patho exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What is innate immunity?
A
Non-specific immune response that acts before exposure to pathogens
Innate immunity includes mechanical and biochemical barriers.
2
Q
What constitutes the first line of defense in the immune system?
A
Physical/mechanical barriers such as skin and mucous membranes
Includes flushing out of bacteria from the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts.
3
Q
What triggers inflammation?
A
Pathogens, injuries, environmental factors
These triggers initiate the inflammatory response to protect the body.
4
Q
What are the main cells involved in inflammation?
A
- Mast cells
- Phagocytes
- Neutrophils
- Macrophages
- Specialized lymphocytes
- Natural killer cells
- Plasma protein systems
Each cell plays a distinct role in the inflammatory process.
5
Q
What is the main goal of inflammation?
A
Prevent infection, decrease tissue injury, prepare for healing.
6
Q
What is vasodilation and what triggers it?
A
Increase in blood flow to an area triggered by histamine release
Results in redness and warmth in the inflamed area.
7
Q
What role do neutrophils play in inflammation?
A
First responders that migrate from the blood into tissues through chemotaxis.
8
Q
How is the adaptive immune system triggered?
A
Antigen recognition by antigen-presenting cells (APCs).
9
Q
What are MHC Class I molecules responsible for?
A
Presenting intracellular antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
10
Q
What do MHC Class II molecules present?
A
Extracellular antigens to CD4+ helper T cells.
11
Q
What is the main function of B cells in humoral immunity?
A
Production of antibodies that neutralize pathogens and mark them for destruction.
12
Q
What is the key difference between humoral immunity and cellular immunity?
A
- Humoral immunity: targets pathogens outside cells
- Cellular immunity: eliminates infected or abnormal cells.
13
Q
What actions do antibodies perform?
A
- Neutralization
- Opsonization
- Complement activation
- Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
- Agglutination and precipitation.
14
Q
True or False: Antibodies directly destroy antigens.
A
False.
15
Q
What are chemokines?
A
Proteins that attract white blood cells to sites of infection.
16
Q
What activates the complement system?
A
- Immune complex (antibody-bound antigen)
- Substances from microorganisms.
17
Q
What are cytokines?
A
Molecules that direct or modify immune responses.
18
Q
What cells are considered phagocytes?
A
- Macrophages
- Neutrophils
- Dendritic cells
- Monocytes.
19
Q
What signs and symptoms are associated with inflammation?
A
- Redness
- Heat
- Swelling
- Pain
- Loss of function.
20
Q
What is a shift to the left in a laboratory context?
A
Increased presence of immature neutrophils in peripheral blood.
21
Q
What is the primary immune response?
A
The body’s first encounter with an antigen, taking up to 14 days to resolve.
22
Q
What is the secondary immune response?
A
Occurs upon re-encountering the same antigen, more robust and quicker than the primary response.
23
Q
What blood type is considered the universal donor?
A
O-.
24
Q
What is hypersensitivity?
A
Altered immunologic reaction to an antigen, resulting in an exaggerated immune response.
25
What blood types can B+ donate to?
B+ and AB+
26
What blood types can B+ receive from?
B+, B-, O+, O-
27
What blood type is known as the universal recipient?
AB+
28
What defines a hypersensitivity?
Altered immunologic reaction to an antigen
29
What is the difference between allergy, autoimmunity, and alloimmunity?
Allergy: immune response to environmental antigen; Autoimmunity: immune response against self; Alloimmunity: immune response against donor antigens
30
Describe Type 1 hypersensitivity.
IgE-mediated, includes most allergic reactions, can begin rapidly, and symptoms range from annoying to life-threatening
31
What happens when a person is first stung by a bee in terms of antibody production?
B cells produce IgE antibodies specific to bee venom proteins which bind to mast cells and basophils
32
What triggers the release of histamine in a bee sting reaction?
Bee venom proteins bind to IgE antibodies already attached to mast cells and basophils
33
What are common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction?
* Itching
* Angioedema
* Urticaria
* Bronchospasm
* Difficulty breathing
34
What distinguishes allergic rhinitis from food allergies?
Allergic rhinitis is generally less severe and presents with runny nose and sneezing; food allergies can cause GI and respiratory reactions
35
Describe Type 2 hypersensitivity.
Antibody-mediated autoimmune response where antibodies mistakenly attach to the person's own cells
36
What are examples of diseases caused by Type 2 hypersensitivity?
* Graves Disease
* Myasthenia Gravis
37
What is the mechanism of Type 3 hypersensitivity?
Immune-complex mediated where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, causing inflammation and tissue injury
38
What is an example of a condition caused by Type 3 hypersensitivity?
* Vasculitis in systemic lupus erythematosus
* Acute glomerulonephritis
39
What characterizes Type 4 hypersensitivity?
Cell-mediated response that can be delayed; involves T cells rather than antibodies
40
What is the difference between graft and host?
Graft: transplanted tissue; Host: individual receiving the transplant
41
What is graft vs. host disease?
When immune cells from the donor attack the recipient's body
42
What are autoimmune diseases?
Conditions where the immune system fails to distinguish 'self' from 'non-self'
43
What type of immunity do infants have initially?
Passive immunity
44
What is SCIDs?
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome; a combined B and T cell deficiency
45
Define 'host' in the context of infectious disease.
Supporting organism for pathogens
46
What is an opportunistic infection?
Disease that can occur in an immunocompromised host
47
What are prions?
Proteins lacking a genome that cause neurodegenerative diseases
48
What is the primary system affected by prions?
Nervous system
49
How do viruses replicate?
* Attachment
* Penetration
* Uncoating
* Replication
* Assembly & release
50
What types of nucleic acids can viruses contain?
RNA or DNA
51
What are the roles of T cells in viral infections?
* Cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells
* Helper T cells activate other immune responses
52
What is the role of interferons in viral infections?
Block viral replication and warn neighboring cells
53
What is the significance of knowing the type of bacteria causing an infection?
Ensures targeted treatment and prevents antibiotic resistance
54
How do bacteria cause damage to host cells?
* Release of toxins
* Direct invasion and colonization
* Inducing excessive immune response
55
What are exotoxins?
Proteins released by bacteria that can damage host cells
56
What is the difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?
Gram-negatives have a complex cell wall making them harder to kill
57
What do fungi require for growth?
Cooler temperatures than body temperature
58
Who is most susceptible to fungal infections?
Immunocompromised individuals and those with respiratory issues
59
What defines a mycosis?
An infection with fungus
60
What are parasites?
Members of the animal kingdom that infect other organisms
61
Who is most susceptible to fungal infections?
Immunocompromised/weakened immune systems, those with diabetes, certain respiratory issues, those exposed to fungal-rich environments
## Footnote
Fungal infections are more likely to occur in individuals with weakened defenses.
62
Where do most fungal infections grow and why?
On skin & mucous membranes; most require cooler temperatures than body temp, so most are found on the surface
## Footnote
Antibiotics do not penetrate fungal walls, necessitating a fungal agent.
63
What are parasites? Give examples.
Members of the animal kingdom that infect us, examples include:
* Helminths (e.g., roundworms, tapeworms, flukes)
* Arthropods (e.g., ticks, mites, lice, fleas, mosquitoes)
## Footnote
Parasites can spread through various means, including skin contact or ingestion.
64
What is a protozoal infection? Give an example.
Eukaryotic, unicellular organisms that can spread directly from host to host or indirectly through arthropods, food, and water. Example: plasmodium, the malarial parasite, transmitted by anopheles mosquito
## Footnote
Protozoal infections can lead to severe symptoms and complications.
65
How do infections overcome the immune system?
Through microbial adherence, encapsulation, rapid replication, mutation, enzyme/toxin production, dissolving extracellular matrix, preventing antibiotic reach, biofilm formation, intracellular survival, antigenic variation, and coating with host antigens
## Footnote
These strategies enhance pathogen survival and replication.
66
What are some signs and symptoms of infections? How are they diagnosed?
Signs and symptoms may relate to the infection site or be generalized. Diagnosed through:
* Culture and Sensitivity
* Gram stain
* Serology
* DNA & RNA sequencing
## Footnote
Diagnosis involves identifying the pathogen and determining antibiotic effectiveness.
67
Describe the course of infectious disease. What should you expect from each stage?
Stages include:
* Incubation period: initial exposure before symptoms (2-3 days to a week)
* Prodromal stage: feeling unwell before symptoms (24 hours)
* Acute Stage: symptoms start
* Convalescence: recovery phase
## Footnote
Understanding these stages helps in managing infections.
68
What is the difference in regeneration and repair? Give examples.
Regeneration returns to original structure and function (e.g., skin), while repair replaces tissue with connective tissue, leading to scar formation (e.g., scar tissue)
## Footnote
Regeneration is more effective in certain tissues than in others.
69
What are the phases of wound healing?
Phases include:
* Hemostasis
* Inflammation (0-3 days)
* Proliferation (3-21 days)
* Remodeling or maturation (21 days-1 year)
## Footnote
Each phase plays a critical role in recovery and healing.
70
What is angiogenesis?
The formation of new blood vessels in the wound to provide oxygen and nutrients to healing tissue
## Footnote
Angiogenesis is essential for effective tissue repair.
71
What is the difference between primary and secondary intention in wound healing?
Primary intention heals inwards from the sides (e.g., paper cut), secondary intention heals from the base up (e.g., larger wounds)
## Footnote
Understanding these intentions helps in predicting healing outcomes.
72
What is needed for healing?
Proper nutrients, proper oxygen intake, and allowing the wound to heal without pressure
## Footnote
Patient education is crucial for promoting effective healing.
73
What are genes and where are they found?
Fundamental units of information for protein synthesis, found on chromosomes
## Footnote
Genes are crucial for heredity and function.
74
How many chromosomes do most humans have? How many are autosomes? How many are sex chromosomes?
46 total (23 pairs), 44 autosomes, 2 sex chromosomes
## Footnote
Chromosome composition is vital for understanding genetic disorders.
75
What is the difference between somatic cells and gametes?
Somatic cells are body cells (e.g., heart, liver), while gametes are sex cells (e.g., sperm, ovum)
## Footnote
This distinction is important in genetics and reproduction.
76
What is the purpose of mitosis and meiosis?
Mitosis is for growth, tissue repair, and asexual reproduction (2 identical diploid cells); meiosis is for gamete production (4 genetically diverse haploid cells)
## Footnote
Mitosis and meiosis are key processes in cell division.
77
What percentage of the genome is responsible for gene expression?
2%
## Footnote
This small percentage is crucial for understanding gene function.
78
What do the P and Q on the chromosome indicate?
P indicates the short arm of the chromosome, and Q indicates the long arm
## Footnote
This nomenclature is important for genetic mapping.
79
Define karyotype.
An orderly display of chromosomes by length
## Footnote
Karyotyping is essential in diagnosing chromosomal abnormalities.
80
Define alleles.
Different forms that a gene may have within a population
## Footnote
Understanding alleles is critical for studying inheritance.
81
What is the difference between homozygous and heterozygous?
Homozygous: both parts of a gene pair are identical (e.g., AA, aa); Heterozygous: both parts are different (e.g., Aa)
## Footnote
These terms are fundamental in genetics.
82
What is penetrance?
The percentage of individuals with a particular genotype that express the corresponding phenotype
## Footnote
This concept is crucial for understanding genetic traits.
83
What is expressivity?
The extent or variation in phenotype expression
## Footnote
This term helps in understanding the variability of traits.
84
What is aneuploidy?
A change in the number of chromosomes, where cells do not contain a multiple of 23
## Footnote
Aneuploidy is often associated with genetic disorders.
85
What is polyploidy?
Having more than 2 chromosomes in each site, usually not compatible with life
## Footnote
Polyploidy can lead to severe developmental issues.
86
What is Down syndrome an example of?
Trisomy 21 (polysomy)
## Footnote
Down syndrome is a common chromosomal disorder.
87
Why is aneuploidy tolerated better with sex chromosomes?
Because there is a backup X-chromosome in females; males do not have this backup
## Footnote
This explains the different impacts of chromosomal abnormalities.
88
If a person has blue eyes and is (dd), how could you describe that using genetic terms?
Homo recessive
## Footnote
This terminology relates to the alleles involved in eye color.
89
What is the risk of a fetus developing a disease if the father has an autosomal dominant disease?
50% chance of inheriting the disease
## Footnote
This is based on dominant inheritance patterns.
90
Give examples of teratogenic agents that can affect a fetus.
Examples include:
* Drugs and medicine
* Alcohol
* Smoking/nicotine
* Illicit drugs (e.g., cocaine, heroin)
* Radiation
* Infections
* Nutritional deficiencies
* Maternal conditions
* Pollutants and chemicals
## Footnote
Teratogenic agents can lead to severe developmental issues in fetuses.
