Patho Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Sickle cell anemia is a(n) ____ [genetic inheritence] disorder where there is an abnormality in ___. People of what descent are most likely to have it?

A

Sickle cell = AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE, Abnormality in HEMOGLOBIN. Common in patients decendent from Sub-Saharan Africa, India, Saudia Arabia, Mediterranean countries.

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2
Q

In sickle cell anemia, the RBC changes shape from __ to __ after they are ___. This leads to ___.

A

Sickle cell = RBC changes from BICONCAVE DISC to SICKLE CELL after it is DEOXYGENATED. Leads to VASO-OCCLUSION

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3
Q

What physiologic stressors can cause a sickle cell crisis/episode?

A
  • Viral/bacterial infection
  • Hypoxia
  • Dehydration
  • Extreme temperatures
  • EtOH
  • Fatigue
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4
Q

What are symptoms of a sickle cell episode/crisis?

A
  • Pain
  • Bone & Joint involvement
  • Vascular complications
  • Pulmonary issues
  • Neurologic issues
  • Renal and spleen complications –> pain
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5
Q

A pt with sickle cell anemia would likely present with high or low values of the following: Hgb, Hct, WBC

A

Hgb - LOW
Hct - LOW
WBC - HIGH

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6
Q

In polycythemia vera, we see [increased/decreased] RBC.
In primary Polycythemia vera, the RBC change is due to an abnormality in __. In secondary, it is caused by natural or artificial increases in the production of __ that results in increased production of ___ generally caused by ___.

A

In polycythemia vera, we see INCREASED RBC.
In primary Polycythemia vera, the RBC change is due to an abnormality in BONE MARROW. In secondary, it is caused by natural or artificial increases in the production of ERYTHROPOEITIN that results in increased production of ERYTHROCYTES generally caused by PROLONGED HYPOXIA SECONDARY TO ALTITUDE OR OBSTRUCTIVE LUNG DISORDERS. Renal disorders are also associated with inappropriate erythropoeitin production

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7
Q

General signs and symptoms of RBC disorders include…

A

Low RBC

  • Fatigue
  • SOB
  • Decreased distal sensation

High RBC

  • Increased hematocrit
  • Headache or dizziness
  • Clubbing of fingers
  • Weight loss
  • High blood pressure
  • Easy bruising
  • Peripheral neuropathies due to blocking of distal capillaries
  • Gout (sometimes a complication)
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8
Q

What are clinical manifestations of leukemia?

A
Anemia
Infection
Bleeding
Fever
Weight loss
Fatigue
Bone marrow suppression
Lymph node and spleen enlargement
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9
Q

In leukemia, we might see low (aka ___) or high (aka ___) WBC. Describe the patient risks with each

A

Low WBC = Leukopenia

  • Increased risk of catching an infection with low WBC count (neutropenia)
  • Increased precautions that are facility dependent

High WBC = Leukocytosis

  • Dehydration
  • Tachycardia
  • Mental Status changes
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10
Q

___ is a decreased number of platelets in the blood. ___ is an increased number of platelets in blood.

A

Decreased # platelets = Thrombocytopenia

Increased # platelets = Thrombocytosis or Thrombocythemia

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11
Q

What causes platelet dysfunction?

A

Congenital or caused by drugs

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12
Q

___ is a plasma clotting protein abnormality resulting from a deficiency in Factor __ or __.

A

HEMOPHILIA is a plasma clotting protein abnormality. Deficiency of Factor VIII or IX

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13
Q

Adverse clinical presentations associated with hemophilia include…

A
  • Hemoarthrosis (bleeding into joints with subsequent contractures)
  • Bleeding into muscle tissue
  • Retroperitoneal bleeding
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14
Q

Describe acute vs. chronic leukemias (in terms of naming conventions)

A

Acute = rapid increase in immature cells, generally seen in children and young adults

Chronic = Build-up of relatively mature but abnormal cells, generally seen in older adults

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15
Q
Leukemia naming conventions:
Lympho- = 
Myelo- = 
-blastic =
-cytic =
A
Lympho- = Involves lymphoid or lymphatic system
Myelo- = Bone marrow involving hematopetic stem cells
-blastic = Large, immature cells
-cytic = Mature, smaller cells
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16
Q

Describe the difference between hemophilia and thrombocytopenia

A

Hemophilia = platelets could be normal, but you’re missing a factor in the clotting cascade, thereby putting you at risk for bleeding

Thrombocytopenia = low platelets, and therefore at risk for bleeding

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17
Q

What data is displayed on a cardiac monitor?

A
BP (plus a # in parentheses = Mean arterial Pressure)
PA (pulmonary artery)
CVP (central venous pressure)
A-line (arterial line)
SpO2
Respiratory Rate

Other data:

  • PWP: pulmonary wedge pressure
  • CO: cardiac output
  • CI: cardiac index
  • SVR: systemic vascular resistance
  • PVR: pulmonary vascular resistance
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18
Q

A ___ is used to deliver medications or fluids. It is frequently called a __ as it used to be flushed by heparin. An air filter on the IV tubing for PFO is used to decrease the risk of __

A

PERIPHERAL IV

  • Frequently called a HEP LOCK
  • Air filter decreases risk of AIR BUBBLES
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19
Q

A chest tube includes any tube placed into the chest. It acts to drain ___ in order to ___. How is the tube secured?

A

Chest tube drains BLOOD, FLUID, or AIR to REXPAND the LUNG. Tube is STITCHED into place and often placed to wall suction to facilitate drainage.

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20
Q

Patients [can/cannot] mobilize with a chest tube. It is crucial to keep the drainage container [above/below] insertion site - why? If there is bubbling in the container, what might it indicate? If the chest tube pulls out, what do you do?

A

Patients CAN mobilize with a chest tube. It is crucial to keep the drainage container BELOW insertion site because it drains by GRAVITY. If there is bubbling in the container, it might indicate an AIRLEAK or a PNEUMOTHORAX, or in other systems may just indicate that the Chest tube is attached to SUCTION. If the chest tube pulls out, APPLY PRESSURE OVER SITE and TELL NURSE. If the chest tube is on wall suction, it needs a portable suction setup to mobilize pt.

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21
Q

A pigtail catheter is placed in the __ or __ to ___. It has a [curved/straight] end to prevent ___ during insertion and a __ to allow controlled drainage. How does this impact PT?

A

A pigtail catheter is placed in the HEART or LUNG to DRAIN FLUID COLLECTIONS (e.g. tamponade or pericardial effusion, pleural effusion, etc.). It has a CURVED end to prevent PUNCTURE during insertion and a STOPCOCK to allow controlled drainage.

PT impact: consider the pathology requiring the pigtail (is it in heart or lung?) as it may impact cardiac output, ventilation, or gas exchange.

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22
Q

___ promote LE circulation via air pumping through boots. They reduce the risk for __ in immobile populations. You should [keep them on/remove them] for PT mobility. What patients might you not want to use these with?

A

VENODYNE BOOTS

Reduce risk fro DVT in immobile patients.

REMOVE them for mobility

In confused patients, may want to NOT use them as a DVT prevention in order to reduce fall risk. Also if patient is very edematous, these may cause pitting edema, so consider alternate compression therapy

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23
Q

Hemodialysis is a method for removing ___ from blood for patients in __ failure. Physicians surgically ananstamose the __ and ___ systems via a graft under the skin, allowing for indirect access to the [arterial/venous] system via a ___ or ___. This generally occurs for ___ (duration), ___ (Frequency).

PT implication: don’t do…?

A

Hemodialysis is a method for removing WASTE PRDUCTS from blood for patients in RENAL failure. Physicians surgically ananstamose the ARTERIAL and VENOUS systems via a graft under the skin, allowing for indirect access to the VENOUS system via a CENTRAL LINE or ARTERIOVENOUS FISTULA. This generally occurs for 3-4 HRS (duration), EVERY OTHER DAY (Frequency).

PT implication: DO NOT TAKE BP ON THIS SIDE!

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24
Q

Similar to hemodialysis, ___ removes waste products continuously to eliminate large fluid shifts. PT treatment in these pts depends on __ and the location of the ___

A

Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)

PT depends on MEDICAL STABILITY and the LOCATION OF THE LINE…if those are good, then you can mobilize

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25
Q

In a person on (esp. in one new to) dialysis, monitor for ___ response to activity. In a pre-dialysis patient, you’re likely to see [increased/decreased] BP due to [increased/decreased] blood volume. In a post-dialysis patient, you’re likely to see [increased/decreased] BP due to [increased/decreased] blood volume.

A

Monitor for HEMODYNAMIC response to activity.

Pre dialysis: INCREASED BP due to INCREASED blood volume

Post dialysis: DECREASED BP due to DECREASED BV

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26
Q

How does a VAC dressing work? Its goals are to… (3!)

A

System provides NEGATIVE PRESSURE (intermittent or continuous settings) to wound to approximate wound edges.

Goals:

  • decrease edema
  • increase perfusion
  • promote granulation tissue formation
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27
Q

Patient has a VAC dressing. What do we do as PTs?

  • Keep it attached?
  • Can you disconnect it?
  • Mobilize pt?
A

BEST to keep VAC attached to pt to promote healing

  • most units have a battery back-up to allow for mobility
  • if it needs to come off, get a nurse or an MD who is TRAINED to do it (it will likely require MD orders)

BUT consider implications of mobility on the wound: if it’s a weight bearing surface, if there would be strong tensile forces through the wound if it’s near a joint, etc.

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28
Q

What is a PICC line? What is it used for? What vein is it generally placed in? Where does the tip advance to?

A

PICC line = Peripherally inserted central catheter

  • Used for extended antibiotics or medications, chemotherapy, or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
  • Usually placed in CEPHALIC, BASILIC, or BRACHIAL vein. The tip advances through large veins until it rests in SUPERIOR VENA CAVA or CAVO-ATRIAL JUNCTION (R atrium)
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29
Q

Potential complications of a PICC line

A
Catheter occlusion
Phlebitis
Hemorrhage
Thrombosis (remove with lytic agents)
Infection

*If tip of catheter advances too far into RA, it can cause arrythmias due to irritation of SA node

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30
Q

What are the PT implications when you see a PICC line? Why would you avoid taking BP over a PICC line? Can you exercise this arm?

A

Trace all IVs to origin and avoid pulling them out. Duh.

By taking BP over the PICC line, you could cause the tube to move and this could cause PHLEBITIS

You CAN exercise this arm!!

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31
Q

What are your options for surgical drains? How do they work? Do they impact PT treatment?

A

Tube placed in surgical/infection site to drain fluid. Many operate via a suction mechanism. Not much impact on PT treatment.

Options:

  • Jackson-Pratt (JP) = Blake = Bulb Drain
  • Hemovac
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32
Q

Options for auxillary feeding include ___, ___, and ___. Describe how each works and where the tubes go.

A

*In all of these, the stomach is working and pt CAN digest food!

Nasogastric tube (NG Tube)
- Tube placed through NARES and ESOPHAGUS into stomach

Gastric Feeding Tube (G-Tube) or Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy Tube (PEG)
- Tube placed THROUGH ABDOMEN directly into STOMACH

J-Tube

  • Placed through abdomen into 1st part of JEJUNUM
  • This is more of a permanent solution to feeding
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33
Q

When a patient is being fed via an auxillary feeding source, what do you need to consider if you must disconnect the feeding tube?
What to consider when mobilizing? When positioning?

A

Consider implications if pt has DM or labile blood sugars. Insulin dosing is based around how many calories they’re getting, so may lead to HYPOGLYCEMIA

When mobilizing, SECURE the tube to prevent sheering or friction at insertion site and to decrease infection risk

Consider aspiration risk when positioning

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34
Q

What is a Foley Catheter?

What do you do if it’s full?

A
  • Tube placed in bladder to drain urine
  • Drains by GRAVITY: place it LOW when working with pt to promote drainage
  • If it’s full, have a caregiver empty it to prevent extra pulling
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35
Q

Diabetes is predicted to become the __th leading cause of death by the year __

A

7th leading cause of death by 2030

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36
Q

Cardiovascular disease is responsible for __% of deaths in pts with diabetes. What % of pts with diabetes have CVD?

A

CVD = 50-80% of diabetes deaths

20-25% of pts with diabetes have CVD

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37
Q

Diabetes is the leading cause of __, __, and __ failure

A

Blindness, amputation, kidney failure

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38
Q

Describe symptoms of DM1 vs DM2

A

DM1

  • Frequent urination
  • Unusual thirst
  • Extreme hunger
  • Unusual weight loss
  • Extreme fatigue and irritability
  • Accelerated atherosclerosis, decreased lifespan

DM2

  • ANY of the type 1 symptoms
  • Frequent infections
  • Blurred vision
  • Cuts/bruises that are slow to heal
  • Tingling/numbness in hands/feet
  • Recurring skin, gum or bladder infections
  • Assoc highly with obesity
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39
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed? Provide normal and diagnostic values for lab tests.

A

HgA1c:
Diabetes =/> 6.5%
(normal 126 mg/dL
(normal 8 hours

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test:
2 hour plasma glucose > 200mg/dL
(normal <140 mg/dL)

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40
Q

Describe the Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

A

A baseline blood sample is drawn (time = 0). Pt is given measured dose of glucose solution to drink within a 5 min time frame. Blood is drawn at intervals to measure glucose (blood sugar) and sometimes insulin levels. The 2 hour sample is the most important one for simple diabetes test

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41
Q

Type 1 diabetes involves ___ destruction with a lack of ___. Type 2 diabetes involves ___ resistance with ___ deficiency. Gestational diabetes is generally a combination of __ resistance with ___ dysfunction, and generally peaks around ___ and goes away ___ (when?)

A

Type 1: BETA CELL distruction with LACK OF insulin

Type 2: INSULIN resistance with INSULIN deficiency

Gestational: COMBO of INSULIN resistance and BETA CELL DYSFUNCTION. Generally goes away when BABY IS BORN or turns into DM2. Peak onset is in 5th or 6th month

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42
Q

DM1 involves ___ destruction of ____ in the ____. What do these cells produce? Who is prone to DM1? What envirnmental factors may be involved? What are protective factors?

A

DM1: AUTOIMMUNE destruction of INSULIN PRODUCING BETA CELLS IN THE ISLETS OF LANGERHANS

Pts are likely genetically susceptible (but only about 33% contribution of genetics) and exposed ot environmental triggers:

  • Maternal age >25
  • Preeclampsia (dangeriously high BP during pregnancy)
  • Neonatal respiratory dz
  • Jaundice, especially due to ABO group incompatibilty

Protective factors: low birth weight, short birth length; viruses

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43
Q

DM2 accounts for __% of diabetes worldwide. It is __-__x more prevalent in people descendent from what? What should be emphasized clinically to prevent it? What are independent risk factors for DM2?

A
  • DM2 = 90% of DM worldwide
  • 2-6x more prevalent in African Americans, Native Americans, Pima Indians, and Hispanic Americans in US than in whites
  • Focus on diet, weight loss, activity level, and smoking sessation
  • Decreased insulin secretion and insulin resistance (decreased sensitivity to insulin in metabolic tissues [liver, skeletal muscle, adipose] results in insufficient insulin usage)
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44
Q

In DM2, ___ can impair beta cell fxn and exacerbate ___. This makes it difficult to tell how bad the ___ is. In short, we see [increased/decreased] insulin secretion in response to __ exposure. ___ do not adequately respond to blood glucose levels. Increased release of __ from the liver coupled with suppression of ___ by ___ results in [decreased/increased] glucose. Finally, __ receptors in the liver, skeletal muscle, and adipose are unresponsive (unable or resistant to using __).

A

In DM2, HYPERGLYCEMIA can impair beta cell fxn and exacerbate INSULIN RESISTANCE. This makes it difficult to tell how bad the HYPERGLYCEMIA is. In short, we see DECREASED insulin secretion in response to GLUCOSE exposure. BETA CELLS do not adequately respond to blood glucose levels. Increased release of GLYCOGEN from the liver coupled with suppression of INSULIN by GLUCAGON results in INCREASED glucose. Finally, INSULIN receptors in the liver, skeletal muscle, and adipose are unresponsive (unable or resistant to using INSULIN).

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45
Q

How does obesity play into DM2?

A

Obesity increases insulin resistance by releasing FREE FATTY ACIDS and CYTOKINES from adipose cells which disrupt insulin receptors on the target cell plasma membrane and prohibit insulin from facilitating the entry of glucose into the liver, muscle, and adipose tissue

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46
Q

What other body systems should be considered in DM treatment?

A
  • Cardiovascular (microvascular and macrovascular disesase)
  • Integumentary (skin checks)
  • Musculoskeletal
  • Sensory (neurologic)
  • Visual (retinopathy)
  • Renal
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47
Q

In ___, glucose binding to collagen and proteins in blood vessel walls (glycosylation) causes hardening and thickening of the ___. This leads to obstruction or rupture of the capillaries, which leads to necrosis and loss of function in tissues being supplied.

A

MICROVASCULAR DISEASE: glycosylation (glucose binding to proteins and collagen in vessel walls) results in hardening/thickening of BASEMENT MEMBRANE

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48
Q

In macrovascular disease, higher concentrations of __ in patients with DM lead to accelerated ___.

A

Macrovascular disease: higher LDL concentrations –> accelerated ATHEROSCLEROSIS

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49
Q

What is the protective sensation cutoff? Why is this important in DM?

A

Protective sensation = 10g of pressure, assessed via Semmes-Weinstein Monofilaments (5.07 monofilament). In peripheral neuropathy associated with DM, more uncontrolled blood sugar = worse risk for neuropathy. Daily skin checks are necessary to ensure no wounds

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50
Q

Wound healing in DM is complicated by __ and/or __

A

Peripheral artery disease

Venous stasis

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51
Q

___ from macro and microvascular disease leads to tissue ___, and subsequently poor delivery of __ and __.

A

ISCHEMIA from macro and microvasc. disease –> NECROSIS and poor delivery of O2 and nutrients

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52
Q

__ is pain in legs when DM patient is walking. Why does this occur? What makes it better?

A

CLAUDIFICATION. Happens b/c ischemia: blood supply can’t meet demand of peripheral muscles b/c pain. Goes away with REST b/c blood supply is restored

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53
Q

What is the relationship between peripheral artery disease and diabetic neuropathy?

A

Diabetes is frequently associated with PAD with atherosclerosis developing at a younger age in more distal arteries. Along with diabetic neuropathy, contributes to higher rates of non-healing ulcers and limb loss

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54
Q

Neuropathy associated with diabetes affects __, __, and __ nerves.

A

Neuropathy assoc. with diabetes affects SENSORY, MOTOR, and AUTONOMIC nn.

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55
Q

Labile blood sugars can also make DM patients prone to __. Describe the effect on WBC.

A

Labile blood sugars make pts more prone to IMMUNOSUPPRESSION. WBC are impaired without adequate glucose support and are unable to engulf and remove pathogens. Increased glucose also provides an optimal environment for some pathogens.

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56
Q

In DM, we also see impaired __ healing and poor quality __ tissue and __ accumulation. Risk of amputation in DM is __-__x greater than in non-DM patients

A

DM: impaired BONE healing, poor quality GRANULATION tissue and COLLAGEN accumulation. Risk of DM amputation is 15-40x greater compared to non-DM pts.

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57
Q

What is silent ischemia DM? Denervation of what might contribute to this?

A

In diabetic patients, they may not have pain with ischemia (heart attack) due to reduced sensation.

AUTONOMIC DENERVATION contributes to abnormal/lack of sensation. Correlated with Circadian rhythms in setting of increased myocardial O2 demand at this time (happens in morning most often)

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58
Q

Why might we see hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia with exercise?

A

HYPOglycemia: due to decreased foot intake, rapid absorption of insulin @ injection site and exercising at peak insulin effect

HYPERglycemia: if there is an insulin deficit and hyperglycemia @ the onset of exercise, the muscle is unable to uptake insulin and the liver produces more glucose, thereby increasing the hyperglycemia

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59
Q

Blood vessel abnormalities occur in DM with atherosclerosis via damage to the ___ membrane. HTN is __x more likely in DM.

A

Blood vessel abnormalities due to Damage to BASEMENT CAPILLARY MEMBRANE

HTN 2x as likely in DM

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60
Q

In the presence of autonomic dysfunction in DM, resting HR is [elevated/decreased]. Pts tend to be [hypo/hyper]tensive with exercise and [hyper/hypo] tensive after exercise. In DM, we see a blunted __ response; these pts reach anerobic metabolism at [higher/lower] HRs.

A

In the presence of autonomic dysfunction in DM, resting HR is ELEVATED. Pts tend to be hypertensive with exercise and HYPOtensive after exercise. In DM, we see a blunted HR response; these pts reach anerobic metabolism at LOWER HRs.

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61
Q

Give normal plasma glucose levels for children, adults, and adults >60

A

Child: 60-100 mg/dL
Adult: 70-100 mg/dL
Adult >60: 80-110mg/dL

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62
Q

Give normal hemoglobin A1c levels

A

Normal: 4.0-6.0%
Good: 2.5-5.9%
Fair: 6.0-7.0%
Poor: >7.0%

63
Q

If you increase activity in someone in a hypoglycemic state, what will happen?

A

Activity requires glucose, so with low glucose levels, they will CONTINUE to decrease

64
Q

If you increase activity in someone in a hyperglycemic state, what will happen?

A

If BS is high, no insulin is available to assist with metabolism. If you exercise, you will INCREASE blood sugar levels and progress toward KETOACIDOSIS due to metabolism occurring with activity.

65
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) occurs with a [gradual/sudden] onset. Describe symptoms

A
DKA= GRADUAL onset
Thirst
Hyperventilation
FRUITY odor to breath
Lethargy/confusion
Coma
Muscle/abdominal cramps
Polyuria, dehydration
Flushed face, hot/dry skin
Elevated temperature
Blood glucose >300mg/dL
pH <7.3
66
Q

Hyperglycemic states occur via [gradual/sudden] onset. Describe symptoms

A
GRADUAL onset
Thirst
Polyuria
Volume loss
Severe dehydration
Lethargy/confusion
Seizures
Coma
Abdominal distention & pain
Blood glucose >300 mg/dL
67
Q

Hypoglycemic states occur via [sudden/gradual] onset. Describe symptoms.

A
SUDDEN onset
Pallor
Perspiration
Irritability/nervousness
Weakness
Hunger
Shakiness
Headache
Double/blurred vision
Slurred speech
Fatigue
Numbness of lips/tongue
Confusion
Convulsion/coma
Blood glucose <70 mg/dL
68
Q

What musculoskeletal pathologies are associated with DM at the hand/wrist?

A
  • Carpel tunnel (up to 20% DM pts, and 75% of pts if known joint impairments…due to CT changes with DM)
  • Dupuytren’s Contracture (16-42% of pts with DM; prevalence increases with age and length of DM, but NOT associated with metabolic control of DM)
  • Trigger Finger (5-20% pts with DM1 or 2; associated with length of time of DM. NOT associated with metabolic control of DM)
  • Diabetic sclerodactyly (thickening/waxiness of skin on dorsum of fingers)
  • Complex regional pain syndrome (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)
69
Q

What musculoskeletal pathologies are associated with DM at the shoulder?

A
  • Adhesive capsulitis (19-29% of pts with DM, 5% in controls. Increased age, longer duration of DM. NOT capsular pattern, but instead we see global tightness where limitations in ER=IR)
  • Calcific tendinitis (calcium deposits in tendon)
70
Q

What is Charcot’s foot?

A

Diabetic neuropathy arthropathy = Charcot’s foot

Loss of sensation & blood supply leads to repated trauma and joint destruction, stress fx, torn ligaments, and subluxation of tarsal and metatarsal joints. Risk for ulcers with abnormal WB. Custom shoes help to decrease WB. Fusion is an option too.

71
Q

Describe the time frames for fast, short, intermediate, and long-acting insulin

A

Fast: onset within 10-20mins, last 30-90mins

Short: onset within 30-60 mins, last 2-5 hrs

Intermediate: onset 1-2 hrs, last 4-12 hrs

Long: onset 30mins - 3 hrs (usually 1-2 hrs), peak at 10-20 hrs

72
Q

General areas on the body for insulin injection

A

Abdomen (front and sides), triceps, glut max, lateral quads

73
Q

If a patient has retinopathy secondary to DM, consider avoiding what exercise activities? Recommend what exercise types?

A

Consider avoiding:
Strenuous activities
Valsalva maneuver
Pounding/jarring activities

Recommend:
Low impact cardio
Swimming
Walking
Stationary bike
74
Q

If a pt has loss of protective sensation secondary to DM, regarding exercise, consider avoiding…
Recommend…

A
Consider avoiding:
Jogging
TM
Long distance walking
Step exercise

Recommend:
Swimming
Biking
Rowing

75
Q

A patient starts a vigorous exercise program between 9-10pm. Her blood glucose is 124 before dinner, 145 before racquetball, 138 before bedtime. She awakens at 2AM with a severe hypoglycemic reaction. Why did this occur?

A

Muscles deplete glycogen stores during exercise. For several hours post exercsie, they take up glucose to replenish glycogen stores, thereby lowering blood glucose level. To minimize the risk of hypoglycemia, she should reduce her dose of insulin before her evening meal and take a larger than usual bedtime snack.

76
Q

Most common complication with burns?

A

Pneumonia (6.1% of patients)

77
Q

What are criteria for referral to a burn center?

A
  1. Partial thickness burns >10% TBSA
  2. Burns involving face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, major joints
  3. Full thickness burns in any age group
  4. Electrical burns
  5. Chemical burns
  6. Inhalation injury
  7. Burn injury in patients with preexisting illness that affect care 8. Patient with burns & concomitant trauma (i.e. fractures)
  8. Children with burns in a hospital without qualified personnel or equipment to meet care needs
  9. Burn injury in a patient who will require special social, emotional, or rehabilitative intervention
78
Q

Functions of skin (6!)

A

Cosmetic appearance
Temp regulation (secretes sweat & electrolytes)
Vit D synthesis (needed for bone growth & calcium absorption)
Protection from infection
Skin lubrication via oil secretion
Sensation

79
Q

Which skin layer contains melanocytes?

A

Epidermis

80
Q

What is the region between the epidermis and dermis that consists of an extensive series of epidermal-dermal ridges & valleys to increase surface area, act as a reservoir, and overcomes frictional forces skin is exposed to?

A

Rete peg region

81
Q

The dermis is the deepest layer of skin and is __-__x thicker than the epidermis.
Role: __ and ___. It contains…
It has 2 layers…

A

Dermis is 20-30x thicker than epidermis. Role: strength & elasticity

Contains blood vessels, lymphatics, nerves, collagen, and elastic fibers. Sweat ducts, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles are enclosed here

2 layers: superficial papillary level (papillary ridges to increase SA between dermis and epidermis –> fingerprints), deep retinacular layer

82
Q

Causes of burn injury (Categories)

A

Thermal (flame, liquid, steam, hot object)
Chemical (contact, ingestion, inhalation, injection)
Electrical (contact w/wiring, lines, lightning)
Radiation (exposure to radioactive source)

83
Q

The vast majority of burns are due to what type of injury?

A
44% flame/fire injury
33% scald injury (most prevalent in kids under 5yo)
9% contact with hot objects
4% electrical injury
3% chemical injury
84
Q

Severity of a burn depends on 4 factors

A

Temperature of source
Contact length of time
Thickness of the skin
Area of burn injury

85
Q

Why are older patients (>65yo) more susceptible to deeper burns?

A

After age 65, turnover rate of epidermis decreases by 50%, epidermis thins, rete peg region flattens, fewer epidermal-lined skin appendages are present, decrease in collagen content, decrease in vascularity

86
Q

What’s the Lund/Browder Classification? What is the Rule of Nines?

A

Lund/Browder: Estimate of burn size and depth. Helps to make a determination of severity, prognosis, and deposition of a patient.

Rule of Nines: divides body surface into areas that are 9% or multiples of 9%. Used for a quick estimate of total body surface area burned. Head = 9%, legs = 18%…these are different in kids b/c their proportions are different!

87
Q

Describe the 5 burn classifications

A
Superficial (1st deg)
Superficial Partial-Thickness (2nd deg)
Deep Partial-Thickness (2nd deg)
Full-Thickness (3rd deg)
Subdermal (3rd deg)
88
Q
Describe superficial burns.
Depth
Presentation
Pain
Healing time
A

Depth: Epidermis only
Presentation: Red, dry skin
Pain: Tender to touch
Healing time: </= 7 days, spontaneous

*Hair follicles and sweat glands remain in tact. Reepitheliazaiton occurs within 48h. BUT most burns take 24-48h to declare themselves b/c continued cellular destruction

89
Q
Describe superficial partial-thickness burns.
Depth
Presentation
Pain
Healing time
A

Depth: Epidermis & Partial dermis (papillary)
Presentation: Intact blisters, red, blanching to touch
Pain: Extremely painful
Healing time: </= 21 days

*Painful b/c irritation of nerve endings in dermis

90
Q
Describe deep partial-thickness burns.
Depth
Presentation
Pain
Healing time
A

Depth: Epidermis & dermis (papillary & reticular)
Presentation: Mixed red or waxy white, sluggish capillary refill, marked edema, hair follicle preservation
Pain: less intense (superficial nerve endings injured)
Healing time: </= 35 days

*Skin grafting is generally called for. Edema due to alteration of dermal vascular network which leaks plasma. Nerve endings, hair follicles, and sweat ducts injured BUT preservation of hair follicles and new hair growth indicates a deep partial thickness rather than a full thickness burn. Diminished sense of light touch but retained deep pressure due to location of Pacinian corpuscles deep in reticular dermis. Hypertrophic and keloid scars are common.

91
Q
Describe a full-thickness burn.
Depth
Presentation
Pain
Healing time
A

Depth: Epidermis & dermis, some subcutaneous fat
Presentation: hard, parchment-like eschar, black, deep red, white, hair follicles completely destroyed
Pain: None (nerve endings destroyed in area, but generally theres’ some partial/superficial burns adjacent that will be painful)
Healing time: REQUIRES SURGERY

92
Q

What is eschar?

A

Devitalized/dead tissue consisting of desiccated clot of plasma and necrotic cells. Feels dry, leathery, rigid.

93
Q
Describe a subdermal burn.
Depth
Presentation
Pain
Healing time
A

Depth: Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue
Presentation: necrosis of muscle and/or bone
Pain: None
Healing time: Requires EXTENSIVE surgery

*4th Degree burn. Extensive surgery and reconstruction if not amputation. This depth of burn is more frequent with electrical burns.

94
Q

Electrical burns follow the path of [greatest/least] resistance. Give that order in terms of tissue resistance

A
LEAST resistance
Nerves
Blood vessels
Muscle
Skin
Tendon
Fat
Bone
95
Q

As electricity travels through the body, electrical energy is converted into __ in direct proportion to the ___ and ___. High resistance in the victim’s body causes harm.

A

Electrical energy is converted into HEAT in direct proportion to the CURRENT and ELECTRICAL RESISTANCE

96
Q

Severity of injury is [directly/inversely] proportional to the cross-sectional area of the body part involved.

A

Severity is INVERSELY proportional to cross sectional area of involved body part. Most severe injuries seen at wrist and ankle. (more heat with less dissipation)

97
Q

Complications from electrical burns include…

A

Cardiac arrythmias including ventricular fibrulation, renal failure assoc with kidney shock, trauma

98
Q

In electrical burns, is the ENTRY or EXIT wound more significant?

A

EXIT wounds are more significant

99
Q

What are the vascular responses following cold injuries? Describe mechanisms for frostbite

A

Initial vascular response: vasoconstriction to protect from a drop in core temp, but this decreases skin temp. 2 mechanims cause tissue injury in frostbite:

  1. Drop to 35.6*F ice crystals form in extracellular spaces and then intracellular spaces. They result in expansion and mechanical destruction
  2. Cold induced vasoconstriction and direct endothelial injury occur initiating fibrin deposition, platelet aggregation, and release of local and systemic mediators. Thrombosis occurs and leads to further ischemia and propogation of this.

With thawing, there is increased capillary permeability and an aggregation of RBC and microvascular occlusion

100
Q

What does frostbite look like? What’s its average demarcation period?

A

White plaque, clear blisters, hemorrhagic blisters, or necrosis

~3wk demarcation period but could take months for necrotic appearing tissue to show improvement and survive. Surgical debridement is DELAYED with frostbite b/c tissue may really still be alive.

101
Q

Long term effects of frostbite?

A

Increased cold sensitivity, burning/tingling on reexposure to cold, increased sweating of affected area

102
Q

Describe the 3 burn wound zones

A

Zone of coagulation
- Cells irreversibly damaged, skin death, equal to full-thickness burn w/need for grafting to heal

Zone of stasis
- Injured cells that may die within 24-48h. Potential conversion of salvageable tissue into necrotic tissue, thereby enlarging zone of coagulation. Wound infection, drying, or inadequate perfusion will result in conversion (SO you can minimize damage with proper fluids/care)

Zone of hyperemia
- Site of minimal cell damage, tissue should recover with no lasting effects

103
Q

Describe escharotomy and fasciotomy.

Can you do PT?

A

Escharotomy
- Burn eschar is destroyed, nonelastic, and nonviable. If the injury is circumferential, inelasticity combined with edema produces tourniquet effect. Increased tissue pressures >30mmHg cause tissue necrosis, SO a surgical incision is made through eschar. If pulses return (assessed w/Doppler ultrasound), great! If not…

Fasciotomy
- No pulse return with escharotomy so they deepen incision through fascia to decrease pressure.

NO CONTRAINDICATION with exercise! You can still do ranges, exercise, etc. but watch where your hands are.

104
Q

What is the goal with skin grafting?

A

Resurface burns that are not expected to reepithelialize within 14-21 days. Must first remove all injured tissue (debridement)

105
Q

Describe the different types of skin grafts.

A

With non-permanent grafts (all but autograft), you can start ROM sooner.

Xenograft - pigskin, temporary coverage of closed wounds, does NOT vascularize but will adhere to a clean superficial wound. Pain control while wound heals

Allograft - CADAVER, biological dressing for TEMPORARY wound closure when autograft isn’t immediately available. Reduces water loss, prevents wound desiccation, reduces heat loss, suppresses microbial proliferation, stimulates neovascularization. Usually rejected by host within 3-4 wks

Skin substitute - artificial dermal matrix which encourages new groth of dermal matrix. Generally only used on LARGE body burns to prep dermal matrix to accept an autograph. You can still do ROM during skin substitute. TEMPORARY

Autograft - ONLY permanent graft. From person’s own skin, generally from buttocks, back, thighs. Heal by re-epitheliazation. If it takes, you can start ROM after 7-10 days.

106
Q

What’s a dermatome?

A

instrument used to remove skin graft from donor site. MD harvests it to a desired size and depth

107
Q

When taking a skin graft, describe the different thicknesses you can have and advantages of each.

A

Split-thickness: epidermis and superficial layers of dermis

Full-thickness: full dermal thickness, leaves a full-thickness wound that will require either primary closure or grafting with a split-thickness skin graft. Resembles normal skin more closely including texture, color, hair growth potential

Thinner graft = better adherence (but contracts more)
Thicker graft = better cosmetic result

108
Q

What are the advantages to a meshed versus sheet graft?

A

Mesh: limited donor site available, skin is hashed to let it expand to wound bed (up to 2-3x original size). The openings heal via reepitheliazation.
- Mesh contracts more than sheet, not as pretty cosmetically b/c hashes (AKA piecrust). These also help drainage. It does take better than a sheet graft.

Sheet graft: skin graft without alteration after it is harvested - face, neck, hands are covered with this so it’ll be pretty.

109
Q

Complications of burn injury (8)

A

Infection
- Leading cause of mortality from burns

Pulmonary
- inhalation injuries suspected with singed nasal hair, resp. distress, facial edema, hoarseness, etc.

Metabolic
- Incr. met. demands –>decr. body weight and decr. energy stores

Cardiovascular
- Shift in fluid to interstitum (out of blood vessels) –> decreased cardiac output

Neuropathy
- inappropriate splinting, ulnar n compression

Pathological scars
- contractures, hypertrophic scars

Delirium
- maybe b/c meds for burn treatment, but assoc with worse clinical outcomes and cognitive impairment

Heterotropic Ossification (abnormal bone growth around joint)

110
Q

What is heterotopic ossificans? What joints are most commonly affected?

A

HO: formation of organized bone. Painful, swelling, and warmth at joint. Can be made WORSE with aggressive ROM. Must be treated surgically. Assoc with TBSA >20%

Joints: elbow, shoulder, hip (in that order)

111
Q

The __ phase of burn treatment occurs 24-72h after injury. Ends when capillary integrity returns to near-normal and large fluid shifts have decreased (fluid balance).

A

EMERGENT/Resuscitation Phase

112
Q

In the emergent phase of burn treatment, PT goals are to ___.

A

PT: perform eval within 24-48h after admission. Minimize edema (develops 8-12h after injury), optimal positioning, initiate motion, maintain soft tissues in elongated state. Static orthoses may be used to counteract edema, support extremities. ROM in this phase is done to preserve ROM, muscle function.

113
Q

The ___ phase of burn treatment occurs 48-72h post injury and ends at ____. What are PT goals here?

A

Acute Phase. 48-72h post injury until wound closure.
- Wound closure defined as either surgical closure or secondary intention healing.

PT goals: preserve or increase ROM, preserve tendon gliding, maintain muscle activity, inhibit contraction, promote fxn

114
Q

The ___ phase of bone healing last from graft adherence or wound closure until scar maturation. PT goals are…

A

Rehabilitation phase

PT goals: protect new spontaneously healed wound or fragile graft. Preserve joint mobility, increase strength/fxn, inhibit scar contraction or hypertrophy

115
Q

PT positioning of burn patient begins in the ___ phase and continues through ___

A

PT positioning begins in EMERGENT phase and continues into acute and rehab phases. Contractures may be defined as shortening of soft tissues, incl skin, muscle, tendon, ligament, and fascia which may restrict full ROM. Longer burn stays open, the longer the inflammation process lasts. This results in progressive scar formation and restricted motion

116
Q

How do you position neck, shoulder, elbow, and hand after burn?

A

Neck: anterior neck burn should be placed in extension. Circumferential/ posterior/ asymmetrical neck burn should be placed in neutral toward extension. Do NOT use a pillow which would push head down and encourage neck burn contractures

Shoulder: abduct arm to 90-110*, supported on arm troughs

Elbow: keep in extension with </= 10* flexion as to not pressure ulnar n

Hand: thumb abducted with static orthosis (perpendic. to palm to increase function and grip upon recovery). Go for intrinisic + position: MP at 90*, IPs extended to decrease tension on joint capsules and protect ligament tension

117
Q

How do you position the hip, knee, and ankle after a burn?

A

Hip: extension, head of bed flat, use a trochanter roll to maintain neutral rotation

Knee: place in extension as to not result in a flexion contracture

Ankle: neutral, avoid inversion/eversion suspend heels to prevent ulcer. Ankle equinus (achilles shortening, gastroc soleus tightness) is frequent and can lead to contractures. Prevent by keeping foot in neutral or slightly dosiflexed

118
Q

Scar formation is related to…

A
Size of injury
Depth of injury
Location of burns (e.g. across a joint)
Time needed for complete wound closure
Timing of surgical intervention
Type of surgical intervention/graft
119
Q

What are the four characteristics of a burn scar?

A

Pigmentation
Fascularity
Pliability
Scar height

120
Q

Scars over [concave/convex] surfaces meet less resistance, allowing greater migration of scar and webbing. Give an example.

A

Scars over CONCAVE surfaces –> less resistance.

E.g. axillary contractures, flexion contractures in antecubital surface of elbow

121
Q

Describe the collagen in a hypertrophic scar

A

The extracellular matrix consists of more collagen, thinner collagen, and more disorganized collagen than in normal skin.

122
Q

Burn wounds healing >/= ___ days should be assessed for pressure garments. Recommended to wear garment for __-__h/day with pressure between __-__mmHg until scar maturation.

A

Burn wounds healing >/= 14 days should be assessed for pressure garment. Recommend to wear 18-24 h/day with pressure between 24-40mmHg until scar maturation

123
Q

When can you start to integrate scar massage after a burn? How long and how frequently do you do it?

A

Once scar has matured enough to tolerate sheering forces. It remodels and softens scar tissues by freeing fibrous bands and encourages elasticity thereby improving mobility. Massage in slow, firm manner for 5-10mins, 3-6x daily

124
Q

When can exercises be safely initiated following a burn injury?

A

First 48h! Remember that a graft needs ~7 days to heal (an autograph), but they won’t get a graft right away, so you can start exercise pre-graft! Do functional activities as SOON as pt is awake enough to participate. Similarly, ambulation can begin ASAP after admission if pt is medically stable. Reduces clot risk, prevents decubiti, maintains LE ROM, maintains strength/ endurance/ conditioning

125
Q

After a burn, edema forms within __ h and peaks at __ h

A

Edema within 8-12h, peaks at 36h

126
Q

Phases of emotional recovery post burn

A

Admission: shock, helplessness

Recuperation: in-hospital, difficulty adapting, grief

Reintegration (at discharge): anxiety, fear

Rehabilitation (post discharge): delayed grief, body image concerns, PTSD, wear on caregivers

127
Q

Variables affecting return to work/school post burn

A
Size, location, severity of burn
Pain
Duration of hospitalization
Physical impairment
Psychosocial difficulties
Prior employment
Environmental impediments
Lack of vocational training
128
Q
Give examples of the following as they relate to immunity:
Excessive responses
Inadequate responses
Inappropriate responses
Overwhelmed responses
A

Excessive - allergies
Inadequate - AIDS and cancer
Inappropriate - auto-immunity
Overwhelmed - septic shock

129
Q

What’s the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

A

Innate

  • 1st line of defense
  • Nonspecific, immediate, rapid

Adaptive

  • 2nd line of defense
  • Specific, slower
  • Targeted: more efficient and effective
  • Learned response
130
Q

Passive immunity is [long/short] lived and is [acquired/transferred}. Describe examples.

A

Passive immunity is SHORT lived, lasts a few weeks or months and goes away. It is transferred, e.g. from maternal to fetus, or from an injection (hyperimmune or gamma globulin injections)

131
Q

Active immunity is [long/short] lived. It involves ___ cells. It is [acquired/transferred]

A

Active immunity is ACQUIRED (via immunization or disease), LONGER lived, and involves memory B CELLS and T CELLS. In active immunity, the body makes its own antibodies

132
Q

Define infectious disease. What is colonization? What is a host?

A

Infectious disease = presence and multiplication of a living organism on or within a host

Colonization: presence of microbes that are NOT harmful

Host: any organism capable of supporting the nutritional and physical growth requirements of another organism

133
Q

Infections are __ when the infectious agent can be transmitted directly or indirectly to a new host

A

COMMUNICABLE

134
Q

Describe the chain of infection (6 phases)

A
Causative agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
135
Q

Causative agents include…(5)

A
  • Bacteria (generally not pathogens; unicellular, no nucleus)
  • Viruses (TINY particles, need a host to reproduce, not quite a life form)
  • Fungi (usually harmless unless the host is compromised, eg CA or HIV. Not a plant or an animal)
  • Prions (protein particle that lacks a genetic code but replicates and produces disease. Most common in brain and –> neuro disorders)
  • Parasites (worms, protozoa, etc. Not as common as prions. Looks like little strokes on MRI b/c worm is eating your brain! Gross)
136
Q

A ___ is where a pathogen lives and multiplies such that it can be transmitted to a susceptible host. Examples include…

A

RESERVOIR.

Eg. patients, staff/visitors, soil (plants), raw/undercooked meat, water

137
Q

A ___ is how a causitive agent exits the reservoir including via body fluids and shedding of skin.

A

PORTAL of EXIT

138
Q

A ___ is how the microbe enters the host. Examples include…

A

Portal of ENTRY.
E.g. Maternal, respiratory, skin and mucus membrane, parenteral (ie via veins), enteral (ie via GI tract - eat something infected)

139
Q

What determines the susceptibility of a host?

A
  • Prior immunity
  • Disruption of natural barriers (e.g. skin wound)
  • Presence of invasive or prosthetic devices (e.g. PICC line, total knee replacement)
  • General immune status
140
Q

What factors can compromise the immune system?

A

Age (older = sick more easily)

  • Chronic dz
  • Medications (e.g. chemo, transplant meds, steroids)
  • Immunodeficiency (HIV, congenital disorders)
  • Immune compromised vs competent
  • —> Compromised: unable to work at full capacity
  • —-> Competent: able to produce normal immune response
141
Q

Describe the 5 steps in the course of infection

A

1) Incubation (active replication)
2) Prodrome (start of symptoms)
3) Acute phase (max disease)
4) Convalescence (recovery & containment)
5) Resolution

142
Q

When do you use hand hygiene?

A

ALWAYS! Duh.

  • Before pt contact
  • After contact with patient’s skin, contact with bodily fluids/excretions, intact skin, wound dressings
  • After removing glvoes
143
Q

Use soap and water when…

A
  • Hands are visibly dirty, contaminated, soiled
  • After using bathroom
  • Before eating
  • Pt with c-diff, anthrax, ebola

Wet hands with water, soap, rub for at least 15s. Rinse and dry with disposable towel.

144
Q

Use an alcohol-based hand rub when…

A

Hands are NOT visibly soiled

- Apply to palm of one hand, rub until dry. Volume is based on manufacturer

145
Q

With ___ precautions, pathogens can spread through enviornmental contamination. E.g. = MRSA, norovirus, vancomycin resistant enterocccus. You should wear ___ for pt interactions.

A

CONTACT precautions spread through enviornmental contamination

Gown + gloves. Take them off after you exit. Pts in one room or cohorted together

146
Q

With ___ precautions, we see a nosocomial infection that occurs due to antibiotic exposure. This is prevalent in acute care hospitals and LTAC. E.g. c-diff.
You should wear…
You should wash your hands with…
You should clean your equipment with…

A

Contact Plus

Gloves + gown
Wash with SOAP AND WATER then use ALCOHOL BASED rub
Clean equipment wtih BLEACH (not virex!)

147
Q

With __ precautions, pathogens can be transmitted and remain infectious over long distances while suspended in the air. Eg. TB and chicken pox. These pts are in a __ room. You should wear ___. Pts should wear __ when leaving th eroom.

A

AIRBORNE

Negative pressure room is used
You should wear a N95 mask or respirator donned BEFORE entering room
Pt should wear surgical mask when leaving room

148
Q

With __ precautions, pathogens are spread through close (

A

DROPLET

Single patient room
You should wear a MASK (respirator is not necessary)
Pt should wear a respirator mask if tolerated outside of room

149
Q

Normal WBC values

A

4,500-11,000 cell/mm3

150
Q

Normal RBC values

A

Male: 4.5-5.3 x10^6 /mm3
Female: 4.1-5.1 x10^6 /mm3

151
Q

Normal Hgb values

A

Male: 13-18 g/dL
Female: 12-16 g/dL

152
Q

Normal Hct values

A

Male: 37-49%
Female: 36-46%

153
Q

Normal Plt values

A

150,000 - 450,000 cells/mm3