Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CV > PATH > Flashcards

PATH Flashcards

1
Q

define hemodynamics

A

flow of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

systole

A

blood pumping phase of the cardiac cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diastole

A

chamber filling phase of the cardiac cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

preload

A

the ventricular wall tension at teh end of diastole (degree of myocyte stretch) determined by end-diastolic volume, reflected in end-diastolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

afterload

A

the resistance the ventricle must overcome to pump its contents, determined by systolic blood pressure, reflected in ventricular systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

myocardial contractility

A

inotropic state determining the portion of the force of contraction independently of preload and afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

compliance

A

the distendibility of the ventricle, determining the ease of filling it and indirectly, the amount of filling and hence the amount of blood pumped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

heart failure

A

inability of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

B-type natriuretic peptide

A

a hormone secreted by left ventricle in heart failure in proportion to the severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

normal LV EDV

A

150 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

normal LV End-systolic volume

A

50 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

normal stroke volume

A

100 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

normal ejection fraction

A

67%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

normal LV end diastolic pressure

A

11 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

normal LV systolic pressure

A

130 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal RA pressure

A

3 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

normal RV systolic pressure

A

25 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

normal LA pressure

A

8 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what percentage reduction in forward stroke volume is the threshold for heart failure

A

25% reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are 5 major modifiable risk factors for heart disease

A 
smoking
HTN
obesity
diabetes
dyslipidemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does B-type natriuretic peptide do?

A

it causes you to excrete sodium and water, it is counterregulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Severe acute uncompensated aortic regurgitation is a __________________

A

surgical emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is diastolic dysfunction

A

impaired cardiac filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is systolic dysfunction

A

impaired cardiac pumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

heart disease due to aortic stenosis severe hypertension or CAD typically ____________the ejection fraction

A

lowers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

heart failure due to left ventricular hypertophy, restrictive cardiomyopathy or pericardial disease is typically with ______________ in ejection fraction

A

preservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

when ventricular compliance decreases below the ability of the atrium to fill it normally it restricts (impairs) cardiac pumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the most common cause of right heart failure

A

left heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sudden cardiac death is 3x more common in __________

A

males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

approximately _________% of sudden cardiac deaths are attributed to CAD.

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sudden cardiac death is usually due to_____________

A

ventricular tachyarrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is automaticity

A

cell’s ability to depolarize itself to a threshold generating a spontaneous action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the most common cause of prolonged QT interval

A

myocardial ischemia (ischemic heart disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what do you call it if all QRS complexes look alike

A

monomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what do you call it when the QRS complexes vary in morphology

A

polymorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the most common tachyarrhythmia

A

atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the 2nd most comon tachyarrhythmia

A

atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the risk of early afterdepolarizations

A

ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the risk of ventricular tachycardia

A

sudden cardiac death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

about how many babies, children and young adults die of channelopathies in US each year

A

4,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

____________ of a channelopathy could save a young person’s life

A

recognizing the EKG signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

define compensated heart failure

A

if dilated ventricle is able to maintain CO w/ heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

pressure overload effect on the heart

A

concentric hypertrophy (wall-thickening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

volume overload on the heart

A

dilation of ventricle (eccentric hypertrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is stenosis

A

failure of a valve to open completely, obstructing forward flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is valvular insufficiency

A

results from failure of a valve to close completely thereby allowing regurgitation of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

antibodies to which protein on group A strep are responsible for rheumatic valvular disease

A

M-protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is most common cause of death in the US?

A

atherosclerotic CV disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Atherosclerosis happens in which 2 categories of arteries?

A

medium (muscular) arteries
large elastic arteries

favors branchpoints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

name the factors that mediate the recruitment of leukocytes into the tunica intima during atherosclerosis. (4)

A

Leukocyte adhesion molecules (LAM)
monocyte chemotactic protein 1
IFN-inducible protein 10
IL-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

name the 4 factors that mediate recruitment of smooth muscle cells into the tunica intima during atherosclerosis

A

PDGF
TNF-alpha
TGF-beta
IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

name the 4 factors that mediated ECM production by smooth muscle cells in atherosclerosis

A

IL-1
TNF-alpha
TGF-beta
FGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is atheroma

A

composed of amorphous eosinophilic debris, cholesterol clefts, fibrin, smooth muscle cells and foam cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the fibrous cap of an atheroma composed of?

A

collagen
proliferating smooth muscle cells
macrophages
lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is a bad side effect of neovascularization?

A

the new abnormal blood vessels that are created are prone to rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are the 3 main factors that predispose to thrombosis?

A

endothelial injury
hypercoagulability
abnormal blood flow (stasis & turbulence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is likely to happen after a plaque rupture?

A

thrombosis leading to 100% occlusion (transmural) of the artery and subsequent myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the most fearsome of the complications of atherosclerosis?

A

superimposed thrombosis

59
Q

which 2 categories of arteries are involved in atherosclerosis?

A

Large elastic arteries

medium muscular arteries

60
Q

why does having more smooth muscle cells in a plaque indicate a greater mechanical strength?

A

in plaques the smooth muscle cells make collagen, the more collagen you have, the more stable you are

61
Q

what are Nichols’ 5 steps of atherosclerosis?

A
  1. malfunction of injured endothelial cells
  2. accumulation of lipid in tunica intima
  3. wbc recruitment into tunica intima
  4. foam cell formation
  5. ECM deposition
62
Q

how does LDL get trapped into the tunica intima in the 2nd step of atherosclerosis?

A

LDL trapped by binding to ECM proteoglycans whose production is increased by HTN

63
Q

90% of myocardial infarctions are due to ______________________

A

coronary atherosclerosis

64
Q

what are stunned myocytes?

A

myocytes injured by acute ischemia which look normal but need time to repair before they work normally again

65
Q

what are stunned myocytes?

A

myocytes injured by acute ischemia which look normal but need time to repair before they work normally again

66
Q

term for chornically ischemic myocytes, which have cleared cytoplasm due to catabolism of their contractile proteins and need time to regenerate their contractile proteins before they work again

A

hibernating myocytes

67
Q

term for chornically ischemic myocytes, which have cleared cytoplasm due to catabolism of their contractile proteins and need time to regenerate their contractile proteins before they work again

A

hibernating myocytes

68
Q

term for light microscopic appearance of hibernating myocytes

A

myocytolysis

69
Q

term for light microscopic appearance of hibernating myocytes

A

myocytolysis

70
Q

term for resistance to mild-mod. ischemia due to induction of protective proteins by brief episodes of ischemia

A

ischemic preconditioning

71
Q

term for resistance to mild-mod. ischemia due to induction of protective proteins by brief episodes of ischemia

A

ischemic preconditioning

72
Q

term for dead myocytes w/ dense hypereosinophilic transverse bands of hypercontracted sarcomeres, associated w/ reperfusion

A

contraction band necrosis

73
Q

term for dead myocytes w/ dense hypereosinophilic transverse bands of hypercontracted sarcomeres, associated w/ reperfusion

A

contraction band necrosis

74
Q

term for failure of relieving obstruction at the arterial level to restore blood flow, attributed to microvascular obstruction or edema

A

no reflow phenomenon

75
Q

term for failure of relieving obstruction at the arterial level to restore blood flow, attributed to microvascular obstruction or edema

A

no reflow phenomenon

76
Q

term for hemorrhage and other problems associated with bringing oxygen and Ca2+ to injured tissue, attributed to ROS and metabolic effects of Ca2+

A

reperfusion injury

77
Q

term for hemorrhage and other problems associated with bringing oxygen and Ca2+ to injured tissue, attributed to ROS and metabolic effects of Ca2+

A

reperfusion injury

78
Q

term for abnormal localized dilatation of an artery vein or heart

A

aneurysm

79
Q

term for: contains ruptures of the tunica intima and media and sometimes even adventitia of an artery

A

pseudoaneurysm

80
Q

term for: catastrophic tear of the tunica intima letting luminal blood under high pressure into the tunica media, where it tunnels a second lumen

A

aortic dissection

81
Q

term for: ischemic pain of the periphery, usually legs, usually calves, usually intermittent, usually brought on by exertion and relieved by rest

A

claudication

82
Q

alternate name for thromboangiitis obliterans, a chronic thrombosing inflammatory disease of small and medium arteries and veins of arms and legs

A

Buerger disease

83
Q

ectasia

A

a generalized dilatation usually associated w/ aging

84
Q

what are the 5 P’s of acute arterial occlusion?

A 
pain
pallor
paralysis
parathesia
pulselessness
85
Q

which chronic thrombosing inflammatory disease has a very strong association with smoking?

A

Buerger’s disease

86
Q

you have an elderly white female come in with diplopia, jaw claudication, and a swollen tender artery, what does she have?

A

temporal (giant cell) arteritis

87
Q

term for chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease of muscles that some regard as one end of a spectrum w/ temporal arteritis on the other end and the combo in the middle

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

88
Q

prompt diagnosis and treatment of _________________ can save young asian baby boys from chronic heart disease of death.

A

Kawasaki’s disease

89
Q

term for simultaneous inflamm. of myocardium and pericardium commonly attributed to viral infection

A

myopericarditis

90
Q

term for JVD, muffled heart sounds and hypotension, signs of cardiac tamponade

A

Beck’s triad

91
Q

term for an exaggeration of the normal decrease in BP w/ inspiration >10 mm Hg systolic, associated w/ cardiac tamponade or asthma

A

pulsus paradoxus

92
Q

term for superficial scratchy or squeaking sound, frequently triphasic associated w/ acute pericarditis

A

pericardial friction rub

93
Q

term for heterogeneous group of myocardial diseases associated w/ mechanical and or electrical dysfunction of the heart

A

cardiomyopathy

94
Q

term for group of genetic diseases w/ hypertrophy as a compensatory mechanism for mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins of the cardiac sarcomere

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

95
Q

term for wastebasket category of nonspecific end stage heart disease w/ cardiac dilatation and heart failure and no cause evident

A

idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy

96
Q

term for benign gelatinous mesenchymal neoplasm of endocardium

A

cardiac myxoma

97
Q

what is the most common disease of the pericardium?

A

acute pericarditis

98
Q

what is the most common cause of death in young athletes?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

99
Q

term for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with features of asymmetric septal hypertrophy and subaortic stenosis

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

100
Q

if you have an african american who comes in with arrhythmias, causing syncope, or sudden death, what do you think he had?

A

cardiac sarcoidosis

101
Q

leg edema, hepatomegaly, ascite and JVD can all be manifestations of ____________________

A

right heart failure

102
Q

what do you call afterdepolarizaitons that occur during phase 2 or phase 3

A

early afterdepolarizations

103
Q

what do you call afterdepolarizations that occur during phase 4

A

delayed afterdepolarizations (associated with high intracellular levels of calcium, can happen w/ digoxin or marked catecholamine stimulation)

104
Q

a cardiac arrhythmia, especially heart block, in a young AA suggests the possibility of _________________

A

cardiac sarcoidosis

105
Q

what is normal QTc?

A

440 milliseconds

106
Q

what are asteroid bodies in a cardiac biopsy indicative of?

A

cardiac sarcoidosis

107
Q

which cardiac disease has a characteristic epsilon wave (notch in terminal part of QRS, most prominent in V1)

A

right ventricular cardiomyopathy

108
Q

what are earliest lesions in atherosclerosis?

A

fatty streaks (reversible)

109
Q

what kind of atherosclerotic plaque is vulnerable to rupture and superimposed thrombosis w/ severe conseqences?

A

atherosclerotic plaque w/ large loose atheromatous core and thin fibrous cap

110
Q

term for irreversible necrosis of heart muscle due to prolonged ischemia, longer than 20 minutes

A

myocardial infarction

111
Q

unreperfused MI gross path at 0-12 hrs (acute phase)

A

nothing

112
Q

unreperfused MI gross path at 12-24 hrs (acute phase)

A

progressive pallor

113
Q

unreperfused MI gross path at 2-3 days (acute phase)

A

yellow and softened

114
Q

unreperfused MI gross path at 4-7 days (subacute phase)

A

red granulation tissue border

115
Q

unreperfused MI gross path at 1-6 wks (subacute phase)

A

gradual replacement of yellow infarct by red granulation tissue

116
Q

unreperfused MI gross path at 6-12 wks (subacute phase)

A

gradual white scarring

117
Q

unreperfused MI micropath at 1-3 hours (acute phase)

A

thin wavy myocytes

118
Q

unreperfused MI micropath at 4-12 hours (acute phase)

A

coagulation necrosis

119
Q

unreperfused MI micropath at 6-12 hours (acute phase)

A

neutrophilic infiltration (usually associated w/ edema and hemorrhage, peaks on third day)

120
Q

unreperfused MI micropath Early subacute phase (order of lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts)

A

first lymphocytes at day 2
first macrophages at day 3
first fibroblasts at day 4

121
Q

unreperfused MI micropath late subacute phase (day 11 to week 12)

A

angiogenesis and proliferation of fibroblasts, the fibroblasts eventually replace granulation tissue w/ fibrous scar

122
Q

reperfused gross MI at 1-3 days (acute phase)

A

dark mottling and hemorrhage immediately following reperfusion

123
Q

reperfused MI grosspath at days 4-5 (earliest subacute)

A

dark mottled red and brown (no change)

124
Q

reperfused MI grosspath 6-10 days (early subacute)

A

shrunken red and brown and bits of gray-white

125
Q

reperfused MI gross 11-14 days (midsubacute)

A

brown and intermingled w/ gray-white

126
Q

reperfused MI gross path at 2-7 wks (late subacute)

A

progressive white, intermingled normal

127
Q

reperfused MI micropath at 1-3 days (acute phase)

A

contraction band necrosis and hemorrhage immediately following reperfusion

128
Q

reperfused MI micropath at 2 hours

A

coagulative necrosis first visible after 2 hours

129
Q

reperfused MI micropath: macropages, fibroblasts

A

macs sooner and heavier at day 2

fibroblasts sooner at day 3

130
Q

reperfused MI micropath days 4-10 (early subacute phase)

A

lymphocytes, eosinophils, followed by formation of granulation then collagen (overall makes the infarct appear older than it is)

131
Q

reperfused MI micropath days 11-end (late subacute phase)

A

healing can be rapidly accelerated, (reperfusion accelerates healing by about 40% on average)

132
Q

what are the 9 reperfusion effects of MI

A
  1. smaller
  2. patchier
  3. hemorrhage into it
  4. more contraction band necrosis
  5. accelerated inflamm. and repair
  6. diffusion of inflamm. and repair
  7. fewer polys
  8. more macs
  9. more interstitial fibrosis
133
Q

term for outputouching of all 3 layers of an artery

A

true aneurysm

134
Q

elevated blood levels of C-reactive protein and IL-6 are associated w/ what?

A

aneurysm formation

135
Q

what is the major determinant for whether an aneurysm will rupture or not

A

DIAMETER

136
Q

what are type A aortic aneurysms?

A

involve the ascending aortaand/or arch (MORE COMMON AND MORE SERIOUS)

137
Q

what are type B aortic aneurysms?

A

involve descending aorta alone

138
Q

Acute arterial occlusion is manifested by the 5 P’s and regarding treatment, is a ________________________

A

surgical emergency

139
Q

what is the first line treatment in peripheral artery disease?

A

exercise, especially walking (which develops collateral blood flow)

140
Q

if you have a pt with intermittent claudication in the legs you might be thinking about

A

peripheral artery disease

141
Q

you see an asian 20 something smoker with instep claudication, and you think he definitely has what?

A

Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)

142
Q

how do you diagnose most peripheral vascular diseases?

A

history and physical examination

143
Q

what is the main treatment for the guy with Bueger disease?

A

STOP SMOKING

CV (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions