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Pathology 1 > Path 2 quiz 3 > Flashcards

Path 2 quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of pediatric nephrotic syndrome?

A

Minimal change disease

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2
Q

Diffuse effacement of podocyte foot processes occurs in what condition?

A

Minimal change disease

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3
Q

Proteinuria is highly selective in what condition?

A

Minimal change disease

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4
Q

What condition involves sclerosis of only 50% or less of total glomeruli?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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5
Q

What condition involves only a portion of the capillary tuft in the affected glomeruli?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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6
Q

What condition is associated with pre-existing conditions such as HIV, heroin use, sickle cell disease, and morbid obesity?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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7
Q

In focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, what population has a better prognosis?

A

Children

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8
Q

Proteinuria is non-selective in what condition?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of adult nephrotic syndrome?

A

Membranous nephropathy

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10
Q

What condition involves diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary walls with subepithelial dense deposits causing irregular spikes or fuzz?

A

Membranous nephropathy

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11
Q

What condition involves a thickened basement membrane with a tram track appearance?

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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12
Q

What condition may involve a patient history of sore throat, swollen face, pee resembling coke, and hypertension?

A

Post-infection glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

In what condition will histology show hump-shaped subepithelial deposits?

A

Post-infection glomerulonephritis

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14
Q

What is the most common nephritic syndrome especially in a child with hematuria after UTI, URI, or GI infection?

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

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15
Q

What condition involves recurrent hematuria and IgA in mesangium in blood?

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

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16
Q

What condition is associated with nerve deafness, lens dislocation, cataracts, and corneal defects?

A

Alport syndrome (hereditary nephritis)

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17
Q

What condition involves mutations in one of the alpha chains of collagen type IV?

A

Alport syndrome (hereditary nephritis)

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18
Q

In what condition will histology show thickening or attenuation with pronounced splitting and irregular foci in the GBM?

A

Alport syndrome (hereditary nephritis)

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19
Q

What condition involves antibodies to collagen IV protein, can have hemorrhage and necrotizing alveolitis (goodpasture) and diffuse linear GBM IgG label?

A

Rapid progressive crescent glomerulonephritis

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20
Q

What condition involves proliferation of parietal epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule and rapid decrease in GFR and loss of renal function?

A

Rapid progressive crescent glomerulonephritis

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21
Q

What condition has a common route of ascending infection?

A

Pyelonephritis

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22
Q

Bitemporal hemianopsia results due to compression of the chiasm via what type of tumor?

A

Non-functional pituitary adenoma

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23
Q

What is the most common type of functioning pituitary adenoma?

A

Prolactinoma

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24
Q

In women, what tumor causes reduced fertility and galactorrhea?

A

Prolactinoma

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25
Q

What is the most common cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves disease

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26
Q

What condition involves hypersensitivity reaction type II, elevated free serum T3 and T3, and decreased TSH levels?

A

Graves disease

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27
Q

What condition is an autoimmune disorder involving activation of thyroid epithelial cells by autoAbs to TSH receptors?

A

Graves disease

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28
Q

In what condition does a radioiodine scan show a diffuse uptake of iodine?

A

Graves disease

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29
Q

Hypermetabolic state of the sympathetic NS, bulging eyes, diplopia, increase BP and HR, and tremors are all signs of what condition?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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30
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the US?

A

Hashimoto

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31
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma?

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

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32
Q

What type of thyroid carcinoma has the best prognosis?

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

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33
Q

What type of thyroid carcinoma has the worst prognosis?

A

Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma

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34
Q

In what condition will histology show optically clear glass nuclei and psammoma bodies?

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

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35
Q

Neuromuscular irritability is a common characteristic of what condition?

A

Hypoparathyroidism

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36
Q

High calcium levels are a common characteristic of what condition?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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37
Q

What condition can result from an increase in pituitary ACTH or exogenous steroid usage?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

38
Q

What condition involves adrenocortical insufficiency and is mostly autoimmune adrenalitis?

A

Addison’s disease

39
Q

What condition involves bronze pigmentation of the skin and thinning of the adrenal cortex?

A

Addison’s disease

40
Q

Poor functioning beta cells is a characteristic of what condition?

A

Type I diabetes

41
Q

Decreased insulin levels is associated with what condition?

A

Type I diabetes

42
Q

Increased insulin levels is associated with what condition?

A

Type II diabetes

43
Q

Retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy are all types of what?

A

Diabetic microvascular disease

44
Q

What condition involves accelerated atherosclerosis leading to an increased risk of MI, stroke, and LE gangrene?

A

Diabetic macrovascular disease

45
Q

What is the most common diabetic microvascular condition?

A

Diabetic neuropathy

46
Q

What is the most common type of diabetic neuropathy?

A

Distal, symmetric polyneuropathy

47
Q

What female condition shows a trophic epithelium and sclerosis of dermis?

A

Lichen sclerosus

48
Q

What female condition shows a thickened epidermis (acanthosis) due to hyperplasia?

A

Lichen simplex chronicus

49
Q

What tumor is caused by HPV infection, specifically genotypes 6 and 11 and occurs in both males and females?

A

Condylomata accuminata

50
Q

What pre-malignant condition has three different types all with the basement membrane still in tact?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

51
Q

Which type of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is characterized by dysplastic changes in the lower third of the squamous epithelium exhibiting koilocytotic change?

A

CIN I

52
Q

Which type of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) involves dysplasia extending to the middle third of the epithelium?

A

CIN II

53
Q

Which type of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) involves complete loss of maturation affecting all layers of the epithelium?

A

CIN III

54
Q

What female tumor most commonly develops in the transformation zone?

A

Invasive carcinoma of the cervix

55
Q

What tumor encircles the cervix penetrating into the underlying stroma/basement membrane to produce a barrel cervix?

A

Invasive carcinoma of the cervix

56
Q

What tumor occurs most frequently in post-menopausal women with irregular vaginal bleeding?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

57
Q

What are the most common type of malignant ovarian tumors?

A

Serous tumors

58
Q

What type of ovarian tumor has the best prognosis?

A

Mucinous tumors

59
Q

What condition is due to abnormalities in material or placental blood flow and is associated to symptoms such as hypertension, proteinuria, and edema?

A

Preeclampsia

60
Q

Which type of noninvasive in situ carcinoma expands but does not alter the acini of lobules and is rarely associated with calcification?

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

61
Q

Which type of noninvasive (in situ) carcinoma is frequently associated with calcifications?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

62
Q

What type of tumor has two types which both arise from the terminal duct of the lobular unit?

A

Noninvasive in situ carcinoma

63
Q

What is the most common malformation of the urethra in males?

A

Hypospadias (ventral)

64
Q

What is the most common type of germ cell tumor in males?

A

Seminoma

65
Q

What is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children under three years of age?

A

Yolk sac tumor

66
Q

In what male tumor will histology show papillary structures resembling a developing glomerulus?

A

Yolk sac tumor

67
Q

What male sex cord gonadal tumor secretes androgens, estrogens, and steroids?

A

Leydig cell tumor

68
Q

In what male tumor will histology show rod shaped crystalloids of Reinke?

A

Leydig cell tumor

69
Q

What male condition affects periurethral zone producing nodules that compress prostatic urethra resulting in difficulty sleeping due to nocturia?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

70
Q

What male tumor grows in the peripheral zone and involves increased PSA levels?

A

Carcinoma of the prostate

71
Q

What condition involves intrinsic membrane abnormalities?

A

Hemolytic anemia

72
Q

What condition involves mutation of the enzyme spectrin and ball shaped RBCs?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

73
Q

What condition increases susceptibility of cell to injury via oxidant stressors such as drugs, infections, and foods (fava beans)?

A

G6PD deficiency

74
Q

What condition involves point mutation causing glutamic acid to become valine at 6th position on gene for beta globin chain (GAG—>GTG)?

A

Sickle cell anemia

75
Q

What condition can result in the RBCs getting stuck in microvasculature causing infarction and thrombosis?

A

Sickle cell anemia

76
Q

What condition is a group of inherited disorders that can’t synthesize normal globin and often results in microcytic, hypochromic anemia?

A

Thalassemias

77
Q

What condition involves symptoms such as weakness, pallor, spooning of fingernails, hypochromic microcytic anemia, and pica?

A

Iron deficient anemia

78
Q

What condition involves macrocytic RBCs and defective DNA synthesis due to folate deficiency or vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Megablastic anemia

79
Q

What condition involves vitamin B12 deficiency and autoantibodies that prevent B12 absorption?

A

Pernicious anemia

80
Q

What condition are patients more susceptible to if they previously had stomach surgery?

A

Pernicious anemia

81
Q

What condition involves bone marrow being replaced by a tumor?

A

Myelophthisic anemia

82
Q

In what condition will histology show teardrop cells in the peripheral blood?

A

Myelophthisic anemia

83
Q

What condition is associated with the Epstein Barr Virus and Burkett Lymphoma showing atypical T lymphocyte?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

84
Q

What is the #1 malignant tumor in kids?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

85
Q

What tumor involves pre-B cell origin?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

86
Q

What tumor arises from mature B cells?

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

87
Q

What tumor involves extranodal presentations are common in GI tract and brain?

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

88
Q

What tumor involves Reed Sternberg cells and painless lymphadenopathy?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

89
Q

What condition involves auer rods?

A

Acute myeloid leukemia

90
Q

What condition involves a deficiency in ADAMTS13, which means they can’t break down vWF?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

Pathology 1 (2 decks)

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