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PATHOLOGY > Patho 06 Immunologic Diagnosis > Flashcards

Patho 06 Immunologic Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

antigenic sites
or
the part of the molecule where the antibody attaches itself

A

epitope

antigens should have at least 1 epitope

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2
Q

induces an immune response, especially the production of antibodies

A

antigen

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3
Q

immunoglobulins produced in response to antigenic stimulation

A

antibodies

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4
Q

regions of antibodies

A

variable regions, and

constant regions

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5
Q

part of an antibody that participates in

antigen recognition

A

variable regions

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6
Q

part of an antibody that participates in

  • agglutination,
  • complement fixation,
  • opsonization,
  • Ab-dependent cell cytotoxicity,
  • viral neutralization
A

constant regions

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7
Q

types of antibodies

A

polyclonal antibodies,

monoclonal antibodies

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8
Q

antigen-antibody interaction with stronger avidity - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

polyclonal

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9
Q

will recognize the entire antigen molecule - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

polyclonal

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10
Q

cross-reactive with different antigens - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

monoclonal

because of the probable existence of the same amino acid sequences, carbohydrates, or lipids on different molecules

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11
Q

will be able to identify isoenzymes, subtypes and isotypes of protein - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

monoclonal

because of its narrow specificity that can discern the slightest differences in molecules

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12
Q

directed to various epitopes - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

polyclonal

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13
Q

directed to a specific epitopes - polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

monoclonal

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14
Q

binding of antigen to antibody is

reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible

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15
Q
  • reflects the tightness of fit

- independent of the number of antigenic sites

A

affinity

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16
Q

the total binding strength of all of its binding sites together

A

avidity

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17
Q

the increases in the average affinity of antibodies produce as time passes after immunization

A

affinity maturation

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18
Q

point of optimal proportion between number of antigen and antibodies

A

zone of equivalence

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19
Q

zone of antigen excess

A

postzone

prozone and post zone will lead to a false negative result

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20
Q

zone of antibody excess

and residual antibody will remain in the supernatant

A

prozone

prozone and post zone will lead to a false negative result

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21
Q

the concentration of antibodies against a particular antigen

A

antibody titer

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22
Q
  • unit of measurement usually expressed as a ration (i.e. 1:20)
  • the lowest dilution of a substance in which a reaction takes place
A

titer

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23
Q

______ rely on the ability of an antibody to recognize and bind a specific macromolecule

A

immunoassays

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24
Q

the molecule detected by the immunoassay

A

analyte

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25
Q
  • simplest method of immunoassay for Ag and Ab to react with each other
  • without involving the detection of any labels (NO LABELS)
A

Precipitation immunoassay

qualitative, semi-qualitative, quantitative

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26
Q

immunoassay for Syphilis

A

RPR test/non-treponemal test

Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
a Qualitative Precipitation immunoassay

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27
Q
  • detects antibodies
  • Ag and Ab diffuse radially
  • As equivalence is reached, a visible line of precipitation forms
A

Double immunodiffusion

a Qualitative Precipitation immunoassay

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28
Q
  • detects antibodies

- determines the blood levels of 3 major immunoglobulins: IgM, IgG, and IgA

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

a Qualitative Precipitation immunoassay

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29
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis is also called:

A

Gamma globulin electrophoresis, or

Immunoglobulin electrophoresis

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30
Q

A Semiquantitative Precipitation immunoassay

A

Simple radial immunodiffusion

C3 and C4

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31
Q

A Quantitative Precipitation immunoassay

A

Nephelometric (turbidimetric) immunoassays

32
Q
  • uses inert particles as labels

- uses the principle of AGGLUTINATION to detect Ag-Ab reactions

A

Particle agglutination immunoassay

a Precipitation immunoassay

33
Q

3 methods of

Particle agglutination immunoassay

A

a. Hemagglutination
b. Gelatin particle agglutination
c. Latex agglutination

34
Q
  • uses animal RBCs

- detects antibodies to RBC antigens

A

Hemagglutination

35
Q

non-treponemal test for Syphilis

A

Rapid Plasma Reagin test

36
Q

treponemal test for Syphilis

A

Hemagglutination

37
Q

measures the ability of soluble antigen to inhibit the agglutination of antigen-coated red blood cells by antibodies

A

Hemagglutination Inhibition

38
Q

commonly used for blood typing

A

Hemagglutination

39
Q

soluble antigens are adsorbed onto the surface of RBC -> RBCs agglutinate if any corresponding Ab is present

A

Passive (Indirect) Hemegglutination test

40
Q

a special gelatin particle that is able to prevent nonspecific binding of materials present in a specimen

A

Gelatin particle agglutination

41
Q

used for blood screening for HIV, HBV and HCV

A

Gelatin particle agglutination

42
Q

used for hCG for qualitative pregancy tests,

quantitative detection of other plasma proteins

A

Latex agglutination

43
Q

name the carriers of:

a. Hemagglutination
b. Gelatin particle agglutination
c. Latex agglutination

A

a. animal RBCs
b. special gelatin particle
c. latex beads (coated with either antigen or antibody)

44
Q

quantitative assay useful for analytes with low concentrations such as TSH and other thyroid parameters (FT3, FT4); hormones and tumor markers

A

Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

a Precipitation immunoassay

45
Q

labels of Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

A

radioisotopes (125I)

46
Q

labels of Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

A

enzymes (most commonly used: horse radish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase

47
Q

semiquantitative or quantitative immunoassay developed as an alternative to isotopic methods (RIA)

A

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

a Precipitation immunoassay

48
Q

method for Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

49
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA),
a very sensitive immunochemical technique,
is also known as

A

Solid-phase enzyme immunoassay

(as it employs an enzyme linked antigen or antibody as a marker for the detection of a specific protein

50
Q

a plate based assay technique

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

51
Q

3 principles of Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

A

a. immune reaction (i.e. antigen-antibody reaction)
b. enzymatic chemical reaction (i.e. enzyme catalyses the formation of colored (chromogenic) product from colorless substrate
c. signal detection and quantification (i.e. detection and measurement of color intensity)

52
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that

detect antibodies

A

Indirect ELISA

53
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that

detects antigen

A

Sandwich ELISA

54
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that

measures free/unbound (i.e. determining T3 or T4)

A

Competitive ELISA

55
Q

labels of Fluorescent Immnuoassays

A

fluorophores/
fluorescent compounds such as
Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)

56
Q

Fluorescent Immnuoassays that

uses a single antibody

A

Direct IF

57
Q

Fluorescent Immnuoassays that
uses two antibodies where
the primary antibody is unconjugated, and
the second antibody is fluorophore-conjugated

A

Indirect IF

58
Q

Fluoresence in Fluorescent Immnuoassays
quenches when exposed to light.
True or False.

A

True

59
Q

label of Chemiluminescent immunoassays

A

chemiluminescent compounds

such as acridinium esters

60
Q

responsible for producing light in

Chemiuluminescent immunoassays

A

reduction-oxidation reaction process

61
Q

most sensitive immunoassay capable of detecting analytes at a very low concentrations like hormones

A

Chemiluminescent immunoassays

62
Q

Two methods of Chemiluminescent immunoassays

A

a. Chemiluminescent immunoassay using acridinium ester

b. Electrochemiluminescent assay (linked with reduction-oxidation reaction)

63
Q

used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the patient’s serum

A

Complete fixation test (CFT)

64
Q

based on the use of complement, a biologically labile serum factor that causes the immune cytolysis i.e. lysis of antibody coated cells

A

Complete fixation test (CFT)

65
Q

activated when there is formation of antigen-antibody complex

A

complement

66
Q

positive Complete fixation test (CFT) - with or without hemolysis

A

no hemolysis

67
Q

negative Complete fixation test (CFT) - with or without hemolysis

A

with hemolysis. -> pink

kasi complement causes cytolysis

68
Q

screening test for the diagnosis of SLE

A

Antinuclear Antibodies (ANA) Tests for SLE

69
Q

method:

indirect immunofluorescence or immunoperoxidase using frozen section of rat liver or culture cells as substrate

A

Antinuclear Antibodies (ANA) Tests for SLE

70
Q

ANA test pattern for systemic lupus

A

homogenous (diffuse) pattern,
peripheral pattern,
speckled patter,

71
Q

ANA test -> nucleolar patter is common in people with

A

scleroderma

72
Q

ANA test pattern which is exclusive for systemic lupus

A

peripheral pattern

73
Q

limitation of Antinuclear Antibodies (ANA) Tests for SLE

A

ANAs are also present in:

  • healthy individuals (5-10%), and
  • people with scleroderma
  • people with rheumatoid arthritis
  • ~20% of healthy women will have a weakly positive ANA, and majority will never develop any signs of lupus
74
Q

this antibody is directed against the Fc portion of the IgG molecule

A

Rheumatoid factor

75
Q

Sera of most patients with rheumatoid arthritis develop RF which are antibodies (in most cases Ig__) against human IgG, 70-80% of patients with Rheumatoid arthritis have RF with significant titers

A

IgM

76
Q

method of Rheumatoid Factor (RF)

A

latex particle agglutination immunoassay

latex particles coated with human IgG
(+) - seen with agglutination

PATHOLOGY (8 decks)

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