Patho Final Flashcards
A geneticist is teaching a class that includes information about DNA. Which information should be included? DNA contains:
the genetic code for all parts of the body
A nurse is correct when stating that the nuclear structure that contains most of the cellular DNA is called the:
nucleolus
The geneticist is teaching about DNA synthesis. Which information should be included? The phase during the cell cycle in which DNA synthesis occurs is called:
S
Prior to translation, which of the following steps must occur?
DNA unzipping and complimentary base pairing
The triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid is called a:
codon
When a staff member asks a nurse what a karyotype is, how should the nurse respond? A karyotype is:
an ordered photographic display of a set of chromosomes from a single cell
The nurse is caring for a new mother who just gave birth to a baby with Down syndrome. The nurse explains that this syndrome is a result of trisomy with which chromosome?
21
If an ovum has chromosomal nondisjunction, which conditions(s) could result in the embryo?
Monosomies and trisomies
A nurse is correct in saying that the somatic cell that contains a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called:
an euploid cell.
When providing genetic counseling for newlyweds, the nurse discusses trisomy. the nurse should indicate that trisomy is a form of:
aneuploidy
Building block of nucleic acids (DNA, RNA)
Nucelotide
A nurse recalls that mutations typically result in abnormal:
DNA, RNA and proteins
Which is the chief function of ribosomes?
protein synthesis
A nurse recalls that RNA is used to direct:
protein synthesis
The clinician correctly refers to the process by which RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis as:
transcription
A nurse recalls that adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine are:
nitrogenous bases
When the clinician is discussing the DNA helix, which information should be included? In the DNA helix, guanine pairs with:
cytosine
A patient asks the nurse about cellular atrophy. The response from the nurse should include which statement about cells? Cellular atrophy is:
A decrease in cell size.
A patient has an increased cardiac workload related to high blood pressure (hypertension). Which adaptive process does the nurse expect to occur in the patient’s left ventricular myocardial cells?
Hypertrophy
The process of hypertrophy involves:
An increase in cell size.
Which statement indicates that a student nurse needs more teaching regarding atypical hyperplasia (dysplasia)? Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal changes in:
Cell secretions. Explain:
Cell secretions have nothing to do with dysplasia.
A patient has pathologic hyperplasia. What is most likely the cause?
Excessive hormonal stimulation
A nurse is teaching staff about compensatory hyperplasia. With regard to compensatory hyperplasia, what information should the nurse include? Growth factors stimulate cell division in response to:
Tissue loss.
Which statement indicates that the nurse needs more teaching regarding dysplasia? Dysplasia:
Indicates that severe cancer is present. Explain:
The term dysplasia does not indicate cancer, and dysplasia may or may not progress to cancer
What fraction of total body water (TBW) volume is contained in the intracellular space? A) 3/4
B) 2/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/3
B) 2/3
Total body water (TBW) in elderly persons is:
A) increased because of decreased adipose tissue and decreased bone mass.
B) increased because of decreased renal function and hormonal fluctuations.
C) decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.
D) decreased because of diuresis and sodium loss.
C) decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.
Passive mediated transport (facilitated diffusion) depends on the presence of:
A) carrier proteins in the plasma membrane.
B) energy in the form of ATP.
C) microtubules in the cytoplasm.
D) all of the above.
A) carrier proteins in the plasma membrane.
Factors that determine osmotic pressure include all of the following except:
A) charge of the molecules
B) size of the molecules.
C) concentration gradient.
D) thickness of the plasma membrane.
A) charge of the molecules.
Plasma oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure is maintained by the quantity of plasma:
A) glucose.
B) sodium.
C) proteins.
D) lipids.
C) proteins.
A molecule with positice electrical charge is called
cationic
Which state describes the ideal proportion of electrolyte-to-water content in the body?
A) Homeostatic
B) Osmotic
C) Cationic
D) Isotonic
D) Isotonic
Osmosis describes the movement of:
water
Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Chlorine
C) Potassium
if the surface barriers of innate immunity, such as the skin or mucous membranes are breached, the second line of defense in immunity is the
inflammatory response. if the surface barriers of innate immunity, such as the skin or mucous membranes are breached, the second line of defense in immunity is the
which of the following cells is responsible for prolonging the inflammatory response and are present at the site of chronic bacterial infections?
macrophages.
macrophages can persist in infected tissues for weeks, months, or even longer.
A monocyte is a circulating white blood cell that transforms into which of the following cells once it enters the tissue during an inflammatory response?
A) Neutrophil
B) Macrophage
C) Mast cell
D) Fibroblast
macrophage.
One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever, which is induced by several mediators, including
interleukin-1.
which white blood cell plays in important role in inhibiting the inflammatory response?
Eosinophil.
which of the following inflammatory chemicals are responsible for inducing pain during information?
bradykinin and prostaglandins
which of the following cells is responsible for prolonging the inflammatory response and are present at the site of chronic bacterial infections?
macrophages.
in the respiratory system, the release of leukotrienes during an inflammatory response induces
Bronchoconstriction.
what is the purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during information?
to transport inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury, to bring white blood cells to the area of injury, to dilute toxins, or all of the above
all of the above.
The purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability is to dilute toxins and bring white blood cells and inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury
The components of the complement and kinin systems are
plasma proteins.
The complement and kinin systems are formed from a series of plasma proteins that become activated in a sequential manner during inflammation.
activated complement proteins C3a and C5a may act as
anaphylatoxins
C3 a and C5A act as anaphylatoxins by inducing mast cell degranulation
The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by
bacteria
activated by the presence of bacterial cell wall polysaccharides, endotoxin
Which of the following molecules are opsonins?
antibodies and complement proteins
They opsonize bacteria and parasites by attaching to the cell membrane.
A student nurse wants to know which cells stimulate both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. The nurse should identify which cells?
Helper T cells
Feedback: Helper T cells stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of B and T cells, thus exerting control over both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
Which constitutes a major distinction between immune response and inflammatory response? In contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response:
recognizes specific invaders.
Feedback: Immune cells have the capacity to recognize a specific antigen, whereas inflammatory cells respond in the same manner to any foreign antigen. Mounting an immune response generally takes longer than inducing an inflammatory response.
a cell filled with basophil granules, found in numbers in connective tissue and releasing histamine and other substances during inflammatory and allergic reactions
mast cell
Origin
Macrophages
Feedback: Macrophages are phagocytes that are involved in antigen processing and presentation for the purpose of activating an immune response.
A nurse is preparing a presentation on macrophages and dendrite cells. This should include which type of cell terminology
Antigen-presenting cells
Feedback: The three major types of APCs are macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
A student nurse asks the clinician which cells are most primary in a patient’s immunity. What is the best answer?
Lymphocytes
Feedback: Lymphocytes (B and T cells) are responsible for generating immune responses.
When explaining “clonal selection” to a group of student nurses, which statement should the nurse include?
Lymphocytes that can recognize and react to a specific antigen proliferate.
Feedback: The process of clonal selection occurs when an antigen selects those lymphocytes with compatible receptors and expands their population. Mature lymphocytes can only recognize one antigen.
A student nurse asks the clinician which cells are most primary in a patient’s immunity. What is the best answer?
Lymphocytes
Feedback: Lymphocytes (B and T cells) are responsible for generating immune responses.
When the nurse is describing the portion of the antigenic molecule that is recognized by the lymphocyte (antigenic determinant or antigenicity), what term should the nurse use?
Epitope
Feedback: Epitope is another name for the antigenic determinant.
A student nurse wants to know which cells stimulate both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. The nurse should identify which cells?
Helper T cells
Feedback: Helper T cells stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of B and T cells, thus exerting control over both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
Humoral immunity is generated through the process of:
producing antibodies.
Feedback: Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies that attack foreign antigens.
When a nurse uses the term “clonal diversity,” what is the nurse describing?
The ability of the population of lymphocytes to recognize almost any antigenic molecule.
Feedback: The generation of clonal diversity produces a population of lymphocytes that can recognize any antigenic
When explaining “clonal selection” to a group of student nurses, which statement should the nurse include?
Lymphocytes that can recognize and react to a specific antigen proliferate.
Feedback: The process of clonal selection occurs when an antigen selects those lymphocytes with compatible receptors and expands their population. Mature lymphocytes can only recognize one antigen.
The patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse expect to see documented in the patient s chart?
Type I
A nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a patient. Which symptoms would indicate to the nurse that the patient experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
Rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and pruritus
Graves disease is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II
The nurse is concerned about the patient having tissue injury during type II hypersensitivity. Which mechanism provides the rationale for this concern?
Autoantibody activation of complement and subsequent destruction of target cells.
The patient has a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. In planning care for this patient, the nurse should consider that this type of reaction is related to:
delayed response.
While reading about autoimmunity, the nurse should question the statement that “autoimmunity can result from”:
type I hypersensitivity.
The nurse is caring for a patient with Raynaud phenomenon. Which type of hypersensitivity should the nurse expect to see documented in the patient s chart?
Type III hypersensitivity.
A patient has a hypersensitivity reaction mediated by Tc cells. A nurse recalls that this type of hypersensitivity reaction is called:
Type IV
An important point for the nurse to include in a presentation about hypersensitivity reactions is that histamine is released by which cells?
Mast cells
If a patient has a phagocyte deficiency, which cells will be affected?
Macrophages
A nurse is describing primary immune deficiency. Which primary deficiencies should the nurse include?
B lymphocytes and complement
A patient has a primary immune deficiency. In this case which are deficient?
Complement and phagocytes
Feedback: Primary immune deficiencies are classified into five groups: defects of B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, both B and T lymphocytes (combined), phagocytes, or complement.
Type IV hypersensitivity tissue effects are initiated by:
the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
A patient had a hypersensitivity reaction involving the formation of antibodies against tissue-specific antigen. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction did the patient experience?
Type II
The nurse is interpreting a patient’s positive tuberculin skin test. This finding is consistent with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type IV
A patient has a primary immune deficiency. In this case which are deficient?
Complement and phagocytes
While reviewing a patients’ immunological profile, which immunoglobulin does the nurse expect to see elevated if the patient has a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
IgE
The following patients have fractured a bone. Which has the greatest risk for developing a life-threatening infection?
An older adult with Type 2 diabetes
What existing condition places a patient at greatest risk for developing an infection?
Psoriasis
It has been suggested that a patient has a disseminated candidiasis-associated infection. Which assessment findings would confirm that suspicion? Select all that apply.
Fever
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a direct, vertically transmitted infection?
A newborn delivered vaginally
the transmission of organisms between biotic and/or abiotic members of an ecosystem that are not in a parent-progeny relationship. Example malaria, dengue fever, bubonic plague, rabies,
Horizonal transmission
Which nursing action presents the greatest risk for developing an infection by indirect transmission?
Collecting and bagging bloody dressing materials
A patient is being treated for chronic otitis media that has been resistant to treatment. What assessment question, directed at determining the cause of the ear infection, is most appropriate for the nurse ask?
“Do you have a permanent pacemaker implanted?”
The nurse is providing home health assessment visits to a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which system assessment is most important for this patient when considering the development of a biofilm-related infection?
respiratory
Which of the following is the leading cause of death in developed countries?
cancer
