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Pathology > Path IV - Finalz > Flashcards

Path IV - Finalz Flashcards

1
Q

Light microscopy: nodular glomerulosclerosis

A

hyaline deposition in nodules within the glomeruli

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2
Q

Another name for nodular glomerulosclerosis in diabetic patients is __.

A

Kimmestiel-Wilson disease

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3
Q

Light microscopy: amyloidosis

A

pink/eosinophilic acellular material deposited in capillary walls -> obliteration of glomerular capillaries

affinity for Congo red dye

diffuse glomerulosclerosis

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4
Q

Light microscopy: post-infectious glomerulonephritis

A

increased cellularity

poorly defined capillary loops

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5
Q

Light microscopy: rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A

thickened “wire loops” of capillary loops

crescent formation composed of proliferating epithelial cells

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6
Q

What is the MC cause of chronic renal failure in the US?

A

diabetic nephropathy

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7
Q

Light microscopy: childhood PKD

A

large cysts lined with flattened cuboidal epithelium and intervening fibrotic parenchyma w/ bluish cartilage

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8
Q

Nephrotic vs Nephritic syndrome

A

proteinuria (> 3gm/24hrs)
hyperlipidemia
edema
hypoalbuminemia

hematuria
RBC casts
oliguria
azotemia/uremia
HTN
minimal proteinuria
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9
Q

What is the MC cz of glomerulonephritis worldwide?

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease)

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10
Q

What is disease characterized by IgA over-secretion and vasculitis?

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

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11
Q

In patients with acute renal dz and hx of recent infx or new medication, suspect ___.

A

acute interstitial nephritis

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12
Q

Cystine stones

A

Assoc. w/ acidic urine

Assoc. w/ multiple stones

Assoc. w/ genetic dz (tf, more likely to be cz of stones in children)

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13
Q

Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones

A

Assoc. w/ UTIs dt urea-splitting bacteria (proteus)

Assoc. with increased urine pH (less acidic)

Assoc. w/ larger size (staghorn calculi)

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14
Q

What is the MC type of renal stone?

A

calcium oxalate 75%

triple phosphate 15%

uric acid 5-6%

cystine 1%

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15
Q

Embolization to the kidneys usually comes from ___

A

cardiac source (enlarged left atrium)

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16
Q

Most important non-cardiac source of renal emboli?

A

ruptured aortic atheromatous plaques

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17
Q

Histology: HUS

A

patchy / diffuse microangiopathy

capillary lumens oft. occluded

thickening of capillary walls

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18
Q

MC cz of acute renal failure in children (world)

A

HUS

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19
Q

Etiology: renal artery stenosis

A

Atherosclerosis

Fibromuscular dysplasia

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20
Q

Histology: malignant nephrosclerosis

A

onion-ring appearance of hyperplastic renal arteries

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21
Q

Histology: benign nephrosclerosis

A

hyaline arteriosclerosis

partial / total hyalinization of glomeruli and tubules

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22
Q

Morphology: benign nephrosclerosis

A

patchy ischemic atrophy within the kidney (focal loss of parenchyma)

granular appearance

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23
Q

Benign nephrosclerosis is often seen in what patient population?

A

diabetics w/ HTN (renal complication of HTN)

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24
Q

Histology: Fanconi’s syndrome

A

atrophic / hyalinized glomeruli, similar to that seen in end-stage kidney dz

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25
Q

Fanconi’s syndrome

A

dz of proximal renal tubules in which glucose, amino acids, uric acid, phosphate, and bicarbonate are passed into urine

loss of bicarbonate -> metabolic acidosis

loss of phosphate -> rickets

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26
Q

Findings: AIN

A

Histology: eosinophilia

UA: eosinophils

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27
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)

A

acute renal failure MC dt allergic rxn to drugs or recent infection (2-40 days after exposure)

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28
Q

Histology: ischemic ATN

A

skip lesions through the tubules

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29
Q

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)

A

proximal tubular epithelium necrosis

classified as either toxic or ischemic

common cz of acute renal failure (esp. toxic form)

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30
Q

Histology: Toxic ATN

A

absence of nuclei in tubular cells

homogenous eosinophilic cytoplasm

normal glomeruli

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31
Q

Labs: Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

C-ANCA positive serology

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32
Q

Histology: Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

crescentic glomerulonephritis

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33
Q

Histology: post-strep glomerulonephritis

A

PMN, mononuclear macrophages infiltration into glomeruli

Endothelial, mesangial proliferation

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34
Q

What is the MC cz of acute nephritic syndrome?

A

post-streptococcal (GABHS) glomerulonephritis

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35
Q

Renal adenomas are MC found where?

A

renal papillae

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36
Q

Histology: oncocytoma

A

Large, eosinophilic polygonal cells

Numerous prominent mitochondria

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37
Q

What is the MC 1˚ renal tumor in children?

A

Wilm’s tumor

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38
Q

Histology: Wilm’s tumor

A

nests / sheets of primitive cells

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39
Q

Histology: RCCA

A

neoplastic cells w/ clear cytoplasm arranged in nests w/ intervening blood vessels

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40
Q

What is the MC cz of hydronephrosis in infants and children?

A

ureteropelvic junction obstruction

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41
Q

Histology: Graves’ dz

A

hyperplastic epithelium w/ infoldings lined w/ columnar cells

clear vacuoles next to the epithelium

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42
Q

Toxic nodular goiter (Plummer’s dz)

A

thyroid gland containing autonomously functioning nodules -> hyperthyroidism

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43
Q

Histology: Non-toxic mutlinodular goiter

A

irregularly enlarged follicles surrounded by flattened epithelium

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44
Q

Histology: de Quervain’s thyroiditis

A

granulomas

multi-nucleated giant cells

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45
Q

Hurthle cell

A

enlarged epithelial cells w/ abundant eosinophilic (pink) granular cytoplasm dt altered mitochondria

seen in Hashimoto’s and thyroid CA

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46
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

AI dz where the thyroid gland is attacked by antibodies (anti-TPO)

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47
Q

What are the MC hypothalamic suprasellar tumors?

A

gliomas and craniopharyngiomas

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48
Q

What is the MC initial sx in Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

agalactorrhea

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49
Q

Ureteritis cystica

A

fine cysts in mucosa of ureters

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50
Q

Occupational exposure to ___ can also inc. risk for RCC.

A

cadmium

asbestos

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51
Q

What is the 2nd MC type of cell type seen in renal tumors?

A

papillary (chromophilic), which arise from the proximal tubule

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52
Q

What is the 2nd MC type of renal tumor?

A

Metastatic tumor

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53
Q

Oncocytomas are a type of ____

A

renal adenoma (uncommon), which arise from collecting ducts

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54
Q

What is the MC cz of hypothyroidism in the world?

A

iodine deficinecy

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55
Q

MC sites for METS to the pituitary

A

Breast CA
Lung CA
Prostate CA

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56
Q

Histology: craniopharyngiomas

A

oil-filled cysts, which mb seen grossly

lamellations of “wet” keratin

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57
Q

Histology: pituitary adenoma

A

small round cells w/ round nuclei

pink-blue cytoplasm

arranged in nests or cords, prominent vascularity

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58
Q

What is the MC type of prostate CA?

A

adenocarcinoma

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59
Q

Corpora amylacea

A

benign small laminated pink concretions found within the glandular lumens of the prostate

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60
Q

What are the four MC types of testicular tumors?

A

Mixed cell types - 40%
Seminoma - 35%
Embryonal carcinoma - 20%
Teratoma - 5%

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61
Q

Histology: embryonal carcinoma

A

sheets of cells trying to form primitive tubules.

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62
Q

Labs: embryonal carcinoma

A

mb elev. hCG and AFP

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63
Q

Histology: seminoma

A

sheets or lobular nests of cells with intervening lymphoid stroma

cells have pale cytoplasm w/ prominent vesicular nuclei

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64
Q

Labs: seminoma tumor

A

Placental alklaline phosphatase (PLAP) in 50%

elev. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Normal serum alpha fetoprotein

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65
Q

Histology: gonococcal urethritis

A

gram- diplococci

intracellular and extracellular bacteria, PMNs

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66
Q

If bladder CA is related to schistosomiasis, it is more likely what type of CA?

A

squamous cell carcinoma (70%)

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67
Q

Risks: bladder CA

A 
cigarette smoking (esp. in men)
analgesics (long-term)
radiation to area
exposure to benzenes
schistosomiasis
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68
Q

Cystitis as a result of chemotherapy or radiation therapy can result in ___

A

hemorrhagic cystitis

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69
Q

Histology: malakoplakia

A

foamy histiocytes w/ round basophilic inclusions (Michaelis-Gutmann bodies)

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70
Q

Malakoplakia

A

slightly raised mucosal plaques of the bladder lining

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71
Q

Histology: chronic cystitis

A

chronic inflammatory cells (esp. lymphocytes) in lamnia propria of the bladder

lymphocytes may form germinal centers

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72
Q

Men with prostatic enlargement are at an increased risk for ___

A

acquired bladder diverticuli

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73
Q

Patients with congenital exstropy of the bladder have an increased risk for ____.

A

bladder adenocarcinoma

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74
Q

What is the MC type of ureteral malignancies?

A

transitional cell carcinomas

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75
Q

Morphology: Ureteritis follicularis

A

fine granular appearance

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76
Q

Ureteritis follicularis

A

increased lymphocytes in subepithelial region dt chronic localized inflammation

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77
Q

Most islet cell antibodies in DM1 are directed against ___

A

glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) within beta cells

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78
Q

Histology: DM type 1

A

lymphocytic infiltration in islets of Langerhans

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79
Q

Histology: DM type 2

A

hyalnization, amyloid deposits in islet cells

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80
Q

What histological feature of DM2 is also seen in normal aging?

A

amyloid deposits

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81
Q

Male patients with diabetic neuropathy are at an increased risk for ___

A

impotence

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82
Q

What are the first histological changes that are noted in patients with diabetic nephropathy?

A

thickened capillary walls within glomerulus

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83
Q

MC location for tumors (MEN1)

A

parathyroid gland (90%)

pancreas (gastrinoma - 50%, insulinoma - 20%)

pituitary gland (66%)

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84
Q

MC location for tumors (MEN2A)

A

medullary thyroid carcinoma (100%)

pheochromocytoma (50%)

parathyroid gland (50%)

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85
Q

MC location for tumors (MEN2B)

A

medullary thyroid carcinoma (85%)

pheochromocytoma (60%)

mucosal neuroma (100%)

marfanoid body habitus (80%)

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86
Q

What is the MC and often initial manifestation and of MEN1?

A

1˚ hyperparathyroidism

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87
Q

What are the MC ant. pituitary tumors seen in MEN1 patients?

A

prolactinomas

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88
Q

Histology: medullary thyroid cancer

A

multiple areas of amyloid deposition

+ staining for calcitonin

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89
Q

Both MEN2A and MEN2B have an increased risk of ___

A

intestinal aganglionosis and Hirschsprung dz

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90
Q

PTH1 receptors are found in the highest concentration where?

A

bone, kidney

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91
Q

PTHrP is MC secreted in which types of cancers?

A

breast, lung CA

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92
Q

What is often the first sign of malignancy in paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

PTHrP-related hypercalcemia

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93
Q

What is the 2nd MC form of 1˚ hyperparathyroidism?

A

parathyroid hyperplasia

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94
Q

What is the least common form of 1˚ hyperparathyroidism?

A

parathyroid carcinoma

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95
Q

What is the MC cz of 2˚ hyperparathyroidism?

A

renal failure

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96
Q

Cells of the adrenal medulla produce ___

A

EPI (80%)
NE (20%)
Dopamine (small amt)

97
Q

What area of the adrenal produces aldosterone?

A

zona glomerulosa (outermost layer)

98
Q

What area of the adrenal produces cortisol?

A

zona fasiculata (middle layer)

99
Q

What area of the adrenal produces sex steroids?

A

zona reticularis (innermost layer)

100
Q

Etiology: Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)

A

MC functional adrenal adenoma

101
Q

MC Etiology: Cushing’s syndrome

A

long-term glucocorticoids

102
Q

What is the MC tumor associated w/ paraneoplastic production of ACTH?

A

carcinoma of the lungs

103
Q

1˚ Addison’s dz is often associated with what AI conditions?

A

DM1

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Vitiligo

104
Q

Addison’s disease is a result of insufficient ___ production.

A

cortisol

105
Q

Waterson-Frederickson syndrome

A

Type of 2˚ Addison’s disease

Adrenal gland failure dt hemorrhage into adrenals (hemorrhagic necrosis)

MC dt severe bacterial infx (meningococcal infx)

106
Q

SSx: 21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Females: virilization, abn menses, infertility

Males: precocious sexual development

107
Q

What is the MC solid, extra-cranial malignancy in infants and children?

A

neuroblastoma

108
Q

Histology: neuroblastoma

A

rosettes, pale-staining neurofibrils

109
Q

What is the MC type of thyroid CA?

A

Papillary carcinoma

110
Q

What is the 2nd MC type of thyroid CA?

A

follicular carcinoma

111
Q

What is the 3rd MC type of thyroid CA?

A

medullary carcinoma

112
Q

XR: Paget’s dz of bone

A

cotton ball appearance

113
Q

Patients with Paget’s dz of bone have an inc. risk for ___

A

development of malignant neoplasms, esp. osteosarcoma

114
Q

Histology: Paget’s dz of bone

A

mosaic pattern of lamellar bone (jigsaw puzzle)

115
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes syndrome

A

idiopathic avascular osteonecrosis of the epiphysis of the femoral head

116
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone dz)

A

congenital bone d/o

deficiency of type-1 collagen -> defective CT

117
Q

Xray: solitary bone cyst vs aneurysmal bone cyst

A

solitary - continuous area of bone loss

aneurysmal - honeycomb appearance

118
Q

Osteoid osteomas are usually (single/multiple).

A

single, but when multiple may be dt Gardner’s syndrome

119
Q

Osteoporosis cannot be reliably detected on XR until ___ of bone mass has been lost.

A

30-40%

120
Q

What is the MC cz of osteomyelitis in infants?

A

GABHS

121
Q

Drug users with osteomyelitis are more likely to have ___ infx.

A

gram- bacteria

122
Q

Pott’s disease

A

Tubercular osteomyelitis

123
Q

XR: osteoid osteoma

A

small, well-circumscribed round/oval lesion surrounded by densely sclerotic bone

124
Q

Gross pathology: osteoid osteoma

A

gritty, cherry red, dense sclerotic bone

125
Q

Loaction: osteoid osteoma

A

MC cortical area, sometimes in the medullary area

126
Q

What are the three MC malignancies in adolescents?

A

Leukemia
Lymphoma
Osteosarcoma

127
Q

Progression: osteosarcoma

A

aggressive, rapid growth

high risk for METS

METS as “skip” lesions w/ involvement of soft tissue

128
Q

What type of METS is common with osteosarcoma?

A

early pulmonary METS

129
Q

Histology: fibrosarcoma

A

sheets of spindle-shaped cells

130
Q

Histology: Ewing sarcoma

A

small, rounded cells, uniform in size and densely packed

indistinct cellular border, resembling lymphocytes

131
Q

XR: Ewing sarcoma

A

mottled “moth-eaten” lesion found in the medullary cavity and cortex, oft extending into surrounding soft tissue

132
Q

In children, bone METS MC originates from ___

A

neuroblastoma, Wilm’s tumor, or bone tumor

133
Q

Heberden’s nodes

A

nodes seen at surface of DIP joints in DJD

134
Q

Bouchard’s nodes

A

nodes seen at surface of PIP joints in DJD

135
Q

Genetics: RA

A

HLA-DR4

136
Q

Felty’s syndrome

A

name given to clinical triad of RA, splenomegaly, and manifestations of hypersplenism

137
Q

JRA vs RA

A

less joint pain in JRA compared to RA

less cases of JRA are RF positive

subQ nodules are infrequent in JRA

138
Q

Immunology: Ankylosing spondylitis

A

HLA-B27 positive

139
Q

80% of Reiter’s syndrome (Reactive arthritis) cases are ___

A

HLA-B27 +

140
Q

What is the MC associated GU infection for Reiter’s syndrome (Reactive arthritis)?

A

Chlamydia

141
Q

What infectious arthritis-causing organism is mc seen in females?

A

gonococcal arthritis

142
Q

What is the MC organism found in older children and adults with bacterial arthritis?

A

Staph. aureus

143
Q

What is the MC cz of bacterial arthritis in children < 2?

A

Haemophilus influenza

144
Q

Sickle cell patients are at a greater risk for ___ infection of their joints.

A

salmonella

145
Q

When bacterial arthritis has a non-gonoccocal cause, it is MC that ___

A

only a single joint is involved

146
Q

Baker’s cyst

A

synovial cyst in the popliteal fossa

147
Q

Baker’s cysts are a well recognized complication of ___.

A

RA

148
Q

Thymomas are notable for their association with ___

A

myasthenia gravis

149
Q

~60% of Lambert-Eaton syndrome cases are associated with ___

A

small cell lung CA

150
Q

What is the MC soft tissue tumor in children?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

151
Q

Up to 50% of dermatomyositis cases mb dt ___

A

paraneoplastic syndrome

152
Q

Histology (2 classic findings): dermatomyositis

A

mixed B/T-cell perivascular inflammatory infiltrate

perifascicular muscle fiber atrophy

153
Q

What is a characteristic symptom of dermatomyositis?

A

periorbital heliotrope macular rash

154
Q

Gottron’s sign

A

purple-red papular rash over dorsal MCPs, DIPs, and PIPs

seen in dermatomyositis

155
Q

V sign

A

eruption similar to Gottron’s sign occurring at the ant. neck and upper chest

156
Q

SSx: dermatomyositis vs polymyositis

A

no skin involvement in polymyositis

157
Q

Histology: polymyositis

A

lymphocytic infiltration, usu T8 lymphocytes

pale/enlarged muscle fibers w/ macrophage infiltration

158
Q

Histology: inclusion body myositis

A

focal areas of WBCs and inflammatory cells within muscle fibers

deposits of amyloid-related proteins and inclusions within muscle cells

159
Q

Pathophysiology: myasthenia gravis

A

circulating antibodies that block ACh receptors at post-synaptic neuromuscular junction -> inhibits ACh

160
Q

Physiology: Lambert-Eaton syndrome

A

antibodies directed against presynaptic calcium channels, preventing ACh release

161
Q

What is the MC CN neuropathy?

A

Bell’s palsy (acute idiopathic facial nerve neuropathy)

162
Q

Which blood vessel is MC responsible for CN V root compression in trigeminal neuralgia?

A

superior cerebellar artery

163
Q

Location (sensory sxs): Meralgia paresthetica

A

distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (anterolateral thigh)

164
Q

What is the MC cz of acute generalized paralysis in the US?

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS)

165
Q

Pathogenesis: CIDP

A

demyelination of axons by macrophages

166
Q

Familial amyloidosis is a result of mutated forms of ___

A

transthyretin

167
Q

What is the MC viral pathogen that affects the PNS?

A

VZV

168
Q

Vestibular schwannomas are seen in what syndrome?

A

neurofibromatosis

169
Q

Comparison (schwannomas): neurofibromatosis type 1 vs type 2

A 
Type 1: 
bilateral rare
usu present in adult life
cafe au lait spots
dt mutation of neurofibromin

Type 2: bilateral
< 21
dt mutation of protein merlin (neurofibromin 2)

170
Q

Neurofibroma

A

common, benign, spindle cell tumors of peripheral nerves

171
Q

Spina bifida occulta

A

condition dt missing portion of a posterior vertebral body

172
Q

Meningocele

A

herniation of the meninges but not cord

173
Q

Menigomyelocele

A

herniation of the meninges and spinal cord

174
Q

What lab result is associated with neural tube defects (spina bifida, anencephaly) and abd. wall defects?

A

elevated AFP

175
Q

Below normal AFP levels are associated with ___.

A

Down’s syndrome and Trisomy 18

176
Q

Mothers with which genetic variant are more likely to have elevated AFP?

A

methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase

177
Q

Cerebral palsy MC occurs when?

A

during pregnancy (75%)

birth (10%)

after birth (15%)

178
Q

Cerebral palsy is mc in ___.

A

premature infants

179
Q

What is the MC autopsy finding in newborns and infants with cerebral palsy?

A

periventricular leukomalacia

180
Q

PVL

A

white matter necrosis developing around the lateral ventricles with calcification, cysts, and glial scarring

181
Q

Histology: meningococcal meningitis

A

gram- diplococci within a neutrophil

182
Q

Dx: cryptococcal meningitis

A

CSF stains w/ India ink may show circular yeast bodies

183
Q

What is the MC cz of viral meningitis in children and adults?

A

enteroviruses (Coxsackie A and B, echovirus, poliovirus)

184
Q

What is the MC cz of sporadic encephalitis in developed countries?

A

HSV

185
Q

Labs: Paget’s dz of bone

A

elev. serum alk phos

186
Q

Paget’s dz of bone (osteitis deformans)

A

d/o characterized by high bone turnover w/ accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity

leads to inc. calcification of bone -> inc. bone deposition in skull, pelvis, tibia, femur

187
Q

Sxs: GBS vs botulism

A

GBS - ascending paralysis

botulism - descending paralysis

188
Q

Mechanisms for diabetic neuropathy

A

microvascular dz -> ischemia/hypoxia

hyperglycemia -> inc. sorbitol, dec. inositol -> dec. Na/K ATPase -> change axon structure and conduction

189
Q

% of prolactinomas with excess hormone production?

A

35%

190
Q

% of somatotrophic adenomas with excess hormone production?

A

16%

191
Q

% of corticotrophic adenomas with excess hormone production?

A

7%

192
Q

% of gonadotropic adenomas with excess hormone production?

A

12%

193
Q

% of thyrotrophic adenomas with excess hormone production?

A

< 1%

194
Q

What % of all pituitary adenomas are non-secretive?

A

25-30%

195
Q

Lumbar Puncture (opening pressure): bacterial vs viral vs fungal vs tubercular

A

bac - elev (> 180)

viral - usu normal

fungal/TB - variable

196
Q

Lumbar Puncture (WBC): bacterial vs viral vs fungal vs tubercular

A

bac - > 1000

viral - < 100

fungal/TB - variable

197
Q

Lumbar Puncture (cell differential): bacterial vs viral vs fungal vs tubercular

A

bac - PMNs (neutrophils)

viral/fungal/TB - lymphocytes

198
Q

Lumbar Puncture (protein): bacterial vs viral vs fungal vs tubercular

A

bac - mild/marked elev. (>4.5)

viral - normal to elev.

fungal/TB - elev.

199
Q

Lumbar Puncture (CSF-to-serum glucose ratio): bacterial vs viral vs fungal vs tubercular

A

bac - normal to marked dec. (<0.4)

viral - usu normal

fungal/TB - low

200
Q

Intracranial hypotension

A

< 60 mm H2O

201
Q

Intracranial hypertension

A

> 250 mm H2O

202
Q

Yellow, orange, or pink discoloration of the CSF

A

xanthochromia

203
Q

Xanthochromia is pressent in > 90% of patients with ___ within __ hrs.

A

SA hemorrhage

12

204
Q

Latex agglutination is best used to diagnose __.

A

H. influenzae

205
Q

CSF: gram stain is positive __% of the time.

A

60%

206
Q

CSF: culture is positive __% of the time.

A

80%

207
Q

PCR is best for identifying __

A

viral meningitis

208
Q

What is pathognomonic for ATN?

A

muddy brown casts on UA

209
Q

Goodpasture’s leads to basement membrane changes where?

A

kidneys

lungs

210
Q

Histology: chronic interstitial nephritis

A

glomeruli do not show pathologic changes

211
Q

Genetics: Wilm’s tumor

A

chromosome 11 defect

212
Q

Histology: non-gonoccocal urethritis

A

granulated cytoplasmic inclusions

213
Q

Histology: papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

A

psammoma bodies

214
Q

Bilateral or unilateral: medullary carcinoma

A

bilateral when familial

unilateral when sporadic

215
Q

Lab: medullary carcinoma

A

elev. calcitonin

216
Q

Histology: parathyroid adenoma

A

little/no adipose tissue

217
Q

Histology: parathyroid cancer

A

fibrotic septae

218
Q

Histology: IgA nephropathy

A

PAS +

219
Q

Histology: Diabetic nephropathy

A

PAS + nodules

220
Q

Histology: insulinoma

A

increased cellular uptake

221
Q

What is often the only clinical sign of 1˚ hyperaldosteronism

A

HTN

222
Q

MC cz of 1˚ Addison’s

A

AI destruction of adrenal cortex

223
Q

MC organism: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

Neisseria meningitidis

224
Q

Histology: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

hemorrhagic necrosis

225
Q

What causes increased osteoclast activity in 2˚ osteoporosis?

A

increased cytokines

226
Q

Onset: osteopetrosis vs Paget’s

A

osteopetrosis - birth

Paget’s - 4th decade

227
Q

XR: Paget’s

A

widened bone w/ coarse trabecular markins

228
Q

Location: solitary bone cyst vs aneurysmal bone cyst

A

solitary - epiphysis

aneurysmal - metaphysis

229
Q

XR: osteosarcoma

A

joint space rarely involved

spicules of calcium

230
Q

XR: giant cell tumor

A

non-sclerotic

well-defined borders

231
Q

Histology: OA

A

fibrous-lined cysts in subchondral bone

232
Q

Joint involvement: RA

A

bilateral, symmetrical, polyarticular

233
Q

MC organism in infants: osteomyelitis vs bacterial arthritis

A

osteomyelitis - group B strep

bacterial - H. flu

234
Q

Histology: pigmented villonodular synovitis

A

PMNs, hemosiderin-laden macrophages

235
Q

XR: synovial sarcoma

A

focal calcification

236
Q

MC location: rhabdomyosarcoma

A

orbit

237
Q

Histology: rhabdomyosarcoma

A

interweaving bundles of spindle-shaped cells

238
Q

Histology: perineuroma

A

elongated cells in parallel bundles

Pathology (3 decks)

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