patho Flashcards

1
Q

assesses WBC, RBC, hemoglobin/hematocrit, red blood cell indices, and platelets to determine general health, anemias, infections, blood cancers

A

CBC

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2
Q

ssesses 5 types of WBCs (basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils).

A

cbc W/DIFFERENTIAL

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3
Q

basic or comprehensive, assesses fluid and electrolytes status along with glucose, renal and liver function.

A

cmp

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4
Q

(risk for cardiovascular disease) LDL: <100 mg/dL (want it LOW) HDL: >60 mg/dL (want it HIGH); Total Cholesterol: <200 mg/dL; Triglycerides: <150 mg/ dL

A

LIPID PANEL

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5
Q

blood glucose levels for prediabetic

A

hemoglobin A1c / 5.6 pre-diabetic

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6
Q

powerhouse Cell, creates ATP, hundreds to thousands located w/i each cell
mtDNA -has it’s own DNA; cellular respiration

A

Mitochondria

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7
Q

contains DNA, RNA, proteins; nucleolus (RNA), chromosomes, surrounded by nuclear envelope (membrane)

A

nucleus

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8
Q

continuous from the nucleus, rough ER contains ribosomes which synthesize proteins from transcription of RNA

A

rough ER

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9
Q

continues synthesis, protein folding, storage & transport to Golgi; important in synthesis / storage of lipids & steroids

A

smooth ER

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10
Q

packages proteins to be excreted from the cell via membrane bound vesicles; RNA translation occurs to package the proteins into appropriate amino acid combinations

A

Golgi apparatus

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11
Q

Proteins or lipids that become glycated as a result of exposure to sugars
Leads to protein cross-linking & aggregation, resulting in altered cell signaling / functioning

A

AGE/ALE

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12
Q

medical name for dry skin.

A

Xerosis:

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13
Q

“Eczema” chronic itchy, dry red skin,

A

atopic dermatitis

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14
Q

dry mouth resulting from reduced or absent saliva flow.

A

xerostoma

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15
Q

abnormal dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, with inflammation and ridge formation, typically associated with vitamin A deficiency.

A

xerophthalmia

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16
Q

Inflammatory triggers:

A

Toxic exposure (environment, pathogenic bacteria LipoPolySaccarides)
Allergenic response: IgE, IgG, (foods)
Oxidative stress
Dysglycemia

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17
Q

Inflammation (signs) and regeneration:

A

Vasodilation: heat, redness
Swelling, edema
Tenderness / pain
Regeneration: 1) homeostasis, 2) inflammatory, 3) proliferative, and 4) remodeling

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18
Q

Prevent or arrest clot formation; mast cells release it to stimulate local inflammation; anticoagulant used Tx thrombosis

A

Heparin

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19
Q

Stored in the granules of mast cells, basophils, platelets; acute inflammation, anaphylatoxins, and histamine releasing factors

A

histamine

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20
Q

polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid breaks down via phospholipase A2 into AA which breaks down into LOX / COX (collectively referred to as eicosanoids)

A

arachiodonic acid

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21
Q

serve general functions such as gastric epithelial cytoprotection and homeostasis.

A

COX 1

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22
Q

inflammatory: (blocked by NSAIDs; creates Prostaglandin H2
PGH2 converts to prostaglandins: helpful in stomach protective effects, causal of pain, fever
PGH2 converts thru platelets to thromboxanes (not good for heart),
PGH2 converts to prostacyclin (heart helpful)

A

COX 2

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23
Q

inflammatory response causes bronchial constriction, respiratory issues (asthma)

A

LOX converts to Leukotrienes

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24
Q

inflammatory! inhibited by NSAIDs & Aspirin

A

prostaglandins

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25
Q

From arachidonic acid by the action of cyclooxygenase (COX) isoenzymes; blocked by NSAIDs
Cause increased inflammation, blood flow, chemotaxis (chemical signals that summon white blood cells), and subsequent dysfunction of tissues and organs

A

prostaglandins

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26
Q

1st defense, QUICK response to acute invasion, large # chemical mediators, slows infectious process but does NOT eliminate pathogen

A

Innate immunity

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27
Q

2nd line defense; Slow responders, chronic longterm, creates immune memory; 2 types: humoral & cell-mediated

A

adaptive immunity

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28
Q

Physical and chemical barriers, such as skin, mucus membranes, tears, and stomach acid; Innate

A

1st line of defense

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29
Q

Non-specific responses to infection: inflammatory response & complement system; Innate

A

2nd line of defense

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30
Q

Adaptive/specific defense, such as lymphocytes, antibodies, plasma cells, memory B cells, T cells; Acquired

A

ADAPTIVE/3rd line of defense

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31
Q

enzyme that catalyses the formation of isopeptide bonds between proteins.

A

transglutaminase

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32
Q

used as a marker to diagnose celiac disease

A

transglutaminase

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33
Q

precursor to RBC, Platelets, Mast cell, 4 of 5 WBCs: Neutrophils, Mono, EOS, Baso

A

myeloid progenitor cells

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34
Q

located in Connective tissue throughout body, release histamine to ↑ vascular permeability so that during inflammation capillaries can leak protein rich fluid into injured tissue.

A

Mast cells

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35
Q

hemostasis, proper clotting

A

platelets

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36
Q

first stage of wound healing

A

hemostasis

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37
Q

wandering macrophages clean up debris & start healing process

A

monocytes

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38
Q

bilobed, fight parasites, food allergens

A

eosinophils

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39
Q

inflammatory response team, secretes lysozymes, defenisins,

A

basophils

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40
Q

become natural killer cells & lymphocytes: B-cells, T-cells, Th1, Th2

A

lymphoid progenitor cells

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41
Q

mature in Bone marrow, reside in lymph nodes

humoral immunity

A

B-cells

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42
Q

produce antibodies
circulate in blood, body fluids, binds to ANTIGENS to eliminate
major defense mechanism vs bacteria & toxins
require Th2 cells to function

A

b cells

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43
Q

mature in thymus and reside in lymph notes

A

t cells

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44
Q

main defense vs viral, fungal, parasitic invaders
eliminates abnormal cells
long life span

A

t cells

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45
Q

secretes pro-inflammatory cytokines; NKcells,

A

TH1

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46
Q

helps humoral B-cells, produces antibodies, secretes cytokines IL4, IL5, etc, promotes IgE production & activates eosinophils; 90% of AI are TH2 dominant

A

Th2

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47
Q

defensins: indicates inflammation response,

A

neutrophils

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48
Q

(1.5x larger than RBCs) ↑ EOS (>9) parasites, food allergies

A

eosinophils

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49
Q

Macrophages —wandering cleaners evolve into macrophages & dendritic cells

A

monocytes

50
Q

B & T cells; info re: nutritional health

A

lymphocytes

51
Q

platelet deficiency

A

thrombocytopenia

52
Q

not enough RBCs, while Fe, Ferritin & TIBC appear normal

A

thalassemia

53
Q

Too many rbcs

A

polycythemia

54
Q
accumulated fat in liver
insulin resistance / obese diabetics
due to excessive processed food diet, artificial sugar, high carbs
toxic exposures: chemicals / solvents
alcohol
A

NAFLD

55
Q

transamination to detoxify ammonia requires B6; present in large amounts in the liver tissue and to a lesser amount in kidney and heart; indicator of liver disease

A

ALT

56
Q

enzyme found in large amounts in the liver, kidney, myocardial and skeletal tissue. SGOT usually elevates with degenerative destructive organ processes. Present in a larger amount in the heart than in the liver

A

AST

57
Q

used for diagnosis of renal insufficiency

A

BUN

58
Q

accumulation of bilirubin from increased RBC breakdown
liver injury causing bilirubin impairment
obstructed bile duct —stones

A

Jaundice

59
Q

phagocytic cells in liver which engulf enteric bacteria

A

Kupffer cells

60
Q

Produces anti-oxidants —primarily glutathione which erradicates toxins
Storage area for nutrients, proteins: vitamin A,
Regulates hormone function
Produces bile & bile salts to carry toxic substances out of body
Reduces free radicals
Assists in RBC recycling / filters blood to remove toxins

A

Good liver function

61
Q

Cytochrome P450 enzymes catabolize & disperse materials
inhibited by antihistamines, PPIs, medications
Slows with age, lack of exercise & improper nutrition
Requires B vitamins, folic acid, glutathione, antioxidants, carotenoids, Vit E, Vit C.

A

Phase 1 detox

62
Q

Conjugation stage, adding special substances (amino acids) to phase 1 end products
fat soluble toxins are turned into water soluble ones for excretion
Requires: B12, glutamine, glycine, taurine, cysteine, sulphurate containing cruciferous veggies & garlic

A

Phase 2 detox

63
Q

condition that involves white patches or spots on the inside of the mouth.

A

leukoplakia

64
Q

What is the goal of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)

A

increase BP

65
Q

When the RAAS is activated due to a change in body hemodynamics, the __________________ stimulates the ___________________ cells in the kidneys to release _______________.

A

sympathetic nervous system; juxtaglomerular; renin

66
Q

What component of the RAAS (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system) is created and found in the liver that is activated by renin?

A

Angiotensinogen

67
Q

What is the role of ACE in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?

A

It converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II.

68
Q

B. Triggers the release of aldosterone
C. Increases the blood volume
D. Causes vasodilation
E. Increases systemic vascular resistance
F. Causes the release of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

A

roles of angiotensin II when it is activated in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system:

69
Q

During RAAS activation, what gland releases aldosterone?

A

Adrenal cortex

70
Q

What is the role of aldosterone

A

it causes the kidneys to keep sodium and water

71
Q

During the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation, what gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

Pituitary

72
Q

Select below the CORRECT sequence in how the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system works:

A

Renin-> Angiotensinogen -> Angiotensin I -> ACE -> Angiotensin II

73
Q

Oliguria

A

abnormally small amounts of urine produced

74
Q

anuaria

A

failure of kidneys to produce urine

75
Q

polyuria

A

abnormally large amount of dilute urine produced

76
Q

metabolic syndrome

A
Blood pressure:  >130/85
Obesity:  waist circumference >40in (M),  >35in (W)
Hyperglycemia: fasting glucose >100
Triglycerides:  >150, 
HDL:  <40 (M) <50 (W)
77
Q

no Antidiuretic Hormone secreted from pituitary (hypofunctioning) means unable to absorb H2O from renal tubules = large volumes of dilute urine excreted

A

diabetes insipidus

78
Q

Parathyroid glands secrete

A

calcitonin

79
Q

autoantibodies attack thyroid cells, mimics TSH & causes ↑ thyroid hormone secretions inspite of pituitary regulation —autoantibodies stimulate TSH receptors common Signs: eyes bulge (Exophthalmos)

A

Graves disease

80
Q

slow cardio output, lethargy, fatigue, constipation, cold dry skin, slowed body functions

A

hypothyroidism

81
Q

gland infiltrated by lymphocytes not caused by infection. Autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase (TPO) & thyroglobin attacks & destroys TSH receptors. Signs: enlarged gland, ↑ TSH, ↓thyroid hormone as antibody destroys receptors; connected to celiac dz & NCgluten sensitivity

A

hashimotos

82
Q

Thyroid nutrients

A

Selenium, Zn, vitamins E, A, D, iodine; adequate amounts Fe, tyrosine, and B vitamins as well

83
Q

Exophthalmos

A

a bulging of the eye anteriorly out of the orbit: cause: antigen (Immunoglobulin) attaches to fatty tissue behind eye (not T4 cause)

84
Q

gram neg bacteria can trigger thyroid issues —gluten feeds bacteria in the dysbiotic gut

A

Yersinia

85
Q

IBD characterized by inflammation of ileum
underlying cause is unknown
ulceration of mucosal lining: thickens & scars causing strictures & skip lesions
malabsorption nutrients common —particularly B12
TX: immunosuppressants, steroids, surgery
Supplements: anti-inflammatory botanicals, omega 3s, probiotics Saccharomyces boulardii

A

Chronh’s disease

86
Q

gram negative bacteria (very resistant to antibiotics) causes chronic gastritis, Hpylori creates enzyme “urease” which degrades urea, releasing ammonia which neutralizes stomach acid & allows colony to flourish in distal stomach, proximal duodenum
Spreads via close contact with infected person
Medical treatment: Antacids, PPIs, triple antibiotics

A

H-pylori

87
Q

found in outer membrane gram neg bacteria, triggers STRONG innate immune response causing inflammation & toxicity: activates cytokines, TNF, nitric oxide,
Detoxify endotoxins: alkaline phosphatase

A

endotoxins/lipopolyssaccharides

88
Q

rumbling intestinal noises due to movement of gas / liquids

A

borborygmi

89
Q

anti inflammatory, heart healthy, requires Zn for conversion; helps neurotransmitter dopamine function,

A

EPA/DHA

90
Q

PUFA; arachidonic (AA) & linoleic acid (LA) essential fatty acid

A

omega 6

91
Q

PUFA; alpha linolenic acid (ALA) essential fatty acid

A

Omega 3s

92
Q

bruits

A

heart murmur

93
Q

cyanosis

A

blue skin due to poor circulation or inadequate oxygen supply

94
Q

CRP

A

substance released into blood from liver following acute event; shows increased inflammation

95
Q

elevated levels indicate high risk CVD,

inhibits nitric oxide due to ^ ROS causing endothelia dysfunction / platelet aggregation, mitochondrial dys, reduced HDL

A

homocysteine

96
Q

severe chest pain caused by inadequate blood flow into heart, pain radiates to arms, neck, shoulders

A

angia pectoris

97
Q

measures pressure when heart is contracting

A

systole

98
Q

relaxation: measures pressure when chamber is refilling

A

diastole

99
Q

circulates blood to lungs —oxygen poor —pulmonary pump

A

Right atrium/ventricle:

100
Q

sends blood to peripheral tissues —oxygen rich—systemic pump

A

Left atrium/ventricle:

101
Q

density and quality of bone reduced.
As bones become more porous and fragile, the risk of fracture is greatly increased.
silent and progressive bone loss.
Often asymptomatic until first fracture occurs

A

Osteoporosis:

102
Q

genetic disorder of the bones.

Bones that break easily: condition ranges from mild to severe.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta:

103
Q

marked softening of bones
most often caused by severe vitamin D deficiency;
impaired mineralization of the osteoid;

A

Osteomalacia:

104
Q

childhood dz caused by vitamin D deficiency
characterized by imperfect calcification, softening, and distortion of the bones
typically results in bow legs

A

Rickets:

105
Q

rare bone infection:
Bones can become infected in a number of ways: Infection in one part of the body may spread through the bloodstream into the bone, or an open fracture or surgery may expose the bone to infection.

A

Osteomyelitis:

106
Q

PMS, endometriosis, cervical dysplasia, breast cancer, uterine fibroids caused by

A

estrogen excess

107
Q

menstrual irregularities, amenorrhea

A

estrogen insufficiency

108
Q

Low levels of cortisol and aldosterone,
caused by an autoimmune disease that damages the adrenal gland.
Symptoms: Weight loss, low BP, hypoglycemia, fatigue, skin hyperpigmentation
hyperkalemia, ↓ Na, salt cravings
low testosterone
Metabolic Acidosis!

A

Addison’s:

109
Q

Excessive cortisol levels,
caused by external forces such as glucocorticoid therapy or internal forces such as a tumor producing adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) causing excess cortisol production
Sx: Weight gain, ↑BP, “moon face,” hyperglycemia, a fat pad on the back referred to as a “buffalo hump”
hypokalemia K+, ↑Na, ↑ACTH, ↑testosterone (secondary sex characteristics)
Metabolic Alkalosis!

A

cushings

110
Q

causes erectile dysfunction; “Andropause”, insomnia, fatigue, ↓muscle mass, ↑ body fat, ↓ bone density, depression, decreased motivation
Nutrients affected: Zn, amino acids
Occurs in Addison’s disease with low functioning cortisol

A

Testosterone deficiency in men

111
Q

over production growth hormone (GH) from hyper functioning pituitary in adults

A

Acromegaly:

112
Q

hyper functioning pituitary gland makes too much growth hormone (somatotropin) in children, rare

A

Gigantism

113
Q

peptide hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. It stimulates the growth of essentially all tissues of the body, including bone.

A

Growth hormone:

114
Q

disease of Tau Protein

A

Alzheimer’s

115
Q

disease of Schwann’s cells —mylein basic protein

A

MS

116
Q

due to viral infection CNS or toxic Rx, loss of neurons in substantia nigra midbrain, characterized by low dopamine levels and low B6

A

Parkinson’s:

117
Q

cause optic issues due to proximity, manifest depending on type of hormone it makes, how much produced, tumor size, patient age=—most are adenomas, glandular tumors that don’t metastasize

A

Pituitary tumor:

118
Q

Pheochromocytma

A

vascular tumor of adrenal medulla; irregular secretion of Epinephrine, NE

119
Q

MTHFR

A

inability to convert folic acid and 5’10THF —> 5-MTHF the active form of folate

120
Q

inherited metabolic disorder caused by an enzyme deficiency resulting in accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites in the blood causing usually severe intellectual disability and seizures unless phenylalanine is restricted from the diet beginning at birth

A

PKU

Phenylketonuria

121
Q

accumulation of glutamate from inability to breakdown a-Ketoglutaric acid (glutamic acid dehydrogenase)

A

ALS