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Path Flashcards

1
Q

What causes endocarditis and glomerulonephritis?

A

Lupus

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2
Q

2 tooth infections that can kill you

A

Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis & Ludwigs angina

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3
Q

What causes changes in the ear and eye and ENAMEL HYPOPLASIA

A

Treacher Collins Syndrome

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4
Q

Scarlet Fever is strawberry TONGUE and affects ____ papillae.

A

fungiform

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5
Q

Are fordyce granules uni or bilateral?

A

Bilateral

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6
Q

Turner Tooth is known as ___plastic. Most commonly involved site:

A

Hypo

Mandibular PM

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7
Q

Tx for recurrent aphthous stomatitis

A

Corticosteriod

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8
Q

What affects the skin and eye and causes a subepithelial split.

A

Pemhigoid

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9
Q

What causes positive Nikolsky sign

A

Pemphigus

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10
Q

What is classic for HPV

A

Condyloma Acuminatum (venereal wart)

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11
Q

Which candidiasis is accute?

A

Pseudomembranous

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12
Q

Median rhomboid glossitis causes atrophy of ____ papillae

A

filiform

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13
Q

Ulcer in NON-MOVABLE area (palate and gingiva) is

A

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

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14
Q

Most common area for Traumatic Neuroma

A

Mental Nerve

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15
Q

Is Pyogenic Granuloma painful?

A

NO

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16
Q

What are the 3 P’s that cause lesions on gingiva

A

Pyogenic Granuloma
Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma
Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma

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17
Q

What causes liver colored (brownish purple) mass on gingiva?

A

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma

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18
Q

What has cauliflower appearance on epithelium (most common benign neoplasm of epithelium origin). Can be induced by HPV 6 + 11

A

Squamous Papilloma

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19
Q

Fibroma is ___plasia

A

HYPER

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20
Q 
#1 site for Granular Cell Tumor?
Exhibits: psuedoepitheliomatous \_\_\_\_plasia
A

Dorsum of tongue

-HYPER

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21
Q

If you have a whit plaque after 2 weeks that doesn’t wipe off, it’s:
-Premalignant?

A

Leukoplakia

-Yes!

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22
Q

Does cytology smear work for leukoplakia?

A

NO! need biopsy

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23
Q

Erthroplakia is likely to transform into:

A

Carcinoma. BAD!

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24
Q

Most common oral site of SCC:

Worst area to see it:

A

Mid-lateral border of tongue

-floor of mouth

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25
Q

Most common site of Metastatic Disease of the jaws?

  • Does it cause tooth shift?
  • Does radiograph show [sclerotic] border?
A

Posterior mandible

  • NO
  • NO
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26
Q

Monomorphic Adenoma most common site

A

Upper lip

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27
Q

Pt has red, swollen (hyperplastic), bleeding gingiva (interdental papilla) with ulcers…

A

Leukemia

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28
Q

Verrucous Carcinoma most common site?

-Biggest difference from SCC?

A

Buccal vestibule

-Doesn’t metastasize

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29
Q

Most common gene of SCC

A

p53

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30
Q

Most common benign salivary gland tumor:

Most common Malignant salivary gland tumor:

A

Pleomorphic Adenoma

-Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

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31
Q

Lateral Periodontal Cyst is a TRUE cyst. Is it between vital teeth?

A

Yes

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32
Q

Most common odontogenic tumor

A

Ameloblastoma

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33
Q

Ameloblastoma is most common:
Does it cross midline?
-Often associated with:
-Histology***

A

Odontogenic tumor

  • Yes
  • impacted tooth
  • Reverse polarization of nuclei of the tall COLUMNAR cells of the periphery
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34
Q

What causes more pain – ameloblastoma or ameloblastic fibroma

A

Ameloblastic fibroma

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35
Q

Odontoma is what age range?

-Radiographically looks like:

A

First 2 decades of life

-Toothlets (a bunch of little white stones)

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36
Q

Teenage girls has impacted upper canine with snowflake calcifications

A

AOT (Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor)

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37
Q

What’s it called when enamel is missing?

A

Amelogenesis Imperfecta

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38
Q

What causes opalescent (blue grey) sclera, lack of pulp chambers and bell shaped crown

A

Dentinogensis Imperfecta

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39
Q

Young kid has unilateral expansion of maxilla or mandible onset before puberty. Pt also has Cafe au Lait pigmentation and ground glass appearance on x-ray

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

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40
Q

Difference of Cherubism and Fibrous Dysplasia?

A

Fibrous is unilateral

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41
Q

Pt has non-vital tooth with radioopacity at apex (that does NOT connect with root)

A

Condensing Osteitis (NOT cementoblastoma which connects to root)

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42
Q

Tooth is VITAL and has radioopacity at apex

A

Idiopathic Osteosclerosis

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43
Q

Tramatic Bone Cyst is radio____ with ____ margins

A

lucent

scalloped

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44
Q

Increased alkaline phophatase causes

A

Pagets

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45
Q

Bilateral maxilla affected with cotton wool appearance and histology shows mosaic pattern. 50% show hypercementosis

A

Pagets

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46
Q

How is pagets different than cherubism

A

Pagets is older people. Cherubism stops after puberty

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47
Q

What causes tooth “floating”

A

Langerhans Cells Disease (Histiocytosis X)

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48
Q

Does nasolabial cyst affect bone?

A

NO, just soft tissue

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49
Q

Pale, yellowish, well circumscribed sweeling on ventral tongue/floor of mouth

A

Lymphoepithelial cyst

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50
Q

What infrabony cyst in posterior mandible has a parakertain surface and HIGH recurrence

A

Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC)

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51
Q

Gorlin Syndrome includes what 3 things:

A

Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinomas, OKCs, bifid RIB

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52
Q

What causes bifid rib, and calcification of falx cerebri?

A

Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrom (Gorlin Syndrome)

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53
Q

What syndrome causes multiple skin nodules, HYPERdontia (unerupted teeth), and GI polyps

A

Gardner Syndrome

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54
Q

Bell’s Palsy causes __ nerve paralysis. How long does it last?

A

7th

-less than a month

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55
Q

Erythema Multiforme causes bullseyes in what age/sex?

  • Triggered by?
  • Which part of mouth does it NOT affect
A

Young males

  • Drug or viral infection
  • Gingiva
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56
Q

Stevens Johnson syndrome is a severe version of:

A

Erythema Multiforme

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57
Q

Which affects basement membrane (deep) – pemphigoid or pemphigus.

A

pemphigoiD (D for DEEP)

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58
Q

Most common Immunoglobulin for Pemphigus?

A

IgG

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59
Q

What causes wideining of PDL space and Trismus

A

Progressive Systemic Sclerosis (Sclerodema)

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60
Q

Benign Migratory Glossitis (geographic tongue) causes atrophy to ____ papillae.
-Tx?

A

filliform

-Corticosteroid rinse (dexamethasone)

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61
Q

Painless ulcer of UPPER lip with raised margins. Does NOT occur intraorally.

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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62
Q

Does basal cell carcinoma usually metastasize?

A

NO

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63
Q

Where is an Antral (mucous retention) Pseudocyst located?

A

Maxillary sinus

64
Q

Proliferation of the Reduced Enamel Epithelium cause:

A

Dentigerous Cyst

65
Q

Can dentigerous cyst become malignant?

A

YES (unicystic ameloblastoma)

66
Q

What are blue dilated veins seen in the elderly called?

A

Varices

67
Q

What can tuberculosis cause orally?

A

Ulcers that mimic cancer

68
Q

Eagle Syndrom is elongation or calcification of the ____ ligament.
-So it causes pain when:

A

stylohyoid

-chewing, yawning, opening mouth

69
Q

What has a striking unilateral distribution?

A

Herpes ZOSTER

70
Q

What causes sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, low grade fever?

A

Primary Herpes Gingivostomatitis

71
Q

How does Crohns appear in the mouth?

A

Granulomatous gingivitis, aphthous-like ulcers

72
Q

Which cyst on the MIDLINE has a DOUGHY consistency?

A

Dermoid Cyst — Dermoid Doughy

73
Q

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome causes what orally?

A

multiple neuromas on tongue

74
Q

What is the most common developmental NON-odontogenic cyst?

-What shape is it radiographically?

A

Incisive Canal Cyst

-heart

75
Q

What causes White Sponge Nevus?

-Does it affect the eyes?

A

Genetics – autosomal dominant

-NO!

76
Q

Best x-ray for cleft palate?

A

Maxillary occlusal

77
Q

What causes intense pain for one week on ONE side at forehead and around eye?

A

Neuritis

78
Q

What is Cheilitis Grandularis?

-Premaligannt?

A

inflamed minor salivary glands on lips causing mucous secretions
-yes! (SCC)

79
Q

White, rough plaque on lateral border of tongue that shows HIV patient progressing to AIDS ?
-What virus is it caused by?

A

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

-Epstein-Barr Virus

80
Q

Middle aged black woman has multifocal periaplical radiolucencies on vital lower anterior teeth

A

Periapical Cemento-osseous dysplasia

81
Q

What age and sex is most common for Lichen Planus?

A

Middle aged women

82
Q

Wickham’s striae that does NOT wipe off

A

Lichen Planus

83
Q

Is Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma in bone?

A

NO! In soft tissue, but makes bone. It’s one of the 3 P’s on the gingiva

84
Q

Cleidocranial Dysplasia has what affect on number of teeth and eruption timing?
-Retention of:

A

Multiple unerupted supernumerary teeth. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth.
-primary teeth

85
Q

Neurofibromatosis causes neurofibromas where?

-Causes what skin pigmentation?

A

Tongue

-Cafe au Lait

86
Q

What causes ghost cells?

A

Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst

87
Q

Melanotic Neuroectodermal Tumor of Infancy causes increase in:

A

vanillymandelic acid (VMA)

88
Q

Auriculotemporal syndrome causes what before eating?

-Often after which surgery?

A

Sweating of one side of face

-parotid gland surgery

89
Q

Starch Iodine test would be used to diagnose:

A

Auriculotemporal Syndrome

90
Q

What causes soft tissue swelling with “woody” consistency and multiple draining fistulas with SULFUR granules?

A

Actinomycosis

91
Q

Most common site for dens-in-dente

A

maxillary lateral incisor

92
Q

Ectodermal Dysplasia has what affect on teeth?

A

Hypodontia (anodontia)

93
Q

What is Epulis Fissuratum?

A

Hyperplastic CT from ill-fitting denture

94
Q

Gingival cyst of the adult is most common where

A

mandibular anterior

95
Q

Most common cause of macroglossia (large tongue)

A

lymphangioma

96
Q

Hypercementosis is on a (vital/non-vital) mandibular 1st molar.
-Generalized if you have:

A

VITAL

-acromegaly

97
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis causes swelling where?

-Associated with which virus

A

cervical/lateral swelling

-Epstein-Barr

98
Q

Which type of nevus is most likely to undergo malignant transformation (melanoma)

A

Junctional type

99
Q

Karposi’s Sarcome is caused by:

-Most common site

A

Herpes virus type 8

-hard palate

100
Q

Keratoacanthoma is caused by:

  • Does it resolve?
  • What’s in thecenter of the ulceration?
A

Sun

  • Spontaneously resolves
  • Keratin plug
101
Q

Where is Warthin’s tumor located?

A

Parotid (NOT in oral cavity)

102
Q

Does Vit C deficiency cause xerostomia?

A

NO

103
Q

Stafne Defect is caused by?

A

salivary gland in x ray (nothing to treat)

104
Q

Sjogrens Syndrome is an ____ disease

A

autoimmune

105
Q

Sarcoidoisis causes:

-tx:

A

Bilateral hilar lympadenopathy (chest x-ray)

-corticosterois

106
Q

Proliferative Periostitis causes what pattern radiographically?

A

Onion skin

107
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome causes:

A

pigmented (brown) macules and intestinal polyps

108
Q

Young person with tingling lower lip probably has:

A

Osteosarcoma

109
Q

Most common malignancy in bone in people less than 25 yrs old

A

Osteosarcoma

110
Q

What does decrease in serum estrogen and calcium cause?

A

Osteoporosis

111
Q

What is OsteoPETROSIS?

-Frequent complication:

A

Massive OVERproduction of dense, non-vital bone.

-Osteomyelitis

112
Q

Most common site for osteoma

A

Angle of mandible

113
Q

Most common oral sites of malignant melanoma

A

hard palate and gingiva

114
Q

What causes punched out lucencies of bone of the whole skull

A

Multiple Myeloma

115
Q

Odontogenic Myxoma radiographic pattern:

A

Soap bubble

116
Q

Oncocytoma is a tumor of:

A

parotid gland

117
Q

What controls contrast/penetration of x-ray machine?

-What controls intensity?

A

kVP

-MA

118
Q

Local Anesthetics we use now are which group?

A

Amide (NOT ester)

119
Q

Amide LA’s (what we use) are metabolized by:

A

Liver

120
Q

Prilocaine toxicity can cause:

A

methemoglobinemia

121
Q

Local Anesthetics work by preventing generation of nerve impulses by PREVENTING the transport of _____ into the neuron – which prevents an action potential

A

Sodium (Na+)

122
Q

What is the only form of LA that can penetrate tissue membranes?

A

NON-ionized (free base)

123
Q

Which penicillin has best gram-NEGATIVE spectrum

A

ampicillin

124
Q

Which one is NOT cross allergic with penicillin: cephalosporins, ampicillin, erythromycin

A

erythromycin

125
Q

Which penicillin is useful against penicillinase-producing bugs such as STAPH?

A

dicloxacillin

126
Q

Bacteriocidal agents (penicillin) MOA:

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis

127
Q

Bacteriostatic agents (tetracycline) MOA:

A

interfere with protein synthesis

128
Q

Antifungals (nystatin) MOA:

A

Bind to ergosterol in fungal cell walls to weaken wall

129
Q

Which antibiotic produces GI upset and colitis (c. difficile)?

A

Clindamycin

130
Q

Which antiobiotic causes liver damage (hepatotoxicity)

A

Tetracyclines

131
Q

What effect do broad spectrum antibiotics have on coumadin anticoagulants?

A

ENHANCE! because of reduction of vit k sources

132
Q

Why is penicillin Vk given for oral infections and NOT penicillin G

A

It’s less sensitive to acid degradation (more reliable oral absorption) – G has to given IM

133
Q

Are cephaplosporins (Anything with CEPH… like cephalexin) cross-allergenic to penicillin?

A

YES! (erythromycin is ok)

134
Q

Which antibiotic is able to achieve a higher concentration in bone than in serum? (aka good for treating osteomyelitis)

A

Clindamycin

135
Q

Why can’t you take antiobiotics together that are cidal and static (ie penicillin + tetracycline)

A

they can’t do their job while the other is working

136
Q

Penicillin is NOT broad spectrum so it WON’T cause ______.

-Which antibiotic WILL cause superinfection?

A

superinfection

-tetracycline

137
Q

Are tetracyclines for gram - or +?

A

BOTH! BROAD spectrum

138
Q

Quinidine is a drug to treat:

-Works by increasing:

A

arrhythmias

-Increasing refractory period of cardiac muscles

139
Q

Besides nitroglycerin, what can be used for angina?

A

propranolol

140
Q

Diuretic drugs work by:

A

DECREASING renal reABSORBTION of sodium (so it doesn’t reabsorb sodium and you pee it out)

141
Q

NSAIDS (aspirin) MOA for…

  • Analgesic effects:
  • Antipyretic effects:
  • Bleeding time:
A
  • inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
  • inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in hypothalamic temp regulation center
  • inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis preventing platelet synth
142
Q

Which hurts liver (hepatotoxic) aspirin or acetaminophen?

A

ACETAMINOPHEN (why it’s limited in norco)

143
Q

What’s the DOC for a child with a fever?

-Which causes Reyes syndrome?

A

Acetaminophen

-aspirin

144
Q

Which nsaid produces less GI disturbance than aspirin

A

Ibuprofen (NOT acetaminophen only cuz it’s not an nsaid)

145
Q

What treats opioid overdose?

-What’s used to help morphine addicts?

A

Naloxone

-Methadone

146
Q

Opioids MOA:

A

Bind to specific receptors (mu receptors) in the CNS

147
Q

What drug is used to prevent laryngospasm?

A

succinylcholine

148
Q

What effect does atropine/scopolamine have salivary secretions?
-on the heart?

A
  • decreases

- tachycardia (blocks VAGAL reflex control of heart rate)

149
Q

Alpha or beta-adrenergic blocking drugs act by:

A

Competitive inhibition of postjunctional adrenergic receptors

150
Q

A drug that produces the greatest MAXIMUM EFFECT is one with the highest _____

A

efficiacy

151
Q

Benzodiazepam MOA:

A

modulate GABA

152
Q

Do barbiturates possess analgesic properties?

A

NO

153
Q

Which drug reverses the effects of benzodiazepam?

A

Flumazenil

154
Q

Antidepressants and antipsycotics MOA

A

Blockage of dopaminergic sites in the brain

155
Q

Steroids cause ulcers where?

A

Gastric

156
Q

General anesthesia is more rapid if it is (more/less) soluble in blood

A

LESS (doesn’t dissolve in blood, and goes to where it needs to)

157
Q

Bisphosphonate MOA:

A

INHIBIT osteoclast

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