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Pathology Test 1 > Path Test 1 > Flashcards

Path Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the study of disease?

A

Pathology

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2
Q

What are reversible, functional, and structural responses to changes in physiological states?

A

Adaptations

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3
Q

What occurs when failure of energy-dependent ion pumps in the plasma membrane leads to an inability to maintain ionic and fluid homeostasis?

A

Cellular swellling

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4
Q

What is the hallmark of reversible injuries?

A

Cellular swelling

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5
Q

What are the most characteristic findings associated with irreversible injuries?

A

Nuclear changes

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6
Q

What are one of the most important and most common causes of cell injury?

A

Hypoxia

Anoxia

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7
Q

What is the loss of blood supply in a tissue due to impeded arterial flow or reduced venous drainage?

A

Ischemia

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of hypoxia?

A

Ischemia

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9
Q

What is the paradoxical death of cels that are not otherwise irreversibly injured?

A

Ischemia reperfusion injury

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10
Q

What is a genetic inborn error that is caused via a hexosaminidase A deficiency?

A

Tay Sachs Disease

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11
Q

What is the decrease in size of the cell, tissue, or organ?

A

Atrophy

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12
Q

What atrophies after childhood?

A

Thymus

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13
Q

Hypertrophy leads to what?

A

Increased tissue size

Increased cell size

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14
Q

Hyperplasia leads to what?

A

Increased tissue size

Increased cell quantity

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15
Q

Pure hypertrophy occurs ONLY where?

A

Striated and Cardiac muscles

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16
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia is due to what?

A

Estrogen causing endometrial thickening

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17
Q

Prostatic hyperplasia is due to what?

A

Androgenic hormones causing enlargement of epithelial and stromal cells

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18
Q

What is the change of one cell type into another?

A

Metaplasia

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19
Q

What is the irregular cellular arrangement with nuclear atypia?

A

Dysplasia

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20
Q

What is caused from an increased absorption of dietary iron, hemolytic anemias, and repeated blood transfusions?

A

Hemosiderosis

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21
Q

What is caused from inhaled coal particles?

A

Anthracosis

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22
Q

Fat stored in the liver as triglycerides leads to what?

A

Steatosis

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23
Q

Steatosis is common in what type of patients?

A

Alcoholics

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24
Q

What is programmed cell death?

A

Apoptosis

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25
Q

Apoptosis can occur in what 2 forms?

A

Physiologic

Pathologic

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26
Q

What is the most common form of necrosis?

A

Coagulative

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27
Q

What type of necrosis occurs most often in the brain?

A

Liquefactive necrosis

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28
Q

What is a special type of coagulative necrosis such as tuberculosis and histoplasmosis?

A

Caseous necrosis

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29
Q

What type of necrosis is limited to fat tissue and usually occurs around the pancreas?

A

Enzymatic fat necrosis

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30
Q

What usually occurs on the lower extremities and is caused by a bacterial infection of coagulated tissue that causes tissue to become black?

A

Wet gangrene

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31
Q

What is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in dead or dying tissues?

A

Dystrophic calcification

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32
Q

What is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in normal tissues?

A

Metastatic calcification

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33
Q

Metastatic calcifications principally affect what parts of the body?

A 
Gastric mucosa
Kidneys
Lungs
Systemic Arteries 
Pulmonary Veins
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34
Q

What is the local physiological response to tissue injury?

A

Inflammation

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35
Q

What is the goal of the inflammation reaction?

A

Bring cells and molecules to the site of infection or tissue damage

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36
Q

What are the cardinal sighs of acute inflammation?

A 
Rubor - redness
Calor - heat
Dolor - pain
Tumor - swelling
Loss of function

“Red Hot Painful Swelling causes Loss of Function

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37
Q

What is a plasma protein that is similar to histamine, but acts at a slower pace?

A

Bradykinin

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38
Q

What is a plasma-derived mediator of inflammation that is capable of inciting pain?

A

Bradykinin

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39
Q

What is released by mast cells, promotes contraction of endothelial cells, and leads to formation of gaps in lining of vessels?

A

Histamine

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40
Q

What are involved in vascular and systemic reactions of inflammation?

A

Prostaglandins

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41
Q

What are involved in vascular and smooth muscle reactions?

A

Leukotrienes

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42
Q

What suppresses inflammation by inhibiting the recruitment of leukocytes?

A

Lipoxins

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43
Q

What is the MOST common and medically important cause of inflammation?

A

Infections

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44
Q

What are the 3 major pathophysiology components of acute inflammation?

A

Dilation
Increased permeability
Emigration

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45
Q

What is extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration and high specific gravity?

A

Exudate

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46
Q

What is fluid with low protein concentration and low specific gravity?

A

Transudate

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47
Q

What are the dominant cells of chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages

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48
Q

What cells are characteristically found in inflammatory sites around parasitic infection typically associated with allergies?

A

Eosinophils

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49
Q

Serous inflammation causes fluid in the peritoneum, pleura, or pericardium called what?

A

Effusion

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50
Q

Purulent inflammation is characterized by what?

A

Production of pus

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51
Q

Localized collection of pus within an organ or tissue is called what?

A

Abscess

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52
Q

Localization of pus in a body cavity is called what?

A

Empyema

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53
Q

What is a local defect, or excavation of the surface of an organ or tissue?

A

Ulcers

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54
Q

What is used to describe the extensive deposition of collagen that occurs in the lungs, liver, kidney, and other organs as a consequence of chronic inflammation?

A

Fibrosis

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55
Q

What are the 3 steps in scar formation?

A

Angiogenesis - forms new blood vessels
Formation of granulation tissue - fibroblasts migrate
Connective tissue remodeling - produces fibrous scar

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56
Q

What are the 4 steps of wound healing?

A

Hemostasis
Inflammation
Proliferation
Tissue remodeling

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57
Q

During which phase of wound healing does the scab form?

A

Proliferation phase

- epithelialization

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58
Q

What is the primary site of drug metabolism?

A

Liver

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59
Q

What is first pass metabolism?

A

Absorption by GI tract, metabolism by liver and/or bowel

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60
Q

What does the first pass effect do?

A

Reduces bioavailability

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61
Q

All descendants from stem cells arise from where?

A

Bone marrow

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62
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

Thymus

Bone marrow

63
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Lymph nodes

Spleen

64
Q

What refers to the ability to mount an immune response?

A

Immunocompetence

65
Q

Where do T-cells mature?

A

Thymus

66
Q

Where do B-cells remain?

A

Bone marrow

67
Q

T-cells present what CD on their surface?

A

CD4

68
Q

Cytotoxic T-cells present what CD on its surface?

A

CD8

69
Q

What do B-cells differentiate into to produce IG’s?

A

Plasma

70
Q

What is the largest Ig and is the first to appear after immunizations?

A

IgM

71
Q

What is the most abundant Ig and can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

72
Q

What Ig is predominant in mucous secretions and found in milk?

A

IgA

73
Q

What Ig mediates allergic reactions such as hay fever and asthma?

A

IgE

74
Q

Which Ig is exclusive to B-cells?

A

IgD

75
Q

What are incomplete antigens that are not antigenic by themselves?

A

Hapten

76
Q

What is the most important substance involved with type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Histamine

77
Q

What is the major mechanism responsible for cell lysis?

A

Complement

78
Q

What are the most common Type 1 reactions?

A

Hay fever
Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Asthma
Anaphylactic shock

79
Q

What are the most common Type 2 reactions?

A

Hemolytic Anemia
Goodpasture syndrome
Grave’s diseas
Myasthenia Gravis

80
Q

Grave’s disease is a form of what?

A

Hyperthyroidism

81
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is a chronic what?

A

Autoimmune muscle disease

82
Q

What are the most clinically important type 3 reactions?

A

Systemic Lupus Erthematosus

Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)

Ployarteritis nodosa

83
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction forms memory B-cells?

A

Type IV

84
Q

What is the MOST common type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Contact dermatitis

85
Q

What is it called when the patient is both donor and recipient?

A

Autograft

86
Q

What is it called when genetically identical individuals conduct a transplant?

A

Isograft

87
Q

What is it called when someone donates and organ to another person?

A

Homografts / allograft

88
Q

What is it called when donor and recipient are from different species?

A

Xenograft

89
Q

What is the obliteration of the arterial lumen?

A

Endarteritis

90
Q

What are the 2 forms of autoimmune diseases?

A

Systemic

Organ-specific

91
Q

What is the most important marker found in Lupus?

A

Anti-nuclear Antibody (ANA)

92
Q

How does amyloidosis effect the kidney?

A

Changes base membrane and Glomeruli permeability

Proteinuria

93
Q

How does amyloidosis effect the liver?

A

Compresses parenchymal cells causing ischemia

Atrophy causes hepatic and adrenal dysfunction

94
Q

How does amyloidosis effect the heart?

A

Weakens myocardial contractions

95
Q

How does amyloidosis effect the brain?

A

Dementia

Alzheimer’s Disease

96
Q

What tumors are composed of well-differentiated cells that closely resemble their normal counterparts?

A

Benign tumors

97
Q

A lack of differentiation, or anaplasia, is considered to be a hallmark for what kind of tumor?

A

Malignant tumor

98
Q

What are malignant tumors that arise from solid mesenchymal tissues?

A

Sarcomas

99
Q

What are malignant tumors that arise from mesenchymal blood cells?

A

Leukemias or Lymphomas

100
Q

A mass of disorganized tissue indigenous to the particular site is called what?

A

Hamartoma

101
Q

What is a mixed tumor that contains recognizable mature or immature cells or tissues?

A

Teratoma

102
Q

What is an immature teratoma that is a malignant tumor of the gonads?

A

Teratocarcinoma

103
Q

What is the MOST reliable feature that distinguishes malignant from benign tumors?

A

Local invasiveness

104
Q

What are normal genes that code for proteins that help to regulate cell growth and differentiation?

A

Proto-oncogenes

105
Q

What is a progressive loss of body fat and lean body mass, with profound weakness, anorexia, and anemia?

A

Cachexia

106
Q

What system describes the increasing size of the primary lesion cancer?

A

TNM system

107
Q

What indicates the progressively advancing node involvement of cancer?

A

N0 - N3

108
Q

What reflects the absence and presence of distant metastases?

A

M0

M1

109
Q

What is the absence of an organ or part of an organ that appears to lack the primordial tissues?

A

Agenesis

110
Q

What is the absence of an organ but a primordial or rudimentary mass of tissue is found?

A

Aplasia

111
Q

What is a congenital absence or closure of normal body openings or tubular structure?

A

Atresia

112
Q

What is the underdevelopment of a tissue, organ, or body?

A

Hypoplasia

113
Q

What are agents that cause malformations?

A

Teratogens

114
Q

What is a fetal malformation that causes a small child, thin upper lip, indistinct philtrum, and a short nose with mental retardation?

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)

115
Q

What is the term for the loss of a chromosome?

A

Monosomy

116
Q

What is the term for gain of a chromosome?

A

Trisomy

117
Q

A child presents with a wide face, bridged nose, slanted eyes, and is consistently sick; what is the probable diagnosis?

A

Trisomy 21 (Down’s Syndrome)

118
Q

Patient present with short statute, webbed neck, broad chest, and abnormal extremities; what is the diagnosis?

A

Monosomy 45XO (Turner’s Syndrome)

119
Q

An infertile male with a small penis and gynecomastia would be diagnosed with what?

A

Trisomy 47XXY (Klinefelter’s Syndrome)

120
Q

A patient who presents with a prominent frontal bossing, loose/weak joints, valvular dysfunction of the heart, and cataracts or retinal detachment could be diagnosed with what?

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

121
Q

What is the MOST common autosomal recessive disease?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

122
Q

What is a gene mutation to coagulation factors 8 and 9 that are located on the long arm of chromosome X?

A

Hemophilia A

123
Q

What is a gene mutation to coagulation factor 9 that is located on the short arm of chromosome X?

A

Hemophilia B (Christmas Disease)

124
Q

What is the term for bleeding into the joints?

A

Hemarthrosis

125
Q

What is a genetic dysfunction of structural cell dystrophin that begins late in childhood, but most die between 40-50 years old?

A

Becker’s Muscular Dystrophy

126
Q

What is a genetic dysfunction of structural cell dystrophin that begins early in infancy, but most die in their teens?

A

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

127
Q

What is a dysfunction or inappropriate gene activation that causes incomplete fusion of brain covering structures or dysraphic anomaly?

A

Anencephaly

128
Q

What is excess fluid in body cavities and interstitial spaces called?

A

Edema

129
Q

What is a function of circulating proteins, primarily albumin?

A

Oncotic Pressure

130
Q

Increased vessel wall permeability is called what kind of edema?

A

Inflammatory edema

131
Q

Decreased oncotic pressure means what is low and what type of edema is it?

A

Low Albumin

Oncotic Edema

132
Q

Increased venous backpressure or increased arterial pressure is called what kind of edema?

A

Hydrostatic edema

133
Q

Lymphatic obstruction is what kind of edema?

A

Obstructive edema

134
Q

What type of edema is due to sodium retention?

A

Hypervolemic edema

135
Q

What are the three factors involved with thrombosis?

A

Stasis
Vessel wall injury
Hypercoagulability

**Virchow’s triad

136
Q

What cells are primarily involved with thrombosis?

A

Endothelial cells

137
Q

What is a large pulmonary embolus that is often lethal?

A

Saddle embolus

138
Q

What is a sudden onset vascular occlusion that creates insufficient blood supply?

A

Infarction

139
Q

Red infarcts typically happen to what body parts?

A

Intestines

Testis

140
Q

White infarcts typically happen to what body parts?

A 
Arterial blood
Solid organs (heart, liver, etc.)
141
Q

What are the color codes for infarction?

A

Mottled
Brown
Yellow
White

142
Q

What is the failure of the circulatory system to provide adequate supply of blood to tissues?

A

Shock

143
Q

What is the final common pathway for several potentially lethal events, such as extensive trauma or burns, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism?

A

Shock

144
Q

Regardless of cause, shock is characterized by what?

A

Systemic hypoperfusion of the tissues

145
Q

What is hypovolemic shock?

A

Loss of circulatory volume
Water loss
Massive hemorrhage

146
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Heart pump failure

147
Q

What type of shock is due to infection by bacterial endotoxins causing massive vasodilation?

A

Septic shock

148
Q

What type of shock is a decreased preload to the heart?

A

Hypotonic shock

149
Q

What type of shock has a decreased sympathetic tone caused by severe CNS trauma or anesthesia?

A

Neurogenic shock

150
Q

What type of shock is caused by a type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Anaphylactic shock

151
Q

What happens during early or compensated shock?

A

Tachycardia
Vasoconstriction
Reduced urine output

152
Q

What happens during decompensated shock?

A

Hypotension
Shortness of Breath
Oliguria
Acidosis (metabolic and respiratory)

153
Q

What happens during irreversible shock?

A

Cellular and tissue injury
Circulatory collapse
Loss of vital functions
Marked Hypotension

154
Q

What is a simple measure. That distinguishes between hemolytic and aregenerative anemias?

A

Reticulocyte count

Pathology Test 1 (1 decks)

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