in hyperthyroidism?

A

Sympathetic overstimulation of superior tarsal muscle(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1084

2343
Q

Most common cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism

A

Graves Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1089

2344
Q

Triad of clinical findings in Graves Diseae

A

Hyperthyroidism, infiltrative ophthalmopathy, and pretibial myxedema(infiltrative dermopathy)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1089

2345
Q

The most common antibody subtype seen in 90% of patients with Graves disease.

A

Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin(TSI) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1089

2346
Q

Patient presents with heat intolerance, palpitations, tibial edema, and exophthalmos. Thyroid gland was noted to be symmetrically enlarged. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Graves disease(TOPNOTCH)

2347
Q

Effect of iodine in the morphology of thyroid in Graves disease

A

Involution of epithelium and accumulation of colloid(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1089

2348
Q

Laboratory features of Graves disease

A

Elevations in serum free T3 and T4 and decreased serum TSH(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1090

2349
Q

Most important single screening test for hyperthyroidism

A

TSH(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1084

2350
Q

Most often cause of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Iodine deficiency in the diet(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1085

2351
Q

Presents with slowing of physical and mental activity, fatigue, apathy, constipation, decreased sweating, shortness of breathing, cold intolerance, overweight.

A

Myxedema/Hypothyroidism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1086

2352
Q

Most sensitive sceening test for hypothyroidism

A

Serum TSH level(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1085

2353
Q

A middle aged-woman presents with painless enlargement of the thyroid that is symmetric and diffuse, with some symptoms of hypothyroidism. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis(TOPNOTCH)

2354
Q

It causes symmetric enlargement of the entire thyroid gland without producing nodularity. Patients are usually clinically euthyroid.

A

Diffuse nontoxic (simple) goiter (TOPNOTCH)

2355
Q

Patient presents with mass on the anterior neck and dysphagia. Thyroid is assymetrically enlarged. Thyroid functions tests are normal. Cut section showed irregular nodules containing brown, gelatinous colloid. The microscopic appearance showed colloid-rich follicles lined by flattened, inactive epithelium and areas of follicular hyperplasia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Multinodular goiter(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1091

2356
Q

True or False. Nodules in males are more likely to be neoplastic than are those in females.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)

2357
Q

True or False. Solitary nodule are more likely to be neoplast than are multiple nodules.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)

2358
Q

True or False. Nodules in younger patients are more likely to be neoplastic than are those in older patients.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)

2359
Q

True or False. Functional nodules that take up radioactive iodine in imaging studies(hotnodules0 are much more likely to be benign than malignant.

A

True(TOPNOTCH)

2360
Q

What is the most common benign neoplasm of the thyroid?

A

Follicular adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1100

2361
Q

Patient presents with enlarged feet and hands, thickened and sausage-like fingers, jaw protrusion and broadening of the lower face, generalized muscle weakenss. The diagnosis of this condition relies on what elevated serum ___ and ___ levels.

A

GF and IGF-1(TOPNOTCH)

2362
Q

Development of large destructive pituitary adenoma after surgical removal of the adrenal gland. This condition occurs most often because of the inhibitory effect of adrenal corticosteroids.

A

Nelson syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1080

2363
Q

Presents with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, loss of libido and infertility.

A

Lactotroph adenoma(TOPNOTCH)

2364
Q

Most common form of clinically significant ischemic necrosis of the anterior pituitary. May present with amenorrhea ang infertility.

A

Sheehan syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1081

2365
Q

Presents with hyponatremia, cerebral edema, absence of peripheral edema due to ectopic ADH secretion by malignant neoplasm, drugs, and a variety of CNS disorders.

A

SIADH(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1082

2366
Q

May present with growth retardation in children, headache and visual disturbances. In adult, these neoplasm is thought to rise from vestigial remnant of Rathke pouch.

A

Craniopharyngoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed,. P. 1082

2367
Q

Histologic variant of craniopharyngioma most often observed in children

A

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1082

2368
Q

Histologic variant of craniopharyngioma most often observed in adults

A

Papillary craniopharyngoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1082

2369
Q

Presents with rapidly enlarging bulky neck mass, dyspnea, dysphagia, hoarsenes, and cough. Histologic finding of pleomorphic giant cells, spindle cells or mixed. Highly fatal.

A

Anaplastic carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1098

2370
Q

Amyloid deposits are characteristic of this histologic type of thyroid cancer.

A

Medullary cancer(TOPNOTCH)

2371
Q

Most common clinically significant congenital anomaly of the thyroid.

A

Thyroglossal duct or cyst (TOPNOTCH)

2372
Q

Most common cause primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Solitary parathyroid adenoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.1101

2373
Q

The combination of increased osteoclast activity, peritrabecular fibrosis, and cystic brown tumors

A

von Recklinghausen disease of bone/osteitis fibrosa cystica(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1102

2374
Q

The most common mechanism through which osteolytic tumors induce hypercalcemia

A

Secretion of PTHrP(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1103

2375
Q

Classic findings of hypocalcemia on physical examination

A

Chvostek sign and Trosseau sign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1105

2376
Q

The most frequent pattern in diabetic neuropathy

A

Distal symmetric polyneuropathy of the lower extremities(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1120

2377
Q

The most common cause of hypercotisolism

A

Exogenous administration of steroids(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1125

2378
Q

Most common adrenal finding in endogenous Cushing syndrome

A

Nodular hyperplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1125

2379
Q

Presents with hypertension, weight gain, moon facies, truncal obesity, elevated urinary steroid secetion, low ACTH

A

Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal tumor(TOPNOTCH)

2380
Q

Presents with signs and symptoms of elevated cortisol levels, with failure of low-dose and high-dose dexamethasone to suppress cortisol secretion

A

Ectopic ACTH secretion(e.g ACTH production by tumors)(TOPNOTCH)

2381
Q

Most common form of Cushing syndrome, ACTH levels are elevated and cannot be suppressed by administration of low dose of dexamethasone.

A

Pituitary Cushing syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1125

2382
Q

Most common manifestation of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

BP elevation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1126

2383
Q

Overproduction of aldosterone and decreased plasma renin activity, hypertension and hypokalemia

A

Primary aldosteronism(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1127

2384
Q

Newborn presents with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypotension, cardiovascular collapse, and virilization. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Salt-wasting syndrome, CAH(TOPNOTCH)

2385
Q

Presents with hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, volume depletion, hypotension, hyperpigmentation of sun-exposed areas, weakness, nausea vomiting, weight loss, abdominal pain.

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency(TOPNOTCH)

2386
Q

The dominant clinical manifestation of pheochromocytoma

A

Hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1135

2387
Q

Presents with paroxysmal episodes of hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, headache, sweating, tremor, apprehension, elevated urinary vanillylmandelic acid and metanephrines.

A

Pheochromocytoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1146

2388
Q

The principal secretory product of pineal gland

A

Melatonin(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1137

2389
Q

A 33 year old female presents with blurring of vision, galactorrhea and amenorrhea. A cranial CT shows a pituitary mass. She undergoes surgery to excise the mass. Her tumor (A) is associated with MEN-1 in >50% of cases (B) is composed of lobules of distinct cell populations of cells , some acidophilic, others basophilic (C) is composed of a uniform cell population and absent a reticulin network (D) is most probably of acidophilic morphology due to her prolactinemic signs and symptoms

A

is composed of a uniform cell population and absent a reticulin network (A - MEN-1 association in 3%; B - normal pituitary; D - functional status cannot be predicted from its histologic appearance) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp 754-755

2390
Q

A 40 year old female presents with an anterior left neck mass. She undergoes a left thyroid lobectomy. The specimen has a solitary well-circumscribed nodule on the inferior pole. Which microscopic finding points to an adenoma, rather than a dominant nodule in a multinodular goiter? (A) well defined, intact capsule and compressed adjacent thyroid parenchyma (B) follicles of different sizes, resembling the surrounding thyroid parenchyma (C) presence of nuclear enlargement, nuclear grooves, and some with clearing (D) small follicles invading the capsule

A

well defined, intact capsule and compressed adjacent thyroid parenchyma (B - multinodular goiter; C - papillary carcinoma; D - follicular carcinoma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp766-769)

2391
Q

A 36 year old female presents with an anterior neck mass, and palpable cervical lymph nodes. She undergoes total thyroidectomy and neck dissection. On her right thyroid lobe is a 6 cm solid tan mass. Some of the lymph nodes also have a solid tan cut surface. Which of the following histologic findings is definite evidence of papillary thyroid carcinoma? (A) cells with enlarged nuclei, fine chromatin, some with nuclear grooves and clearing (B) follicles containing papillary infoldings, lined by thyrocytes with dark round nuclei (C) follicles with thick, pink colloid (D) follicles lined by tall columnar cells, and colloid with a scalloped appearance

A

cells with enlarged nuclei, fine chromatin, some with nuclear grooves and clearing (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 768

2392
Q

A 15 year old male presents with an anterior neck mass. A deceased uncle also had an anterior neck mass in his teen years. The thyroid is excised, and histopathology showed polygonal to spindle shaped tumor cells in nests and trabeculae, admixed with amyloid deposits. Which of the following is most accurate? (A) the amyloid deposits are composed of altered calcitonin molecules (B) the patient is likely hypocalcemic (C) the patient’s surrounding thyroid parenchyma has no C cell hyperplasia (D) most cases of this tumor are familial

A

the amyloid deposits are altered calcitonin molecules (medullary thyroid carcinoma) (B - hypocalcemia is not a feature; C - multicentric C cell hyperplasia is a feature in familial forms; D - most cases are sporadic) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp 770-771

2393
Q

Which of the following renal histologic findings is most characteristic of diabetes? (A) focal mild pyelonephritis (B) diffuse mesangial sclerosis (C) arteriosclerosis of efferent arterioles of the glomerulus (D) crescentic glomerulonephritis

A

arteriosclerosis of the efferent arterioles of the glomerulus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp783-784

2394
Q

Of the pancreatic endocrine neoplasms or islet cell tumors, which is most commonly benign? (A) insulinomas (B) gastrinomas (C) VIPomas (D) nonfunctioning islet cell tumors

A

Insulinomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p. 788

2395
Q

A 44 year old male presents with intermittent, intense epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids or H2 blockers. He also has occasional diarrhea. An endoscopy revealed multiple gastric, duodenal, and jejunal ulcers. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is considered. Where can the tumor be located? (A) pancreas (B) duodenum (C) peripancreatic soft tissues (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (“gastrinoma triangle”) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp788-789

2396
Q

Which of the following is the commonest cause of Cushing syndrome? (A) anterior pituitary tumor (B) adrenocortical neoplasm (C) small cell lung carcinoma (D) medication

A

medication (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., pp 789-790

2397
Q

Which of the following findings is most compatible with adrenal Cushing syndrome? (A) elevated ACTH, elevated cortisol (B) decreased ACTH, decreased cortisol (C) decreased ACTH, elevated cortisol (D) elevated ACTH, decreased cortisol

A

decreased ACTH, elevated cortisol (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 789

2398
Q

Known as “brittle bone disease”.

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

2399
Q

This is a group of hereditary disorders caused by defective synthesis of type I collagen. Classic finding of a “blue sclerae” is seen in one type of this disorder.

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

2400
Q

Characterized by , disproportionate shortening of the proximal extremities, bowing of the legs, and a lordotic (sway-backed) posture.

A

Achrondroplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

2401
Q

A group of rare genetic disorders characterized by reduced osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and therefore defective bone remodelling. Literally means “stone bone”.

A

Osteopetrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p802

2402
Q

The hallmark of this disease is loss of bone which tends to be most conspicuous in trabecular bone. The bony trabeculae are thinner and more widely separated than usual, resulting in an increased susceptibility to fractures.

A

Osteoporosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p804

2403
Q

Characterized by repetitive episodes of frenzied, regional osteoclastic activity and bone resorption, followed by exuberant bone formation, and finally by an apparent exhaustion of cellular activity. Pathognomonic feature is a “mosaic pattern” of lamellar bone.

A

Paget Disease (Osteitis Deformans) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p806

2404
Q

The hallmark of this disease is increased osteoclastic activity, with bone resorption. This leads to characteristic radiographic changes best seen along the radial aspect of the middle phalanges of the second and third fingers.

A

Hyperparathyroidism (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p808

2405
Q

Characterized by dead bone with empty lacunae is interspersed with areas of fat necrosis and insoluble calcium soaps. The cortex is usually not affected because of collateral blood supply.

A

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

2406
Q

Inflammation of the bone and marrow cavity.

A

Osteomyelitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

2407
Q

What do you call the dead entrapped bone seen in infected sites of bones affected with osteomyelitis?

A

Sequestrum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

2408
Q

What do you call the shell of living tissue around a segment of devitalized bone?

A

Involucrum (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p809

2409
Q

Benign bone tumor characterized as exophytic growths attached to bone surface of the face and skull, which may histologically resemble normal bone.

A

Osteoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

2410
Q

Benign bone tumor that are cortical tumors, histologically described as interlacing trabeculae of woven bone. Characteristic symptom is pain. Common locations include the metaphyses of the femur and tibia.

A

Osteoid osteoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

2411
Q

These bone-forming lesions arise in vertebral transverse and spinous processes of the vertebral column, which may be histologically similar to osteoid osteoma.

A

Osteoblastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

2412
Q

A bone-producing malignant mesenchymal tumor, characterized as gritty, gray-white tumors, often exhibiting hemorrhage and cystic degeneration. The production of mineralized or unmineralized bone (osteoid) by malignant cells is essential for diagnosis.

A

Osteosarcomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p811

2413
Q

These are relatively common benign hyaline cartilage-capped outgrowths attached by a bony stalk to the underlying skeleton.

A

Osteochondromas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

2414
Q

These are benign tumors of hyaline cartilage, described as gray-blue, translucent well-circumscribed nodules. May be seen in metaphyseal regions of tubular bones of the hands and feet. On x-ray, the unmineralized nodules of cartilage produce well-circumscribed oval lucencies surrounded by thin rims of radiodense bone (O-ring sign).

A

Enchondromas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

2415
Q

Chondromas seen on the bone surface.

A

Juxtacortical chondromas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

2416
Q

These lesions arise within the medullary cavity of the bone to form an expansile glistening mass that often erodes the cortex. They exhibit malignant hyaline and myxoid cartilage.

A

Conventional chondrosarcomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p814

2417
Q

These tumors are characterized as viscous and gelatinous, with the matrix oozing from the cut surface. Spotty calcifications are typically present, with central necrosis creating cystic spaces.

A

Myxoid chondrosarcomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p815

2418
Q

Presents as sharply demarcated radiolucencies surrounded by a thin zone of sclerosis. They are gray to yellow-brown, and microscopically are cellular lesions composed of cytologically benign fibroblasts and macrophages. The fibroblasts classically exhibit a “storiform (pinwheel) pattern”.

A

Fibrous Cortical Defect and Nonossifying Fibroma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p815

2419
Q

A benign tumor of the bone wherein all components of normal bone are present, but they fail to differentiate into mature structures. Curved trabeculae of woven bone mimick “Chinese characters” histologically.

A

Fibrous Dysplasia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p816

2420
Q

Primary malignant small round-cell tumor of bone and soft tissue, characterized by Sheets of small round cells with scant, cleared cytoplasm, circled about a central fibrillary space or “Homer-Wright rosettes”.

A

Ewing sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p817

2421
Q

A relatively uncommon benign tumor usually arising in individuals in their 20s to 40s. These are large and red-brown lesions with frequent cystic degeneration, composed of uniform oval mononuclear cells with frequent mitoses, with scattered osteoclast-type giant cells containing 100 or more nuclei.

A

Giant-cell tumors (GCTs)/Osteoclastoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p.1204

2422
Q

These are the most common malignant tumor of bone.

A

Metastatic tumors (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p818

2423
Q

Pathways of metastasis to the bone.

A

1) direct extension, (2) lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination, (3) intraspinal seeding(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p818

2424
Q

Characterized by fibrillation and cracking of the articular cartilage matrix, bone eburnation, and bony outgrowths/spurs (osteophytes). Full-thickness portions of the cartilage are lost, and the subchondral bone plate is exposed.

A

Osteoarthritis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p819

2425
Q

Characterized by a dense neutrophilic infiltrate permeating the synovium and synovial fluid. Long, slender, needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals are frequently found in the cytoplasm of the neutrophils as well as in small clusters in the synovium.

A

Acute gouty arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

2426
Q

Results from repetitive precipitation of urate crystals during acute attacks. The synovium becomes hyperplastic, fibrotic, and thickened by inflammatory cells, forming a pannus that destroys the underlying cartilage.

A

Chronic tophaceous arthritis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

2427
Q

Formed by large aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by an intense inflammatory reaction of lymphocytes, macrophages, and foreign-body giant cells, attempting to engulf the masses of crystals. Pathognomonic feature of gout.

A

Tophi (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

2428
Q

Refers to multiple different renal complications associated with urate deposition, variously forming medullary tophi, intratubular precipitations, or free uric acid crystals and renal calculi.

A

Gouty nephropathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p821

2429
Q

Also known as chondrocalcinosis or-more formally-calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease. The crystals are weakly birefringent, rhomboid in shape with blunted ends.

A

Pseudogout (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p823

2430
Q

Main causative agent of suppurative arthritis in late adolescence and young adulthood.

A

Neisseria gonorrhea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

2431
Q

Individuals with sickle cell disease are prone to developing osteomyelitis and suppurative arthritis caused by this agent.

A

Salmonella(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

2432
Q

Arthritis caused by infection with the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted by deer ticks of the Ixodes ricinus complex.

A

Lyme arthritis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p824

2433
Q

A small (

A

Ganglion cyst(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p825

2434
Q

The most severe and the most common form of muscular dystrophy. Characterized by marked variation in muscle fiber size, caused by concomitant myofiber hypertrophy and atrophy. The definitive diagnosis is based on the demonstration of abnormal staining for “dystrophin” in immunohistochemical preparations.

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p825

2435
Q

This can present as either acute or chronic proximal muscle weakness, and can precede the onset of other signs of thyroid dysfunction. Findings include myofiber necrosis, regeneration, and interstitial lymphocytes.

A

Thyrotoxic myopathy (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

2436
Q

This can occur with binge drinking, where there is an acute toxic rhabdomyolysis with accompanying myoglobinuria that can cause renal failure. On histology, there is myocyte swelling and necrosis, myophagocytosis, and regeneration.

A

Ethanol myopathy (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

2437
Q

An autoimmune disorder of the neuromuscular junction characterized by muscle weakness which first manifests in the extraocular muscles. Caused by circulating antibodies to the skeletal muscle acetylcholine receptors (AChRs).

A

Myasthenia gravis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

2438
Q

This syndrome characteristically develops as a paraneoplastic process most commonly in the setting of small-cell lung carcinoma. Presents with muscle weakness secondary to decreased vesicle release in response to presynaptic action potential.

A

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

2439
Q

Soft tissue tumor which presents as soft, gelatinous, grapelike masses on the surfaces of the bladder or vagina.

A

Sarcoma botryoides(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p830

2440
Q

It is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of childhood and adolescence, usually appearing before age 20.

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p831

2441
Q

Diagnostic cell in rhabdomyosarcoma, characterized as round or elongated cells that may contain cross-striations visible by light microscopy.

A

Tadpole or strap cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p831

2442
Q

Soft, yellow, well-encapsulated masses of mature adipocytes; they can vary considerably in size. Histologically, they consist of mature white fat cells with no pleomorphism

A

Lipoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p832

2443
Q

Malignant neoplasms of adipocytes, which usually present as relatively well-circumscribed lesions. Diagnostic feature are lipoblasta, similar to fetal fat cells, with cytoplasmic lipid vacuoles that scallop the nucleus.

A

Liposarcomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p833

2444
Q

A self-limited, reactive fibroblastic proliferation that typically occurs in adults on the volar aspect of the forearm. Consists of plump, randomly arranged, immature-appearing fibroblasts in an abundant myxoid stroma. Not a true tumor.

A

Nodular Fasciitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p833

2445
Q

This develops in the proximal muscles of the extremities in athletic adolescents and young adults after trauma. Distinguished from other fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of metaplastic bone. Excision is curative.

A

Myositis Ossificans (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p833

2446
Q

Malignant neoplasms composed of fibroblasts. These are soft unencapsulated, infiltrative masses frequently with areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. Malignant spindle cells are arranged in a “herringbone pattern”.

A

Fibrosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p834

2447
Q

These are relatively common benign lesions in adults presenting as circumscribed, small (

A

Benign Fibrous Histiocytoma (Dermatofibroma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p834

2448
Q

A variety of soft tissue sarcomas Characterized by considerable cytologic pleomorphism, the presence of bizarre multinucleate cells, and “storiform” architecture .

A

Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p834

2449
Q

Benign smooth muscle tumors described as well-circumscribed neoplasms that can arise from smooth muscle cells anywhere in the body, but are encountered most commonly in the uterus.

A

Leiomyoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p835

2450
Q

These commonly present as firm, painless masses of the skin, deep soft tissues of the extermities and retroperitoneum. Histologically, they show spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei arranged in interweaving fascicles.

A

Leiomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p835

2451
Q

What is the mineral that gives bone strength and hardness and is the storehouse for 99% of the body’s calcium, 85% of the body’s phosphorous, and 65% of the body’s sodium and magnesium?

A

Calcium Hydroxyapatite (TOPNOTCH)

2452
Q

Of all the proteins in the bone matrix, which one is unique to the bone?

A

Osteocalcin (TOPNOTCH)

2453
Q

Identify the bone cell: responsible for bone resorption

A

Osteoclast (TOPNOTCH)

2454
Q

Identify the bone cell: most numerous than any other bone forming cell

A

Osteocytes (TOPNOTCH)

2455
Q

Identify the bone cell: initiate the process of mineralization and express cell surface receptors that bind many hormones

A

Osteoblasts (TOPNOTCH)

2456
Q

What is the functional unit of bone?

A

Osteoblast and Osteoclast act in coordination and are considered the functional unit of bone known as the Basic Multicellular Unit (TOPNOTCH)

2457
Q

In what part of the bone can you see the histological abnormalities seen in achondroplasia?

A

Growth plate (TOPNOTCH)

2458
Q

Gross appearance: lack a medullary canal and the end of long bones are bulbous (Erlenmeyer Flask Deformity) and misshapen. The neural foramina are small and compress exiting nerves

A

Osteopetrosis (TOPNOTCH)

2459
Q

What is the main defect in Osteopetrosis?

A

Deficient Osteoblastic Activity (TOPNOTCH)

2460
Q

Osteoporosis cannot be reliably detected in plain radiographs until how much of the bone mass is lost?

A

30-40% (TOPNOTCH)

2461
Q

What is the histologic hallmark of Paget Disease of the bone?

A

Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone (Jigsaw pattern) (TOPNOTCH)

2462
Q

A variety of tumor and tumor like conditions develop in pagetic bone. However, what is the most dreaded complication of this condition?

A

Sarcoma (Osteosarcoma > Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma, or chondrosarcoma) (TOPNOTCH)

2463
Q

80% of cases, what bone is involved in Paget DIsease?

A

Axial skeleton and proximal femur (TOPNOTCH)

2464
Q

What is the most common site of tuberculous osteomyelitis?

A

Spine (thoracic and lumbar) > knees and hips (TOPNOTCH)

2465
Q

Most cases of osteomyelitis reach the bone via what route?

A

Hematogenous (TOPNOTCH)

2466
Q

What do you call a small intraosseous abscess that frequently involves the cortex and is walled off by reactive bone?

A

Brodie abscess (TOPNOTCH)

2467
Q

What do you call the morphologic variant of osteomyelitis that typically develops in the jaw and is associated with extensive new bone formation that obscures much of the underlying osseous structures?

A

Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre (TOPNOTCH)

2468
Q

What do you call a dead piece of bone?

A

Sequestrum (TOPNOTCH)

2469
Q

Reactive woven or lamellar bone may be deposited and when it forms a sleeve of living tissue around a segment of devitalized bone, it is known as?

A

Involucrum (TOPNOTCH)

2470
Q

Morphology: Edematous granulation tissue containing numerous plasma cells and necrotic bone

A

Congenital Syphilitic Bone infection and Acquired syphillis (TOPNOTCH)

2471
Q

What is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone, exclusive of myeloma and lymphoma, and accounts for approximately 20% of primary bone cancers.

A

Osteosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2472
Q

What are the 3 conditions associated with the development of osteosarcoma?

A
  1. Paget disease2. Bone infarcts3. Prior irradiation (TOPNOTCH)
2473
Q

What part of the bone do osteosarcomas usually arise?

A

Metaphyseal region of the long bone of the extremities, 60% occur about the knee. (TOPNOTCH)

2474
Q

Morphology: Coarse, lacelike pattern of neoplastic bone produced by anaplastic malignant tumor cells

A

Osteosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2475
Q

Morphology: sheets of uniform small, round cells that are slightly larger than lymphocytes with small amounts of clear cytoplasm.

A

Ewing Sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2476
Q

Morphology: Presence of Homer Write rosettes ( tumor cells are arranged in a circle about a central fibrillary space)

A

Ewing Sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2477
Q

The diagnostic cell of embryonal, alveolar, and pleomorphic variants of Rhabdomyosarcoma which contains eccentric eosinophilic granular cytoplasm rich in thick and thin filaments

A

Rhabdomyoblast (TOPNOTCH)

2478
Q

Tadpole or strap cells are seen in what soft tissue tumor?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2479
Q

Morphology: characterized by malignant spindle cells that have cigar shaped nuclei arranged in interweaving fascicles.

A

Leiomyosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2480
Q

Morphology: histological hallmark is the dual line of differentiation of tumor cells, epithelial like cells and spindle cells

A

Synovial Sarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2481
Q

Gross morphology: unencapsulated, infiltrative, soft, fish flesh masses, often having areas of hemorrhage and necrosis

A

Fibrosarcoma (TOPNOTCH)

2482
Q

These cells mimic fetal fat cells and contain round clear cytoplasmic vacuoles of lipid that scallop the nucleus. Seen in liposarcoma.

A

Lipoblasts (TOPNOTCH)

2483
Q

Most common soft tissue tumor of adulthood.

A

Lipoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1220

2484
Q

Pathognomonic hallmark of gout

A

Tophi (TOPNOTCH)

2485
Q

What are the most common cutaneous lesions seen in RA?

A

Rheumatoid Nodules (TOPNOTCH)

2486
Q

The most important factors in the development of Osteoarthritis

A

Aging and mechanical effects (TOPNOTCH)

2487
Q

Bone eburnation and joint mice are seen in what disease entity?

A

Osteoarthritis (TOPNOTCH)

2488
Q

The most common cancers that metastasize to the bone are?

A

Prostate, breast, kidney, and lung (TOPNOTCH)

2489
Q

What bones are most commonly involved in skeletal metastasis?

A

In descending order: Axial skeleton ( vertebral column, pelvis, ribs, skull, and sternum), proximal femur, and humerus (TOPNOTCH)

2490
Q

Skeletal metastases are typically multifocal, however, what carcinomas that metastasize to the bone are notorious for producing solitary lesions?

A

Ca of Kidney and Thyroid (TOPNOTCH)

2491
Q

Morphology: uniform oval mononuclear cells that have indistinct cell membranes and appear to grow in syncitium with scattered numerous osteoclast type giants cells having 100 or more nuclei that have identical features to those of the mononuclear cells

A

Giant cell Tumor (TOPNOTCH)

2492
Q

Morphology: trabeculae mimic chinese characters

A

Fibrous Dysplasia (TOPNOTCH)

2493
Q

Morphology: Storiform pattern or pinwheel pattern created by benign spindle cells with scattered osteoclast

A

Fibrous cortical defect and nonossifying fibroma (TOPNOTCH)

2494
Q

What is the primary characteristic of osteosarcoma?

A

The formation of bone by the tumor cells (TOPNOTCH)

2495
Q

Seen in Xray as subperiosteal resorption producing thinned cortices in the middle phalanges of the index and middle finger and loss of the lamina dura around the teeth (TOPNOTCH)

A

Hyperparathyroidism (Generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica or von Recklinghausen disease of the bone) (TOPNOTCH)

2496
Q

The combined picture of increased bone cell activity, peritrabecular fibrosis, and cystic brown tumors is the hallmark of what disease of abnormal mineral homeostasis?

A

Hyperparathyroidism (Generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica or von Recklinghausen disease of the bone) (TOPNOTCH)

2497
Q

What is the most important prognostic feature of a bone sarcoma?

A

Histological grade (TOPNOTCH)

2498
Q

O ring sign is seen in what cartilage forming tumor?

A

Chondroma (TOPNOTCH)

2499
Q

Morphology: chicken wire pattern of mineralizaton

A

Chondroblastoma (TOPNOTCH)

2500
Q

Myositis ossificans is distinguised from the other fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of what structure?

A

Metaplastic bone (TOPNOTCH)

2501
Q

Most common cause of skeletal dysplasia and a major cause of dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1184

2502
Q

Most common inherited disorder of connective tissue

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1185

2503
Q

Hyaline cartilage is composed of what type of collagen?

A

Type II collagen(TOPNOTCH)

2504
Q

Most common type of joint disease

A

Osteoarthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1208

2505
Q

Presents with deep, achy joint pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of ROM, osteophytes(bony outgrowths), sparing of wrists, elbow, and shoulder.

A

Osteoarthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1209

2506
Q

Radiographic hallmark of this joint disease are joint effusions and juxta-articular osteopenia with erosion and narrowing of joint space and loss of articular cartilage.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1212

2507
Q

Presents with malaise, fatigue, and generalized musculoskeletal pain. After several weeks, may present with symmetric joint pain affecting metacarpophalangeal, PIP, wrists, ankles and knees. The lumbosacral region and hips are spared. Involved joints are swollen, warm, painful, stiif when rising in the morning or following inactivity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis(TOPNOTCH)

2508
Q

It causes destruction of articular cartilage and bony ankylosis, especially of the sacroiliac and apophyseal joints. May present with lower back pain and spine immobility.

A

It causes destruction of articular cartilage and bony ankylosis, especially of the sacroiliac and apophyseal joints. May present with lower back pain and spine immobility.

2509
Q

Also known as rheumatoid spondylitis and Marie-Strumpell disease

A

Ankylosis spondylitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 1213

2510
Q

Triad of arthritis, non-gonococcal urethritis or cerviciis, and conjunctivitis

A

Reactive arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 1213

2511
Q

Presents with asymmetric pain and stiffness of the ankle and knee joints several weeks of the inciting bout of urethritis or diarrhea. May present with sausage-finger or toe, calcaneal spurs and bony outgrowths.

A

Reactive arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 1213

2512
Q

Chronic inflammatory arthropathy concurrently or following the onset of skin disease. Produc the characteristic “pencil in cup” deformity , due to involvement of DIP of the hands and feet in an assymetric distribution.

A

Psoriatic arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed. P. 1213

2513
Q

Main causative agent of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years old.

A

H. influenza(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1213

2514
Q

Main causative agent of infectious arthritis in older children and adults.

A

S. aureus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1213

2515
Q

Main causative agent of infectious arthritis in patients with sickle cell disease.

A

Salmonella(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1213

2516
Q

Most common joint affected in nongonoccocal suppurative arthritis.

A

Knee(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1213

2517
Q

Presents with sudden development of acutely painful and swollen joint with decreased ROM, associated with fever, leukocytosis, and elevated ESR. Usually involves only a single joint.

A

Suppurative arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1213

2518
Q

Most common joints affected in mycobacterial arthritis

A

In descending order: Hips, knees, and ankles.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1215

2519
Q

Genetic disorder resulting from complete absence of HGPRT, produced by mutation in the HPRT gene causing hyeruricemia.

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1215

2520
Q

Presents with joint pain associated with localized hyperemia, warmth, usually in the first metatasophalangeal joint. Associated with excessive alcohol intake. Radiographs of chronic condition show characteristic juxta-articular erosion and loss of joint space.

A

Gouty arthritis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1216

2521
Q

Cytokine that is mainly implicated in the pathogenesis of RA.

A

TNF(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1217

2522
Q

The fundamental abnormality in this disorder is too little bone resulting in extreme skeletal fragility. Other findings include blue sclerae, hearing loss, and dental imperfections.

A

Ostegenesis Impefecta(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1185

2523
Q

Also known as marble bone disease and Albers-Schonberg disease

A

Osteopetrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1186

2524
Q

Morphology: Erlenmeyer flask deformity (end of long bones are bulbous), bones lack a medullary canal, neural foramina are small, primary spongiosa persists, deposited bone is not remodeled and tends to be woven.

A

Osteopetrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1186

2525
Q

First genetic disease treated with hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.

A

Osteopetrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1187

2526
Q

Effect of decreased estrogen level after menopause

A

Increase bone resorption (and formation)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1189

2527
Q

Hallmark of osteoporosis

A

Histologically normal bone that is decreased in quantity(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed, p 1189

2528
Q

Presents with pain due to microfracture or bone overgrowth, and enlargement of craniofacial skeleton pproducing leontiasis ossea, inability to hold the head erect. May also cause chalk-stick type fractures and arteriovenous shunt. Xray: enlarged, coarsened cortices and cancelous bone.

A

Paget Disease (Osteitis Deformans) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1191

2529
Q

Most dreaded complication of Paget disease

A

Sarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 11911

2530
Q

The fundamental defect in these disorders is an impairment of mineralization and a resultant accumulation of unmineralized matrix due to vitamin D deficiency or its abnormal metabolism.

A

Rickets(children) and Osteomalacia(adult)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1191

2531
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis.

A

S. aureus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1195

2532
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in individuals with sickle cell disease.

A

Salmonella(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1195

2533
Q

Characteristic radiographic findings of a lytic focus of bone destrucrion surrounded by a zone of sclerosis

A

Osteomyelitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1196

2534
Q

Presents with painful, progressively enlarging masses usually in the metaphyseal region of the extremities; sudden fracture; Xray: large destructive, mixed lytic and blastic mass with infiltrative margins, Codman triangle

A

Osteosarcoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1198

2535
Q

The most common benign bone tumor

A

Osteochondroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1200

2536
Q

A 17 year old presents with a painfull swelling of the right knee. Radiographs show a lytic and blastic mass in the distal femur, with lifting of the surrounding periosteum. Which of the following is consistent with the diagnosis of osteosarcoma? (A) malignant mesenchymal cells in a chondromyxoid stroma (B) round, blue cells in sheets, with scant clear cytoplasm (C) multinucleated giant cells and a background of mononuclear cells (D) malignant mesenchymal cells with osteoid formation

A

malignant mesenchymal cells with osteoid formation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p 813

2537
Q

A 42 year old male has repeated bouts of inflammation of his big toe, associated with drinking alcohol and cold weather. There is a knobby, nodular swelling around the involved joint. There are similar nodules in some of his fingertips and on his earlobe. If one of these nodules is biopsied, it would likely show (A) curved trabeculae of woven bone and surrounding fibrous tissue (B) marked proliferation of the synovium with underlying dense lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate (C) aggregate of amorphous material surrounded by reactive fibroblasts, lymphocytes, macrophages, and foreign-body giant cells (D) granulomas with epithelioid macrophages, giant cells with nuclei in a horeshoe configuration, and central necrosis

A

aggregate of amorphous material surrounded by reactive fibroblasts, lymphocytes, macrophages, and foreign-body giant cells (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p 820-821

2538
Q

A 7 year old female is observed to have a fleshy, grape-like mass protruding from her vagina. A biopsy showed large round cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Some of the cells are elongated. The tumor (A) is commonly associated with chromosomal translocations (B) common in childhood and adolescence (C) may be positive for desmin and muscle-specific actin (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology,8th ed., p831

2539
Q

This term is the accumulation of edema fluid within the epidermis. Characterizes all forms of eczamatous dermatitis.

A

Spongiosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 839

2540
Q

An uncommon, usually self-limited disorder that seems to be a hypersensitivity response to certain infections and drugs. Patients present with an array of “multiform” lesions, including macules, papules, vesicles, and bullae, as well as the characteristic targetoid lesion consisting of a red macule or papule with a pale vesicular or eroded center.

A

Erythema Multiforme (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 840

2541
Q

In this skin disorder, there is marked epidermal thickening (acanthosis), and loss of the stratum granulosum with extensive overlying parakeratotic scale. The most typical lesion is a well-demarcated, pink to salmon-colored plaque covered by loosely adherent silver-white scale.

A

Psoriasis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2542
Q

This sign is described as bleeding upon removal of scales from the lesions of psoriasis.

A

Auspitz sign(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2543
Q

Small aggregates of neutrophils within the parakeratotic stratum corneum in psoriasis.

A

Munro microabscesses(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2544
Q

Small aggregates of neutrophils within the spongiotic superficial epidermis in psoriasis.

A

Pustules of Kogoj(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2545
Q

Layer of the skin which is affected in psoriasis.

A

S. granulosum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2546
Q

“Pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules, and plaques” describes this disorder of the skin and mucosa. The pattern of inflammation of this disorder is characterized by angulated, zigzag contour (“sawtoothing”) of the dermoepidermal junction.

A

Lichen Planus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2547
Q

Anucleate, necrotic basal cells seen in the inflamed papillary dermis of patients with lichen planus are called?

A

Colloid bodies or Civatte bodies(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2548
Q

Presents as roughening of the skin that takes on an appearance reminiscent of “lichen on a tree”. It is a response to local repetitive trauma such as continual rubbing or scratching.

A

Lichen Simplex Chronicus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 842

2549
Q

Common lesions of children and adolescents, caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Histologic features include epidermal hyperplasia that is often undulant in character, and cytoplasmic vacuolization (koilocytosis).

A

Verrucae (warts)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 843

2550
Q

The most common type of wart. Occurs anywhere but are found most frequently on the hands, particularly on the dorsal surfaces and periungual areas, where they appear as gray-white to tan, flat to convex, 0.1- to 1-cm papules with a rough, pebble-like surface.

A

Verruca vulgaris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

2551
Q

These warts are common on the face or dorsal surfaces of the hands. These warts are flat, smooth, tan macules.

A

Verruca plana/flat wart(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

2552
Q

These warts occur on the soles and palms. Described as rough, scaly lesions that may reach 1 to 2 cm in diameter, coalesce, and be confused with ordinary calluses.

A

Verruca plantaris and verruca palmaris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

2553
Q

These warts occurs on the penis, female genitalia, urethra, and perianal areas.

A

Condyloma acuminatum (venereal wart) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 844

2554
Q

A rare autoimmune blistering disorder resulting from loss of integrity of normal intercellular attachments within the epidermis and mucosal epithelium. Caused by a type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

Pemphigus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

2555
Q

Common histologic denominator in all forms of pemphigus, described as the lysis of the intercellular adhesion sites.

A

Acantholysis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

2556
Q

In this variant of pemphigus, acantholysis selectively involves the layer of cells immediately above the basal cell layer, giving rise to a suprabasal acantholytic blister. There is uniform deposition of immunoglobulin and complement along the cell membranes of keratinocytes, producing a characteristic “fishnet” appearance.

A

Pemphigus vulgaris(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

2557
Q

In this variant of pemphigus, acantholysis selectively involves the superficial epidermis at the level of the stratum granulosum.

A

Pemphigus foliaceus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845

2558
Q

An autoimmune disease in which the characteristic finding is linear deposition of IgG antibodies and complement in the basement membrane zone. Characterized by a subepidermal, nonacantholytic full-thickness epidermal fluid-filled blister.

A

Bullous pemphigoid (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 846

2559
Q

A rare disorder characterized by urticaria and grouped vesicles. Fibrin and neutrophils accumulate selectively at the tips of dermal papillae, forming small microabscesses, which coalesce to form a subepidermal blister. On immunofluorescence, granular deposits of IgA are localized at the tips of dermal papillae.

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 846

2560
Q

These common epidermal tumors occur most frequently in middle-aged or older individuals. The lesions consist of an orderly proliferation of uniform, benign basaloid keratinocytes with a tendency to form keratin microcysts (horn cysts), which has a “stuck-on” appearance on the skin.

A

Seborrheic keratosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 849

2561
Q

These are rare tumors that primarily occur in the head and neck region of older individuals. They usually present as flesh-colored papules and can be a marker for an internal malignancy.

A

Sebaceous Adenoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 849

2562
Q

These lesion is usually the result of chronic exposure to sunlight and is associated with hyperkeratosis. The dermis contains thickened, blue-gray elastic fibers or “solar elastosis” which is the result of chronic sun damage.

A

Actinic keratoses(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 850

2563
Q

Acronym for remembering the histologic features of actinic keratoses.

A

“Sunny” SPAINS S - solar elastoses (dermal sun damage)P - parakeratosisA - atypia (keratinocytic)I - inflammationN - not full thickness atypia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 850

2564
Q

A common tumor arising on sun-exposed sites in older people, with higher incidence in women. Arise from prior actinic keratoses. Characterized by highly anaplastic, rounded cells with foci of necrosis and only abortive, single-cell keratinization (dyskeratosis).

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 851

2565
Q

This is the most common human cancer, which is a slow-growing tumor that rarely metastasizes. Tends to occur at sites subject to chronic sun exposure and in lightly pigmented people. h

A

Basal cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 852

2566
Q

These tumors present as pearly, smooth-surfaced papules, often containing prominent, dilated subepidermal blood vessels (telangiectasia). The cells have scant cytoplasm, small hyperchromatic nuclei, and a peripheral palisade with clefting from the stroma.

A

Basal cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 852

2567
Q

This refers to any benign congenital or acquired neoplasm of melanocytes.

A

Melanocytic nevus(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 853

2568
Q

These are large nevi and may occur as hundreds of lesions on the body surface. They are flat macules to slightly raised plaques, with a “pebbly” surface. Considered as a marker of melanoma risk.

A

Dysplastic nevi(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 854

2569
Q

This cancer of the skin may develop from a dysplastic nevus, and results from excessive sun exposure. Malignant cells have large nuclei with irregular contours having chromatin characteristically clumped at the periphery of the nuclear membrane and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli often described as “cherry red”. Has both radial and vertical growth phases.

A

Melanoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 855

2570
Q

This determines the biologic behavior of melanomas.

A

Nature and extent of the vertical growth phase (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 857

2571
Q

What is the most common type of all autoimmune blistering disordering of the skin (pemphigus)?

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris(TOPNOTCH)

2572
Q

Histologically, what is the most common denominator in all forms of pemphigus?

A

Acantholysis (TOPNOTCH)

2573
Q

Morphology: Subepidermal nonacantholytic blisters

A

Bullous Pemphigoid (TOPNOTCH)

2574
Q

Morphology: Suprabasal acantholytic blister

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris (TOPNOTCH)

2575
Q

Morphology: Characteristically, fibrin and neutrophils accumulate selectively at the tips of the dermal papillae forming small microabscesses

A

Dermatitis Herpetiformis (Seen in Celiac Disease) (TOPNOTCH)

2576
Q

Morphology: accumulation of neutrophils beneath the stratum corneum

A

Impetigo (TOPNOTCH)

2577
Q

Munro microabscesses is classically seen in?

A

Psoriasis (TOPNOTCH)

2578
Q

Auspitz sign is associated with what condition?

A

Psoriasis (TOPNOTCH)

2579
Q

Pearly papules often containing prominent, dilated subepidermal blood vessels (telangiectasias)

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

2580
Q

What is the most commonly accepted exogenous cause of squamous cel carcinoma of the skin?

A

Exposure to UV light (TOPNOTCH)

2581
Q

Cutaneous horns are seen in what condition?

A

Actinic Keratosis (TOPNOTCH)

2582
Q

Morphology: characterized by loss of melanocytes

A

Albinism (TOPNOTCH)

2583
Q

In albinism, melanocytes are present but melanin pigment is not produced due to what enzyme deficiency or defect?

A

Tyrosinase (TOPNOTCH)

2584
Q

Q: + for melanocyte-associated proteins such as tyrosinase or Melan-A or S

A

Vitiligo (TOPNOTCH)

2585
Q

The early developmental stage in melanocytic nevi is called?

A

Junctional nevi (TOPNOTCH)

2586
Q

Most junctional nevi grow into the underlying dermis as nests or cords of cells and are calle

A

Compound nevi (TOPNOTCH)

2587
Q

When all the epidermal nests of compound nevi are lost entirely they form what

A

intradermal nevi (TOPNOTCH)

2588
Q

Appears to play an important role in the development of skin malignant melanoma

A

Sunlight (TOPNOTCH)

2589
Q

What are the 5 clinical warning signs of melanoma?

A
  1. enlargement of a pre-existing mle2. itching or pain in pre-existing mole3. development of a new pigment lesion during adult life4. irregularity of the borders of a pigment lesion5. variegation of color within a pigmented lesion (TOPNOTCH)
2590
Q

Appears clinically as flesh-colored, dome shaped nodules with central, keratin filled plug, imparting a crater like topography

A

Keratoacanthoma (TOPNOTCH)

2591
Q

Morphology: Central, keratin filled crater surrounded by proliferating epitheal cells that extend upward in a lip-like fashion over the sides of the crater and downward into the dermis as irregular tongues

A

keratoacanthoma (TOPNOTCH)

2592
Q

The most important clinical sign of malignant melanoma

A

change in color, size, or shape in a pigmented lesion (TOPNOTCH)

2593
Q

In Malignant Melanoma, what type of growth indicated the tendency of a melanoma to grow horizontally within the epidermal and superficial dermal layers, often for a prolonged period of time?

A

Radial growth (TOPNOTCH)

2594
Q

In Malignant Melanoma, what are the determinants of a more favorable prognosis?

A
  1. Tumor depth of less than 1.7 mm2. Absence or low numbers of mitoses3. Presence of a brisk TIL response (Tumor Infiltrating Leukocytes)4. Absence of regression 5. Female gender6. Location on extremity skin (TOPNOTCH)
2595
Q

A 20 y/o male, previously known case of peanut allergy inadvertently took biscuits containing peanuts. Within a short time, he developed pink wheals on his extremities and trunk that are pruritic. Histologic findings in his lesion will include:

A

Sparse superficial perivenular infiltrate of mononuclear cells and eosinophils. (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9th ed., p. 1162

2596
Q

Most important cause of cutaneous squamous cell carcoma

A

DNA damage induced by UV light exposure(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology 9th ed., 122

2597
Q

Usually present as pearly papules contaning prominent dilated subepidermal blood vessles(telangiectasia), which may ulcerate and locally invade bone or facial sinuses; cells at the periphery of tumor cell islands tend to be arranged radially with long axes in parallel alignment(palisading)

A

Basal cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1157

2598
Q

Actinic keratosis may lead to what type of skin cancer?

A

Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1157

2599
Q

Histologic hallmark of Cutaneous T-cell Lymphoma

A

Presence of Sezary-Lutzner cells(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1160

2600
Q

Presents with small, pruritic papules to large edematous plaques, which may coalesce to form annular, linear, or arcform configurations. There is usually superficial perivenular infiltrate consisting of mononuclear cells, rare neutrophils, and eosinophils

A

Urticaria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1162

2601
Q

Febrile form of erythema multiforme associated with extensive involvement of skin, lips and oral mucosa, conjunctiva, urethra, and genital and perianal areas, often seen in children.

A

Steven-Johnson syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1164

2602
Q

It is characterized by kertinocyte injury mediated by skin-homing CD8+ band cytotoxic T lymphocytes; presenting with diverse array of lesions.

A

Erythema Multiforme (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1164

2603
Q

Process by which local trauma induce psoriatic lesions in susceptible individuals

A

Koebner phenomenon(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1165

2604
Q

Presents with macules and papules on an erythematous-yellow, often greasy base, in association with extensive scaling and crusting. Histologically, mounds of parakeratosis containing neutrophils and serum are present at the ostia of hair follicles(Follicular lipping)

A

Seborrheic dermatitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1166

2605
Q

Group of disorders caused by inherited defects in structural proteins that lend mechanical stability to the skin; common feature is a proclivity to form blisters at sites of pressure, rubbing, or trauma, at or soon after birth

A

Epidermolysis bullosa(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1171

2606
Q

Presents with urticaria and vesicles associated with scarring that are exacerbated by exposure to sunlight. The vesicles are subepidermal in location and dermis contains vessels with walls that are thickened by glassy deposits of serum proteins.

A

Porphyria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p 1172

2607
Q

Presents with stages of flushing, then persistent erythema and telangiectasia, followed by pustules and papules, and lastly by permanent thickening of the nasal skin by confluent erythematous papules and prominent follicles(rhinophyma)

A

Rosacea(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1174

2608
Q

Presents with multiple lesions on the skin and mucus membranes, with predilection for the trunk and anogenital areas. Lesions are firm, often pruritic, pink to skin-colored umbilicated papules, with curd-like material which can be expressed from the central umbilication

A

Molluscum contagiosum(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1176

2609
Q

The pathogenesis of blister formation in this condition is related to bacterial production of a toxin that cleaves desmoglein 1, the protein responsible for cell-to-cell adhesion within the uppermost epidermal layers.

A

Impetigo(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1177

2610
Q

Presents as an erythematous macule and multiple pustules. As pustules break, shallow erosions from, covered with drying serum, giving the characteristic honey-colored crust

A

Impetigo(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1177

2611
Q

It has the characteristic microscopic feature of accumulation of neutrophils beneath the stratum corneum often producing a subcorneal pustule containing serum proteins and inflammatory cells.

A

Impetigo(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1177

2612
Q

A 25 year old male presents with well-demarcated pink plaques on his elbows, scalp, and knees that have a silvery scale. A biopsy showed acanthosis, elongated rete ridges, loss of stratum granulosum with an overlying parakeratotic scale, thinning of the epidermis overlying the dermal papillae, and neutrophil aggregates in the parakeratotic stratum corneum. The dermatologist removes one of the scales, and a pinpoint bleeding is observed. This phenomenon is due to (A) the acanthosis (B) thinning of the epidermis overlying the dermal papillae (C) neutrophil aggregates (D) elongated rete ridges

A

thinning of the epidermis overlying the dermal papillae (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 841

2613
Q

A 62 year old woman has a coin-like, dark brown plaque on her chest that appears stuck-on. She has it excised, and histopathology showed an orderly proliferation of basaloid cells, with keratin microcysts. Some of the basaloid cells have melanin. Her lesion (A) is a tumor of malignant melanocytes (B) is common in her age group (C) will exhibit a fishnet appearance if subjected to immunofluorescence (D) is a melanocytic nevus

A

is common in her age group (seborrheic keratosis) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 845848-849

2614
Q

A 33 year old female has multiple flesh-colored papules on her face, neck, trunk, and limbs. One of the papules is excised, which showed a lobular proliferation of sebocytes, some with vacuolated cytoplasm, others more basaloid in appearance. Her lesions may be a sign of underlying (A) colorectal carcinoma (B) nonHodgkin lymphoma (C) aplastic anemia (D) thalassemia

A

colorectal carcinoma (sebaceous adenoma and Muir-Torre syndrome) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 849

2615
Q

A 45 year old male has a pearly papule with prominent vessels on his eyelid. He has it excised, and the lesion showed multiple nodules of basaloid cells with scant cytoplasm and peripheral palisading. The nodules appear separated from the stroma. His lesion (A) frequently metastasizes to distant sites (B) is correlated to sun exposure (C) is associated with HPV infection (D) may arise on mucosal surfaces

A

is correlated with sun exposure (basal cell carcinoma) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 852

2616
Q

This pattern of neuronal cell injury leads to shrunken individual cell bodies and nuclei. They are prominently stained by eosin, leading to the term “red neurons.”

A

Acute hypoxic/ischemic injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 860

2617
Q

These are round, faintly basophilic, PAS-positive, concentrically lamellated aggregates of polyglucosans that range between 5 and 50 micrometers, and are located wherever there are astrocytic end processes, especially in the subpial and perivascular zones, seen more frequently with advancing age.

A

Corpora amylacea (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2618
Q

Cells which produce myelin in the CNS.

A

Oligodendrocytes (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2619
Q

Cells which line the ventricles, and are located in the region of the obliterated central canal of the spinal cord.

A

Ependymal cells (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2620
Q

These are responsible for the secretion of CSF. It has a specialized epithelial covering with a fibrovascular stroma that may contain meningothelial cells.

A

Choroid plexus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2621
Q

These are bone marrow-derived cells that function as the phagocytes of the CNS.

A

Microglia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2622
Q

It is the accumulation of excess fluid within the brain parenchyma. The brain is softer than normal and often appears to “overfill” the cranial vault. In generalized edema the gyri are flattened, the intervening sulci are narrowed, and the ventricular cavities are compressed.

A

Cerebral Edema (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2623
Q

This occurs when the integrity of the normal blood-brain barrier is disrupted. With increased vascular permeability, fluid shifts from the vascular compartment into the intercellular spaces of the brain.

A

Vasogenic edema (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2624
Q

This is due to an increase in intracellular fluid secondary to neuronal, glial, or endothelial cell membrane injury, as might be encountered in an individual with a generalized hypoxic/ischemic insult or with exposure to some toxins.

A

Cytotoxic edema(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 861

2625
Q

Refers to the accumulation of CSF leading to dilation of the ventricular system which resulted from an obstacle or disruption of flow seen most commonly at the foramen of Monroe or aqueduct of Sylvius.

A

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

2626
Q

Refers to the accumulation of CSF leading to dilation of the ventricular system due to reduced resorption of CSF. All of the ventricular system is enlarged.

A

Communicating hydrocephalus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

2627
Q

This refers to dilation of the ventricular system with a compensatory increase in CSF volume secondary to a loss of brain parenchyma, as may occur after infarcts or with a degenerative disease.

A

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

2628
Q

This ccurs when unilateral or asymmetric expansion of a cerebral hemisphere displaces the cingulate gyrus under the edge of falx. This may be associated with compression of branches of the anterior cerebral artery.

A

Subfalcine (cingulate) herniation(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

2629
Q

This occurs when the medial aspect of the temporal lobe is compressed against the free margin of the tentorium. As the temporal lobe is displaced, the third cranial nerve is compromised, resulting in pupillary dilation and impairment of ocular movements on the side of the lesion (“blown pupil”).

A

Transtentorial (uncinate) herniation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

2630
Q

This refers to displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. This pattern of herniation is life-threatening, because it causes brain stem compression and compromises vital respiratory and cardiac centers in the medulla.

A

Tonsillar herniation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

2631
Q

These linear or flame-shaped lesions usually occur in the midline and paramedian regions, which are hemorrhagic lesions that accompany transtentorial herniation. Presence of these lesion implies poor prognosis.

A

Duret hemorrhages(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 862

2632
Q

In the setting of this condition, the brain is swollen, with wide gyri and narrowed sulci. The cut surface shows poor demarcation between gray and white matter. Results from generalized reduction of cerebral perfusion, usually below systolic pressures of less than 50mmHg.

A

Global Cerebral Ischemia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

2633
Q

These are wedge-shaped areas of infarction that occur in those regions of the brain and spinal cord that lie at the most distal fields of arterial perfusion. Usually seen after hypotensive episodes.

A

Border zone (“watershed”) infarcts(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1264

2634
Q

Pattern of necrosis seen in nonhemorrhagic infarcts of the brain.

A

Liquefaction necrosis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

2635
Q

The most frequent cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage. It is a thin-walled outpouching of an artery. At the neck of the aneurysm, the muscular wall and intimal elastic lamina stop short and are absent from the aneurysm sac itself; the sac is made up of thickened hyalinized intima. The adventitia covering the sac is continuous with that of the parent artery

A

Saccular (berry) aneurysm(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 866

2636
Q

Patients with this type of intracranial hemorrhage complains of having “the worst headache I’ve ever had”/ thunderclap headache.

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 866

2637
Q

Most common location for berry/saccular aneurysms.

A

Anterior communicating artery in the Circle of WIllis (40%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 867

2638
Q

This is a disease in which amyloidogenic peptides are deposit in the walls of medium- and small-caliber meningeal and cortical vessels, which results in the weakening of the vessel wall and increases the risk of hemorrhage.

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

2639
Q

Hemorrhages associated with cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) due to involvement of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

Lobar hemorrhages(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 863

2640
Q

A type of vascular malformation which are characterized by of ectatic venous channels.

A

Venous angiomas (varices) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

2641
Q

Most common location for berry aneurysms.

A

Anterior communicating artery in the Circle of WIllis (40%)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 867

2642
Q

The involved vessels in this condition resemble a tangled network of wormlike vascular channels. Microscopically, they are enlarged blood vessels separated by gliotic tissue, often with evidence of prior hemorrhage.

A

Arteriovenous malformations (AVM)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

2643
Q

A type of vascular malformation which are characterized by microscopic foci of dilated, thin-walled vascular channels separated by relatively normal brain parenchyma and occurring most frequently in the pons.

A

Capillary telangiectasias(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

2644
Q

Minute aneurysms in vessels that are less than 300 micrometers in diameter, associated with chronic hypertension.

A

Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

2645
Q

This leads to accumulation of arterial blood between the dura and the skull. The expanding hematoma has a smooth inner contour that compresses the brain surface. Clinically, patients may experience a lucid interval between the moment of trauma and development of neurologic symptoms.

A

Epidural Hematoma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 870

2646
Q

This is an inflammatory disorder that involves multiple small to medium-sized parenchymal and subarachnoid vessels and is characterized by chronic inflammation, multinucleated giant cells and destruction of the vessel wall. Affected individuals manifest a diffuse encephalopathic clinical picture, often with cognitive dysfunction; improvement occurs with steroid and immunosuppressive treatment.

A

Primary angiitis of the CNS (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

2647
Q

This describes reversible altered consciousness from head injury in the absence of contusion. The characteristic transient neurologic dysfunction includes loss of consciousness, temporary respiratory arrest, and loss of reflexes.

A

Concussion(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 869

2648
Q

Injury which may occur from collision of the brain with the skull opposite the site of impact.

A

Contrecoup injury(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

2649
Q

These are wedge shaped lesions of the brain parenchyma which occur secondary to trauma. The broad base of the wedge spans the surface and centered on the point of impact.

A

Contusions(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 868

2650
Q

Blood vessel involved in epidural hematoma.

A

Middle meningeal artery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 870

2651
Q

Blood vessels involved in subdural hemorrhage.

A

Bridging veins(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 870

2652
Q

This is an extension of CNS tissue through a defect in the vertebral column, most commonly in the lumbosacral region. both The meninges and spinal cord parenchyma are included in the cystlike structure visible just above the buttocks.

A

Myelomeningocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2653
Q

Herniation of the meninges through a defect in the vertebral column.

A

Meningocoele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2654
Q

This is a malformation of the anterior end of the neural tube, with absence of the brain and top of skull.

A

Anencephaly(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2655
Q

This is a diverticulum of malformed CNS tissue extending through a defect in the cranium. It most often involves the occipital region or the posterior fossa.

A

Encephalocele(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2656
Q

Characterized by an increased number of irregularly formed gyri that result in an irregular bumpy or cobblestone-like surface.

A

Polymicrogyria(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2657
Q

Characterized by a disruption of the normal midline patterning. In severe forms the brain is not divided into hemispheres or lobes and may be associated with facial midline defects like cyclopia.

A

Holoprosencephaly (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2658
Q

Consists of a small posterior fossa and a misshapen midline cerebellum with downward extension of vermis through the foramen magnum; hydrocephalus and a lumbar myelomeningocele are typically also present.

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation Type II(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2659
Q

Consists of low-lying cerebellar tonsils which extend through the foramen magnum at the base of the skull. This can lead to obstruction of CSF flow and compression of the medulla, resulting in symptoms of headache or cranial nerve deficits.

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation type I(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2660
Q

Cerebral malformation characterized by an enlarged posterior fossa. The cerebellar vermis is absent, and replaced by a large, midline cyst that is lined by ependyma and is contiguous with leptomeninges on its outer surface.

A

Dandy-Walker malformation (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 872

2661
Q

Spinal cord abnormality characterized by a discontinuous or confluent expansion of the ependyma-lined central canal of the cord.

A

Hydromyelia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 873

2662
Q

CSF findings in bacterial meningitis.

A

Increased pressureabundant neurophilsprotein - elevatedglucose - reduced(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

2663
Q

This is an inflammatory process of the leptomeninges and CSF within the subarachnoid space.

A

Meningitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

2664
Q

In acute cases of this condition, an exudate is evident within the leptomeninges over the surface of the brain. On microscopic examination, neutrophils fill the entire subarachnoid space in severely affected areas or may be found predominantly around the leptomeningeal blood vessels.

A

Acute meningitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

2665
Q

A form of neurosyphilis, resulting from damage to the sensory nerves in the dorsal roots producing impaired joint position sense and resultant ataxia, loss of pain sensation, leading to skin and “Charcot joints”. There is loss of both axons and myelin in the dorsal roots, with pallor and atrophy in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

A

Tabes dorsalis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 875

2666
Q

Presents with generalized symptoms of headache, malaise, mental confusion, and vomiting. The subarachnoid space contains a gelatinous or fibrinous exudate, most often at the base of the brain, obliterating the cisterns and encasing cranial nerves. There may be discrete white granules scattered over the leptomeninges. Obliterative endarteritis may be seen.

A

Tuberculous meningitis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

2667
Q

CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis.

A

Moderate pleiocytosis - predominantly monocytesprotein - elevatedglucose - moderately reduced/normal(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

2668
Q

Caused by invasion of the brain by Treponema pallidum and manifests as insidious but progressive loss of mental and physical functions with mood alterations (including delusions of grandeur), terminating in severe dementia.

A

Paretic neurosyphilis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 874

2669
Q

This virus tends to localize in the paraventricular subependymal regions of the brain, which results in a severe hemorrhagic necrotizing ventriculoencephalitis and choroid plexitis.

A

Cytomegalovirus (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 877

2670
Q

These are discrete lesions with central liquefactive necrosis and a surrounding fibrous capsule. On microscopic examination, there is exuberant neovascularization around the necrosis that is responsible for the marked edema and formation of granulation tissue. Outside the fibrous capsule is a zone of reactive gliosis.

A

Brain Abscesses (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 876

2671
Q

The pathognomonic finding of this disease is a spongiform transformation of the cerebral cortex and deep gray matter structures (caudate, putamen); consists of a multifocal process that results in the uneven formation of small, empty, microscopic vacuoles of varying sizes within the neuropil and sometimes in the perikaryon of neurons.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 880

2672
Q

Viral encephalitis which involves inferior and medial regions of the temporal lobes and the orbital gyri of the frontal lobes. Perivascular inflammatory infiltrates are usually present, and Cowdry type A intranuclear viral inclusion bodies can be found in both neurons and glia.

A

Herpes Encephalitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 876

2673
Q

Reactivation of varicella in adults manifests as a painful, vesicular skin eruption in the distribution of one or a few dermatomes.

A

Shingles / Herpes Zoster(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 876

2674
Q

This lesion caused by JC virus, consist of patches of irregular, ill-defined destruction of the white matter that enlarge. Each lesion is an area of demyelination, in the center of which are scattered lipid-laden macrophages and a reduced number of axons.

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 877

2675
Q

These are predominantly benign tumors of adults, usually attached to the dura, and arising from the meningothelial cell of the arachnoid. Histologic patterns include syncitial, fibroblastic, psammomatous, secretory and microcystic.

A

Meningiomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 885

2676
Q

Five most common primary sites of carcinoma which may metastasize to the brain.

A

LungBreastSkin (melanoma)KidneyGIT(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 885

2677
Q

These are infiltrative tumors that form gelatinous, gray masses, and may show cysts, focal hemorrhage, and calcification. On microscopic examination, the tumor is composed of sheets of regular cells with spherical nuclei containing finely granular chromatin (similar to normal oligodendrocytes) surrounded by a clear halo of cytoplasm.

A

Oligodendrogliomas(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 883

2678
Q

A nonimmune process characterized by loss of myelin involving the center of the pons, most often after rapid correction of hyponatremia.

A

Central pontine myelinolysis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 889

2679
Q

These are inherited dysmyelinating diseases in which the clinical symptoms derive from either abnormal myelin synthesis or turnover.

A

Leukodystrophies (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 889

2680
Q

Profound memory disturbances as a result of thiamine deficiency.

A

Korsakoff syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 890

2681
Q

An autoimmune demyelinating disorder characterized by distinct episodes of neurologic deficits, separated in time, attributable to white matter lesions that are separated in space. Affected areas show multiple, well-circumscribed, slightly depressed, glassy, gray-tan, irregularly shaped lesions, termed “plaques”.

A

Multiple Sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 887

2682
Q

This condition occurs in the setting of thiamine deficiency and chronic alcoholism. Characterized by foci of hemorrhage and necrosis, particularly in the mammillary bodies but also adjacent to the ventricle, especially the third and fourth ventricles.

A

Wernicke encephalopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 890

2683
Q

Characterized by “flapping” tremor, depressed levels of consciousness, which may lead to coma. Result of decreased hepatic function.

A

Hepatic encephalopathy (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 891

2684
Q

It is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly, characterized by presence of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, composed of tau proteins.

A

Alzheimer’s disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 893

2685
Q

Mutation in Friedreich ataxia.

A

GAA trinucleotide repeat (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

2686
Q

This is a clinical syndrome characterized by masked facies, stooped posture, slowness of voluntary movement, festinating gait rigidity, and a “pill-rolling” tremor. There are single or multiple, intracytoplasmic, eosinophilic, round to elongated inclusions that often have a dense core surrounded by a pale halo or “Lewy bodies”.

A

Parkinson disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 894

2687
Q

It is an inherited autosomal dominant disease characterized clinically by progressive movement disorders and dementia, with degeneration of the striatum (caudate and putamen).

A

Huntington Disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 894

2688
Q

Mutation in Huntington disease.

A

CAG trinucleotide repeats(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

2689
Q

It is an autosomal recessive progressive illness, generally beginning in the first decade of life with gait ataxia, followed by hand clumsiness and dysarthria.

A

Friedreich ataxia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

2690
Q

This is the most common form of neurodegeneration affecting the motor system. It is characterized by muscle atrophy and hypereflexia due to loss of both upper and lower motor neurons.

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (Motor Neuron Disease; Lou Gehrig’s Disease) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 895

2691
Q

This is one of the most common life-threatening diseases of the peripheral nervous system. It may develop spontaneously or after a systemic infection (usually viral) or other stress. Usually presents with rapidly progressive, ascending motor weakness that may lead to death from failure of respiratory muscles.

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

2692
Q

These are benign tumors arising from Schwann cells, which are well-circumscribed encapsulated, firm, gray masses but may also have areas of cystic and xanthomatous change.

A

Schwannomas (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

2693
Q

Present in the dermis and subcutaneous fat, these well-delineated but unencapsulated masses are composed of spindle cells. The stroma of these tumors is highly collagenized and contains little myxoid material.

A

Cutaneous neurofibroma.(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

2694
Q

These tumors may arise anywhere along a nerve, may be multiple, and is not easily separated from the nerve.

A

Plexiform neurofibroma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 899

2695
Q

This autosomal dominant disorder is characterized by neurofibromas (plexiform and solitary), gliomas of the optic nerve, pigmented nodules of the iris (Lisch nodules), and cutaneous hyperpigmented macules (cafe au lait spots).

A

Type 1 Neurofibromatosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

2696
Q

This is an autosomal dominant disorder in which patients develop a range of tumors, most commonly bilateral vestibular (acoustic) schwannomas and multiple meningiomas.

A

Type 2 Neurofibromatosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

2697
Q

An autosomal dominant syndrome characterized by the development of hamartomas and benign neoplasms involving the brain and other tissues. The lesions are firm areas of the cortex that, in contrast to the softer adjacent cortex, have been likened to potatoes, hence the appellation “tubers.”

A

Tuberous Sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

2698
Q

An autosomal dominant inherited disease in characterized by development of hemangioblastomas within the cerebellar hemispheres, retina, and less commonly the brain stem and spinal cord. A cerebellar capillary hemangioblastoma, is the principal neurologic manifestation of the disease.

A

von Hippel-Lindau Disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 901

2699
Q

What is the dominant histopathologic finding in Immune mediated neuropathies like Guillain- Barre Syndrome?

A

Inflammation of peripheral nerve, manifested as perivenular and endoneurial infiltration by lymphocytes, macrophages, and a few plasma cells(TOPNOTCH)

2700
Q

What is the most common type of peripheral neuropathy seen in adult-onset DM?

A

Symmetric neuropathy that involves distal sensory and motor nerves (TOPNOTCH)

2701
Q

In patients with peripheral neuropathy, what is the predominant histologic findings?

A

Axonal neuropathy (TOPNOTCH)

2702
Q

Morphology: Perifascicular Atrophy

A

Dermatomyositis (TOPNOTCH)

2703
Q

Morphology: presence of rimmed vacuoles within myocytes and are highlighted by basophilic granules at their periphery. In addition, the vacuolated fibers may also contain amyloid deposits that stain with Congo Red.

A

Inclusion body myositis (TOPNOTCH)

2704
Q

Morphology: Panfascicular atrophy

A

Spinal Muscular Atrophy (Infantile Motor Neuron Disease (TOPNOTCH)

2705
Q

What are the 5 histopathologic abnormalities common to Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Becker Muscular Dystrophy?

A
  1. Variation in fiber diameter 2. Increased numbers of internalized nuclei 3. Degeneration, necrosis, and phagocytosis of muscle fibers 4. Regeneration of muscle fibers 5. Proliferation of endomysial connective tissue (TOPNOTCH)
2706
Q

Morphology: In later stages of this disease, all muscles eventually become almost totally replaced by fat and connective tissue

A

Duchenne Muscle Dystrophy (TOPNOTCH)

2707
Q

What is the histologic pathology that is usually seen in Duchene muscle dystrophy and is rare in Becker Muscle Dystrophy?

A

Enlarged, rounded, hyaline fibers that have lost their normal cross striation, believed to be hypercontracted fibers (TOPNOTCH)

2708
Q

Morphology: Ring fiber ( subsarcolemmal band of cytoplasm that appears distinct from the center of the fiber) and Sarcoplasmic mass

A

Myotonic Dystrophy (TOPNOTCH)

2709
Q

Morphology: Disuse changes with Type 2 fiber atrophy, post synaptic membrane is simplified, with loss of AChRs from the region of the synapse. Immune complexes as well as the MAC of the complement cascade can be found along the post synaptic membrane as well

A

Myasthenia Gravis (TOPNOTCH)

2710
Q

Electron Microscopy: tubular and filamentous inclusions are seen in the cytoplasm and the nucleus, and they are composed of B-amyloid or hyperphosphorylated tau.

A

Inclusion body myositis (TOPNOTCH)

2711
Q

Grotton lesions (scaling erythematous eruption or dusky red patches over the knuckles, elbows, and knees) are seen in what disease entity?

A

Dermatomyositis (TOPNOTCH)

2712
Q

Morphology: the most consistent pathologic findings in skeletal muscle are aggregates of abnormal mitochondria that stain with modified Gomori Trichrome and fiber appears irregular on cross section “ragged red fibers” and on electron microscope, they contain “parking lot inclusions”

A

Mitochondrial Myopathies (Oxidative phosphorylation Disease) (TOPNOTCH)

2713
Q

This is general reaction of the motor unit which is a result of primary destruction of the axon, with secondary disintegration of its myelin sheath.

A

Axonal degeneration (TOPNOTCH)

2714
Q

This general reaction of the motor unit occurs when there is dysfunction of the Schwann cell or damage to the myelin sheath; there is no primary abnormality of the axon

A

Segmental demyelination (TOPNOTCH)

2715
Q

Morphology: endoneurial arterioles show thickening, hyalinization, and intense PAS positivity in their walls and extensive reduplicaton of the basement membrane.

A

Peripheral Neuropathy in DM Type 2 (TOPNOTCH)

2716
Q

Of all the dystrophies, this type is the only one that shows pathologic changes in the intrafusal fibers of muscle spindles, with fiber splitting, necrosis and regeneration

A

Myotonic Dystrophy (TOPNOTCH)

2717
Q

Morphology: the principal morphologic characteristic is accumulation of lipid within myocytes. The myofibrils are separated by vacuoles that stain with oil red O or Sudan black

A

Lipid Myopathies (TOPNOTCH)

2718
Q

Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome is a paraneoplastic process which commonly develops in what type of carcinoma?

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lungs (TOPNOTCH)

2719
Q

The most important histopathological indicator of CNS injury, regardless of etiology

A

Gliosis(TOPNOTCH)

2720
Q

Lafora bodies

A

Myoclonic Epilepsy(TOPNOTCH)

2721
Q

Gross morphology: gyri are flattened, intervening sulci are narrowed, and the ventricular cavities are compressed

A

Generalized cerebral edema(TOPNOTCH)

2722
Q

A syndrome of sudden, deep intracerebral hemorrhage that follows even minor head trauma by an interval of 1-2 weeks

A

Spat-apoplexie (Delayed post traumatic hemorrhage) (TOPNOTCH)

2723
Q

Subdural hematomas most often become manifest approximately how many hours after the injury?

A

48 hours(TOPNOTCH)

2724
Q

The most widely accepted explanation for diffuse axonal injury

A

mechanical forces damage the integrity of the axon at the node of Ranvier, with subsequent alterations in axoplasmic flow(TOPNOTCH)

2725
Q

Morphology: wide asymmetric distribution of axonal swellings that appear within hours of the injury and are best demonstrated with silver impregnation techniques or with immunoperoxidase stains for AB protein

A

Diffuse axonal injury(TOPNOTCH)

2726
Q

How long does it take for the clot to lyse in subdural hematomas?

A

1 week(TOPNOTCH)

2727
Q

How long does it take for fibroblasts to grow from the dural surfaces into the hematoma after subdural hematoma/

A

2 weeks(TOPNOTCH)

2728
Q

How long does it take for the development hyalinized connectice tissue in SDH

A

1-3 months(TOPNOTCH)

2729
Q

Gross morphology: brain is swollen, gyri are widened, and the sulci are narrowed

A

Global cerebral ischemia(TOPNOTCH)

2730
Q

In the setting of global ischemia, early histological changes are seen after how many hours after the insult?

A

12-24 hours(TOPNOTCH)

2731
Q

In the setting of global ischemia, subacute changes are seen after how many hours after the insult?

A

24 hours to 2 weeks(TOPNOTCH)

2732
Q

In the setting of global cerebral ischemia, repair is seen after approximately how many weeks?

A

2 weeks(TOPNOTCH)

2733
Q

In the setting of global ischemia, this is characterized by eventual removal of all necrotic tissue, loss of normally organized CNS structure, and gliosis

A

Repair(TOPNOTCH)

2734
Q

In the setting of global ischemia, this is characterized by necrosis of tissue, influx of macrophages, vascular proliferation and reactive gliosis

A

Subacute changes(TOPNOTCH)

2735
Q

In the setting of global ischemiaThis is characterized by acute neuronal cell damage

A

Early change(TOPNOTCH)

2736
Q

Morphology: pathognomonic finding is a spongiform transformation of the cerebral cortex

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease(CJD)(TOPNOTCH)

2737
Q

Morphology: mononuclear cell perivacular cuffs and neuronophagia of the anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cord

A

Poliomyelitis(TOPNOTCH)

2738
Q

In the immunosuprressed individual, the most common pattern of involvement in viral meningitis is:

A

Subacute encephalitis(TOPNOTCH)

2739
Q

Although any type of cell within the CNS can be infected with CMV, the virus tends to localize at what particular area in the brain?

A

Paraventricular subependymal regions(TOPNOTCH)

2740
Q

What is the principal neurologic manifestation of Von Hippel Lindau Disease?

A

Cerebellar capillary hemangioblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

2741
Q

Antoni A and Antoni B patterns of growth are seen in what tumors of the CNS?

A

Schwannoma(TOPNOTCH)

2742
Q

Morphology: histologic appearance similar to anaplastic astrocytoma with the additional feature of necrosis and vascular or endothelial cell proliferation

A

Glioblastoma multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2743
Q

Pseudopalisading

A

Glioblastoma multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2744
Q

Glomeruloid body

A

Glioblastoma multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2745
Q

Lesion of what area of the brain appear to be the best correlate of the memory disturbance and confabulation seen in Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus(TOPNOTCH)

2746
Q

Morphology: foci of hemorrhage and necrosis, particularly in the mammillary bodies but also adjacent to the ventricle, especially the third and fourth ventricles

A

Wernicke encephalopathy(TOPNOTCH)

2747
Q

The spinal cord shows loss of axons and gliosis in the posterior columns, the distal portions of the corticospinal tracts, and the spinocerebellar tracts.

A

Friedreich Ataxia(TOPNOTCH)

2748
Q

The abnormalities are predominantly in the cerebellum,with loss of Purkinje and granule cells; there is also degeneration of the dorsal columns, spinocerebellar tracts and anterior horn cells and a peripheral neuropathy

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia(TOPNOTCH)

2749
Q

Gross morphology: pallor of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2750
Q

Gross morphology: the brain shows pronounced, frequently asymmetric, atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes with conspicuous sparing of the posterior two thirds of the superior temporal gyrus

A

Pick Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2751
Q

What are the 3 major microscopic abnormalities of Alzheimer disease?

A

Neuritic/Senile PlaquesNeurofibrillary tanglesAmyloid angiopathy(TOPNOTCH)

2752
Q

What is the principal clinical manifestation of Alzheimer disease?

A

Dementia(TOPNOTCH)

2753
Q

What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?

A

Alzheimer Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2754
Q

Gross morphology: variable degree of cortical atrophy with widening of the cerebral sulci that is most pronounced in the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes with compensatory ventricular enlargement (hydrocephalus ex vacuo)

A

Alzheimer Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2755
Q

Neurotic plaques are focal, spherical collection of dilated, tortuous, silver staining neuritic processes often around a central amyloid core, which may be surrounded by clear halo, and can be stained with Congo red. What is the most predominant component of this plaque core?

A

AB peptide(TOPNOTCH)

2756
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles are bundles of filaments in the cytoplasm of the neurons that displace or encircle the nucleus. What is the major component of this structure?

A

Tau proteins(TOPNOTCH)

2757
Q

Hirano bodies

A

Alzheimer’s disease (TOPNOTCH)

2758
Q

What is the principal neurologic manifestation of Von Hippel Lindau Disease?

A

Cerebellar capillary hemangioblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

2759
Q

Patients with Von Hippel Lindau Disease has the propensity to develop what type of carcinom?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma(TOPNOTCH)

2760
Q

These are firm areas of the cortex that, in contrast to the softer adjacent cortex, have been likened to potatoes and are composed of haphazardly arranged neurons that lack the normal laminar organization of neocortex.

A

Cortical hamartomas or “tubers’ of Tuberous Sclerosis (TOPNOTCH)

2761
Q

Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor (MPNST, Malignant Schwannoma) is strongly associated with what type of Familial Tumor Syndrome?

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1(TOPNOTCH)

2762
Q

What are the 5 most common carcinoma that metastasize to the brain?

A

Lung, breast, Melanoma, Kidney, and GIT. (TOPNOTCH)

2763
Q

What is the most common CNS neoplasm in immunosuppressed patients, including those with AIDS and immunosuppression after transplantaion?

A

Primary CNS Lymphoma(TOPNOTCH)

2764
Q

Morphology: composed of sheets of regular cells with spherical nuclei containing finely granular chromatin surrounded by a clear halo of cytoplasm and calcification if present in as many as 90% of these tumors.

A

Oligodendroglioma(TOPNOTCH)

2765
Q

Morphology: characterized by amild to moderate increase in the number of glial cell nuclei, somewhat variable nuclear pleomorphism, and an interveing feltwork of fine, GFAP positive astrocytic cell processes that give the background a fibrillary appearance.

A

Well differentiated fibrillary astrocytomas(TOPNOTCH)

2766
Q

Morphology: perivascular pseudorosettes

A

Ependymoma(TOPNOTCH)

2767
Q

Morphology: the anterior roots of the spinal cord are thin; the precentral gyrus may be atrophic and demonstrates a reduction the number of anterior horn neurons throughout the length of the spinal cord with associated reactive gliosis. Remaining neurons often contain Bunina bdoies and PAS positive cytoplasmic inclusions.

A

Amyotorphic Lateral Sclerosis(TOPNOTCH)

2768
Q

Morphology: composed of bipolar cells with long, thin “hairlike” processes that are GFAP- Positive; Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies, and microcysts are often present.

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma (TOPNOTCH)

2769
Q

Morphology: similar to anaplastic astrocytoma with the additional features of necrosis and vascular or endothelial cell proliferation, each of which often has a stereotypic appearance.

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme(TOPNOTCH)

2770
Q

Morphology: characterized by areas of stromal response with collagen and reticulin deposition and nodules of cells forming “pale islands” that have more neuropil and lack the reticulin deposition

A

Desmoplastic variant of Medulloblastoma(TOPNOTCH)

2771
Q

Gross morphology: the brain is small and shows striking atrophy of the caudate nucleus and the putamen. The globus pallidus may be atrophied secondarily, and the lateral and third ventricles are dilated.

A

Huntington Disease(TOPNOTCH)

2772
Q

What are the two most common primary tumors of the optic nerve?

A

Glioma and Meningioma (TOPNOTCH)

2773
Q

Morphology: characterized histologically by chronic inflammation and replacement of orbital fat by fibrosis

A

Idiopathic orbital inflammation (TOPNOTCH)

2774
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the eyelid?

A

Basal cell carcinoma (TOPNOTCH)

2775
Q

Morphology: histological hallmark is the thinning of the cornea with breaks in the Bowman’s layer

A

Keratoconus (TOPNOTCH)

2776
Q

Morphology: deposition of calcium in Bowmans layer

A

Calcific Band keratopathy (TOPNOTCH)

2777
Q

This type of keratopathy develops in patients who are exposed chronically to high levels of ultraviolet light

A

Actinic band keratopathy (TOPNOTCH)

2778
Q

Morphology: numerous drop like excrescences - guttata- protrude downward from Descemet’s membrane

A

Fuchs dystrophy (TOPNOTCH)

2779
Q

Also known as the End-Stage Eye

A

Phthisis Bulbi (TOPNOTCH)

2780
Q

Morphology: diffuse loss of ganglion cells and thinning of the retinal nerve fiber layer, in advanced cases, the optic nerve is both cupped and atrophic

A

Glaucomatous optic nerve damage (TOPNOTCH)

2781
Q

Flexner Wintersteine Rosettes

A

Retinoblastoma (TOPNOTCH)

2782
Q

Morphology: a neovascular membrane is positioned between the retinal pigment epithelium and Bruchs membrane

A

Age related macular degeneration (TOPNOTCH)

2783
Q

“waxy pallor” of the optic disk

A

Retinitis Pigmentosa (TOPNOTCH)

2784
Q

In this condition, both rods and cones are lost to apoptosis

A

Retinitis Pigmentosa (TOPNOTCH)

2785
Q

Elschnig’ spots

A

Malignant hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

2786
Q

What is known to be a reliable histological marker of diabetes mellitus in the eye?

A

Thickening of the BM of the epithelium of the pars plicata of the ciliary body (TOPNOTCH)

2787
Q

Cytoid bodies

A

Hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

2788
Q

Macular star

A

Malignant hypertension (TOPNOTCH)

2789
Q

Morphology: characterized by diffuse granulomatous inflammation of the urea. Plasma cells are typically absent, but eosiophils may be identified in the infiltrate

A

Sympathetic ophthalmia (TOPNOTCH)

2790
Q

What is the most common intraocular malignancy in adults?

A

Metastasis to the uvea, typically to the choroid (TOPNOTCH)

2791
Q

What is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults?

A

Uveal melanoma (TOPNOTCH)

2792
Q

These are the resident monocyte-lineage population of CNS that proliferate and accumulate in response to injury.

A

Microglia (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1254

2793
Q

Subfalcine(cingulate) herniation leads to compression of what blood vessel?

A

Anterior cerebral artery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1255

2794
Q

Transtentoria(uncinate) herniation compress what structures?

A

CN III and Posterior Cerebral artery(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1255

2795
Q

Patient X who had a moderate traumatic injury presented with lethargy. 12 hours later it he progressed rapidly to having dilated pupils and impairment of ocular movements. This is most likely due to:

A

Transtentorial (uncinate) herniation/CN III compression (TOPNOTCH)

2796
Q

A malformation characterized by reduction in the number of gyri, agyria in extreme cases

A

Lissencephaly(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1257

2797
Q

Infarcts in the supratentorial periventricular white matter in premature infants presenting with chalky yellow plaques consisting of discrete regions of white matter necrosis and calcification

A

Perventricular leukomalacia(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1259

2798
Q

Most common site of contusions in the brain

A

Frontal and temporal lobes(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1260

2799
Q

Vascular injury presenting with slowly evolving neurologic symptoms, often with a delay from the time of injury(most often within 48 hours of injury) Grossly, it appears as a collection of freshly clotted blood along the brain surface, without extension into the depths of sulci.

A

Subdural hematoma(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1262

2800
Q

After a vehicular crash, patient presented with quadriplegia and respiratory distress. Spinal cord injury was suspected. This can be due to damage to what level of vertebra?

A

Above C4(TOPNOTCH)

2801
Q

CNS cells most sensitive to ischemia

A

Neurons(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1264

2802
Q

Clinicopathologic syndrome arising in the setting of malignant hypertension, characterized by diffuse cerebral dysfunction, including headaches, confusion, voming, and convulsion, and sometimes leading to coma

A

Acute hypertensive encephalopathy(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1268

2803
Q

Risk factor most commonly associated with deep brain parenchymal hemorrhages.

A

Hypertension(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1268

2804
Q

Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adolescents and young adults.

A

Neisseria meningitidis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1272

2805
Q

Typical CSF findings in brain abscess

A

Increased WBC, increased protein, normal glucose(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1273

2806
Q

Most serious complications of chronic TB meningitis

A

Arachnoid fibrosis(producing hydrocephalus) and Obliterative endarteritis(causing arterial occlusion and infarction)(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1274

2807
Q

Morphology: perivascular accumulation or lymphocytes and/or neutrophils, multiple foci of necrosis of gray and white matter, single-cell neuronal necrosis with phagocytosis of debris, microglial nodules

A

Viral Encephalitis(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1275

2808
Q

It produces brain abscess, most ofen in the cerebral cortex and deep gray nuclei, central necrosis, petechial hemorrhages surrounded by acute and chronic inflammation, macrophage infiltration, and vascular proliferation; CT and MRI studies may show multiple ring enhancing lesions.

A

Toxoplasmosis of the CNS(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1280

2809
Q

A rapidly progressive encephalitis, cerebral malaria, is the complication with the highest mortality caused by what etiologic agent?

A

Plasmodium falciparum(TOPNOTCH) Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1280

2810
Q

HSV-1 infection has predilection to what part of the brain?

A

Temporal lobe(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1281

2811
Q

This group of degenerative disorders is caused by “spreading” of misfolded proteins, allowing a pathogenic protein to acquire many of the characteristics of an infectious agent. Accumulation of PrPSC in neural tissue seems to the cause of pathologic changes in these diseases.

A

Prion diseases(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1281

2812
Q

The most common prion disease that manifest clinically as a rapidly progressive dementia.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1283

2813
Q

Pathologic hallmarks of Alzheimer disease

A

Plaques and tangles(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1288

2814
Q

The fundamental abnormality in this disease is the accumulation of A-beta and tau in specific brain regions.

A

Alzheimers Disease(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1288

2815
Q

Syndrome caused by deletions in mitochondrial DNA, characterized by ophthalmoplegia, pigmentary degeneratation of the retina, and complete heart block

A

Kearns-Sayre syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1245

2816
Q

Mitochondrial disoder caused by mutations in either mtDNA or the nuclear genome causing subacute necrotizing encephalopathy

A

Leigh syndrome(TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed., p. 1245

2817
Q

A 12 year old student presents with lethargy, fever, and headaches. These progress to irritability, anxiety, and confusion, with difficulty in swallowing. He refuses any drink being offered. A few days later, he slips into a coma, and dies. On history, he was bitten by a stray dog 4 months ago. At autopsy, where would the characteristic infected neurons with cytoplasmic inclusions most likely be found? (A) frontal and parietal cerebral cortex (B) hippocampus and cerebellum (C) globus pallidus and medulla (D) pineal gland and pituitary

A

hippocampus and cerebellum (TOPNOTCH) Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease 8th ed

2818
Q

A 19 year old male presents with fever and changes in mood and behavior. His neck is supple, and shows no lateralizing signs, or cranial nerve defects. Memory is impaired. A lumbar tap is performed with a slight lymphocytosis and protein elevation. Bacterial cultures were negative. On PCR, herpes simplex virus I was detected. THe histologic changes of necrotizing inflammation and Cowdry Type A bodies would most likely be found in (A) temporal lobes (B) occipital lobes (C) cerebellar vermis (D) parietal lobes

A

temporal lobes (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 876

2819
Q

A 78 year old woman in a nursing home is found dead in her bed. She has had a 5 year history of progressive disorientation, memory loss, and alteration of mood and behavior. In her final year, she was mute and could not perform activities of daily living without assistance. Her relatives requested an autopsy, and her brain showed cortical atrophy with widening of the sulci. Histology showed multiple plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. The plaques are collections of neuritic processes with a central core of extracellular (A) amyloid (B) tau protein (C) glycogen (D) sphingomyelin

A

amyloid (Alzheimer disease) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 893

2820
Q

A 45 year old actor begins to experience hand tremors, and eventually develops a shuffling gait, a stooped posture, and diminished facial expressions. His mental faculties are intact. What is the expected histologic change in his brain? (A) loss of pigmented catecholaminergic neurons in his midbrain (B) loss of neurons in the striatum (C) foci of hemorrhage and necrosis in the mamillary bodies (D) multiple Lewy bodies in his cerebral cortex

A

loss of pigmented catecholaminergic neurons in his midbrain (pallor of substantia nigra in Parkinsonism) (B - Huntington disease; C - Wernicke encephalopathy; D - Lewy body dementia/disease) (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 893-894

2821
Q

A 30 year old saleslady has untreated hypertension. While at work, her colleagues heard her complain of an excruciating headache then lose consciousness a few seconds later. She was pronounced dead at the ER. An autopsy is performed, which showed massive subarachnoid hemorrhage, and a ruptured aneurysm at the right anterior cerebral artery. Her kidneys were markedly enlarged, with multiple 3-4 cm diameter cysts. Which of the following is accurate? (A) the aneurysm is neoplastic (B) the aneurysm was likely present at birth (C) her kidney disease is heritable, in an autosomal dominant fashion (D) her kidney disease more commonly manifests in early childhood

A

her kidney disease is heritable, in an autosomal dominant fashion (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 569-570, 866-867

2822
Q

A 26 year old backpacker presents with seizures. On imaging, there are four 1-2 cm cysts in his cerebral cortex. He undergoes surgery, where two were removed. Histopathology showed an ovoid structure with a tegument, underlying smooth muscle, three oval suckers, all surrounded by an intense inflammmatory infiltrate of plasma cells, lymphocytes, and eosinophils. The surrounding brain tissue is gliotic. The patient acquired this infection by ingesting (A) raw pork (B) raw beef (C) ova from cat litter (D) raw freshwater crabs

A

raw pork (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 880

2823
Q

A 33 year old woman has been having intermittent headache for 3 years. She develops a seizure. Imaging studies show a 4 cm well circumscribed intracranial mass at the convexity of the right cerebral cortex, compressing the adjacent brain. The tumor is surgically excised, and histopathology showed cells in syncytial whorls, some in fascicles. There are occasional concentric calcifications interspersed. There is no significant mitosis, necrosis, pleomorphism, or brain invasion. Her tumor is (A) a metastasis from a thyroid primary (B) a primary lymphoma (C) a glioma (D) a meningioma

A

a meningioma (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 886

2824
Q

A 40 year old lawyer presents with seizures and loss of consciousness. On imaging, there is a contrast-enhancing, intracranial mass straddling the corpus callosum, with a “butterfly” appearance. An open biopsy is performed, which showed a densely cellular tumor of with astrocytic cell processes, foci of necrosis with surrounding pseudo-palisading of tumor cell nuclei, vascular proliferation, and numerous mitoses. His tumor (A) is a glioma (B) is poorly circumscribed (C) confers a dire prognosis (D) all of the above

A

all of the above (TOPNOTCH)Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th ed., p 882