patho exam review Flashcards
Besides dyspnea, what is the most common characteristic associated with pulmonary disease?
a. Chest pain
b. Digit clubbing
c. Cough
d. Hemoptysis
ANS: C
Pulmonary disease is associated with many signs and symptoms, and their specific characteristics often help in identifying the underlying disorder.
Sitting up in a forward-leaning position generally relieves which breathing disorder?
a. Hyperpnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Apnea
d. Dyspnea on exertion
ANS: B
Of the options available, only orthopnea is generally relieved by sitting up in a forward-leaning posture or supporting the upper body on several pillows.
Which statement is true regarding ventilation?
a. Hypoventilation causes hypocapnia.
b. Hyperventilation causes hypercapnia.
c. Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.
d. Hyperventilation results in an increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2).
ANS: C
Hyperventilation is alveolar ventilation that exceeds metabolic demands. The lungs remove carbon dioxide at a faster rate than produced by cellular metabolism, resulting in decreased PaCO2 or hypocapnia.
What term is used to describe the selective bulbous enlargement of the distal segment of a digit that is commonly associated with diseases that interfere with oxygenation of the blood?
a. Edema
b. Clubbing
c. Angling
d. Osteoarthropathy
ANS: B
Clubbing is the selective bulbous enlargement of the end (distal segment) of a digit (finger or toe) (see Figure 35-1) and is commonly associated with diseases that interfere with oxygenation.
Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by which mechanism?
a. Creating alveolar dead space
b. Decreasing the oxygen in inspired gas
c. Creating a right-to-left shunt
d. Impairing alveolocarpillary membrane diffusion
ANS: D
Diffusion of oxygen through the alveolocapillary membrane is impaired if the alveolocapillary membrane is thickened or if the surface area available for diffusion is decreased. Abnormal thickness, as occurs with edema (tissue swelling) and fibrosis (formation of fibrous lesions), increases the time required for diffusion across the alveolocapillary membrane
Which condition is capable of producing alveolar dead space?
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Pulmonary emboli
c. Atelectasis
d. Pneumonia
ANS: B
A pulmonary embolus that impairs blood flow to a segment of the lung results in an area where alveoli are ventilated but not perfused, which causes alveolar dead space.
What is the most common cause of pulmonary edema?
a. Right-sided heart failure
b. Left-sided heart failure
c. Mitral valve prolapse
d. Aortic stenosis
ANS: B
The most common cause of pulmonary edema is heart disease. When the left ventricle fails, filling pressures on the left side of the heart increase and cause a concomitant increase in pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure.
The collapse of lung tissue caused by the lack of collateral ventilation through the pores of Kohn is referred to as what type of atelectasis?
a. Compression
b. Perfusion
c. Absorption
d. Hypoventilation
ANS: C
Absorption atelectasis is a result of the gradual absorption of air from obstructed or hypoventilated alveoli or from inhalation of concentrated oxygen or anesthetic agents
Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that acts as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?
a. Spontaneous pneumothorax
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Open pneumothorax
d. Secondary pneumothorax
ANS: B In tension pneumothorax, the site of pleural rupture acts as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing up during expiration. As more and more air enters the pleural space, air pressure in the pneumothorax begins to exceed barometric pressure.
Which condition involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchange system and the destruction of the lung’s alveolar walls?
a. Transudative effusion
b. Emphysema
c. Exudative effusion
d. Abscess
ANS:B
Emphysema is abnormal permanent enlargement of gas-exchange airways (acini) accompanied by the destruction of alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis.
Which condition is not a cause of chest wall restriction?
a. Pneumothorax
b. Severe kyphoscoliosis
c. Gross obesity
d. Neuromuscular disease
ANS: A
Unlike the other options that result in chest wall restriction, a pneumothorax is the presence of air or gas in the pleural space caused by a rupture in the visceral pleura (which surrounds the lungs) or the parietal pleura and chest wall.
Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air?
a. Restrictive
b. Obstructive
c. Acute
d. Communicable
ANS: B
Obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by airway obstruction that is worse with expiration. Either more force (i.e., the use of accessory muscles of expiration) or more time is required to expire a given volume of air
Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea are indicative of which condition?
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumonia
d. Asthma
ANS: D
At the beginning of an attack, the individual experiences chest constriction, expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive coughing, prolonged expiration, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Severe attacks involve the use of accessory muscles of respiration, and wheezing is heard during both inspiration and expiration.
The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?
a. Avoidance of the causative agent
b. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
c. Administration of drugs that reduce bronchospasm
d. Administration of drugs that decrease airway inflammation
ANS: A
Chronic management of asthma begins with the avoidance of allergens and other triggers. The effectiveness of the other options is reliant on the avoidance of triggers.
Clinical manifestations of decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough are indicative of which respiratory disorder?
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumonia
d. Asthma
ANS: A
The symptoms that lead individuals with chronic bronchitis to seek medical care include decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Individuals usually have a productive cough (“smoker’s cough”).
Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of which respiratory disorder?
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumonia
d. Asthma
ANS: B
Individuals with emphysema usually have dyspnea on exertion that later progresses to significant dyspnea, even at rest. Little coughing and very little sputum are produced. The individual is often thin, has tachypnea with prolonged expiration, and must use accessory muscles for ventilation.
Which of the following is the most common route of lower respiratory tract infection?
a. Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions
b. Inhalation of microorganisms
c. Microorganisms spread to the lung via blood
d. Poor mucous membrane protection
ANS: A
Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions is the most common route of lower respiratory tract infection; thus the nasopharynx and oropharynx constitute the first line of defense for most infectious agents
What is the initial step in the management of emphysema?
a. Inhaled anticholinergic agents
b. Beta agonists
c. Cessation of smoking
d. surgical reduction of lung volume
ANS: C
Chronic management of emphysema begins with smoking cessation.
Clinical manifestations of inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of which respiratory condition?
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumonia
d. Asthma
ANS: C
Physical examination may reveal signs of pulmonary consolidation, such as inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy, which support a diagnosis of pneumonia
What medical term is used to identify the presence of pus in the pleural space?
a. Plural effusion
b. Asthma
c. Empyema
d. Pneumonia
ANS: C
Empyema is the presence of pus in the pleural space
Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition?
a. Pleural effusion
b. Atelectasis
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Ischemia
ANS: A
Pleural effusion is the presence of fluid in the pleural space
What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
a. Breast enlargement
b. Growth of pubic hair
c. Menstruation
d. Vaginal discharge
ANS: A
Of the options available, the first sign of puberty in girls is usually thelarche or breast development.
The release of which chemical mediator causes primary dysmenorrhea?
a. Leukotrienes
b. Prostaglandins
c. Bradykinin
d. C-reactive protein
ANS: B
Primary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles. This option is the only answer that accurately identifies the chemical mediator associated with dysmenorrhea.
Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
a. Premenstrual syndrome
b. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
c. Polycystic ovary syndrome
d. Primary dysmenorrhea
ANS: B
Unpredictable and variable bleeding, in terms of amount and duration, characterize dysfunctional uterine
bleeding. Especially during perimenopause, dysfunctional bleeding also may involve flooding and the passage of large clots, which often indicate excessive blood loss.
What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. Endometriosis
c. Salpingitis
d. Polycystic ovary syndrome
ANS: D
Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances affecting women,
especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the United States.
Which statement regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is true?
a. An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of a successful pregnancy by 80%.
b. Such an inflammation results in temporary changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes.
c. PID has not been associated with an increased risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
d. Contracting this infection increases the risk of uterine cancer.
ANS: B
PID infection results in permanent changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian or uterine tubes.
Which term is used to identify benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle
cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids?
a. Endometrial polyps
b. Myometrial polyps
c. Leiomyomas
d. Myometriomas
ANS: C
Leiomyomas, commonly called myomas or uterine fibroids, are benign smooth muscle tumors in the
myometrium. The other terms do not accurately identify the tumors described.
Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer? a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) c. Herpes simplex II virus (HSV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
ANS: A
Infection with high-risk (oncogenic) types of HPV (predominantly 16 and 18) is a necessary precursor to
the development of precancerous dysplasia of the cervix that leads to invasive cancer. The other options
are not precursors to CIN and cervical cancer.
Which factor increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40 years?
a. Use of fertility drugs
b. Oral contraceptive use
c. Multiple pregnancies
d. Prolonged lactation
ANS: A
Ovarian cancer in women older than 40 years of age is associated with early menarche, late menopause,
nulliparity, and the use of fertility drugs.
Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected intercourse with the same partner? a. 6 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24
ANS: B
Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse with the same
partner.
Fluid-filled squishy sacs characterize which breast disorder?
a. Paget disease
b. Cysts
c. Nonproliferative breast lesions
d. Lobular carcinoma in situ
ANS: B
Cysts (fluid-filled sacs) are a specific type of lump that commonly occurs in women in their 30s, 40s, and
early 50s. Cysts feel squishy when they occur close to the surface of the breast; however, when deeply
embedded, cysts can feel hard.
What are typical findings on breast palpation of a woman diagnosed with simple
fibroadenoma?
a. Painful, round, movable, and fluid-filled mass
b. Painless, movable, hard, and irregular mass
c. Smooth, solid, mobile, and well-circumscribed mass
d. Smooth, nonmovable, irregular, and soft mass
ANS: C
Only this option accurately identifies the typical palpation results of a simple fibroadenoma.
What is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer?
a. Nipple dimpling
b. Nipple discharge
c. Enlargement of one breast
d. Painless lump
ANS: D
Invasive carcinoma of the breast generally exhibits a nontender palpable mass or thickened area. This
option is the only answer that accurately describes the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer.
What are the common clinical manifestations of endometriosis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Back and flank pain
b. Infertility
c. Dysuria
d. Amenorrhea
e. Dysmenorrhea
ANS: B, E
Common clinical manifestations primarily include infertility, dysmenorrhea, dyschezia (pain on
defecation), and dyspareunia (pain on intercourse).
In women, what is the usual site of original gonococcal infection?
a. Endocervical canal
b. Vagina
c. Fallopian tube
d. Labia majora
ANS: A
In women, the endocervical canal (inner portion of the cervix) is the usual site of original gonococcal
infection, although urethral colonization and infection of Skene or Bartholin glands also are common.
Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Chlamydia
d. Chancroid
ANS: C
The coexistence of chlamydial infection with gonorrhea frequently occurs. No coexistence exists with the
other options.
When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which
sexually transmitted infection is suspected?
a. Genital herpes
b. Chancroid
c. Syphilis
d. Chlamydia
ANS: A
If symptoms occur, the individual may have small (1 to 2 mm), multiple, vesicular lesions that are
generally located on the labia minora, fourchette, or penis.
During the latent period of a herpes virus infection, where in the host cell is the genome of the virus maintained? a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Nucleus d. Cytoplasm
ANS: C
During the latent period, the genome for the virus is maintained in the host cell nucleus without causing
the death of the cell.
Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts?
a. Chlamydia
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)
ANS: C
Genital warts are quite contagious and are a result of only HPV.
Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
ANS: B
Only hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known to be sexually transmitted.
Describe the cause of a Varicocele.
Abnormal dilation of the testicular vein and the pampiniform plexus within the scrotum.
Commonly identified in infertile men.
Usually found on the left side.
Most develop in adolescence.
Describe causes of Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), also called benign prostatic hypertrophy.
Enlargement of the prostate gland
Symptoms associated with urethral compression
Relationship to aging, and ratios of endocrine factors such as androgens and estrogens (androgen/estrogen ratio)
What is the most common reason people seek professional medical help?
Pain
What is the difference between flaccid and spastic paralysis?
flaccid is a weakness due to loss of muscle tone
spastic is a tightening of the limb
- What is hemiparesis?
2. What is hemiplegia?
- weakness of 1 side of the body
2. paralysis of 1 side of the body
What role does dopamine play in Parkinson’s disease?
The low amounts of dopamine cannot correctly balance the acetocholine that creates movement, thereby creating jerky motions as opposed to smooth movement
What are 4 manifestations of Parkinson’s disease?
muscle rigidity, tremor, stooped posture, masklike face, braykinsia, shuffling, and peel rolling
What is underlying pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis?
autoimmune - attck on receptors for acetoholine
What usually precipitates the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
viral illness
What is the key difference between a Trans ischemic and ischemic stroke?
TIA’s are temporary and partial infarction.
Ischemic stroke are complete infarction.
TERM: bleeding within the brain tissue
ANS: intracerebral hematoma
TERM: brain “bounces” inside cranial compartment
ANS: coup-contecoup injury
TERM: source of brain bleed is arterial
ANS: epidural hematoma
TERM: source of brain bleed is venous.
ANS: subdural hematoma
What disease do antibodies attack and interfere with acetylcholine?
ANS: myasthenia gravis
T/F?
multiple sclerosis causes inflammation and destruction of the myelin in the central nervous system.
ANS: true
T/F?
A patient with a complete spinal cord injury will retain some motor and sensory function below the level of injury.
ANS: false
T/F?
A patient who had a stroke in the right side of their brain, may experience left sided weakness.
ANS: true
What is stable angina?
- chest pain lasting 3-5 minutes
- no permanent change or damage results
- can anticipate when next pain will occur
What is peripheral artery disease (PAD)?
atherosclerotic disease of arteries that perfuse limbs, especially the lower extremities
What is chronic orthostatic hypotension?
- may be secondary to a specific disease (endocrine disorders, metabolic disorders, disease of PNS or CNS)
- may be idiopathic or primary
What is dyspnea?
ANS: shortness of breath
A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:
a. pulmonary embolus.
b. hypertension.
c. angina attacks.
d. myocardial infarction
ANS: C
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:
a. reduces vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance.
b. decreases serum lipid levels.
c. promotes platelet adhesion.
d. increases serum HDL levels.
ANS: C
The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to:
a. development of atheromas in large arteries.
b. intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries.
c. degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries.
d. ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart.
ANS: C
Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:
a. brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing.
b. persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
c. bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea.
d. flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness.
ANS: B
The definition of congestive heart failure is:
a. cessation of all cardiac activity.
b. inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body.
c. insufficient circulating blood in the body.
d. the demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply.
ANS: B
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is marked by:
a. hemoptysis and rales.
b. distended neck veins and flushed face.
c. bradycardia and weak pulse.
d. cardiomegaly.
ANS: A
A sign of aortic stenosis is:
a. increased cardiac output.
b. congestion in the liver, spleen, and legs.
c. flushed face and headache.
d. a heart murmur.
ANS: D
A dissecting aortic aneurysm develops as:
a. a dilation or bulge that develops at one point on the aortic wall.
b. a thrombus that accumulates at a point in the aortic wall.
c. a section of the aorta that weakens and dilates in all directions.
d. a tear in the intimal lining, which allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.
ANS: D
Neutrophils:
a. are phagocytic cells.
b. produce histamine.
c. produce antibodies.
d. are elevated during an allergic response.
ANS: A
Humoral immunity is mediated by:
a. natural killer cells.
b. T lymphocytes (T cells).
c. B lymphocytes (B cells).
d. neutrophils.
ANS: C
A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
a. it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.
b. it is slower than the primary response and doesnt change the antibody levels.
c. it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies.
d. it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.
ANS: A
Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
a. Active natural
b. Active artificial
c. Passive natural
d. Passive artificial.
ANS: B
Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?
a. It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.
b. It may result from ingested foods.
c. Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.
d. A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.
ANS: D
An autoimmune disease is:
a. excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
b. an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
c. an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
d. failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.
ANS: D
Which of the following are the target cells for HIV?
a. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)
b. B lymphocytes
c. Natural killer cells
d. Macrophages
ANS: A
Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as:
a. opportunistic.
b. prophylactic.
c. abnormal.
d. transient
ANS: A
Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients?
a. Kaposis sarcoma
b. Wasting syndrome
c. Lymphoma
d. Polyarthritis
ANS: D
Which of the following would result from a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood?
a. Increased hemoglobin in the blood
b. Decreased hematocrit
c. Increased risk of hemostasis
d. The decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
ANS: B
What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells?
a. Leucopenia
b. Neutropenia
c. Pancytopenia
d. Erythrocytosis
ANS: C
Chronic blood loss causes anemia because of the:
a. shortened life span of the erythrocytes.
b. lower metabolic rate.
c. loss of protein and electrolytes.
d. smaller amount of recycled iron available.
ANS: D
Jaundice is one typical sign of:
a. sickle cell anemia.
b. aplastic anemia.
c. iron deficiency anemia.
d. acute leukemia.
ANS: A
What are the typical early general signs and symptoms of anemia?
a. Chest pain, palpitations
b. Jaundice, stomatitis
c. Pallor, dyspnea, and fatigue
d. Bradycardia, heat intolerance
ANS: C
What are the common early signs of aplastic anemia?
a. Painful joints and skeletal deformity
b. Abdominal discomfort and splenomegaly
c. Excessive bleeding and recurrent infections
d. Palpitations and chest pain
ANS: C
Which of the following substances acts as an anticoagulant?
a. Prothrombin
b. Heparin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Vitamin K
ANS: B
Why is excessive bleeding a common occurrence with acute leukemia?
a. Deficit of calcium ions
b. Impaired production of prothrombin and fibrinogen
c. Decreased platelets
d. Dysfunctional thrombocyte
ANS: C
Thrombophilia can result in conditions such as:
a. severe chronic kidney disease.
b. peripheral vascular disease.
c. deficient calcium levels in the long bones.
d. excessive bleeding of hematomas.
ANS: B
What is the primary treatment for the leukemias?
a. Radiation
b. Chemotherapy
c. Surgery
d. Immunotherapy
ANS: B
Iron deficiency anemia frequently results from any of the following EXCEPT:
a. certain vegetarian diets.
b. excessive menstrual flow.
c. malabsorption syndromes.
d. diabetes mellitus.
ANS: D
Which of the following applies to the leukemias?
a. Chronic leukemias are more common in older people.
b. AML is the most common childhood leukemia.
c. Exposure to chemicals is not considered a predisposing factor.
d. Lymphoid tissue produces abnormal leukocytes.
.ANS: A
Which of the following applies to the etiology of aplastic anemia? It is:
a. idiopathic in many cases.
b. a genetic disorder.
c. predisposed by exposure to mycotoxins.
d. Both A and C.
ANS: D
Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?
a. Regulation of body fluid concentrations
b. Removal of nitrogenous and acidic wastes
c. Activation of vitamin D
d. Production of albumin
ANS: D
Which of the following describes the flow of filtrate in the kidney?
a. The collecting duct to the distal convoluted tubule to the renal pelvis
b. Bowmans capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle
c. The loop of Henle to the collecting duct to Bowmans capsule
d. The distal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the collecting duct
ANS: B
Which of the following increases glomerular filtration rate?
a. Increased plasma osmotic pressure
b. Dilation of the efferent arteriole
c. Increased hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries
d. Constriction of the afferent arteriole
ANS: C
When comparing normal kidney function with dialysis, which of the following mechanisms is not possible in dialysis?
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Ultrafiltration
d. Active transport
ANS: D
Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Cystitis
c. Glomerulonephritis
d. Urolithiasis
ANS: B
Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
a. albuminuria increases vascular volume.
b. congestion and ischemia stimulate release of renin.
c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is decreased.
d. damaged tubules absorb large amounts of filtrate.
ANS: B
Why does metabolic acidosis develop with bilateral kidney disease?
a. Tubule exchanges are impaired.
b. GFR is increased.
c. Serum urea is increased.
d. More bicarbonate ion is produced.
ANS: A
Which of the following results from obstruction of the left ureter by a renal calculus?
a. Mild flank pain on the affected side
b. Hydronephrosis in both kidneys
c. Immediate cessation of urine production
d. An attack of renal colic
ANS: D
Which of the following is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?
a. Prostatic cancer
b. Hormonal abnormalities
c. Exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke
d. Presence of embryonic tissue
ANS: C
Which of the following relates to polycystic kidney disease?
a. It affects only one of the kidneys.
b. It results in gradual degeneration and chronic renal failure.
c. The kidneys are displaced and the ureters are twisted.
d. The prognosis is good because there is adequate reserve for normal life
ANS: B
Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure?
a. Polyuria with urine of fixed and low specific gravity
b. Hypotension and increased urine output
c. Development of decompensated acidosis
d. Very low GFR and increased serum urea
ANS: D
Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure?
a. Cystitis with pyelonephritis in the right kidney
b. Circulatory shock
c. Diabetes
d. Obstruction of a ureter by a renal calculus
ANS: C
Cystitis is more common in females because:
a. the mucosa in the urinary tract is continuous.
b. the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora.
c. the pH of urine is more acidic in females.
d. females have a higher incidence of congenital anomalies
ANS: B
Which of the following is a significant indicator of renal insufficiency?
a. Urine with pH of 5
b. Increased serum urea and creatinine
c. Urine with high specific gravity
d. Decreased blood pressur
ANS: B
The normal pH of urine is:
a. 7.35-7.45.
b. 4.5- 8.0.
c. 1.5-7.5.
d. 1.0-7.0.
ANS: B
Reduced urine output resulting from inflammation and necrosis of the tubules is called:
a. oliguria.
b. anuria.
c. pyuria.
d. polyuria.
ANS: A
Autoregulation in the kidneys refers to:
a. control of blood flow by the SNS.
b. the secretion of renin and activation of angiotensin.
c. local minor reflex adjustments in the arterioles to maintain normal blood flow.
d. the control of systemic blood pressure by the kidneys
ANS: C
Excess urea and other nitrogen wastes in the blood is referred to as:
a. dysuria.
b. azotemia.
c. bacteremia.
d. hematuria.
ANS: B
What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate increased secretion of insulin?
a. Control by releasing hormones
b. Control by tropic hormones
c. Negative feedback control
d. Hypothalamus/hypophysis coordination
ANS: C
What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders?
a. Malignant neoplasm
b. Infection
c. Congenital defect
d. Benign tumor
ANS: D
Choose the statement that applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus.
a. Onset often occurs during childhood.
b. Relative insufficiency of insulin or insulin resistance develops.
c. It can be treated by diet, weight control, and exercise, or oral hypoglycemia.
d. Complications rarely occur
ANS: A
Why does polyuria develop with diabetes mellitus?
a. Increased thirst and hypoglycemia
b. Ketoacidosis
c. Osmotic pressure due to glucose
d. Diabetic nephropathy
ANS: C
What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?
a. Excess insulin in the body
b. Loss of glucose in the urine
c. Failure of the kidney to excrete sufficient acids
d. Increased catabolism of fats and proteins
ANS: D
What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis?
a. Skipping a meal
b. Anorexia
c. Serious infection
d. Insulin overdose
ANS: C
Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop?
a. Strenuous exercise
b. Missing an insulin dose
c. Eating excessively large meals
d. Sedentary lifestyle
ANS: A
Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
a. Deep, rapid respirations
b. Flushed dry skin and mucosa
c. Thirst and oliguria
d. Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
ANS: D
Which of the following are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis in an unconscious person?
a. Pale moist skin
b. Thirst and poor skin turgor
c. Deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor
d. Tremors and strong rapid pulse
ANS: C
Immediate treatment for insulin shock may include:
a. administration of bicarbonates.
b. consumption of fruit juice or candy.
c. induced vomiting.
d. consumption of large amounts of water.
ANS: B
What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?
a. Toxic effects of excessive insulin
b. Excessive glucose in the blood
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Lack of glucose in brain cells
ANS: C
Which of the following does NOT usually develop as a complication of diabetes?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Nephropathy
c. Impotence
d. Peripheral neuropathy
ANS: A
How do many oral hypoglycemic drugs act?
a. To replace insulin in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
b. To transport glucose into body cells
c. To prevent gluconeogenesis
d. To stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin
ANS: D
Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:
a. cataracts.
b. macular degeneration.
c. myopia.
d. strabismus
ANS: A
Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addisons disease?
a. Increased glucocorticoids
b. Decreased glucocorticoids
c. Deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Deficit of T3 and T4
ANS: B
Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
a. Increased glucocorticoids
b. Decreased glucocorticoids
c. Deficit of ADH
d. Deficit of T3 and T4
ANS: D
Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes diabetes insipidus?
a. Increased insulin
b. Decreased glucocorticoids
c. Deficit of ADH
d. Deficit of T3 and T
ANS: C
What is caused by hyperparathyroidism?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Tetany
c. Bone demineralization
d. Deficit of vitamin D
ANS: C
Which of the following applies to acromegaly?
a. It occurs in infants and children
.b. It causes excessive longitudinal bone growth.
c. It results from excessive secretion of growth hormone (GH).
d. It does not change soft tissue growth
ANS: C
Which signs are typical of Graves disease?
a. Facial puffiness, bradycardia, and lethargy
b. Exophthalmos and tachycardia
c. delayed physical and intellectual development
d. Goiter and decreased basal metabolic rate (BMR)
ANS: B
Characteristics of Cushing’s syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Heavy body and round face
b. Atrophied skeletal muscle in the limbs
c. Staring eyes with infrequent blinking
d. Atrophy of the lymph node
ANS: C
Which of the following is an effect of Addisons disease?
a. Elevated blood glucose levels
b. High blood pressure
c. Low serum potassium levels
d. Poor stress response
ANS: D
What is the most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a. Increased glucose production in the liver
b. Destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction
c. Increased resistance of body cells to insulin action
d. Chronic obesity
ANS: B
What is/are the effect(s) of thyrotoxic crisis?
a. Hyperthermia and heart failure
b. Hypotension and hypoglycemia
c. Toxic goiter and hypometabolism
d. Decreased stress response
ANS: A
Which of the following conditions may precipitate or exacerbate hyperglycemia?
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Cushings disease
c. Addisons disease
d. Growth hormone deficit
ANS: B
Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
a. Graves disease
b. Acromegaly
c. Cushings disease
d. Diabetes insipidus
ANS: C
Differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes include which of the following?
a. Type 1 diabetes weight gain is common, and type 2 weight loss often occurs.
b. Type 1 diabetes leads to fewer complications than does type 2 diabetes.
c. Type 1 diabetes may be controlled by adjusting dietary intake and exercise, but type 2 diabetes requires insulin replacement.
d. Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and type 2 diabetes occurs more often in adults.
ANS: D
Complications of diabetes mellitus include:
a. peripheral neuropathy.
b. frequent infections.
c. cataracts.
d. A, B, and C.
ANS: D
Which of the following is caused by Graves disease?
a. Hypermetabolism
b. Decreased size of thyroid gland
c. Bradycardia and hypothermia
d. Decreased blood levels of T3, T4, and TSH
ANS: A
Goiters may be caused by:
a. hypothyroid conditions only.
b. either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions.
c. hyperthyroid conditions only.
d. fungal infections such as candidiasis.
ANS: D
*goiter is caused by lack of iodine and/or fungal infections
Severe impairment of all aspects of growth and development, including difficulty feeding, mental retardation, and stunted skeletal growth, are associated with:
a. myxedema.
b. Cushings syndrome.
c. diabetes insipidus.
d. cretinism.
e. Graves disease
ANS: D
A benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine is called:
a. pheochromocytoma.
b. Cushings syndrome.
c. Graves disease.
d. Addisons disease
ANS: A
The anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following hormones EXCEPT:
a. prolactin (PRL).
b. glucagon.
c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
d. growth hormone (GH)
ANS: B
Compensation mechanisms occurring in the early stage of diabetic ketoacidosis include:
a. Kussmauls respirations.
b. polydipsia.
c. ketonuria.
d. seizures
ANS: A
Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma?
a. Low blood pressure and bradycardia
b. Headache and seizures
c. Vomiting and diarrhea
d. Loss of vision in one eye
ANS: B
Which of the following may cause high serum levels of parathyroid hormone?
a. Hypoparathyroidism
b. Chronic renal failure
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Adenoma in the thyroid gland
ANS: B
Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Ascending colon
ANS: C
Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
a. Amylase
b. Peptidase
c. Lactase
d. Trypsin
ANS: D
The early stage of vomiting causes:
a. metabolic alkalosis.
b. metabolic acidosis.
c. increased respirations.
d. increased excretion of hydrogen ions.
ANS: A
Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of:
a. bile.
b. blood.
c. protein.
d. bacteria.
ANS: A
Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as:
a. melena.
b. occult blood.
c. frank blood.
d. hematemesis
ANS: B
What is the definition of dysphagia?
a. A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle
b. Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus
c. Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach
d. Difficulty in swallowing
ANS: D
Oral candidiasis is considered to:
a. be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children.
b. cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue.
c. cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scraped off.
d. be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
ANS: D
What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?
a. Floor of the mouth or tongue borders
b. Mucosa lining the cheeks
c. Hard and soft palate
d. Gingivae near the teeth
ANS: A
What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
a. An abnormally long esophagus
b. Increased intra-abdominal pressure
c. Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm
d. A small fundus in the stomach
ANS: B
What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
a. Colicky right upper quadrant pain
b. Vomiting and anorexia
c. Projectile vomiting after eating
d. Diarrhea with abdominal distention
ANS: B
What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?
a. Abdominal discomfort between meals and at night
b. Nausea and diarrhea
c. Hematemesis
d. Sharp colicky pain with food intake
ANS: C
What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?
a. Intrahepatic jaundice
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant
d. Inflammation and infection in the gallbladder
ANS: C
Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:
a. cholelithiasis.
b. cholecystitis.
c. cholangitis.
d. choledocholithiasis.
ANS: D
What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HEV
ANS: C
What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
a. Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material has been removed
b. Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice
c. Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage
d. Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
ANS: D
What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
a. Anemia and leucopenia
b. Jaundice and pruritus
c. Recurrent infections
d. Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin
ANS: D
Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
a. damage to the intestinal villi.
b. obstruction in the pancreatic ducts.
c. acidosis, preventing activation of digestive enzymes.
d. insufficient bile for absorption
ANS: A
What are the typical changes occurring with Crohns disease?
a. Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
b. Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
c. A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
d. Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal area
ANS: D
Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus and frank blood are typical of:
a. diverticulitis.
b. ulcerative colitis.
c. Crohns disease.
d. celiac disease
ANS: B
How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
a. Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
b. Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
c. Chronic blood loss in stools
d. Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption
ANS: C
What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?
a. Physical and emotional stress
b. An autoimmune reaction
c. A combination of recessive genes
d. Idiopathic
ANS: D
What pain is typical of diverticulitis?
a. Lower left quadrant
b. Lower right quadrant
c. Sharp, colicky, periumbilical
d. Lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin
ANS: A
What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
a. Infection in appendix
b. An episode of severe diarrhea
c. Obstruction of the lumen of appendix
d. Eating a low-fiber diet
ANS: C
What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?
a. Change in shape of the stool
b. Incomplete emptying
c. Mild but persistent pain in the lower left quadrant
d. Occult blood in the stool
ANS: D
Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?
a. Excessive audible bowel sounds
b. Intermittent colicky pain
c. Severe steady abdominal pain
d. Visible peristalsis
ANS: C
What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
a. Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
b. Hemorrhage into the intestine
c. Rupture of the intestinal wall
d. Repeated bouts of severe diarrhea
ANS: A
Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?
a. Lower esophagus
b. Antrum of the stomach
c. Proximal duodenum
d. Distal duodenum
ANS: C
What does the term melena mean?
a. Blood in a dark-colored stool
b. Occult blood in the stool
c. Blood in the sputum
d. Blood in vomitus
ANS: A
Which term refers to an inflammation usually related to infection of the bile ducts?
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Cholecystitis
c. Cholangitis
d. Choledocholithiasis
ANS: C
Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves:
a. periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus.
b. constant flow of intestinal and gastric contents into the esophagus.
c. spasmodic and violent vomiting of gastric contents.
d. violent spasming of the esophagus, causing choking
ANS: A
Which of the following would result from a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood?
A) Increased hemoglobin in the blood
B) Decreased hematocrit
C) Increased risk of hemostasis
D) Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
ANS: B
Chronic blood loss causes anemia because of the:
A) shortened life span of the erythrocytes.
B) lower metabolic rate.
C) loss of protein and electrolytes.
D) smaller amount of recycled iron available.
ANS: D
Which of the following applies to erythropoietin?
A) It is produced by the liver.
B) It increases iron absorption for heme production.
C) It stimulates production of red blood cells.
D) Hypoxia stimulates the red bone marrow to produce erythropoietin.
ANS: C
Secondary polycythemia may be associated with: A) frequent angina attacks. B) certain types of anemia. C) severe chronic bronchitis. D) renal disease
ANS: C
Gangrene is a form of A. caseous necrosis. B. liquefaction necrosis. C. coagulative necrosis. D. fat necrosis
ANS: C
Metaplasia refers to which of the following?
A. An increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.
B. Cell mutation into cells of a different size, shape, and appearance.
C. An increase in the size of cells in an attempt to meet increased demand.
D. The process of one adult cell being replaced by another cell type
ANS: D
Which statement is true about T cells?
A. T cells mature in the thyroid gland.
B. They are responsible for hypersensitivity and transplant rejection.
C. T cells are part of the body’s first line of defense.
D. They mature in the bone marrow
ANS: B
Which of the following is a characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus? A. Butterfly rash over the cheeks B. Photosensitivity C. Arthritis D. All of the above
ANS: D
The inflammatory response is part of the body’s A. first line of defense. B. second line of defense. C. third line of defense. D. none of the above
ANS: B
An inflated response to an antigen is A. hypersensitivity. B. immunodeficiency. C. the general adaptation syndrome. D. autologous
ANS: A
Erythema, edema, heat, and pain characterize A. the third line of defense. B. general adaptation syndrome. C. the inflammatory response. D. acquired immunity
ANS: C
Antibody-producing cells and memory cells are types of A. T cells B. killer cells C. B cells. D. antigens
ANS: C
The most plentiful type of blood cell in the human body is A. erythrocytes. B. leukocytes. C. thrombocytes. D. stem cells
ANS: A
Clinical manifestations of Hodgkin’s disease include A. weight loss. B. pruritus. C. swollen, painless lymph nodes. D. all of the above
ANS: D
Blood formation occurs primarily in the A. plasma B. bone marrow. C. hemoglobin. D. none of the above
ANS: B
The most common anemia worldwide is A. pernicious anemia. B. iron deficiency anemia. C. aplastic anemia. D. sickle cell anemia
ANS: B
Which of the following statements about polycythemia vera is true?
A. Polycythemia vera is a disease in which too few blood cells are produced.
B. It is a common disease.
C. Polycythemia vera occurs most frequently in women.
D. It is a rare disease.
ANS: D
Another name for white blood cells is A. erythrocytes. B. thrombocytes. C. leukocytes. D. plasmin
ANS: C
The immune system destroys its own platelets in
A. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP).
B. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C. hemophilia A.
D. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP
ANS: D
There are a number of causes of anemias, but a common clinical manifestation is A. weight gain. B. weakness. C. bradycardia. D. bone pain.
ANS: B
Anemia is diagnosed in females when hematocrit is less than A. 37% B. 50% C. 75% D. 93%
ANS: A
The liquid protein component of blood is the A. plasma. B. red blood cells. C. leukocytes D. stem cells
ANS: A
Coagulation is controlled by A. thrombocytes. B. hematopoiesis. C. clotting factors. D. both A and C, above
ANS: D
Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the A. plasma cells. B. neutrophils. C. thromboplastin. D. all of the above
ANS: A
A lack of enough erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets is referred to as A. leukemia B. pancytopenia. C. neutropenia. D. anemia
ANS: B
Hematocrit refers to how much of the blood volume is occupied by A. thrombocytes. B. neutrophils. C. erythrocytes. D. leukocytes
ANS: C
Lymphedema can be caused by A. surgery. B. radiation. C. cancer. D. all of the above
ANS: D
Risk factors for hypertension include A. race. B. being overweight or obese. C. tobacco use. D. all of the above
ANS: D
Which statement is true about dysrhythmias?
A. Dysrhythmias are another term for sinus rhythm.
B. Some can cause sudden death.
C. Dysthythmias are caused by the domination of electrical impulses that originate in the SA node.
D. Both A and B, above
ANS: B
The initial treatment of a myocardial infraction is A. morphine. B. oxygen. C. nitroglycerin. D. all of the above
ANS: D
Which statement is true about myocardial infarction (MI)?
A. While an MI is severe, a heart attack can be worse.
B. Sometimes there are no symptoms.
C. If a patient survives an MI, it is vital to avoid future physical activity.
D. None of the above
ANS: B
Venous return reduces because of external volume losses in: A. hypovolemic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. distributive shock. D. neurogenic shock
ANS: A
When a weakened area of an arterial wall balloons outward, this is known as A. atherosclerosis. B. automaticity. C. aneurysm. D. dromotopic
ANS: C
A cause of sinusitis is: A. viral infection. B. bacterial infection. C. fungal infection D. all of the above
ANS: D
The common cold is a(n)
A. less serious infection than infectious rhinitis.
B. lower respiratory infection.
C. upper respiratory infection.
D. infection caused exclusively by coronavirus.
ANS: C
Which of the following is a patchy pneumonia throughout several lobes? A. Lobar pneumonia B. Bronchopneumonia C. Interstitial pneumonia D. None of the above
ANS: B
Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of lung cancer?A. Hoarseness
B. Dyspnea
C. Weight gain
D. Fatigue
ANS: C
Intermittent, reversible airway obstruction is produced by:
A. asthma.
B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
C. emphysema.
D. atelectasis
ANS: A
Incomplete alveolar expansion or collapse of the alveoli is known as A. atelectasis. B. asthma. C. infectious rhinitis. D. pleurisy
ANS: A
Tuberculosis treatment requires an average of A. 2 weeks. B. 3 months. C. 6 to 9 months. D. 15 months
ANS: C
Edema refers to A. fluid excess. B. fluid deficit. C. dehydration. D. hypovolemia
ANS: A
Which of the following statements is true about renal calculi?
A. Renal calculi can be as large as a golf ball.
B. Only males get renal calculi.
C. Renal calculi are much more likely to cause obstruction than kidney stones.
D. They are likely to coincide with gallstones.
ANS: A
Brain injury, spina bifida, and nervous system tumors might be expected to lead to: A. neurogenic bladder. B. polycystic kidney disease (PKD). C. Wilms’ tumor. D. none of the above
ANS: A
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for urinary incontinence? A. Advancing age B. Smoking C. Male gender D. Excess weigh
ANS: C
The final phase of chronic renal failure (CRF) is A. renal impairment. B. renal insufficiency. C. end-stage renal disease. D. the diuretic phase.
ANS: C
Among men, the most common cancer is A. prostate cancer. B. penile cancer. C. testicular cancer. D. breast cancer
ANS: A
Which disease is the most commonly reported STI to the CDC? A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. Syphilis D. Prostatitis
ANS: A
A dilated vein in the spermatic cord is known as A. varicocele. B. testicular torsion. C. spermatocele. D. hydrocele
ANS: A
A cyst that contains sperm and that develops between the testis and epididymis is a(n) A. spermatocele. B. cystocele. C. leiomyoma. D. ampulla
ANS: A
A strong, unproductive effort to vomit is called A. nausea. B. retching. C. emesis. D. all of the above
ANS: B
Crohn’s disease is a type of A. ulcerative colitis. B. inflammatory bowel disease. C. irritable bowel syndrome. D. diverticular disease
ANS: B
The most common chronic cause of pancreatitis is A. alcohol abuse. B. cholelithiasis. C. metabolic disorders D. pancreatic tumors
ANS: A
An autoimmune condition that stimulates thyroid hormone production is A. hyperthyroidism. B. Graves’ disease. C. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis D. hypoparathyroidism
ANS: B
In diabetes mellitus, increased appetite because of energy loss as glucose is excreted is A. polyuria. B. polyphagia. C. glucosuria. D. polydipsia
ANS: B
Glucagon is secreted in the pancreas by A. alpha cells. B. beta cells. C. delta cells. D. PP cells
ANS: A
Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the A. pituitary gland. B. adrenal gland. C. thyroid gland. D. parathyroid gland
ANS: A
Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of hypothyroidism? A. Fatigue B. Unexplained weight gain C. Increased sensitivity to cold D. Exophthalmos
ANS: D
Increased renal water retention caused by excessive antidiuretic hormone levels is referred to as
A. hyperprolactinemia.
B. acromegaly.
C. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
D. Cushing’s syndrome.
ANS: C
The pituitary gland is regulated by A. hypothalamus. B. gonads. C. thyroid. D. all of the above
ANS: A
The combination of hyperglycemia, high blood pressure, hypercholesterolemia, and increased weight circumference is known as A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. B. metabolic syndrome. C. Graves’ disease. D. thyrotoxicosis
ANS: B
Another name for cerebral vascular accident is A. countercoup. B. epilepsy. C. coup. D. stroke
ANS: D
Body temperature, respiration, and heartbeat are controlled by the A. hypothalamus. B. cerebellum. C. brain stem. D. basal nuclei
ANS: A
During the postictal period, the person having a generalized seizure may A. be confused. B. be fatigued. C. fall into a deep sleep. D. all of the above
ANS: D
When does a countercoup injury occur?
A. When there is a simple crack in the skull
B. When the brain strikes one side of the skull and then rebounds, causing another area of damage
C. When there are several fracture lines.
D. When brain tissue is exposed
ANS: B
In a depressed skull fracture,
A. bone fragments are displaced into the brain.
B. brain tissue is exposed.
C. the base of the skull is fractured and usually CSF leaks.
D. all of the above
ANS: A
Tonic seizures cause:
A. repeated jerking movements of muscles on both sides of the body.
B. stiffening of muscles of the body, especially those in the back and extremities.
C. a loss of normal muscle tone.
D. jerks or twitches of the upper body, arms, or legs
ANS: B
An epidural hematoma occurs:
A. none of the above
B. beneath the dura but outside the brain.
C. within the substance of the brain tissue.
D. outside the dura and under the skull.
ANS: D
When Rickets occurs in adults it is called A. Paget’s disease. B. osteopenia. C. osteomalacia. D. kyphosis
ANS: C
The type of fracture that results when the skin is broken is a(n )A. open fracture. B. complete fracture. C. oblique fracture. D. comminuted fracture
ANS: A
Which of the following statement is true about arthritis?
A. Cracking your joints causes arthritis.
B. Being double-jointed increases your risk for arthritis.
C. Vaccinations can cause arthritis.
D. None of the above
ANS: D
An inflammatory disease resulting from deposits of uric acid crystals is called A. rheumatoid arthritis B. ankylosing spondylitis. C. gout D. osteoarthritis
ANS: C
Which of the following statements is true about fibromyalgia?
A. Fibromyalgia is an autoimmune disease.
B. The symptoms of fibromyalgia are caused by depression.
C. Fibromyalgia is a psychologic problem.
D. None of the above
ANS: D
Which of the following might be a treatment strategy for rheumatoid arthritis? A. Physical therapy B. Regular exercise C. NSAIDs D. All of the above
ANS: D
The “blood cell factory” is A. yellow marrow. B. periosteum. C. red marrow. D. the synovial joints
ANS: C
Direct exposure to an irritant or allergen-producing substance causes A. urticaria. B. contact dermatitis C. psoriasis. D. cellulitis
ANS: B
Herpes simplex (HSV) type 1 is transmitted by contact with A. a parasite. B. a fungus. C. infected saliva. D. all of the above
ANS: C
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of burns? A. Hyperthemia B. Sepsis C. Shock D. Hypovolemia
ANS: A
Somatic pain is:
A. the result of noxious stimuli to internal organs.
B. pain sensed at locations distant from the originating organ.
C. chronically progressing pain.
D. the result of noxious stimuli to the skin, joints, muscles, and tendons.
ANS: D
An inflammation of the cornea is: A. conjunctivitis. B. keratitis. C. glaucoma. D. all of the above
ANS: B
Define Humoral Mediated (B cell) (or antibody-mediated immunity).
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 1: First step is activation phase where macrophages engulf some foreign invader and present the antigens on their surface.
Step 2: T-helper cells recognize and bind to the displayed antigens.;
Step 3: Called the effector phase, activated Th cells trigger specific B-cells to proliferate and release antibodies.
Fill in the blank.
Agglutination makes pathogens ____ _______.
Clump together
Fill in the blank.
Antitoxins ______ the toxins produced by bacteria.
neutralizes
Fill in the blank.
_____ digests the bacterial membrane, killing the bacterium.
Lysis
Fill in the blank.
_______ coats the pathogen in protein that identifies them as foreign cells.
Opsonization
What role do the cytotoxic (killer) T cells have in cell-mediated (T cell) immunity?
Attacks body cells that have been infected by virus, bacteria or fungus
Name all 3 phases of wound healing.
- Inflammatory phase
- Proliferation phase
- Maturation and remodelling phase
What is the most common cause of traumatic brain injuries?
Motor vehicle crashes and falls.
An individual has primary hypertension and recurrent strokes. Which drug should the nurse prepare to administer? A. Aldosterone agonists B. Beta activators C. ACE inhibitors D. Osmotic diuretics
ANS: C
A person with an MI is releasing angiotensin II. How should the nurse interpret this finding? Releasing angiotensin II is:
a. beneficial; it helps the heart pump effectively.
b. counterproductive; it causes the heart to work harder.
c. beneficial; it decreases the release of catecholamines.
d. counterproductive; it causes myocardial stunning.
ANS: B
