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PATHOLOGY > Patho 06 Immunologic Diagnosis > Flashcards

Patho 06 Immunologic Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

antigenic sites
or
the part of the molecule where the antibody attaches itself

A

epitope

antigens should have at least 1 epitope

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2
Q

induces an immune response, especially the production of antibodies

A

antigen

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3
Q

immunoglobulins produced in response to antigenic stimulation

A

antibodies

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4
Q

regions of antibodies

A

variable regions, and

constant regions

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5
Q

part of an antibody that participates in

antigen recognition

A

variable regions

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6
Q

part of an antibody that participates in

  • agglutination,
  • complement fixation,
  • opsonization,
  • Ab-dependent cell cytotoxicity,
  • viral neutralization
A

constant regions

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7
Q

types of antibodies

A

polyclonal antibodies,

monoclonal antibodies

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8
Q

antigen-antibody interaction with stronger avidity - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

polyclonal

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9
Q

will recognize the entire antigen molecule - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

polyclonal

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10
Q

cross-reactive with different antigens - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

monoclonal

because of the probable existence of the same amino acid sequences, carbohydrates, or lipids on different molecules

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11
Q

will be able to identify isoenzymes, subtypes and isotypes of protein - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

monoclonal

because of its narrow specificity that can discern the slightest differences in molecules

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12
Q

directed to various epitopes - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

polyclonal

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13
Q

directed to a specific epitopes - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

monoclonal

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14
Q

binding of antigen to antibody is

reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible

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15
Q
  • reflects the tightness of fit

- independent of the number of antigenic sites

A

affinity

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16
Q

the total binding strength of all of its binding sites together

A

avidity

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17
Q

the increases in the average affinity of antibodies produce as time passes after immunization

A

affinity maturation

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18
Q

point of optimal proportion between number of antigen and antibodies

A

zone of equivalence

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19
Q

zone of antigen excess

A

postzone

prozone and post zone will lead to a false negative result

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20
Q

zone of antibody excess

and residual antibody will remain in the supernatant

A

prozone

prozone and post zone will lead to a false negative result

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21
Q

the concentration of antibodies against a particular antigen

A

antibody titer

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22
Q
  • unit of measurement usually expressed as a ration (i.e. 1:20)
  • the lowest dilution of a substance in which a reaction takes place
A

titer

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23
Q

______ rely on the ability of an antibody to recognize and bind a specific macromolecule

A

immunoassays

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24
Q

the molecule detected by the immunoassay

A

analyte

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25
- simplest method of immunoassay for Ag and Ab to react with each other - without involving the detection of any labels (NO LABELS)
Precipitation immunoassay | qualitative, semi-qualitative, quantitative
26
immunoassay for Syphilis
RPR test/non-treponemal test | Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test a Qualitative Precipitation immunoassay
27
- detects antibodies - Ag and Ab diffuse radially - As equivalence is reached, a visible line of precipitation forms
Double immunodiffusion | a Qualitative Precipitation immunoassay
28
- detects antibodies | - determines the blood levels of 3 major immunoglobulins: IgM, IgG, and IgA
Immunoelectrophoresis | a Qualitative Precipitation immunoassay
29
Immunoelectrophoresis is also called:
Gamma globulin electrophoresis, or | Immunoglobulin electrophoresis
30
A Semiquantitative Precipitation immunoassay
Simple radial immunodiffusion | C3 and C4
31
A Quantitative Precipitation immunoassay
Nephelometric (turbidimetric) immunoassays
32
- uses inert particles as labels | - uses the principle of AGGLUTINATION to detect Ag-Ab reactions
Particle agglutination immunoassay | a Precipitation immunoassay
33
3 methods of | Particle agglutination immunoassay
a. Hemagglutination b. Gelatin particle agglutination c. Latex agglutination
34
- uses animal RBCs | - detects antibodies to RBC antigens
Hemagglutination
35
non-treponemal test for Syphilis
Rapid Plasma Reagin test
36
treponemal test for Syphilis
Hemagglutination
37
measures the ability of soluble antigen to inhibit the agglutination of antigen-coated red blood cells by antibodies
Hemagglutination Inhibition
38
commonly used for blood typing
Hemagglutination
39
soluble antigens are adsorbed onto the surface of RBC -> RBCs agglutinate if any corresponding Ab is present
Passive (Indirect) Hemegglutination test
40
a special gelatin particle that is able to prevent nonspecific binding of materials present in a specimen
Gelatin particle agglutination
41
used for blood screening for HIV, HBV and HCV
Gelatin particle agglutination
42
used for hCG for qualitative pregancy tests, | quantitative detection of other plasma proteins
Latex agglutination
43
name the carriers of: a. Hemagglutination b. Gelatin particle agglutination c. Latex agglutination
a. animal RBCs b. special gelatin particle c. latex beads (coated with either antigen or antibody)
44
quantitative assay useful for analytes with low concentrations such as TSH and other thyroid parameters (FT3, FT4); hormones and tumor markers
Radioimmunoassay (RIA) | a Precipitation immunoassay
45
labels of Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
radioisotopes (125I)
46
labels of Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
enzymes (most commonly used: horse radish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase
47
semiquantitative or quantitative immunoassay developed as an alternative to isotopic methods (RIA)
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) | a Precipitation immunoassay
48
method for Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
49
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), a very sensitive immunochemical technique, is also known as
Solid-phase enzyme immunoassay (as it employs an enzyme linked antigen or antibody as a marker for the detection of a specific protein
50
a plate based assay technique
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
51
3 principles of Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
a. immune reaction (i.e. antigen-antibody reaction) b. enzymatic chemical reaction (i.e. enzyme catalyses the formation of colored (chromogenic) product from colorless substrate c. signal detection and quantification (i.e. detection and measurement of color intensity)
52
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that | detect antibodies
Indirect ELISA
53
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that | detects antigen
Sandwich ELISA
54
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that | measures free/unbound (i.e. determining T3 or T4)
Competitive ELISA
55
labels of Fluorescent Immnuoassays
fluorophores/ fluorescent compounds such as Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
56
Fluorescent Immnuoassays that | uses a single antibody
Direct IF
57
Fluorescent Immnuoassays that uses two antibodies where the primary antibody is unconjugated, and the second antibody is fluorophore-conjugated
Indirect IF
58
Fluoresence in Fluorescent Immnuoassays quenches when exposed to light. True or False.
True
59
label of Chemiluminescent immunoassays
chemiluminescent compounds | such as acridinium esters
60
responsible for producing light in | Chemiuluminescent immunoassays
reduction-oxidation reaction process
61
most sensitive immunoassay capable of detecting analytes at a very low concentrations like hormones
Chemiluminescent immunoassays
62
Two methods of Chemiluminescent immunoassays
a. Chemiluminescent immunoassay using acridinium ester | b. Electrochemiluminescent assay (linked with reduction-oxidation reaction)
63
used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the patient's serum
Complete fixation test (CFT)
64
based on the use of complement, a biologically labile serum factor that causes the immune cytolysis i.e. lysis of antibody coated cells
Complete fixation test (CFT)
65
activated when there is formation of antigen-antibody complex
complement
66
positive Complete fixation test (CFT) - with or without hemolysis
no hemolysis
67
negative Complete fixation test (CFT) - with or without hemolysis
with hemolysis. -> pink kasi complement causes cytolysis
68
screening test for the diagnosis of SLE
Antinuclear Antibodies (ANA) Tests for SLE
69
method: | indirect immunofluorescence or immunoperoxidase using frozen section of rat liver or culture cells as substrate
Antinuclear Antibodies (ANA) Tests for SLE
70
ANA test pattern for systemic lupus
homogenous (diffuse) pattern, peripheral pattern, speckled patter,
71
ANA test -> nucleolar patter is common in people with
scleroderma
72
ANA test pattern which is exclusive for systemic lupus
peripheral pattern
73
limitation of Antinuclear Antibodies (ANA) Tests for SLE
ANAs are also present in: - healthy individuals (5-10%), and - people with scleroderma - people with rheumatoid arthritis - ~20% of healthy women will have a weakly positive ANA, and majority will never develop any signs of lupus
74
this antibody is directed against the Fc portion of the IgG molecule
Rheumatoid factor
75
Sera of most patients with rheumatoid arthritis develop RF which are antibodies (in most cases Ig__) against human IgG, 70-80% of patients with Rheumatoid arthritis have RF with significant titers
IgM
76
method of Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
latex particle agglutination immunoassay | latex particles coated with human IgG (+) - seen with agglutination

PATHOLOGY (8 decks)

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