Patho Final Flashcards
1
Q
A geneticist is teaching a class that includes information about DNA. Which information should be included? DNA contains:
A
the genetic code for all parts of the body
2
Q
A nurse is correct when stating that the nuclear structure that contains most of the cellular DNA is called the:
A
nucleolus
3
Q
The geneticist is teaching about DNA synthesis. Which information should be included? The phase during the cell cycle in which DNA synthesis occurs is called:
A
S
4
Q
Prior to translation, which of the following steps must occur?
A
DNA unzipping and complimentary base pairing
5
Q
The triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid is called a:
A
codon
6
Q
When a staff member asks a nurse what a karyotype is, how should the nurse respond? A karyotype is:
A
an ordered photographic display of a set of chromosomes from a single cell
7
Q
The nurse is caring for a new mother who just gave birth to a baby with Down syndrome. The nurse explains that this syndrome is a result of trisomy with which chromosome?
A
21
8
Q
If an ovum has chromosomal nondisjunction, which conditions(s) could result in the embryo?
A
Monosomies and trisomies
9
Q
A nurse is correct in saying that the somatic cell that contains a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called:
A
an euploid cell.
10
Q
When providing genetic counseling for newlyweds, the nurse discusses trisomy. the nurse should indicate that trisomy is a form of:
A
aneuploidy
11
Q
Building block of nucleic acids (DNA, RNA)
A
Nucelotide
12
Q
A nurse recalls that mutations typically result in abnormal:
A
DNA, RNA and proteins
13
Q
Which is the chief function of ribosomes?
A
protein synthesis
14
Q
A nurse recalls that RNA is used to direct:
A
protein synthesis
15
Q
The clinician correctly refers to the process by which RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis as:
A
transcription
16
Q
A nurse recalls that adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine are:
A
nitrogenous bases
17
Q
When the clinician is discussing the DNA helix, which information should be included? In the DNA helix, guanine pairs with:
A
cytosine
18
Q
A patient asks the nurse about cellular atrophy. The response from the nurse should include which statement about cells? Cellular atrophy is:
A
A decrease in cell size.
19
Q
A patient has an increased cardiac workload related to high blood pressure (hypertension). Which adaptive process does the nurse expect to occur in the patient’s left ventricular myocardial cells?
A
Hypertrophy
20
Q
The process of hypertrophy involves:
A
An increase in cell size.
21
Q
Which statement indicates that a student nurse needs more teaching regarding atypical hyperplasia (dysplasia)? Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal changes in:
A
Cell secretions. Explain:
Cell secretions have nothing to do with dysplasia.
22
Q
A patient has pathologic hyperplasia. What is most likely the cause?
A
Excessive hormonal stimulation
23
Q
A nurse is teaching staff about compensatory hyperplasia. With regard to compensatory hyperplasia, what information should the nurse include? Growth factors stimulate cell division in response to:
A
Tissue loss.
24
Q
Which statement indicates that the nurse needs more teaching regarding dysplasia? Dysplasia:
A
Indicates that severe cancer is present. Explain:
The term dysplasia does not indicate cancer, and dysplasia may or may not progress to cancer
25
What fraction of total body water (TBW) volume is contained in the intracellular space? A) 3/4
B) 2/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/3
B) 2/3
26
Total body water (TBW) in elderly persons is:
A) increased because of decreased adipose tissue and decreased bone mass.
B) increased because of decreased renal function and hormonal fluctuations.
C) decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.
D) decreased because of diuresis and sodium loss.
C) decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.
27
Passive mediated transport (facilitated diffusion) depends on the presence of:
A) carrier proteins in the plasma membrane.
B) energy in the form of ATP.
C) microtubules in the cytoplasm.
D) all of the above.
A) carrier proteins in the plasma membrane.
28
Factors that determine osmotic pressure include all of the following except:
A) charge of the molecules
B) size of the molecules.
C) concentration gradient.
D) thickness of the plasma membrane.
A) charge of the molecules.
29
Plasma oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure is maintained by the quantity of plasma:
A) glucose.
B) sodium.
C) proteins.
D) lipids.
C) proteins.
30
A molecule with positice electrical charge is called
cationic
31
Which state describes the ideal proportion of electrolyte-to-water content in the body?
A) Homeostatic
B) Osmotic
C) Cationic
D) Isotonic
D) Isotonic
32
Osmosis describes the movement of:
water
33
Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Chlorine
C) Potassium
34
if the surface barriers of innate immunity, such as the skin or mucous membranes are breached, the second line of defense in immunity is the
inflammatory response. if the surface barriers of innate immunity, such as the skin or mucous membranes are breached, the second line of defense in immunity is the
35
which of the following cells is responsible for prolonging the inflammatory response and are present at the site of chronic bacterial infections?
macrophages.
macrophages can persist in infected tissues for weeks, months, or even longer.
36
A monocyte is a circulating white blood cell that transforms into which of the following cells once it enters the tissue during an inflammatory response?
A) Neutrophil
B) Macrophage
C) Mast cell
D) Fibroblast
macrophage.
37
One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever, which is induced by several mediators, including
interleukin-1.
38
which white blood cell plays in important role in inhibiting the inflammatory response?
Eosinophil.
39
which of the following inflammatory chemicals are responsible for inducing pain during information?
bradykinin and prostaglandins
40
which of the following cells is responsible for prolonging the inflammatory response and are present at the site of chronic bacterial infections?
macrophages.
41
in the respiratory system, the release of leukotrienes during an inflammatory response induces
Bronchoconstriction.
42
what is the purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during information?
to transport inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury, to bring white blood cells to the area of injury, to dilute toxins, or all of the above
all of the above.
The purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability is to dilute toxins and bring white blood cells and inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury
43
The components of the complement and kinin systems are
plasma proteins.
The complement and kinin systems are formed from a series of plasma proteins that become activated in a sequential manner during inflammation.
44
activated complement proteins C3a and C5a may act as
anaphylatoxins
C3 a and C5A act as anaphylatoxins by inducing mast cell degranulation
45
The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by
bacteria
activated by the presence of bacterial cell wall polysaccharides, endotoxin
46
Which of the following molecules are opsonins?
antibodies and complement proteins
They opsonize bacteria and parasites by attaching to the cell membrane.
47
A student nurse wants to know which cells stimulate both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. The nurse should identify which cells?
Helper T cells
Feedback: Helper T cells stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of B and T cells, thus exerting control over both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
48
Which constitutes a major distinction between immune response and inflammatory response? In contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response:
recognizes specific invaders.
Feedback: Immune cells have the capacity to recognize a specific antigen, whereas inflammatory cells respond in the same manner to any foreign antigen. Mounting an immune response generally takes longer than inducing an inflammatory response.
49
a cell filled with basophil granules, found in numbers in connective tissue and releasing histamine and other substances during inflammatory and allergic reactions
mast cell
50
Origin
Macrophages
Feedback: Macrophages are phagocytes that are involved in antigen processing and presentation for the purpose of activating an immune response.
51
A nurse is preparing a presentation on macrophages and dendrite cells. This should include which type of cell terminology
Antigen-presenting cells
Feedback: The three major types of APCs are macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
52
A student nurse asks the clinician which cells are most primary in a patient's immunity. What is the best answer?
Lymphocytes
Feedback: Lymphocytes (B and T cells) are responsible for generating immune responses.
53
When explaining "clonal selection" to a group of student nurses, which statement should the nurse include?
Lymphocytes that can recognize and react to a specific antigen proliferate.
Feedback: The process of clonal selection occurs when an antigen selects those lymphocytes with compatible receptors and expands their population. Mature lymphocytes can only recognize one antigen.
54
A student nurse asks the clinician which cells are most primary in a patient's immunity. What is the best answer?
Lymphocytes
Feedback: Lymphocytes (B and T cells) are responsible for generating immune responses.
55
When the nurse is describing the portion of the antigenic molecule that is recognized by the lymphocyte (antigenic determinant or antigenicity), what term should the nurse use?
Epitope
Feedback: Epitope is another name for the antigenic determinant.
56
A student nurse wants to know which cells stimulate both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. The nurse should identify which cells?
Helper T cells
Feedback: Helper T cells stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of B and T cells, thus exerting control over both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
57
Humoral immunity is generated through the process of:
producing antibodies.
Feedback: Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies that attack foreign antigens.
58
When a nurse uses the term "clonal diversity," what is the nurse describing?
The ability of the population of lymphocytes to recognize almost any antigenic molecule.
Feedback: The generation of clonal diversity produces a population of lymphocytes that can recognize any antigenic
59
When explaining "clonal selection" to a group of student nurses, which statement should the nurse include?
Lymphocytes that can recognize and react to a specific antigen proliferate.
Feedback: The process of clonal selection occurs when an antigen selects those lymphocytes with compatible receptors and expands their population. Mature lymphocytes can only recognize one antigen.
60
The patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse expect to see documented in the patient s chart?
Type I
61
A nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a patient. Which symptoms would indicate to the nurse that the patient experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
Rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and pruritus
62
Graves disease is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II
63
The nurse is concerned about the patient having tissue injury during type II hypersensitivity. Which mechanism provides the rationale for this concern?
Autoantibody activation of complement and subsequent destruction of target cells.
64
The patient has a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. In planning care for this patient, the nurse should consider that this type of reaction is related to:
delayed response.
65
While reading about autoimmunity, the nurse should question the statement that "autoimmunity can result from":
type I hypersensitivity.
66
The nurse is caring for a patient with Raynaud phenomenon. Which type of hypersensitivity should the nurse expect to see documented in the patient s chart?
Type III hypersensitivity.
67
A patient has a hypersensitivity reaction mediated by Tc cells. A nurse recalls that this type of hypersensitivity reaction is called:
Type IV
68
An important point for the nurse to include in a presentation about hypersensitivity reactions is that histamine is released by which cells?
Mast cells
69
If a patient has a phagocyte deficiency, which cells will be affected?
Macrophages
70
A nurse is describing primary immune deficiency. Which primary deficiencies should the nurse include?
B lymphocytes and complement
71
A patient has a primary immune deficiency. In this case which are deficient?
Complement and phagocytes
Feedback: Primary immune deficiencies are classified into five groups: defects of B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, both B and T lymphocytes (combined), phagocytes, or complement.
72
Type IV hypersensitivity tissue effects are initiated by:
the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
73
A patient had a hypersensitivity reaction involving the formation of antibodies against tissue-specific antigen. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction did the patient experience?
Type II
74
The nurse is interpreting a patient's positive tuberculin skin test. This finding is consistent with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type IV
75
A patient has a primary immune deficiency. In this case which are deficient?
Complement and phagocytes
76
While reviewing a patients' immunological profile, which immunoglobulin does the nurse expect to see elevated if the patient has a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
IgE
77
The following patients have fractured a bone. Which has the greatest risk for developing a life-threatening infection?
An older adult with Type 2 diabetes
78
What existing condition places a patient at greatest risk for developing an infection?
Psoriasis
79
It has been suggested that a patient has a disseminated candidiasis-associated infection. Which assessment findings would confirm that suspicion? Select all that apply.
Fever
Hypotension
Tachycardia
80
Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a direct, vertically transmitted infection?
A newborn delivered vaginally
81
the transmission of organisms between biotic and/or abiotic members of an ecosystem that are not in a parent-progeny relationship. Example malaria, dengue fever, bubonic plague, rabies,
Horizonal transmission
82
Which nursing action presents the greatest risk for developing an infection by indirect transmission?
Collecting and bagging bloody dressing materials
83
A patient is being treated for chronic otitis media that has been resistant to treatment. What assessment question, directed at determining the cause of the ear infection, is most appropriate for the nurse ask?
"Do you have a permanent pacemaker implanted?"
84
The nurse is providing home health assessment visits to a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which system assessment is most important for this patient when considering the development of a biofilm-related infection?
respiratory
85
Which of the following is the leading cause of death in developed countries?
cancer
86
Which patient will the nurse monitor most often? The patient with a benign tumor located in the:
skull/cranium.
87
Which term should the nurse use when describing malignant tumors?
Cancer
88
A patient has cancer of the connective tissue. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
Sarcoma
89
The nurse reviewing the patient's chart reads that the patient has "cervical carcinoma in situ." The nurse identifies that the cervical carcinoma:
contains cancer cells that have not invaded the surrounding tissue.
90
Which of the following cancers arise from bone marrow stem cells (blood forming cells) and always originate in the bone marrow?
Leukemia
91
A nurse is discussing benign tumors. Which information should the nurse include?
Benign tumors are usually surrounded by a capsule.
92
Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant tumors?
Malignant tumors have a tendency to invade surrounding tissue.
93
A nurse reviews a cancer report that states the growth is carcinoma in situ (CIS). How will the nurse interpret this finding?
The growth is localized to the epithelium.
94
A patient has cancer in the epithelial tissue. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
Carcinoma
95
Which type of injury will the nurse prepare to care for when a patient has a diffuse brain injury
Concussion
Feedback: There are two main types of diffuse brain injuries: concussions and diffuse axonal injury.
96
Which patient is most prone to diffuse axonal injury? A patient who has experienced:
rotational head forces.
Feedback: Diffuse axonal injury involves small tears in neuronal tissue from rotational acceleration forces.
97
A sign associated with classic cerebral concussion is:
loss of consciousness.
98
A nurse is teaching the staff about classic cerebral concussions. Which information should the nurse include? A classic cerebral concussion is defined as a temporary axonal disturbance with loss of consciousness lasting less than:
6 hours.
99
Which information should the nurse include when teaching about focal brain injury? Most forms of focal brain injury are associated with increased:
brain swelling
Feedback: Brain edema forms around and in damaged neural tissues, contributing to the increasing intracranial pressure.
100
A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion?
Spinal shock
101
A nurse is assessing a patient with spinal shock. Which signs and symptoms will the nurse observe?
Muscle flaccidity
102
Autonomic hyperreflexia is caused by:
stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion.
103
A patient with a spinal cord injury (T6 level) reports a headache. The patient's blood pressure is 296 systolic, and the patient is sweating. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Check the patient's bladder.
104
The nurse suspects that the spinal cord-injured patient is experiencing autonomic hyerreflexia. Which symptoms would support this suspicion?
Headache and hypertension
105
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of autonomic hyperreflexia. Which information should the nurse include? Autonomic hyperreflexia is caused by:
stimulation to the sympathetic nervous system.
106
Which information should the nurse include in a lecture on syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? SIADH results in excessive:
a. renal retention of sodium and water.
b. renal excretion of sodium without water retention.
c. renal retention of water without sodium retention.
d. renal excretion of water without sodium retention.
C. renal retention of water without sodium retention.
Elevated ADH secretion in SIADH stimulates increased water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules.
107
A patient is experiencing neurological symptoms of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which laboratory result correlates to this condition?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Decreased serum sodium concentrations
c. Increased serum osmolarity
d. Hypokalemia
B. Decreased serum sodium concentrations
ADH secretion in SIADH causes a dilutional hyponatremia and decreased serum osmolarity.
108
Which will the nurse incorporate in the plan of care for a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
a. Fluid restriction
b. Insulin administration
c. Hypotonic saline administration
d. Protein restriction
A. Fluid restriction
The treatment of SIADH involves the correction of any underlying causal problems and fluid restriction with careful monitoring.
109
When evaluating the kidney function of a patient with diabetes insipidus (DI), the nurse expects:
a. high volume urine output.
b. high urine osmolarity.
c. blood in the urine.
d. protein in the urine.
A. high volume urine output.
In DI, the kidneys are unable to conserve water in the distal and collecting tubules, resulting in the production of large volumes of dilute urine.
110
Which assessment finding by the nurse is a classic symptom of diabetes insipidus (DI)?
a. Hypertension
b. Overhydration
c. Low urine osmolarity
d. Pulmonary edema
C. Low urine osmolarity
Absence of ADH secretion in DI leads to increased production of dilute urine with low osmolarity.
111
For which type of diabetes insipidus (DI) should the nurse monitor when a patient has a damaged posterior pituitary due to a tumor?
a. Vascular
b. Nephrogenic
c. Psychogenic
d. Neurogenic
D. Neurogenic
When DI develops from pathology to the CNS, it is called "neurogenic" DI.
112
The most serious consequence of panhypopituitarism in an adult is the loss of:
a. growth hormone.
b. luteinizing hormone (LH).
c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
d. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
C. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Loss of ACTH secretion leads to decreased cortisol production, resulting in life-threatening hypoglycemia.
113
A patient has basophilia. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
An allergic response
114
A patient has agranulocytosis. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
infection
115
Which cells fit into the category of a "granulocyte"?
neutrophils
Feedback: Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are types of granulocytes
116
A nurse is teaching the staff about granulocytes. Which type of cells is the nurse describing?
Basophils
117
The nurse discovers a patient has a low platelet count. Which term should the nurse use to describe this finding?
Thrombocytopenia
118
A patient has hypersplenism. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse observe that is typical for this disease?
Decreased platelets
Feedback: Hypersplenism often results in anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia caused by sequestration of blood components in the spleen.
119
When a nurse observed a platelet count of 9,000/mm3, which condition must the nurse monitor for in this patient?
spontaneous bleeding
120
Which concept should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma?
M protein
Feedback: Because of the large number of malignant plasma cells, the abnormal antibody, called the M protein, becomes the most prominent protein in the blood for a patient with multiple myeloma.
121
A patient has multiple myeloma. Which area in the body does the nurse closely monitor for the tumor masses?
Bones
Feedback: Multiple myeloma (MM) is a B cell cancer characterized by the proliferation of malignant plasma cells that infiltrate the bone marrow and aggregate into tumor masses throughout the skeletal system.
122
A patient has a decreased number of leukocytes. Which term will the nurse use to describe this finding?
Leukopenia
123
What term should the nurse use to describe a leukocyte count that is higher than normal?
Leukocytosis
124
Which term should the nurse use when discussing white blood cells?
Leukocytes
125
A primary care provider tells the nurse that a patient has a shift to the left. Which type of patient will the nurse be caring for? A patient with:
bacterial infection
Feedback: Neutrophilia and a left shift are most commonly associated with bacterial infection.
126
A patient has an increase in the production of neutrophils in response to an infection. What term should the nurse use to describe this response?
Neutrophilia
127
While reviewing laboratory results a nurse finds that her patient has a neutrophil count of 1900/mm3. What term will the nurse use to describe this finding?
Neutropenia
128
Which information is important for the nurse to remember about essential thrombocythermia? Along with increased platelets, there mat also be an increase in:
Erythrocytes RBCs
129
Which of the following events initiates the process of atherosclerosis?
endothelial injury and release of cytokines
130
When a nurse is describing the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease, which information should the nurse include?
Overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
131
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis. Which information should the nurse include? After the fatty streak:
fibrotic plaque is formed.
132
A patient has atherosclerosis. Which factor associated with endothelial injury will the nurse observe written in the history?
Autoimmunity
133
The nurse recalls risk factors that are associated with atherosclerosis. These include primary hypertension and:
advanced age.
134
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis. Which information should the nurse include? The main white blood cell that plays a role in the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis is the:
macrophage.
135
Over time, if a patient has sustained hypertension, which complication should the nurse expect in this patient?
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Feedback: Cardiovascular complications of sustained hypertension include left ventricular hypertrophy, angina pectoris, heart failure, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, and sudden death.
Over time, if a patient has sustained hypertension, which complication should the nurse expect in this patient?
136
A nurse is assisting the primary care provider to determine if a patient had a myocardial infarction. Which laboratory values should the nurse check?
Creatine phosphate (CK-MB) and Troponin 1
137
A cardiologist is describing acute coronary syndromes. Which of the following medical diagnoses is the cardiologist discussing?
Unstable angina and myocardial infarction
138
Which laboratory result will help a nurse determine if the patient's chest pain is stable angina or the result of a myocardial infarct (MI)?
Troponin
Feedback: The cardiac troponins (troponin I and troponin T) are the most specific indicators of MI.
139
A patient has an embolus lodged in the coronary artery. Which condition should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
Myocardial infarction
140
A nurse is teaching about unstable angina. Which information should the nurse include? Unstable angina is considered a precursor to
myocardial infarction.
141
If a patient develops an unstable plaque in the coronary arteries, which complication should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
Myocardial infarction
142
Which assessment finding is typical for a patient with stable angina?
Chest pain that is relieved by rest
143
A patient's breathing pattern is 12 breaths a minute that are effortless and rhythmic. What term should the nurse use to document this finding?
Eupnea
144
A nurse will document Cheyne-Stokes respirations on the chart when the patient s breathing is characterized by:
rapid respirations alternating with periods of apnea.
145
A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The primary care provider suspects a pulmonary embolus. Which laboratory test should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis?
D-dimer levels
146
A patient has hemoptysis. What did the nurse observe? The patient is:
coughing up blood
147
Which term will the nurse use to describe hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia?
Clubbing
148
A patient has central cyanosis. Which area should the nurse assess?
lips
149
While checking arterial blood gas results, a nurse finds respiratory acidosis. What does the nurse suspect is occurring in the patient?
Reduced tidal volumes
Feedback: Low tidal volumes (hypoventilation) result in CO2 retention and respiratory acidosis.
150
Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypoventilation?
hypercapnia
151
A patient has a decreased drive to breathe. Which condition should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
hypercapnia
152
A patient has asthma. Which finding would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider?
respiratory acidosis
153
breathing more deeply and sometimes faster than usual.
Hyperpnea
154
abnormally slow breathing rate
Bradypnea
155
A patient is hyperventilating. While checking the laboratory results, which findings will the nurse find?
Hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis
Feedback: Hypocapnia from hyperventilation results in a respiratory alkalosis that also can interfere with tissue function.
156
A patient has dyspnea. Which of the following typical findings will the nurse observe during the assessment?
Dyspnea
157
A patient has dyspnea when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this finding?
Orthopnea
158
Which patient is most prone to cystitis?
Diabetic woman with an indwelling catheter
159
A patient with cystitis has dysuria. Which of the following assessment findings are consistent with dysuria?
Painful urination
160
A consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction is:
hydronephrosis.
161
Which information will help the nurse determine the severity of a patient's urinary tract obstruction?
Duration of the blockage
162
A major modifiable risk factor for the development of renal calculi in the general population is:
dehydration.
Feedback: A major modifiable risk factor for the development of renal calculi in the general population is dehydration, since most renal calculi form when salts in the urine become concentrated or "supersaturated."
163
Renal calculi can be formed from:
uric acid
164
A urologist is describing a procedure that uses ultrasound waves to break large renal calculi into smaller stones that can be passed through the urinary tract. Which procedure is the urologist discussing?
Lithotripsy
165
Which of the following terms will the nurse use to describe bladder dysfunction caused by a neurological disorder?
Neurogenic bladder
Feedback: A condition in which neurologic lesions cause bladder dysfunction is called neurogenic bladder.
166
X-rays of renal pevis and urinary tract are called
Pyelography
167
A nurse is describing the following conditions: detrusor hyperreflexia, vescicosphincter dyssynergia, and detrusor areflexia/acontractile. Which type of urinary disorder is the nurse discussing?
Neurogenic bladder
168
___is the urodynamic term for variable lower urinary tract symptoms. This condition occurs due to detrusor muscle contraction with concomitant and inappropriate involuntary urethral sphincter contraction
Bladder dyssynergia
169
Bladder prolapse
when your bladder sags into your vagina
170
A patient had both kidneys obstructed but is now unobstructed and urinating large amounts of urine. What term should the nurse use to describe this process?
Postobstructive diuresis
171
Which is a cause of secondary amenorrhea other than pregnancy and menopause?
Thyroid disorders
Feedback: Pituitary tumors, thyroid disorders, and extreme weight loss can all result in secondary amenorrhea.
172
Which finding is typical in a patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
Elevated levels of androgens
173
The major endocrine abnormality associated with the development of polycystic ovarian syndrome is:
hyperinsulinemia.
174
What complication will the nurse monitor for in a patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
Infertility
175
Which statement indicates that a nurse needs more instruction regarding premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? PMS is the cyclic recurrence that can cause changes:
financially.
Feedback: Changes occurring with PMS are behavioral, physical, and psychological. Common problems include depression, headache, irritability, myalgias, fatigue, nausea, diarrhea, and sleep disturbance.
176
A patient wants to know the difference between premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). How should the nurse respond? PMDD has:
depression.
177
Pelvic inflammatory disease can be caused by:
STI/STD
178
A patient has the symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which activity will the patient say lessens the pain?
resting
179
Risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer include:
obesity, early menarche, and late menopause.
180
A patient has diarrhea caused by an inability to digest lactose in dairy products. Which type of diarrhea is the patient experiencing?
Osmotic diarrhea
181
Which of the following disorders is most commonly associated with bright red blood in the stools?
Colorectal cancer
182
Which complication should the nurse assess for in a patient with chronic gastritis?
Gastric cancer
Feedback: Chronic damage to the stomach mucosa can cause cellular changes that lead to gastric cancer, achlorhydria, and mucosal erosions that can result in gastrointestinal bleeding.
183
A patient is positive for occult gastrointestinal bleeding. Which complication should the nurse expect?
Iron deficiency anemia
Feedback: Blood loss in gastrointestinal bleeding can result in an iron deficiency due to the loss of iron in the hemoglobin.
184
Which of the following will be an initial assessment finding for a stress ulcer in a patient who sustained severe trauma?
Gastrointestinal bleeding
185
The patient's stool is black and positive for blood. This finding should be documented by the nurse as:
melena
Feedback: Melena is black, tarry stool that occurs when blood components are digested in the upper gastrointestinal tract.
186
While assessing the patient s bowel movement, the nurse notes bright red blood in the stool. The nurse will chart this finding as:
Hematochezia
187
Which of the following typical symptoms should the nurse find on assessment of a patient with colon cancer?
Abdominal pain and hematochezia
188
Which of the following interventions will the nurse include in a plan of care for a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
elevate head of bed
189
When caring for a patient with dysphagia,the nurse should be particularly vigilent when the patient is:
eating.
Feedback: Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by hiatal hernia, achalasia, or gastroesophageal reflux. In patients with dysphagia, the risk of aspiration when eating is a major nursing concern.
190
A patient has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which common manifestations should the nurse expect to detect when assessing this patient?
Heartburn, dysphagia, and pain within 1 hour of eating
191
The nurse recalls that which complication is associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
Esophageal Cancer
192
A patient newly diagnosed with reflux esophagitis asks the nurse what this disease is. The nurse should identify that reflux esophagitis is defined as:
an inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
193
caused by reduced water absorption, and results in high stool volumes; symptoms persist at night and during fasting
Secretory diarrhea
194
vomiting of blood
Hematemesis
195
gastrointestinal bleeding that is not visible to the patient or physician, resulting in either a positive fecal occult blood test, or iron deficiency anemia with or without a positive fecal occult blood test.
Occult bleeding
196
An adolescent patient has sustained a fracture that involves fragmentation of the articular cartilage. Which type of fracture did the adolescent sustain?
Transchondral fracture
197
A torus fracture is a type of:
incomplete fracture.
198
A patient fractures a bone in a place where there was a pre-existing disease. Which type of fracture is being described?
Pathological fracture
199
A patient has a fracture that broke into several fragments. Which type of fracture did the patient sustain?
Comminuted
200
Which complication should the nurse assess for in a patient who had improper immobilization of a fracture?
Malunion
201
A nurse is describing the process of bone healing. Which information should the nurse include? After the organization of the hematoma into a fibrous network, the next step is:
invasion of osteoblasts.
202
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of bone healing. Which information should the nurse include? Factor(s) that can prevent proper bone healing include:
alcohol and nicotine.
203
Which statement indicates that a nurse needs more teaching about bone healing? An event that occurs following a bone fracture is:
an increase in the number of osteoclasts at the fracture site.
204
A patient has a partial/incomplete tear of a ligament. Which term will the nurse use to describe this condition?
Second-degree sprain
205
A patient has a tear in the tendon. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
strain
206
A patient has displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other. The nurse is providing care to a patient with a:
Subluxation
207
complete bone separation
Disunion
208
Occult fracture
does not appear well on x-ray
209
a fracture of the bone, occurring typically in children, in which one side of the bone is broken and the other only bent.
Greenstick fracture
210
an injury where the fractured bone and/or fracture hematoma are exposed to the external environment via a traumatic violation of the soft tissue and skin
open fracture
211
tiny cracks in a bone. They're caused by repetitive force, often from overuse — such as repeatedly jumping up and down or running long distances.
stress fracture
212
occurs when abnormal stress is applied to bone with normal elastic resistance
fatigue fracture
213
a condition in which the production and secretion of all hormones by the pituitary gland is reduced.
Panhypopituitarism
