Patente Nautica QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum length of the vessel, i.e. that measured between the
fore and aft ends?

A

overall length.

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2
Q

The hull of a sailing vessel is the immersed part of the keel.

A

FALSE

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3
Q

What is meant by the longitudinal axis of a ship?

A

the axis passing through the bow and stern, parallel to the keel.

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4
Q

The hull of a sailing vessel is its floating and load-bearing structure.

A

TRUE

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5
Q

What function does a ship’s bilge perform?

A

contain dirty water and liquid residues.

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6
Q

The presence of the ballasted bulb in a sailing vessel has the function of providing the
itself greater stability to counter external actions (wind).

A

TRUE

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7
Q

The walls are:

A

the outer and lateral portion of the hull (dead work) extending between the bow and the
stern.

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8
Q

The presence of the ballasted bulb in a sailing vessel has the function of giving it greater penetration at the bow, enabling it to reach higher speeds
high.

A

FALSE

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9
Q

What is the deck?

A

the bridge extending longitudinally and transversely, in a continuous manner,
enclosing the hull entirely.

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10
Q

The sail is oriented in relation to the flow of the wind.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

What is meant by the prow of the unit?

A

the front portion at the end of the unit.

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12
Q

By gait is meant the direction in which it proceeds in relation to the direction
of wind origin.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

What is meant by the stern of a unit?

A

the rear portion at the end of the hull.

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14
Q

The gait is defined as the speed regained by the sailing vessel in relation to the
wind direction

A

FALSE

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15
Q

What is meant by a unit’s transom?

A

the outer and upper portion of the stern.

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16
Q

When the sailing unit moves into the wind, the apparent wind is equivalent to the
difference between the actual wind and the speed of the vessel itself.

A

TRUE

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17
Q

What is a machine room or engine room of a unit?

A

the on-board environment where the main engines and most of the systems are located
auxiliaries.

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18
Q

When the sailing unit moves into the wind, the apparent wind, corresponding to the
sum of real wind and unit speed wind

A

FALSE

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19
Q

With reference to the figure, which portion of the hull is indicated by the transverse lines?

A

living work.

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20
Q

When the sailing unit is moving upwind, the apparent wind corresponds to the sum
between the actual wind and the ship’s speed.

A

TRUE

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21
Q

With reference to the drawing shown in the figure, which portion of the hull is
indicated by the cross lines?

A

dead work.

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22
Q

When the sailing unit is moving upwind, the apparent wind is equal to the wind of
speed of the ship itself.

A

FALSE

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23
Q

When sailing a sailing vessel, the apparent wind is always directed more to
ahead of the actual wind.

A

TRUE

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24
Q

What does the form stability torque of a vessel depend on?

A

by the shape of the hull.

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25
Q

When sailing a sailing vessel, the apparent wind is always oriented
orthogonally to the true wind.

A

FALSE

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26
Q

The elements that divide the hull in a transverse direction are:

A

the bulkheads.

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27
Q

During sailing, the apparent wind has a greater intensity the more
the more the ship proceeds towards the direction from which the wind is coming.

A

TRUE

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28
Q

The transom is:

A

the part of the stern above the foredeck.

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29
Q

When sailing a sailing ship, the apparent wind has such an intensity
The greater the distance the vessel moves away from the direction the wind is coming from.

A

FALSE

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30
Q

The emerged part of the unit is named:

A

dead work.

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31
Q

An ‘upwind’ course is when a sailing vessel proceeds with a direction
of course forming an angle of approximately 135° to the true wind direction.

A

FALSE

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32
Q

The submerged part of the unit is called:

A

living work.

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33
Q

A ‘traverse’ gait is when a sailing unit proceeds with a
course direction forming a 45° angle to the true wind direction.

A

FALSE

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34
Q

The ‘cleat’ is:

A

a handhold to anchor and/or vault the mooring line or a shipboard rope
(such as halyards/sheets).

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35
Q

A slackening gait is when a sailing unit proceeds with a direction of
course forming an angle of approximately 45° to the true wind direction.

A

FALSE

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36
Q

The bollard is:

A

low and robust column, generally with a mushroom head, placed on the
docks and on the decks of ships to tie chains or mooring ropes;

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37
Q

A stern drive is when a sailing unit proceeds with a direction of
course forming a 90° angle to the true wind direction.

A

FALSE

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38
Q

The locker of a pleasure boat is:

A

the fore and aft storage compartment.

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39
Q

Proceeding upwind, the perceived speed of the sailing unit seems high because
the perceived wind intensity is higher than the actual wind intensity.

A

TRUE

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40
Q

The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:

A

left jaw.

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41
Q

Proceeding upwind, the perceived speed of the sailing unit seems high because
the perceived wind intensity is lower than the actual wind intensity.

A

FALSE

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42
Q

The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:

A

starboard jaw.

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43
Q

Proceeding aft, the speed felt by the sailing unit seems lower because
the perceived wind intensity is lower than the actual wind intensity.

A

TRUE

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44
Q

The draught of a vessel is:

A

the vertical distance between the waterline and the extreme lower point of the
hull.

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45
Q

Proceeding astern, the perceived speed of the sailing vessel seems lower
because the perceived wind intensity is higher than the actual wind intensity.

A

FALSE

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46
Q

The tidy master is that one:

A

which corresponds to the main section of the unit’s hull.

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47
Q

The ‘tacking sector’, or ‘dead angle’, refers to that upwind sector within which a sailing vessel cannot steer its bow due to lack of lift of the
sails.

A

TRUE

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48
Q

The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:

A

starboard garden.

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49
Q

A “tack sector”, or “blind spot”, is defined as that sector within which a
sailing units can sail in order to increase speed to reach a certain destination.

A

FALSE

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50
Q

The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:

A

left garden.

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51
Q

A temporary increase in real wind intensity (gust) leads to a
favourable change in apparent wind direction to assume a better upwind angle.

A

TRUE

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52
Q

The scupper is:

A

a small opening for draining water on deck or in the cockpit

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53
Q

A temporary attenuation of the actual wind intensity results in a favourable change in apparent wind direction to assume a better upwind angle.

A

FALSE

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54
Q

The bilge of a unit is the space between:

A

the bottom inside the hull and the dunnage.

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55
Q

The angle of incidence is the angle formed between the wind direction
apparent and that towards which the sail is oriented.

A

TRUE

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56
Q

The line separating the living work from the dead work is called:

A

waterline.

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57
Q

The sail centre is the point of application of the apparent wind force
on the sails and on the dead work.

A

FALSE

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58
Q

What is the interior floor of a pleasure boat called?

A

dunnage.

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59
Q

The centre of drift is the geometric centre of the drift surface placed
under the keel of the sailing unit.

A

FALSE

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60
Q

The battlement is:

A

a kind of side railing to help the passage between stern and bow.

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61
Q

The sail centre and centre of drift influence each other, generating effects that are
identifiable and predictable for each sailing unit.

A

TRUE

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62
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

the set of draperies and stanchions forms the battlement protecting the
walkway between stern and bow.

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63
Q

In centre rudder conditions, when the sail centre is aligned with the centre of
drift, the sailing unit is defined as ‘neutral’ (neither pontoon nor gilt).

A

TRUE

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64
Q

The hull of a pleasure craft is the:

A

structure that forms the shell of the unit.

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65
Q

In centre rudder conditions, when the sail centre is aligned with the centre of
drift, the sailing unit approaches the direction of the wind (gyre).

A

FALSE

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66
Q

The ‘shady’ is:

A

an opening in the stern through which the rudder shaft passes.

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67
Q

The position of the sail centre in sailing vessels depends on the area and shape of the sails, the reciprocal influence between the sails tacked and the tuning
of the equipment.

A

TRUE

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68
Q

Pitching is the oscillation of the unit around its axis:

A

transversal.

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69
Q

The term ‘glide’ refers to the state in which the sailing unit is in dynamic equilibrium on the crest of a wave generated by its own
advancement.

A

TRUE

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70
Q

The structural part of the stern, to which the rudder, if external, hinges, is:

A

the stern.

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71
Q

The ‘setting’ of the sails is generated by the apparent wind while sailing.

A

TRUE

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72
Q

The vertical structures, which subdivide the hull internally, are:

A

the bulkheads.

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73
Q

The pressure exerted by the wind on the sails depends on the angle of incidence.

A

TRUE

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74
Q

The hull is:

A

the living work.

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75
Q

The pressure exerted by the wind on the sails depends solely on the value of the
heading assumed by the unit.

A

FALSE

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76
Q

A superstructure is that part of the ship that rises above the:

A

deck in the case of single-deck units.

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77
Q

The drift force is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the sailing unit.

A

TRUE

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78
Q

The deckhouse is:

A

the habitable superstructure raised above a bridge.

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79
Q

The propulsion force is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the sail unit.

A

FALSE

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80
Q

The line is:

A

a rope of small diameter

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81
Q

the mast of a sailing unit inclined towards the stern makes it tend to
orziera.

A

TRUE

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82
Q

What is meant by a small garden?

A

the end portion of the outer part of the hull, located near the stern
(starboard and left), with an angular or rounded profile.

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83
Q

The mast of a sailing unit inclined towards the bow makes it tend to
headrest.

A

TRUE

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84
Q

What is the hatch?

A

the opening in the deck for the passage of persons or things inside.

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85
Q

The function of the battens on the mainsail is to preserve the shape
of sailing in all weather conditions.

A

TRUE

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86
Q

What is the function of zincs?

A

avoid galvanic corrosion.

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87
Q

The function of the battens on the mainsail is to ensure optimum indication
of the wind direction on the sail?

A

FALSE

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88
Q

The flying bridge, also known as the fly, is:

A

the upper deck of a motorised unit, where the second wheelhouse is located.

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89
Q

With regard to sailing theory, the multihull has greater stability.

A

TRUE

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90
Q

What is the maximum beam:

A

the maximum width of the hull.

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91
Q

The ballasted bulb of a sailing unit provides more stability to counteract the action
external wind.

A

TRUE

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92
Q

The dunnage of a pleasure boat is:

A

a removable, walkable deck below deck.

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93
Q

The stability of a sailing boat is ensured by the ballasted bulb.

A

TRUE

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94
Q

The vertical distance between the deck and the waterline is:

A

the freeboard.

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95
Q

The sail tends, by its nature, to assume a neutral position of 45° with respect to the
wind flow and receive a push in that direction.

A

FALSE

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96
Q

What is the hull cross-section?

A

the central cross-section, which normally has a greater width

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97
Q

A gait is defined as the direction in which a sailing unit is proceeding in relation to the
wind direction.

A

FALSE

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98
Q

In a pleasure boat, the deckhouse is:

A

the elevated superstructure on the deck, which does not extend across the entire width
of the unit.

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99
Q

Upwind’ is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction that
forms an angle of approximately 45° to the true wind direction.

A

TRUE

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100
Q

The candlesticks are:

A

vertical elements of the rails.

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101
Q

A ‘slack’ is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction that
forms an angle of approximately 135° to the true wind direction.

A

TRUE

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102
Q

The lowest floor of a recreational craft is called:

A

dunnage.

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103
Q

A ‘traverse’ is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction
which forms an angle of 90° to the true wind direction.

A

TRUE

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104
Q

The hull is called displacement if it is of the type:

A

round.

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105
Q

A ‘slack’ is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction that
forms an angle of approximately 90° to the true wind direction.

A

FALSE

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106
Q

The waterline:

A

is the line dividing the hull into opera viva and opera morta.

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107
Q

A catamaran:

A

has two hulls.

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108
Q

A ‘stern’ or ‘wheelspin’ is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a
course direction forming an angle of 180° to the true wind direction.

A

TRUE

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109
Q

The rudder is compensated when:

A

part of the blade is forward of the axle.

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110
Q

Proceeding upwind, the perceived wind intensity on board is greater than that
real.

A

TRUE

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111
Q

What is the name of the rudder surface on which the water pressure acts?

A

shovel.

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112
Q

Moving aft, the perceived speed of the sailing unit seems high because
the perceived wind intensity is higher than the actual wind intensity.

A

FALSE

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113
Q

The rudder is compensated if:

A

part of the blade is forward of the axle.

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114
Q

The tacking area is the area of the hull of a sailing vessel that contributes to providing sail thrust and thus increasing its speed as a function of
wind direction.

A

FALSE

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115
Q

The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:

A

traverse.

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116
Q

The leeward side is defined as the upwind surface of the sail that is subjected to
a depression.

A

FALSE

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117
Q

The arrows in the figure indicate:

A

the left broadside.

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118
Q

The sail centre is the point of application of the resultant of the forces due to the action
of the wind on the sails.

A

TRUE

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119
Q

The arrows in the figure indicate:

A

the starboard broadside.

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120
Q

The sail centre is the point of application of the hydrodynamic force on the hull due to
to the drift.

A

FALSE

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121
Q

The tubulars are:

A

the external parts of an inflatable boat, which guarantee part of its reserve
buoyancy.

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122
Q

The centre of drift is the centre of the small sail hull.

A

FALSE

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123
Q

RIB (or RHIB) means:

A

inflatable boats with a rigid keel.

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124
Q

The centre of drift is the point of application of the lateral resistance opposing the
hydrodynamic forces exerted on the living work.

A

TRUE

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125
Q

It is called a sourpuss:

A

the hardware located at the extreme bow, generally consisting of a single block,
which includes the anchor chain loop.

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126
Q

The sail centre and centre of drift are used to determine the ship’s point under sail.

A

FALSE

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127
Q

The pass-through is:

A

the threaded part that passes through the thickness of the hull and connects to the sea inlet
in the pipes carrying water to or from the various utilities.

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128
Q

In neutral (centre) rudder conditions, when the sail centre is set forward
of the centre of drift, the sailing vessel moves away from the direction of the wind (it is resting).

A

TRUE

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129
Q

The cockpit is:

A

the external part of a boat where the rigging and the
helm, designed to accommodate guests in safety.

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130
Q

In neutral (centre) rudder conditions, when the sail centre is aligned with the
centre of drift, the sailing vessel is defined as balanced (neither headland nor gyre).

A

TRUE

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131
Q

The pulpit is:

A

fall protection located at the extreme bow and stern, usually in tube
of steel, to which the guardrail is anchored.

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132
Q

The position of the sail centre for sailing vessels depends on the shape of the sail,
by the reciprocal influence of the sails being tacked and the fine-tuning of the equipment.

A

TRUE

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133
Q

They say taken overboard:

A

the valves, placed in connection with the through-hulls, which allow you to close
the entry of water into the boat.

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134
Q

The position of the centre of drift of sailing vessels depends on the shape of the sails.

A

FALSE

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135
Q

Based on the nautical performance of the main hull types, it can be stated that:

A

the deep ‘V’ hull copes better with very formed swell.

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136
Q

Upwind means the side of the unit located below the point of application
of the apparent wind.

A

FALSE

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137
Q

Rolling is the oscillation of the unit around its axis:

A

longitudinal.

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138
Q

Downwind is defined as the side of the unit opposite that on which the
wind.

A

TRUE

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139
Q

The hull is said to be displacement if:

A

is either round or deep V-shaped.

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140
Q

The term ‘starboard/left tack’ indicates the forward part of the hull on the
which the waves break.

A

FALSE

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141
Q

The hull is called displacement if it is of the type:

A

does not glide and navigates the water to the right and left.

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142
Q

Sail fat is defined as the part of the sail closest to the tension of the
halyard.

A

FALSE

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143
Q

By trim is meant:

A

the hydraulic piston that acts on the position of the outboard motor, modifying
the angle between the transom and the stem of the engine itself.

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144
Q

The sail plan is the organisation of the sails of a unit as designed and is
essentially characterised by the number of masts and the type of sails available.

A

TRUE

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145
Q

The flaps are:

A

submerged appendages, mounted on the transom, to affect the trim of the
hull.

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146
Q

Lift is defined as the total weight of all sailing equipment loaded on
a sailing unit.

A

FALSE

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147
Q

The flaps:

A

are mounted on the transom, there are always two, one on the starboard end and
the other on the left end.

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148
Q

The twisting of the sail depends on the actual wind speed, which increases in
function of the height from which it blows in relation to the sea surface.

A

TRUE

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149
Q

Flaps control is usually:

A

realised through the monitoring of a display, normally placed on the dashboard,
analogue or digital, indicating their height.

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150
Q

Straining’ refers to the sudden change of heading towards the direction of origin
wind, caused by a gust or a particularly strong wave.

A

TRUE

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151
Q

Between a fixed-pitch propeller, one with retractable blades and one with steerable blades, the propeller that has
the lowest efficiency in reverse gear is a:

A

folding shovels.

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152
Q

Overhanging’ means the sudden deviation of the bow from the direction of the wind
such as to cause a jibe.

A

TRUE

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153
Q

In reverse with a single right-hand propeller:

A

the stern turns more easily to the left.

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154
Q

A ‘gust’ is a particular type of wind, of significant intensity, which
predominantly from the east or west.

A

FALSE

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155
Q

Motorised pleasure craft with starboard propeller; can be reasonably assumed to be
than the one on the left:

A

is left-handed.

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156
Q

A ‘drift’ is defined as the lateral movement of the sailing unit due to the wind
exerted on the hull during navigation.

A

TRUE

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157
Q

In reverse with a single left-handed propeller:

A

the stern turns more easily to starboard.

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158
Q

A sailing unit capsizes when capsizing, submerging the mast even up to 180°.
from the initial position.

A

TRUE

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159
Q

On a unit equipped with two engines, the propellers are generally:

A

left-handed on the left and right-handed on the starboard side.

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160
Q

Thinning’ the sail is understood to mean varying the sail’s load-bearing surface area
by reducing its concavity.

A

TRUE

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161
Q

In motor navigation, where the axis of rotation is located in relation to the centre of the ship
around which the unit approaches?

A

towards the bow.

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162
Q

Tightening the wind’ is defined as leading the sailing unit by leaving as much as possible the
sails, moving the bow away from the direction from which the wind is coming.

A

FALSE

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163
Q

A propeller is right-handed if, looking at the stern from the outside, the blades:

A

turn clockwise in forward gear.

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164
Q

Leaning’ is defined as leading the unit under sail by leaving the sails as far as possible,
moving the bow away from the direction from which the wind is coming.

A

TRUE

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165
Q

What, apart from the thrust exerted by individual blades, influences the evolutionary effect
of the propeller?

A

the flow of water pushed against the rudder blade or the hull.

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166
Q

The propulsion force is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the sailing vessel.

A

TRUE

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167
Q

The compensated rudder serves to:

A

reduce the resistance of the blade to rotation and thus the hardness of the bar/wheel.

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168
Q

The drift force and the propulsion force originate from the resultant force
generated by the wind on the sail surface.

A

TRUE

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169
Q

A compensated rudder is that rudder:

A

which has part of the blade forward of the axle.

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170
Q

The ‘chord’ of the sail is the line ideally drawn to join the two ends
of the sail profile.

A

TRUE

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171
Q

How is the difference between the theoretical and actual distance travelled by
a propeller in one complete revolution?

A

recourse.

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172
Q

The concavity of the sail serves the function of decreasing drag
of the unit.

A

FALSE

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173
Q

The evolutionary effect of a right-handed propeller rotating backwards (reverse) rotates:

A

the stern to port, then the bow to starboard.

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174
Q

Shifting the weight of the crew on board while sailing can
serve to counteract the heeling action generated by the wind on the sail surface.

A

TRUE

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175
Q

What is the angle of rotation of the rudder (around its axis) to achieve maximum
government effect?

A

between 30 degrees and 40 degrees.

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176
Q

In order to counteract the leaning tendency of the sail unit, it is useful to shift the weights towards the bow.

A

TRUE

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177
Q

In forward gear, turning the rudder wheel to the left, how does the stern behave
of the unit?

A

pull over to starboard.

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178
Q

To counteract the gyre tendency of the sail unit, it is useful to shift the weights towards
the tree.

A

FALSE

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179
Q

A propeller is defined as left-handed when, looking at the stern from the outside, the blades
turn in the direction:

A

anti-clockwise in forward gear.

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180
Q

It is best to avoid setting a unit too heavily because such a setting
greatly limits the action of the rudder.

A

TRUE

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181
Q

The theoretical distance a propeller would travel in one complete revolution if the water were
solid is called:

A

theoretical step.

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182
Q

A unit under sail with an upwind gait, if excessively heeled
downwind, it suffers an increase in speed and a better performance of the sails tacked.

A

FALSE

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183
Q

A propeller with a long pitch and small diameter, compared to one, which, on the contrary, has pitch
small and larger diameter:

A

produces greater speed.

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184
Q

It is better to prefer a slightly northeastern setting of a sailboat because such a
setting favours performance and safety on board.

A

TRUE

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185
Q

In general, in addition to pulling over, the use of the paddle rudder produces the following effects:

A

speed reduction, lateral displacement on the opposite side of the blade, slight
procurement.

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186
Q

The inclination towards the bow of the mast of a sailing vessel makes the same
tends to lean.

A

TRUE

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187
Q

The evolution curve:

A

is the trajectory described by the unit pulling to starboard or left.

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188
Q

The inclination towards the stern of the mast of a sailing unit makes the same
tends to lean.

A

FALSE

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189
Q

Regarding tiller steering, we have that:

A

if in reverse motion, with tiller to starboard the stern pulls to the left.

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190
Q

Leaving the halyard and mainsail base increases sail concave (fat) and makes them
assume a configuration suitable for wheelspin.

A

TRUE

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191
Q

To make a correct stern mooring at the quay:

A

with a left-handed propeller, it backs up perpendicularly to the quay presenting the
starboard side of the quay.

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192
Q

The angle of incidence is that formed between the apparent wind direction and the
towards which the sail is oriented, in practice the angle at which the profile slices through the air.

A

TRUE

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193
Q

I perform a sideways (English) mooring with a right-handed propeller:

A

with the quay to the left, you back up with the left jaw to the
dock, approaching the stern and stopping the buoyancy.

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194
Q

The mainsail’s thrust is mainly gaff, that of the genoa or jib
tended to rest.

A

TRUE

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195
Q

The evolutionary effect of the propeller is greater with a unit:

A

without buoyancy and with the gear engaged.

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196
Q

As the wind grows, the cunningham (or mainsail halyard), the tesabase, the halyard
genoa.

A

TRUE

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197
Q

Cavitation occurs when the propeller:

A

over the rev limit and you no longer have the propulsive thrust.

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198
Q

As the wind increases, it is useful to move the genoa carriage towards the bow.

A

FALSE

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199
Q

With left-handed propeller, if I manoeuvre in reverse:

A

with the rudder in the middle, the stern pulls to starboard.

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200
Q

In fractional rigging, flying rigging serves to support the mast,
counterbalancing the strain transmitted from the sails to the forestay.

A

TRUE

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201
Q

If a bi-propeller pleasure craft has a left-handed propeller, it can
reasonably assume that the starboard one:

A

is right-handed.

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202
Q

In fractional rigs with spreaders quartered towards the stern and backstay, the
Flying rigging can give support to the mast but is not structural.

A

TRUE

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203
Q

The rudder is compensated when:

A

part of the blade is forward of the axle.

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204
Q

A split-rigged unit is one in which the forestay is not
‘hooded’ in the masthead.

A

TRUE

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205
Q

With a right-hand propeller, I manoeuvre in reverse:

A

With the rudder on the starboard side, I limit the stern turn to the left.

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206
Q

A split-rigged unit is one whose hull is divided into
at least three compartments.

A

FALSE

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207
Q

Manoeuvring a pleasure craft with two shaft lines (starboard and
left-hand side); we have that:

A

with only the starboard engine in reverse (port engine stopped), the bow
pull over to starboard.

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208
Q

T h e spreaders ensure adequate strength and retention of the sheets on the
blanket.

A

FALSE

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209
Q

A right-handed propeller:

A

In reverse, the propeller tends to pull the stern to the left.

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210
Q

The spreaders are used to tension the shrouds that support the mast laterally.

A

TRUE

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211
Q

On the manoeuvring and operation of tiller steering, without considering the effect
of the propeller, in forward motion we have that:

A

with tiller to port, the bow goes to starboard.

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212
Q

The adjustment of the shrouds is carried out through the use of the sheet trolley.

A

FALSE

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213
Q

Turning the wheel to the left in forward motion; it happens that the:

A

prow goes to the left.

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214
Q

The foresail furler is a special cleat where the leeward sheet of the
jib.

A

FALSE

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215
Q

A left-handed propeller:

A

Looking at the stern from the outside, in forward motion it turns anticlockwise.

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216
Q

The leech is the shortest side of the mainsail, which goes inside the channel
of the boom.

A

FALSE

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217
Q

With an outboard motor:

A

in forward gear, turning the foot to starboard, the stern pulls to the left.

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218
Q

The mainsail luff is the cable sewn into the luff side to be introduced
inside the shaft channel.

A

TRUE

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219
Q

A right-handed propeller:

A

in reverse, the propeller rotates anti-clockwise.

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220
Q

The ‘base’ of the mainsail means the free side of the sail where the pockets are located
to be able to introduce the slats.

A

FALSE

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221
Q

The rudder having the entire blade abaft the core is called:

A

ordinary.

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222
Q

The mainsail sheet angle is defined as that between the base and the leech,
where the tesabase is docked.

A

TRUE

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223
Q

Installing a compensated rudder results in:

A

less effort is required to turn the wheel.

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224
Q

The mainsail ‘feathering angle’ is defined as the angle between the base and the luff.
where the boom trough is hooked.

A

FALSE

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225
Q

How should one manoeuvre in the event of a rudder failure on a boat of
small size?

A

dipping an oar on the left side to tack to the left.

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226
Q

The ‘tack angle’ of the mainsail is defined as the angle between the leech and the
luff, placed at the upper end of the sail, where the halyard is attached.

A

FALSE

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227
Q

With inboard engine and left-handed propeller, in forward gear and with the rudder in the middle:

A

the stern tends to evolve towards the left.

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228
Q

The jib allows the sailing unit to sail exclusively with angles between
40° and 70° with respect to the direction from which the wind blows.

A

FALSE

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229
Q

With inboard engine and left-handed propeller, in reverse and with the rudder in the middle,
it happens that:

A

the stern tends to evolve towards starboard.

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230
Q

The mainsail is the main sail of a sailing unit, located abaft
of the tree, and triangular in shape.

A

TRUE

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231
Q

The evolutionary effect of the propeller on an inboard engine is compensated:

A

with the helm.

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232
Q

The genoa or genoa represents a particular type of headsail having a
reduced surface area used in the event of adverse marine weather conditions.

A

FALSE

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233
Q

What is meant by coupled rudders of a unit?

A

two equal and symmetrical rudders used on some bi-elica naval units acting in
synchrony.

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234
Q

The genoa or genoa is the headsail having a surface that does not overlap with
that of the mainsail.

A

FALSE

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235
Q

In a bi-propeller unit (with two propeller shafts), why isthe starboard propeller
right-handed and the left-hand propeller is left-handed?

A

To compensate for the side effect of the blades.

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236
Q

The genoa (or genoa) extends beyond the mast towards the stern to a length generally
equal to 50% of the distance between the mast and the tack point .

A

TRUE

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237
Q

In general, what effect does a right-hand propeller in forward gear have on a unit
single-pole ship with the rudder in the middle?

A

the bow will move to the left and the stern to starboard.

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238
Q

The jib is the foresail having a surface that does not overlap with that of the
mainsail.

A

TRUE

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239
Q

In general, what effect does a left-handed forward propeller have on a unit
single-pole ship with the rudder in the middle?

A

the bow will move to starboard and the stern to port.

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240
Q

The spinnaker is the main sail, used in particular in the gaits
upwind in order to give more power and sail area.

A

FALSE

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241
Q

What is meant by the trim of a naval unit?

A

the equilibrium position assumed in the longitudinal plane (bow - stern).

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242
Q

The gennaker is an asymmetrical sail suitable for sailing between the transverse and the
slack (60°- 120° from the wind).

A

TRUE

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243
Q

What is meant by the rolling of a ship?

A

rotation along the longitudinal axis of the unit, which determines the inclination of the
same to starboard and left.

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244
Q

The Code 0 is an asymmetrical sail suitable for low-wind sailing between the
upwind and the traverse.

A

TRUE

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245
Q

What is meant by the pitching of a unit?

A

the rotation that occurs along the transverse axis, resulting in the immersion of the
bow and the simultaneous raising of the stern and vice versa.

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246
Q

Code 0 is an inferred sail.

A

FALSE

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247
Q

What is meant by pulling over a unit?

A

the rotation of the unit along the vertical axis, resulting in the simultaneous deviation
of the bow on one side and the stern on the opposite side.

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248
Q

The sloop is a rig characterised by the presence of a single mast and the possibility of
hoist only one headsail at a time.

A

TRUE

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249
Q

The weight of the ship corresponds to:

A

displacement.

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250
Q

The cutter is the rig characterised by the presence of a single mast, armed with two jibs
at the same time.

A

TRUE

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251
Q

Normally the diesel engine is switched off:

A

preventing fuel from flowing to the injection pump.

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252
Q

The ketch is that rig characterised by the presence of the mizzenmast forward
of the rudder shaft.

A

TRUE

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253
Q

Before starting a petrol-powered inboard engine, what is the first thing to do?
accomplish?

A

ventilate the engine compartment.

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254
Q

Fixed rigging includes halyards and sheets.

A

FALSE

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255
Q

The main problem, in terms of safety, of a petrol engine is:

A

the accumulation of petrol vapours in the engine compartment.

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256
Q

Current rigging includes stays and shrouds.

A

FALSE

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257
Q

What can cause damage to the cooling circuit impeller of
an outboard motor?

A

operation of the outboard when its water intake is outside the
water level.

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258
Q

The sheet hoist fulfils the function of demultiplying the effort.

A

TRUE

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259
Q

A forced ventilation system in the compartment housing the inboard diesel engine of
a recreational unit:

A

is not compulsory, but it is recommended.

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260
Q

The one shown is a hoist with a 6:1 ratio

A

FALSE

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261
Q

What are the phases of a four-stroke internal combustion engine?

A

intake, compression, exhaust.

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262
Q

The one shown is a double hoist with the most favourable ratio, the
so-called ‘up’ of 8:1.

A

TRUE

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263
Q

I need to reverse the rotation of the propeller: I need to reverse the rotation of the engine?

A

no; reversing the rotation of the propeller is achieved by operating the appropriate lever of the
reducer/inverter system.

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264
Q

The cunningham performs the function of tensioning the lower bow part of the
mainsail, by means of a vertical hoist.

A

TRUE

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265
Q

Generally speaking, the most common cause for an inboard engine to fail is
overheating occurs when:

A

the sea inlet of the water pump has occluded.

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266
Q

The spanker is the yardarm on which the base of the mainsail is fixed.

A

FALSE

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267
Q

An ‘inboard’ engine is an engine:

A

inboard with the transmission components combined in an outboard foot attached to the
stern.

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268
Q

A winch is a special mechanism consisting of two blocks used to
multiply the tractive effort exerted on the lines.

A

FALSE

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269
Q

The term ‘purge’ refers to the fuel system of a diesel engine,
of course:

A

remove all air from the fuel supply circuit before
restart the engine.

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270
Q

The sheets must always be wound around the winch drum in a clockwise direction,
taking special care to avoid overlapping ‘parcels’.

A

TRUE

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271
Q

Excluding propeller problems, if a diesel engine ‘loses steam and drops in rpm’ and there is
sufficient fuel; what happened?

A

dirty fuel is present in the tank.

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272
Q

On-board hardware consists of the set of elements such as cleats, winches,
arriders and cockers.

A

TRUE

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273
Q

The propulsion system of a motor boat is given:

A

from the engine and propeller.

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274
Q

Polypropylene is only used for floating lines used for rescue.

A

TRUE

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275
Q

The heat exchanger in an inboard marine engine:

A

serves to cool the fluid in the closed circuit by means of seawater.

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276
Q

The shackles assume the function of reducing or tensile stress on the cables.

A

FALSE

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277
Q

What is the name given to that organ of the marine engine that allows you to alternate the phases of
forward - neutral - reverse motion?

A

inverter.

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278
Q

The mainsail carriage (or mainsail traveller) is the device on which the
mainsail sheets.

A

FALSE

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279
Q

In the electrical system of a marine diesel engine:

A

the battery is an essential element for starting.

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280
Q

The cleat is the device with which the dragnets are fixed.

A

FALSE

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281
Q

In a 4-stroke engine, how many revolutions does the crankshaft describe for one cycle
complete?

A

two laps.

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282
Q

The mainsail is the cleat or plate placed on the deck used to fasten the shrouds and
the stays.

A

TRUE

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283
Q

Regarding the duty cycle of a 4-stroke engine:

A

consists of 4 piston strokes and 2 crankshaft revolutions.

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284
Q

The eyebolt is the carriage of the boom where the mainsail engages.

A

FALSE

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285
Q

In the electrical system of a marine engine:

A

ignition system only exists in internal combustion engines.

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286
Q

The tangon is the attachment ring of the shroud.

A

FALSE

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287
Q

If a petrol engine runs but does not start, the cause could be:

A

the carburettor is flooded.

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288
Q

The trough is the joint that joins the boom to the mast.

A

TRUE

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289
Q

If the engine hits the head, direct causes may be:

A

the injectors are out of calibration.

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290
Q

Tensile strength is an important quality in the fibres of the
a sail, determining its transverse stability.

A

TRUE

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291
Q

If by turning the ignition key the diesel engine runs but does not start, the direct causes
can be:

A

there is air in the fuel circuit.

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292
Q

Dacron is not a commonly used material for making sails.
cruise.

A

FALSE

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293
Q

The unit’s motor is running when it stops suddenly; direct causes
can be:

A

the propeller shaft got stuck with the invertor engaged.

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294
Q

Very prolonged exposure of sails to sunlight causes them to decay
of its mechanical strength characteristics.

A

TRUE

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295
Q

The engine, if in neutral, stays running and, if in gear, stops. Why?

A

the propeller got stuck.

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296
Q

The standard set of sails on a catamaran consists of mainsail, jib and gennaker.

A

TRUE

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297
Q

The inboard engine does not start and the lights on the panel go out at the
time of start-up: the cause could be:

A

the batteries are completely discharged.

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298
Q

The basic set of sails on a sloop-rigged hull consists of mainsail and genoa (or genoa).

A

TRUE

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299
Q

The axis line is:

A

a set of mechanical parts that transmits movement to the propeller.

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300
Q

The garrocci are the specific carabiners that allow the forward side of the
genoa and jib to the forestay.

A

TRUE

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301
Q

The diesel engine shuts down immediately after ignition; the cause may be:

A

presence of air in the injection pump.

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302
Q

The backstay’s function is to adjust the vang.

A

FALSE

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303
Q

What can be the most probable cause that an inboard engine
emits blue smoke from the exhaust?

A

lubricating oil has entered the combustion chamber.

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304
Q

Cocking the backstay results in significant slimming of the central part of the
mainsail.

A

TRUE

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305
Q

What can be the most probable cause that an inboard engine
emits black smoke from the exhaust?

A

dirty fuel, dirty air filter or fuel filter, dirty carburettor or
damaged.

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306
Q

The lover’s knot is one that tends to unravel easily.

A

FALSE

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307
Q

What is the function of the injector in a diesel engine?

A

spraying the diesel to make it burn quickly.

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308
Q

The gassa d’amante is used to shorten a line.

A

FALSE

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309
Q

What is the additional percentage of fuel that it is advisable to keep on board
to ensure safe navigation?

A

30%.

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310
Q

The flat knot should be used to join two cables with different diameters.

A

FALSE

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311
Q

The function of a savoia knot is to prevent the end of a cable from slipping out of a
grommet.

A

TRUE

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312
Q

How much fuel must I have on board, including the 30% safety increase, to travel 10
miles at a speed of 5 knots, knowing that the hourly consumption is 50 litres/hour?

A

at least 130 litres.

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313
Q

The spoken knot is useful for securing wings to the dredges.

A

TRUE

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314
Q

A 2-stroke outboard petrol engine consumes 300 g per horsepower per hour of running time. Assuming a specific weight of 0.75 kg per litre, what is the average fuel consumption of the above-mentioned 2-stroke outboard petrol engine of 80
Hp?

A

32 litres per hour.

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315
Q

The daisy knot is used to shorten a line.

A

TRUE

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316
Q

Regarding the navigational autonomy of a pleasure boat, it is possible to state that:

A

if the hourly consumption is not known, the hourly range can be calculated by knowing the
HP power output and the specific weight of the fuel used.

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317
Q

A lazy jack is a special halyard used to hoist sails in conditions of
emergency.

A

FALSE

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318
Q

Regarding fuel consumption and cruising range, it can be said that:

A

with rough seas, the range in miles decreases at the same speed.

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319
Q

A lazy jack refers to the line system that helps pick up the mainsail during
lowered.

A

TRUE

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320
Q

Which calculation of the amount of fuel plus reserve (S = space, V = speed, C =
consumption l/h, RIS = reserve, Q = fuel quantity in litres) is correct?

A

S = 15 Miles C = 15 litres/h V = 15 Knots Q = 19.5 litres

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321
Q

The feeder is the device used in order to facilitate the introduction of the inferitura of the
jib or genoa inside the forestay channel.

A

TRUE

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322
Q

As a calculation of the fuel quantity including the 30% increase in safety (S
= space, V = speed, C = consumption l/h, RIS = reserve, Q = fuel quantity in litres) is correct?

A

S = 10 Miles C = 10 litres/h V = 10 Knots Q = 13.0 litres.

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323
Q

The tesabase is the device designed to keep the base of the jib taut.

A

FALSE

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324
Q

The consumption figure of an engine:

A

corresponds to the hourly litre consumption at maximum engine power of the unit from
boating.

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325
Q

The manoeuvres required to use the spinnaker are sheet, spring, vang, borosa and
meolo del tangone.

A

FALSE

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326
Q

Fuel consumption is calculated:

A

multiplying the hourly consumption by the duration of the navigation actually carried out
(consumption x time).

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327
Q

An arm is defined as the cable used to manoeuvre and thus adjust the tack of the
spinnaker.

A

TRUE

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328
Q

Calculated theoretical consumption for a certain navigation, according to a good rule of thumb
marinara is added at least 30% because of:

A

any disturbing elements of the motion (wind and/or current).

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329
Q

The matafion is a respect jib used in adverse marine weather conditions.

A

FALSE

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330
Q

With 30 litres of fuel and an hourly consumption of 20 litres, the sailing range,
considering the 30% increase in security, it will be:

A

total of 90 minutes, but considering the 30% increase, they become
approximately 69 minutes.

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331
Q

Splicing refers to the interlacing of the strands of the ends of textile or
steel, in order to join them together or to make a fixed ring to which hardware or rigging can be attached.

A

TRUE

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332
Q

Determine, to t h e nearest approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to safely complete 150 nautical miles, knowing its hourly consumption (40 l/h) and speed
cruising speed (25 knots).

A

312 litres.

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333
Q

Borosa refers to the upper end of the hollow forestay connecting it
to the tree.

A

FALSE

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334
Q

Determine, w i t h due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to safely complete 180 nautical miles, knowing its hourly consumption (31 l/h) and speed
cruising speed (30 knots).

A

242 litres.

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335
Q

Shrouds, are cables generally made of steel (but also of textile fibres particularly
tenacious), which support the tree.

A

TRUE

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336
Q

To correctly calculate the amount of fuel to be taken on my unit
I must multiply:

A

hourly consumption for sailing hours and add 30%.

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337
Q

The turnbuckle is a device used to join two lines of different material.

A

FALSE

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338
Q

1 Kw is equivalent to:

A

1.36 hp

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339
Q

The vang is an adjustable boom restraint system that performs two main functions: it regulates the longitudinal deflection of the mast and influences the bearing surface
of sailing.

A

TRUE

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340
Q

What are the main parts of which the propeller is composed?

A

hub and blades.

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341
Q

Fixed rigging such as shrouds and stays can be run inside the mast.

A

FALSE

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342
Q

What feature does diesel fuel offer over petrol?

A

higher flash point.

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343
Q

The mainsail furler is a piece of equipment that allows the mainsail to be stowed in a locker once
ended navigation.

A

FALSE

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344
Q

What are the phases of a four-stroke internal combustion engine?

A

intake, compression, exhaust.

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345
Q

Mast adjustment is carried out with the unit at the mooring by acting on each
single current manoeuvre in strict adherence to the manufacturer’s instructions.

A

FALSE

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346
Q

What materials can outboard motor propellers be made of?

A

aluminium, stainless steel, composite.

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347
Q

Current manoeuvres are those used to manoeuvre the sails, such as the sheets,
halyards, wangs, base brim, etc.

A

TRUE

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348
Q

What is the main characteristic of a good lubricant for a diesel engine?

A

viscosity or density.

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349
Q

A self-tailing winch is an electronic winch controlled from the wheelhouse for which
use of the handle is not necessary.

A

FALSE

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350
Q

What intervention should be carried out after a long voyage of an engine
inboard?

A

let the engine cool down, check the oil level and, if necessary, carry out the
topping up.

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351
Q

Shrouds and shrouds are fixed rigging.

A

TRUE

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352
Q

Which part of the outboard motor in the picture do the arrows indicate?

A

the cooling water intakes.

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353
Q

Turning the handle clockwise gives the winch better traction and power.

A

TRUE

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354
Q

Which part of the outboard motor in the picture shows the arrows?

A

the ‘warning light’, a water leakage which testifies to the correct functioning of the
cooling.

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355
Q

The reason why the mainsail shackle is of the locking pin type is because of
allow the sail to be unhooked, preventing it from falling into the sea.

A

TRUE

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356
Q

Which part of the outboard motor in the picture shows the arrows?

A

propeller.

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357
Q

The stocking is a kind of canvas tube with which the spinnaker or gennaker is picked up
before lowering it.

A

TRUE

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358
Q

Which part of the inboard transmission is indicated by the arrow?

A

aft group.

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359
Q

With the self-tacking jib, it is necessary to caulk the sheet when tacking.

A

FALSE

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360
Q

Which part of the hull is indicated by the arrow?

A

engine compartment bulkhead.

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361
Q

With the self-tacking jib, the sheet is generally returned to a sheave on the mast.

A

TRUE

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362
Q

Which part of the transmission components of an inboard engine is indicated by the
arrow?

A

box.

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363
Q

With the furling genoa reduced by more than 30% of the surface area, there is a significant reduction
of profile efficiency.

A

TRUE

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364
Q

Which part of the transmission components of an inboard engine is indicated by the
arrow?

A

propeller shaft.

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365
Q

The foresail furler and the modern system for reducing the headsail without
lower it.

A

TRUE

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366
Q

Which part of the transmission components of an inboard engine is indicated by the
arrow?

A

inverter/reducer.

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367
Q

The stopper is the manoeuvre by which the boom is fixed in its rest position.

A

FALSE

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368
Q

What is the operating principle of a waterjet engine?

A

propulsion is achieved by a jet of water delivered at high speed from the stern of the vessel, through a pump driven by a conventional engine.

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369
Q

The stopper is the locking system that allows a halyard to be throttled.

A

TRUE

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370
Q

What are the main parts of a waterjet propulsion system?

A

intake duct, propeller, penstock and steering mechanism.

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371
Q

Foiling’ is defined as the manoeuvre to steer the vessel with its bow to the wind
or to let go of the sheets so that the sails are not load-bearing

A

TRUE

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372
Q

The water-jet propulsion system results:

A

Difficult to manoeuvre at minimum rpm and in windy conditions.

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373
Q

Foiling’ refers to the manoeuvre aimed at bringing the vessel’s stern to the
wind.

A

FALSE

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374
Q

With regard to a diesel engine, which statement is correct?

A

needs as many injectors as cylinders.

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375
Q

With tiller steering it is necessary to place the tiller of the rudder to windward
i.e. on the opposite side of the mainsail.

A

TRUE

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376
Q

What are the basic organs that make up the power system of a
diesel engine?

A

fuel pump, injection pump, injectors.

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377
Q

With tiller steering, the rudder tiller must be placed downwind to rest
i.e. on the same side as the mainsail.

A

FALSE

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378
Q

What is required to ensure starting in indirect injection diesel engines?

A

glow plug.

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379
Q

When two sailing vessels are sailing upwind with converging courses, the one with the
port tack will lay off to leave a clear course for the one with the starboard tack, passing them by the stern.

A

TRUE

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380
Q

How does the electric start-up of an outboard motor take place?

A

through the action of a starter motor connected to the electrical system.

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381
Q

When two sailing vessels sail upwind with converging courses, the more
slow will leave the course clear for the faster one, passing them by the stern.

A

FALSE

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382
Q

Which of the following can be a cause of an outboard motor overheating?

A

obstruction of the cooling water flow due, for example, to the possible presence of algae or plastic fragments at the intake
suction of the water circuit.

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383
Q

When two sailing vessels sail upwind both with the same tack, the one
upwind will heave to leave the course clear for the downwind one.

A

TRUE

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384
Q

Which of these checks is correct in the case of an outboard motor
present start-up difficulties?

A

check that the gear lever is in the neutral position.

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385
Q

After stringing the mainsail halyard, the base of the mainsail can be caulked, a little or a lot, depending on whether you want to take wide or
upwind.

A

TRUE

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386
Q

Concerning the phenomenon of cavitation in relation to an outboard motor, which statement
is that correct?

A

can occur when the length of the foot is not compatible with the height of the transom, of the vessel on which it is installed.

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387
Q

Downing is the manoeuvre by which the sailing unit changes tack by crossing
with the stern the direction from which the wind comes.

A

TRUE

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388
Q

Which of the following can cause amotor to fail to start
petrol?

A

lack of fuel flow, dirty or flooded carburettor, deterioration of the
candles.

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389
Q

Turning is the manoeuvre to avoid an obstacle.

A

FALSE

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390
Q

What can be the causes of black exhaust smoke emission
of a petrol engine?

A

poor combustion and faulty carburation.

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391
Q

The tacking manoeuvre is the manoeuvre used to reach a destination by sailing with the wind in the thread of
wheel.

A

FALSE

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392
Q

What can be the reasons why a diesel engine runs but does not start?

A

presence of air in the fuel circuit, clogged fuel filter,

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393
Q

The downswing is performed when the boat is at maximum speed and sailing at the
traverse or upwind.

A

FALSE

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394
Q

What can be the reasons why a diesel engine is difficult to start?

A

presence of water in the fuel, clogged exhaust pipe,

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395
Q

To rig the mainsail: connect the mainsail to the tack angle, tension the base and close it
the sheet stopper.

A

FALSE

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396
Q

What can be the causes for which a diesel engine produces exhaust fumes of
colour black or grey?

A

injection pump malfunction, air filter clogging.

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397
Q

The tack point is positioned on the boom’s boom area.

A

FALSE

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398
Q

What can be the causes for which a diesel engine produces exhaust fumes of
colour blue or white?

A

clogging of the oil filter, malfunction of the turbocharger.

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399
Q

We rig the mainsail by hauling in the meolo, inserting the plank inside the
pocket on the highest part of the shaft.

A

FALSE

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400
Q

What can be the causes of an engine misfire
diesel?

A

presence of air in the fuel circuit, deformation or rupture of one or more pipes
of the injector.

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401
Q

After letting go of the mainsail halyard, the base of the mainsail can be left, little or
a lot, depending on whether you want to go upwind or downwind.

A

FALSE

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402
Q

What can be the reasons why a diesel engine does not run smoothly?

A

clogging of the fuel filter, deformation or rupture of one or more pipes that
bring fuel to the injectors.

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403
Q

Genoa (or genoa) and jib arm themselves in the same way because they have, in general, the same tack point as well as being inferred from the same forestay.

A

TRUE

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404
Q

What can be the causes of excessive vibration of a motor
diesel?

A

breakage or loosening of the motor mounting brackets.

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405
Q

The first operation required to hoist the jib or genoa equipped with
garocci is to fix the clevis eye into the attachment located at the base of the forestay.

A

FALSE

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406
Q

What could be the cause of the formation of water in the tank
fuel?

A

topping up the tank with poor quality fuel.

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407
Q

The garters with which the jib is equipped should be hooked to the forestay starting from the point of
pen and continuing towards the point of the sheet.

A

FALSE

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408
Q

What steps can be taken to avoid contamination of the
fuel?

A

install an appropriate filter separator.

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409
Q

The device usually used to attach the halyard to the pen is a
snap hook spliced to the halyard itself.

A

TRUE

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410
Q

What damage can a prolonged overheating of an outboard motor cause?

A

engine seizure, damage to the cylinder head and its gaskets.

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411
Q

The knot usually used to fasten the two sheets to the jib cleat, one per
side, it is double speech.

A

FALSE

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412
Q

What consequence could clogging the water intake of an engine cause
outboard?

A

overheating of the engine and subsequent engine shutdown.

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413
Q

The boat is driven with the bow to the wind in order to allow the jib to not
swell while being hoisted.

A

TRUE

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414
Q

What consequence could the presence of algae or floating debris cause
on the propeller of an outboard motor?

A

excessive vibration of the engine.

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415
Q

The hollow forestay offers the advantage of lowering the sail centre of the jib.

A

FALSE

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416
Q

What causes or factors can affect the ship’s autonomy?

A

the weather and sea conditions and the overall displacement of the vessel.

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417
Q

The double channel of a hollow forestay serves to facilitate the replacement of a sail of
bow.

A

TRUE

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418
Q

By what factors can the autonomy of a vessel be influenced?

A

cruising speed maintained.

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419
Q

Hoisting the tormentor is the manoeuvre that can be adopted in order to reduce speed
upwind

A

FALSE

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420
Q

Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 4-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (24
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.

A

125 litres.

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421
Q

The manoeuvre that can be adopted in order to reduce speed in load-bearing gaits
is to spin the mainsail.

A

FALSE

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422
Q

Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 5-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (32
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.

A

208 litres.

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423
Q

The manoeuvre known as ‘creaming’ is used to increase speed.

A

FALSE

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424
Q

Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 6-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (18
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.

A

140 litres.

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425
Q

The manoeuvre known as ‘creaming’ consists of placing the headsail at the neck
leaving the mainsail tacked for the wide windward leg as well as putting the rudder to the windward.

A

TRUE

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426
Q

Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to safely navigate in a 7-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (27 litres/h)
of the engine installed on board.

A

246 litres.

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427
Q

The manoeuvre known as ‘putting on the hood’ consists of a particular technique that
allows sailing at reduced speed using the floating anchor spun aft.

A

FALSE

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428
Q

Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 9-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (19 litres/h)
of the engine installed on board.

A

222 litres.

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429
Q

The ‘reefing hand or hold’ refers to the manoeuvre to lower the tangon and
spinnaker, changing from a flush to a traverse.

A

FALSE

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430
Q

Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 3-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (47
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.

A

183 litres.

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431
Q

The ‘reefing grip’ consists of completely lowering the mainsail and hoisting the
in its place the mainsail called matafion.

A

FALSE

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432
Q

Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (90 nautical miles), the cruising speed (30 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (28 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a unit.

A

25 litres.

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433
Q

By ‘trimming’ sails, we mean furling them correctly after use in
navigation for their subsequent ready use.

A

FALSE

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434
Q

Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (84 nautical miles), the cruising speed (21 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (18 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a unit.

A

22 litres.

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435
Q

The advantage of gliding is the increased displacement of the unit.

A

FALSE

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436
Q

Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (100 nautical miles), the cruising speed (40 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (60 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.

A

45 litres.

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437
Q

When the boat is positioned with the bow to the wind, the sails become tapered, arranging themselves transversally to the longitudinal axis of the unit and pointing in the direction of
source of the apparent wind.

A

FALSE

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438
Q

Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (54 nautical miles), the cruising speed (18 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (30 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.

A

27 litres.

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439
Q

The manoeuvre known as ‘strallare’ consists of turning the tangon towards the
bow of the vessel by leading its free end close to the forestay.

A

TRUE

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440
Q

Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (150 nautical miles), the cruising speed (30 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (16 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.

A

24 litres.

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441
Q

The manoeuvre known as ‘squaring’ consists of turning the tangon towards the
bow of the vessel by leading its free end close to the forestay.

A

FALSE

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442
Q

Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (48 nautical miles), the cruising speed (12 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (26 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.

A

31 litres.

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443
Q

Leaning means varying the prow of the unit by moving it away from the bow
with respect to the direction of origin of the wind.

A

TRUE

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444
Q

Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (68 nautical miles), the cruising speed (12 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (12 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.

A

20 litres.

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445
Q

Heading is defined as changing the course of the vessel by assuming a new value of
course opposite to that of the wind’s direction of origin.

A

FALSE

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446
Q

IPS (Inboard Performance System) means:

A

a type of transmission with a fully immersed foot, characterised by
trailing and bow-facing propellers.

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447
Q

Foiling is defined as the manoeuvre aimed at driving the vessel with the stern to the wind.

A

FALSE

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448
Q

Pod-type transmissions consist of:

A

by a transmitting body contained in a fully immersed foot, which
by rotating it orients the bow of the boat.

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449
Q

The tack and the downswing are the fundamental manoeuvres for changing tack.

A

TRUE

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450
Q

The one in the image opposite is:

A

an IPS transmission.

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451
Q

The tacking is the manoeuvre by which the sailing unit prepares to haul off the
spinnaker.

A

FALSE

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452
Q

By ‘S drive’ is meant:

A

the foot inside of which are two conical gears that transmit motion
from the engine to the propeller, used on sailing boats instead of the shaft line.

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453
Q

To rest, the bar must be placed in the centre

A

FALSE

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454
Q

For safety purposes, an important element in the maintenance of the ‘S drive’ is:

A

the regular replacement of the foot seal in accordance with
manufacturer’s deadline, moulded into the rubber.

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455
Q

When two sailing vessels sail upwind with converging courses, the slower one
will leave the course clear for the faster one, passing it by the stern.

A

FALSE

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456
Q

The diesel fuel currently on the market:

A

promotes the formation of algae in the reservoir, which can obstruct the feeding of the
engine.

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457
Q

If two sailing units both sail with the same tack, the one that is
located downwind.

A

TRUE

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458
Q

To ensure the perfect functioning of a diesel engine:

A

it is advisable to clean the tank frequently and replace the filters of the
fuel to combat algae formation

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459
Q

If two sailing vessels sail upwind with converging courses, the one with a port tack
takes precedence.

A

FALSE

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460
Q

For which fire classes (A, B, C, D) is the powder extinguisher suitable?

A

all classes.

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461
Q

If two units sail with different sails (one on the port side and the other on the starboard side), has the
precedence for those who take the wind to the left.

A

FALSE

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462
Q

For what type of fire is the foam extinguisher suitable?

A

fires from solids and fires from liquids.

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463
Q

If two units sail with different sails (one on the port side and the other on the starboard side), has the
precedence for those who take the wind on their starboard side.

A

TRUE

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464
Q

The carbon dioxide extinguisher must be used:

A

inside closed rooms as it extinguishes fire by suffocation.

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465
Q

If two units sail on opposite courses, the one with the wind on the left must
leaving the other’s course clear.

A

TRUE

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466
Q

Which fire extinguishers must be EC type-approved?

A

all.

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467
Q

If a unit with the wind on its port side sees another unit sailing upwind and cannot
establish with certainty whether it has the wind on its port or starboard side, it must manoeuvre so as to leave the course clear .

A

TRUE

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468
Q

With regard to fire prevention, which of these statements is correct?

A

certain substances, such as oil-soaked rags left in the engine compartment or in poorly ventilated lockers, can slowly heat up, leading to a
spontaneous combustion.

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469
Q

When sailing close-hauled, you can temporarily reduce speed by stinging the
wind beyond the tack angle.

A

TRUE

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470
Q

What fire-fighting equipment is most appropriate for extinguishing fires
generated by equipment or switchboards?

A

carbon dioxide powder extinguisher.

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471
Q

Leaning from close hauled to wide hauled, the boat accelerates.

A

TRUE

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472
Q

Which of these statements is correct?

A

the jet of the foam extinguishers must be directed at the base of the flames and must not
be used to extinguish fires involving live electrical equipment.

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473
Q

To reduce heeling, the sails are trimmed, the cunnincham and the
mainsail halyard, genoa halyard and genoa (or genoa) sheet point are retracted.

A

TRUE

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474
Q

Using water to extinguish metal fires:

A

is a dangerous use.

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475
Q

To increase power in a weak wind, the sails are trimmed, chasing the
cunnincham and the mainsail l u f f , the genoa halyard and the genoa (or genoa) sheet point are retracted.

A

FALSE

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476
Q

What causes a Class B fire?

A

from flammable liquids.

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477
Q

The ‘setting’ of the sails is achieved when the sails are completely set at
shore.

A

FALSE

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478
Q

Air is introduced into a room attacked by fire:

A

you feed the fire.

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479
Q

To reduce heeling under gusts, the mainsail traveller (trasto) is moved
downwind or, in the absence of a trolley, leave the sheet on.

A

TRUE

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480
Q

The initials 13B on fire extinguishers indicate:

A

fire class and extinguishing capacity.

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481
Q

For a quick lean to avoid an obstacle, I only have to leave the
jib.

A

FALSE

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482
Q

Powder extinguishers are used for:

A

extinguishing fires involving liquid or gaseous substances as well as equipment fires
live electricity.

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483
Q

Boom restraint is that manoeuvre that can be used to avoid gybing
in the gaits of granlasco and giardinetto.

A

TRUE

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484
Q

The CO2 extinguisher can be used for fires of:

A

flammable liquids and live electrical equipment.

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485
Q

If the wind increases, reducing the mainsail decreases the gyre tendency
of the unit.

A

TRUE

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486
Q

What causes a Class E fire?

A

from live electrical equipment.

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487
Q

When you start thinking about whether you should reduce the sail because of the excessive
skidding is probably the time to do it.

A

TRUE

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488
Q

A foam extinguisher can be used for fires:

A

classes A and B.

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489
Q

It is certainly appropriate to reduce the sail if the boat permanently has the foresail in
water.

A

TRUE

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490
Q

What causes a Class A fire?

A

from solid fuels.

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491
Q

The gybe is the biggest risk one runs when sailing downwind or upwind
(small garden).

A

TRUE

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492
Q

A flammable gas fire is a fire of:

A

class C.

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493
Q

Jibing and jibing are the same thing.

A

FALSE

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494
Q

For gas and electrical fires (classes C and E) it is preferable to use:

A

a CO2 extinguisher.

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495
Q

The gybe is the involuntary and uncontrolled jibe.

A

TRUE

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496
Q

VHF radio equipment on fire:

A

you cool the radio using the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher.

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497
Q

Subject to local ordinances, it is normally possible to enter a port by sailing.

A

FALSE

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498
Q

Using water to extinguish a fire from electrical equipment (class E):

A

is a very dangerous use.

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499
Q

Letting go of the mainsail makes it easier to lean.

A

TRUE

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500
Q

The ship’s point obtained by the ‘coastal’ navigation method:

A

determines the position with sufficient accuracy; it is therefore reliable for the continuation
of navigation.

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501
Q

The Rv route is:

A

the actual course the ship has taken or will have to take in relation to the seabed.

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502
Q

The heading angle Rv is the angle that:

A

the path of the pleasure boat at each point forms with the direction North
of the geographic meridian.

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503
Q

The course angle may vary:

A

between 0 and 360 degrees clockwise from the North.

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504
Q

The bow of the ship is:

A

the direction in which the ship’s keel line is oriented with respect to north.

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505
Q

Two opposite routes have an angular difference of:

A

180 degrees.

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506
Q

Does navigating with Rv 090 degrees change any geographical coordinates?

A

yes, only the longitude.

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507
Q

Does navigating with Rv 180 degrees change any geographical coordinates?

A

yes, only the latitude.

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508
Q

The true heading angle is between true north and la:

A

true heading of the unit and is measured clockwise.

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509
Q

The true heading angle is read:

A

on the wind rose on nautical charts.

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510
Q

The actual speed (Ve) is that speed:

A

due to the actions on the ship of thrusters, wind and current.

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511
Q

The proper or propulsive motion of a motorised ship is generated:

A

by the action of the propeller-propellers alone.

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512
Q

The drift angle is that angle below which it is:

A

deflected the path of the unit due to wind action.

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513
Q

Effective motion is defined by the following terms:

A

Rv (true heading angle) and Ve (true speed).

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514
Q

The drift angle is that angle below which it is:

A

diverted the path of the unit due to the action of the current.

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515
Q

Own or propulsive speed (Vp) is the speed imparted to the motor unit:

A

solely by its propeller-propeller.

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516
Q

For the same current, how does drift affect different types of hulls?

A

is indifferent and does not depend on the type of hull or exposure of the dead work.

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517
Q

The actual speed (Ve) is nothing but the speed:

A

real compared to the seabed.

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518
Q

Except in theoretical cases of bow or stern drift, the positive or
negative is:

A

the lateral displacement occurring respectively to the starboard or left of the
prow of the ship.

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519
Q

With the same wind action, the drift speed:

A

the smaller the living work and the larger the surface area
exposed to the wind.

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520
Q

Why does the wind appear different when sailing?

A

because the wind due to the motion of the ship is vectorially added to the real one.

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521
Q

The drift influences:

A

on all units.

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522
Q

Wind 180 degrees and current 180 degrees; what does that mean?

A

the wind blows north (Ostro), the current, on the contrary, goes south.

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523
Q

The drift:

A

depends on the intensity of the wind, the speed of the unit, the surface area exposed to the
wind and the type of hull.

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524
Q

Of the possible motions on the water that the ship can make or undergo, it can be stated that:

A

drift is the movement due to the presence of currents.

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525
Q

The drift is:

A

the disruptive effect of the sea current on the motion of the unit.

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526
Q

The drift is due:

A

to the action of the wind.

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527
Q

The drift is due:

A

to the effect of the current.

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528
Q

With wind, aft, whose direction coincides with the direction of the ship’s motion:

A

you have an effect on the speed of the ship but not on the direction of its course.

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529
Q

We are sailing on a northerly course in a wind and current both 180;
it happens that:

A

the motion of the ship is facilitated by the drift while it is counteracted by the drift.

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530
Q

True heading angle and true heading angle may coincide in the presence of drift
and/or drift?

A

yes, but only if they come exactly from the bow or stern.

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531
Q

Here is a list of all nautical publications published by the Hydrographic Institute
of the Navy?

A

in the catalogue of nautical charts and publications (I.I. 3001).

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532
Q

By ‘updating’ nautical publications is meant:

A

an adaptation of publications to the changes that occur.

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533
Q

The ‘reprint’ of an I.I.M.M. published nautical chart:

A

is a new run of the current edition of a charter on which no major changes have been incorporated except those resulting from any
Notices to Mariners (AA.NN.) issued over time.

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534
Q

The Notices to Mariners (AA.NN.):

A

are intended to update nautical charts.

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535
Q

If the pilot book warns that for a given port the crosswinds are those of the
second quadrant, what considerations?

A

the port is poorly protected in the case of Levante, Scirocco and Ostro.

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536
Q

The List of Lighthouses and Fog Signals is:

A

a publication listing the location, description and characteristics of the
light and sound signals of the Mediterranean coasts

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537
Q

The Portolano:

A

provides information necessary for coastal navigation as a description of the coast,
hazards, appearance of lighthouses, beacons, port services, buoys.

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538
Q

The nautical documents are:

A

all nautical charts and publications necessary for the conduct of the
navigation.

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539
Q

When the master of a vessel is required to file an occurrence report
extraordinary to the Maritime Authority?

A

within three days of arrival in port.

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540
Q

Pursuant to the Recreational Boating Code, abroad what is the authority to which the
filed an extraordinary event report?

A

the Consular Authority.

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541
Q

Who is exclusively responsible for directing the manoeuvre and navigation of
a unit?

A

to the unit commander.

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542
Q

The master of the vessel who, in the event of a collision, does not, as far as possible, give the other units the information necessary for the identification of his own vessel:

A

is liable to an administrative fine of between EUR 1,032.00 and EUR 6,197.00 Euro.

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543
Q

Under the Code of Navigation, what is meant by a report of extraordinary events?

A

the declaration that the master of the vessel is required to submit to the Master of the port or to the Consular Authority of the port of call when, during the voyage, they have
extraordinary events occurred with regard to the vessel. or persons on board.

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544
Q

Under the Recreational Boating Code, which of these behaviours constitutes an administrative offence?

A

taking command or conduct or nautical direction of a recreational craft without the prescribed certificate, because it was not obtained or revoked or not
validated for lack of requirements, or suspended or withdrawn.

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545
Q

The master of a vessel who, while at sea, becomes aware of the
danger of another unit.

A

is obliged to rush to render assistance when it can foresee a useful
result.

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546
Q

A collision occurred between naval units:

A

the commander of each is obliged to render assistance to the others, their crew and their passengers, if this does not pose a serious danger to his vessel and t h e persons
on board.

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547
Q

The commander of the rescuing unit is obliged to attempt the rescue of persons who
are at sea or in inland waters in danger:

A

if this does not pose a serious danger to his vessel and the persons who
are on board.

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548
Q

The master of a vessel who fails to render assistance or attempt the
rescue in cases where it is obliged to do so under the Code of Navigation:

A

shall be punished by imprisonment of up to two years.

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549
Q

Which of these conducts constitutes an administrative offence?

A

unless the act constitutes an infringement of the legislation on marine protected areas,
the use of a recreational craft without complying with a provision of the law or of navigation safety regulations.

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550
Q

The navigation limits of units bearing the ‘CE’ mark are defined:

A

by the significant height of the waves and the strength of the wind.

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551
Q

A pleasure boat may be registered at:

A

the Telematics Archive of Pleasure Craft (ATCN).

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552
Q

Baselines have the function of:

A

mark the internal limit from which the territorial sea area is measured.

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553
Q

The national flag for pleasure craft registered in the registers:

A

is displayed in the most visible, most appropriate position.

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554
Q

If boats, marine engines, etc. are found on the beach:

A

a report is filed with the local maritime authority.

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555
Q

For pleasure boats, the name:

A

is not compulsory.

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556
Q

When navigating in the vicinity of roadsteads, we must be careful:

A

to the orders of the Maritime Authority.

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557
Q

The ordinances are from:

A

requirements regulating maritime navigation in the local area.

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558
Q

What is meant by inland navigation?

A

that carried out on lakes, rivers, canals and other inland waters.

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559
Q

Can a unit with an overall length of 9.90 metres be registered?

A

yes, but it is subject to the legal regime of registered pleasure boats.

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560
Q

Where should the RTF licence for the VHF installed on board pleasure craft be applied for?

A

Ministry of Economic Development through the STED (Sportello Telematico del
Diportist).

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561
Q

Are vessels obliged to display the national flag?

A

yes, always.

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562
Q

A person residing in Genoa, where he can register his boat from
boating?

A

at any STED (Sportello Telematico del Diportista).

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563
Q

Pleasure craft means:

A

any construction of any kind and by any means of propulsion, which is
intended for recreational navigation, which may be of a ‘lusoria’ (private) or ‘commercial’ nature.

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564
Q

A pleasure boat registered in the ATCN (Archivio Telematico Centrale della
Yachting), has the following abbreviation:

A

alphanumeric code consisting of 4 letters and 4 numbers followed by the letter D.

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565
Q

Pleasure craft used for commercial purposes means:

A

that used for activities under the Boating Code, including leasing and
hire.

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566
Q

Pleasure craft used for commercial purposes means:

A

that used for activities under the Boating Code, including assisting the
diving activities and professional teaching.

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567
Q

The provisions of the Nautical Code:

A

apply both to pleasure boating exercised for lusory (recreational) purposes and to
commercial purposes, as defined by the code itself.

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568
Q

In the absence of specific provisions, the navigation of recreational craft is
apply:

A

the provisions of the Navigation Code.

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569
Q

The provisions on compulsory liability insurance (Decree
Legislative Decree No 209 of 7 September 2005, as amended) shall apply:

A

to all recreational craft as defined by the nautical code,with the exclusion of
rowing and sailing units not equipped with an auxiliary engine.

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570
Q

An outboard motor is subject to compulsory insurance (Legislative Decree 7
September 2005, No 209, as amended):

A

always.

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571
Q

The provisions on compulsory liability insurance (Decree
Legislative Decree No 209 of 7 September 2005, as amended):

A

also apply to engines with a foreign certificate of use or other document
equivalent issued abroad, if used in national territorial waters.

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572
Q

The provisions governing the navigation of recreational craft contained in the
nautical code are completed:

A

by the Regulations implementing the Nautical Code.

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573
Q

For matters not covered by the provisions of the Nautical Code, the following shall apply:

A

the provisions of the Navigation Code.

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574
Q

Assistance and towing:

A

is permitted with regard to boats and vessels, subject to the signing of a
insurance policy and communication to the competent harbour master’s office.

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575
Q

The unauthorised pursuit of commercial activities with pleasure craft:

A

is subject to a penalty of between EUR 2,775 and EUR 11,017.

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576
Q

Nautical leasing agreement means:

A

a loan granted by a bank or financial intermediary consisting of the granting for use, for a certain period of time and against payment of a fee, of
payment of a periodic consideration (fee), of a vessel.

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577
Q

The user of a nautical leasing contract:

A

even if it is not the owner of the vessel, assumes all risks relating to the perimento
of the good.

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578
Q

In the event of violations by a leasing unit of provisions on
navigation involving fines:

A

the lessee of the unit is jointly and severally liable with the author of the
violations, if a different person.

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579
Q

The unauthorised pursuit of commercial activities with recreational craft is punished:

A

with an administrative fine ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 11,017.

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580
Q

In the case of nautical leasing:

A

the user assumes full responsibility for the control.

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581
Q

The master of the vessel who, in the event of a collision, does not, as far as possible, give the other units the information necessary for the identification of his own vessel:

A

is liable to an administrative fine of between EUR 1,032.00 and 6,197.00 Euro.

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582
Q

With regard to the leasing of pleasure craft, which of these statements is
correct?

A

the lessee of a leased pleasure craft, navigates it assuming the
responsibilities and risks.

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583
Q

What are the obligations to be fulfilled by the keeper of a recreational vessel
located?

A

use the vessel in accordance with the technical characteristics resulting from the licence
of navigation and in accordance with the purpose of recreation.

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584
Q

The lease of pleasure boats and ships:

A

original or certified copy must be kept on board.

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585
Q

The navigation licence and other prescribed documents are kept on board:

A

in the original, or in a certified copy if sailing between ports of the State.

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586
Q

The security certificate:

A

certifies the seaworthiness of the unit and is part of the on-board documents.

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587
Q

The power declaration of the engine installed on board:

A

is part of the on-board documents of watercraft and outboard boats.

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588
Q

The temporary navigation authorisation act

A

is valid as a ship’s document and entitles the holder to navigation within the limits permitted by the construction characteristics of the vessel, as well as to navigation in foreign territorial waters for the period of time necessary for participation in trade fairs,
salons and other exhibition events.

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589
Q

With regard to the chartering of pleasure craft, which of these statements is correct?

A

the contract shall be drawn up in writing under penalty of nullity and shall be kept on board in
original or certified copy.

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590
Q

The use of a recreational craft by means of leases or
rental results:

A

from the navigation licence.

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591
Q

How far from the coast can rowing boats (pedalos, sandolines, etc.) sail?

A

within 1 mile from the coast.

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592
Q

On reaching the age of 16:

A

you may take command and conduct motorised and sailing vessels with auxiliary engines and motor sailers, provided that no licence is required
sailing.

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593
Q

A boating licence may be suspended:

A

for taking command while intoxicated (intoxication) or under the influence of
narcotics (drugs).

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594
Q

Pleasure craft are classified according to the:

A

overall length.

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595
Q

A 9-metre long motorised unit is classified:

A

pleasure boat.

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596
Q

The discovery of a wreck must be reported to the competent authority by:

A

3 days after finding or landing.

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597
Q

Inland maritime waters consist of:

A

from the maritime waters between the coast and the baseline.

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598
Q

Are vessels obliged to fly the national flag?

A

no.

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599
Q

The navigation limits of units bearing the ‘CE’ mark are defined:

A

by the significant height of the waves and the strength of the wind.

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600
Q

Can a ‘habitual offender’ obtain a boating licence?

A

no.

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601
Q

The national flag must be displayed:

A

from ships and pleasure boats.

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602
Q

Can a ‘CE’ marked pleasure boat go abroad?

A

yes, if the design category allows you to undertake the necessary navigation
to reach the foreign destination.

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603
Q

A report of an extraordinary event is filed if in the course of:

A

navigation, abnormal events have occurred with regard to the unit or persons on board.

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604
Q

The navigation licence is valid:

A

as long as the recreational craft does not undergo any changes to structural or
identification of the same or important innovations.

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605
Q

The obligation to have a licence to drive a pleasure boat arises:

A

when the engine power exceeds 40.8 hp, subject to the displacement, the
engine and the fuel used.

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606
Q

A boating licence is required for the command or conduct of a boat from
pleasure boating within 6 miles from the coast, when an engine of 29 kW and 750 cubic centimetres capacity is installed on board?

A

no, in this case it is only required to have reached the age of 18.

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607
Q

Which recreational craft are subject to the ‘CE’ marking?

A

units between 2.5 metres and 24 metres in length, if placed on the market after the
16/06/1998.

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608
Q

A boating licence is compulsory for the command or conduct of a vessel from
boating within 6 miles from the coast?

A

yes, if the unit is equipped with an engine with more than 40.8 horsepower.

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609
Q

A licence may be suspended in the case of assuming command of a unit from
boating with an expired licence?

A

there is no suspension in this case.

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610
Q

When is the second engine considered auxiliary?

A

when it is of the removable type, placed on its own support with power not exceeding
to 20% of that of the main engine.

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611
Q

The ‘owner’s manual’ is that document containing technical data:

A

of the EC type-approved vessel.

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612
Q

The extraordinary event report is filed:

A

to the Maritime or Consular Authority of the port of arrival.

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613
Q

What does assuming, with the expired licence, the command or conduct of
a unit subject to a licence requirement?

A

a hefty administrative fine.

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614
Q

The licence and other documents for recreational craft must always be kept at edge in the original?

A

no, for navigation between national ports it is sufficient to have the certified copies on board
to the original.

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615
Q

Where are pleasure boats and ships registered?

A

in the ATCN (Archivio Telematico Centrale della Nautica da Diporto) through the
STED (Sportello Telematico del Diportista)

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616
Q

For the command and conduct of a sailing pleasure boat without auxiliary engine, for navigation in inland waters and in maritime waters within 6 miles
from the coast is sufficient:

A

have reached the age of eighteen.

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617
Q

With a nautical licence within 12 miles of the coast, you can command
a recreational vessel authorised to sail without distance limits from the coast?

A

yes, as long as it does not exceed the 12-mile limit from the coast.

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618
Q

It is possible to command and drive a pleasure boat used with contracts
of hire?

A

yes, only on condition of possession of an appropriate yachting qualification
prescribed by law.

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619
Q

A sum is paid to ‘take pleasure’ in a vessel for a certain period of time and the contract excludes the ‘possibility of redemption’ on its expiry;
we are in the presence of a contract of:

A

lease.

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620
Q

If you pay a sum to use the services of a person, who makes himself available and puts his vessel at your disposal for a certain period of time
time, you have a contract of:

A

hire.

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621
Q

Which of the following statements about chartering pleasure craft is correct?

A

the chartered unit remains at the disposal of the owner/owner (charterer),
to which the crew also remains.

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622
Q

Occasional hire is:

A

the right of the owner of a vessel to charter his vessel for a maximum of 42 days per year after notifying the Agency of each individual contract
Inland Revenue and the Maritime Authority. It does not constitute a professional
activity.

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623
Q

Which of the following statements on the yacht charter contract is correct?

A

may also provide for several “cabin charterers”; unless the parties agree otherwise, several charter contracts shall be concluded for as many charterers of each
cabin or group of cabins.

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624
Q

A pleasure craft with an overall length of 7 metres may be registered in the
register of pleasure boats?

A

Yes, but it is subject to the legal regime of pleasure boats.

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625
Q

A 55-year-old citizen needs to renew his driving licence; the validity of the new document will be:

A

of 10 years.

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626
Q

Pleasure boating is defined as boating carried out for the purpose:

A

sporting or recreational or commercial, as provided for in the Boating Code by
boating.

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627
Q

How is the temporal validity of the boating licence structured?

A

10 years if not over 60, 5 years if over 60
of age.

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628
Q

Taking command of a unit without having obtained the required qualification,
involves:

A

administrative sanction ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 11,017 and suspension of the
navigation licence for 30 days.

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629
Q

Do I always need a licence to drive a jet ski?

A

yes, always.

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630
Q

The declaration of an extraordinary event must be issued:

A

by the unit commander.

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631
Q

The service vessel (tender) is not obliged to have safety equipment and means of
rescue, without prejudice to individual life-saving equipment, if it sails:

A

within one mile of the coast or the mother unit.

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632
Q

Is a nautical licence compulsory for the command or conduct of a pleasure boat within 6 miles from the coast when an engine with a power rating of 29 kW and a cubic capacity of 1,398 cubic centimetres with 4-stroke carburettor is installed on board?

A

yes, in this case there is a boating licence requirement.

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633
Q

The obligation of liability insurance falls:

A

on any marine engine, removable or not, regardless of power.

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634
Q

If no injuries occurred to persons on board, the report of the event
extraordinary must be submitted:

A

within three days of arrival in port.

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635
Q

When is a boating licence suspended?

A

for serious acts of inexperience and imprudence.

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636
Q

All motorised units are obliged to keep the declaration of
engine power (or engine certificate)?

A

no, in addition to pleasure boats, only pleasure boats equipped with
outboard motor.

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637
Q

The document containing, among other characteristics, the data of a vessel and the data
the personal data of its owner, is referred to as:

A

navigation licence.

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638
Q

In the case of a non-chartered unit, is the safety certificate issued?

A

only to ships and pleasure boats.

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639
Q

The limits set by law for obtaining a boating licence with regard to the
engine are determined:

A

from maximum operating power.

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640
Q

The driver of a jet ski must:

A

wear a lifejacket and observe the locally prescribed speed limits.

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641
Q

A 13-metre long unit with a sail area of 80 square metres and an engine
of 45 hp:

A

requires a navigation licence.

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642
Q

A boating licence is revoked in the event of:

A

in case of loss of moral and physical requirements.

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643
Q

A ‘CE’ marked vessel, how many people can it carry?

A

those indicated in the type-approval certificate.

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644
Q

A licence is compulsory for the command or conduct of a pleasure boat within 6 miles from the coast when an outboard engine is installed on board
with a power output of 29 kW and a displacement of 1,299 cubic centimetres with direct
injection?

A

yes, in this case there is a boating licence requirement.

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645
Q

A licence to operate a jet ski is compulsory:

A

always.

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646
Q

It is certainly considered an ‘extraordinary event’:

A

the stranding.

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647
Q

To whom the report of an extraordinary event should be submitted
abroad?

A

to the flagship consulate.

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648
Q

A nautical licence is compulsory for sailing with a pleasure boat
within 6 miles from the coast, when an engine with a power output of 29 kW and a cubic capacity of 1,098 cubic centimetres and four-stroke carburettor is installed on board?

A

yes, in this case there is a boating licence requirement.

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649
Q

A boating licence is compulsory to drive a recreational craft with an engine of
35 Kw?

A

always.

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650
Q

The validity of the boating licence is 10 years until the completion of the

A

60th year and then 5 years.

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651
Q

A vessel is that unit:

A

not registered.

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652
Q

Whoever holds the helm of a pleasure boat must necessarily have of boating licence?

A

no, as long as there is another person on board who is duly qualified for the type of navigation
in place to take responsibility for command and conduct.

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653
Q

The document listing the characteristics of a vessel’s engine is known under
of:

A

power declaration.

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654
Q

Design category ‘B’ presupposes that the recreational craft is in
able to navigate (identify the correct statement):

A

in the presence of wind force not exceeding 8 and significant wave height not
greater than 4 metres.

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655
Q

Design category ‘C’ presupposes that the recreational craft is in
able to navigate (identify the correct statement):

A

in the presence of wind force not exceeding 6 and significant wave height not
greater than 2 metres.

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656
Q

A nautical licence is compulsory for navigation with a pleasure boat within 6 miles from
the coast when an engine with a power of 29 kW is installed on board and displacement of 998 cubic centimetres and four-stroke outboard carburettor?

A

no, in this case it is only required to have reached the age of 16.

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657
Q

Design category ‘D’ presupposes that the recreational craft is in
able to navigate (identify the correct statement):

A

in the presence o f wind force not exceeding 4 and significant wave height not
greater than 0.3 metres, occasionally 0.5 metres.

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658
Q

Check before departure that the safety equipment of a vessel is
efficient, is a task for whom?

A

of the unit commander.

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659
Q

Generally speaking, the minimum number of crew members of any unit from
pleasure boats (provided they are not for hire) is established:

A

by the master according to the navigation to be undertaken in relation to the
sea conditions and distance from safe harbours.

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660
Q

The jet ski can sail beyond the minimum speed:

A

more than 1000 metres from the coast, 500 metres from the cliffs.

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661
Q

Is a driving licence compulsory for the use of jet skis?

A

yes, always.

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662
Q

A CE-approved vessel can sail:

A

within 12 miles from the coast, if approved for navigation without any limits.

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663
Q

The commander is responsible:

A

the replacement of life-saving appliances and safety equipment with
deterioration or deficiencies impairing its efficiency.

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664
Q

The practice of water skiing also involves the use of the following equipment:

A

first-aid kit and a lifebuoy for each of the towed skiers.

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665
Q

What equipment does water skiing involve?

A

first-aid kit and a lifebuoy for each of the towed skiers.

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666
Q

Drivers of recreational craft with inboard and outboard engines,
used for the practice of water skiing:

A

must have a boating licence.

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667
Q

Drivers of inboard and outboard-powered vessels used for operating
of water skiing, they must:

A

always be assisted by another person experienced in swimming.

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668
Q

With regard to the discipline of water skiing, which of these statements is correct?

A

it is forbidden for any motorised vessel to follow, in its wake or at a shorter than safe distance, other vessels towing skiers or to cross their wake in
speed close enough to run over skiers in the event of a fall.

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669
Q

In the sea areas in front of beaches, in the absence of launching corridors, the departure or
the return of motorised naval units towing skiers:

A

must take place at a speed not exceeding three knots in the last 200 metres from the bathymetric depth of 1.60 metres.

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670
Q

Water skiing is permitted for safety reasons:

A

exclusively during daylight hours, when the weather is favourable and the sea is calm.

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671
Q

The driver of a recreational craft must hold a licence
in the practice of water skiing?

A

yes.

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672
Q

For water skiing, in addition to the skier, how many people must be at
edge:

A

one, an expert in swimming.

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673
Q

In which sea area is water skiing possible?

A

more than 200 metres from the beach, measured from a bathymetric depth of 1.60 metres, unless otherwise
provisions of the Maritime Authority.

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674
Q

Water skiing is practicable:

A

in daylight hours, with favourable weather and calm seas.

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675
Q

The minimum distance between the water skier and the towing vehicle is

A

12 metres.

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676
Q

The unit with which water skiing is practised:

A

can be any type of vessel.

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677
Q

In the case of water skiing performed with a recreational vessel, the driver must possess

A

a boating licence.

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678
Q

Where should the water skier start and recover?

A

only in waters free of swimmers and boats, if not prohibited by ordinances
premises, i.e. within the launch corridors.

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679
Q

The unit towing the water skier must be equipped with:

A

first-aid kit, tow bar and rear-view mirror.

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680
Q

Generally speaking, what is the minimum distance for water skiing from the falling coastline at
peak over the sea?

A

100 metres.

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681
Q

Who recognises the suitability of the tow bar and rear-view mirror for the purposes of
water skiing?

A

the Harbour Master’s Office.

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682
Q

In the sea areas in front of beaches, in the absence of launching and stationary corridors subject to the provisions of the Maritime Authority’s order, the departure and
return of the unit towing the water skier:

A

takes place on a course normal to the coastline and at a speed not exceeding 3 knots.

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683
Q

For each skier towed, there must be a skier on board the towing unit:

A

1 lifebuoy at hand.

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684
Q

In order to water-ski, the engine of the unit towing the water skier
must be:

A

equipped with a gear reverser and a neutralisation device.

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685
Q

To carry out water skiing, as equipment, not provided for in Annex V to the DM
146/2008, in order to sail within 12 miles from the coast, do you have to add on board?

A

a first-aid kit.

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686
Q

To water-ski, the driver observes the skier through a mirror
rear-view mirror:

A

convex.

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687
Q

How many skiers can be towed simultaneously by the same unit from
boating?

A

two.

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688
Q

The lateral distance between a boat towing a skier and other vessels must be:

A

longer than the length of the tow cable.

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689
Q

There are two people in the boat when one of them decides he wants to ski
nautical. Is it possible?

A

no.

690
Q

Non-professional speargun fishing may be permitted to
those who have accomplished:

A

16 years.

691
Q

Recreational underwater fishing is permitted:

A

only in apnoea without the use of breathing aids.

692
Q

During the exercise of underwater sport fishing:

A

the use of light sources with the exception of the torch is prohibited.

693
Q

Underwater fishing is prohibited

A

is prohibited from sunset to sunrise.

694
Q

If the diver is accompanied by a support vessel, the prescribed
red flag with white diagonal stripe

A

must be hoisted onto the vehicle itself.

695
Q

The diving diver is obliged to signal himself with a buoyant bearing:

A

a red flag with a white diagonal stripe, visible at a distance of not less than
300 metres away.

696
Q

With regard to the discipline of underwater fishing, which of these statements is
correct?

A

it is forbidden to hold the speargun in the cocked position unless underwater.

697
Q

The practice of underwater fishing is:

A

prohibited at a distance of less than 100 metres from ships anchored outside ports.

698
Q

The practice of underwater fishing is:

A

prohibited at a distance of less than 100 metres from fixed fishing installations and gillnets.

699
Q

With regard to the discipline of sport fishing, which of these statements is
correct?

A

is exercised through the use of recreational units only for recreational or
competitive.

700
Q

Sport fishing is the activity pursued:

A

for recreational or competitive purposes. It is prohibited, in any form whatsoever, to sell and
trade in the products of that fishery.

701
Q

The permitted fixed lines in sport fishing are :

A

rods with no more than three hooks, dead lines, bolentini, short lines with no more than six hooks and
cephalopod lines.

702
Q

Sport fishing events and competitions are subordinate:

A

to the approval of the Head of the Maritime Compartment who shall issue a
ordinance.

703
Q

The sports fisherman cannot catch on a daily basis:

A

fish, molluscs and crustaceans in quantities of more than 5 kg in total, except in the case of single fish weighing more, and may not catch more than one fish per day
of grouper.

704
Q

Breathing apparatus (cylinders) can be used for fishing
underwater?

A

absolutely not.

705
Q

The marketing of bluefin tuna caught as sport fishermen:

A

is prohibited.

706
Q

What is the limit of bluefin tuna that can be caught and kept at
board?

A

1

707
Q

In the event of a breakdown or accident occurring to one’s own unit, which may result in a
oil spill, the master must:

A

inform without delay the maritime authority nearest to the scene of the accident.

708
Q

Any person who sails by motorboat within a marine protected area that is not adequately marked by the prescribed perimeter buoys, not being aware of the constraints relating to
to that area is.

A

subject to an administrative penalty.

709
Q

Which authorities are responsible for the supervision of marine protected areas?

A

harbour master’s offices, as well as the police of local authorities delegated in the management of
same protected areas.

710
Q

Marine Protected Area management bodies may, in ‘B’ (general reserve) or ‘C’ (partial reserve) areas of a Marine Protected Area, establish

A

establish, in zones “B” (of general reserve) or “C” (of partial reserve), buoy fields and equipped mooring fields, including with the use of information technology and
telematics.

711
Q

Within the buoy and mooring fields of Marine Protected Areas:

A

15% of the berths are reserved for sailing vessels.

712
Q

Generally, in zone ‘A’ of Marine Protected Areas, navigation:

A

is not permitted.

713
Q

Generally, navigation is allowed in Zone B of Marine Protected Areas:

A

is governed by the founding decree and the management regulation.

714
Q

The spillage of 5 kilos of used oil into the sea (typical quantity of a 115 HP engine
outboard):

A

is absolutely prohibited and is capable of polluting an area one and
half a football pitch.

715
Q

The expired distress signals (rockets-hand flares-smoke bombs):

A

must be returned to the dealer when they are replaced.

716
Q

In general, marine protected areas are:

A

divided into three protection zones called A-B-C, some have an additional zone D.

717
Q

The areas into which a Marine Protected Area is divided are:

A

delimited by geographical coordinates and shown on the map attached to the Decree
establishment published in the Official Journal.

718
Q

Generally, in Zone A of Marine Protected Areas the anchorage:

A

is not permitted.

719
Q

The immediate and definitive cessation of bluefin tuna catches for sporting purposes-
recrerative:

A

is established by decree of the competent Ministry when the quota of
fishing allocated to Italy.

720
Q

In marine protected areas in zone B (general reserve):

A

rowing and sailing is permitted.

721
Q

Abandoned plastic containers in the sea:

A

last up to 450 years.

722
Q

In marine protected areas where mooring is regulated by buoy fields:

A

anchoring is never permitted in buoy fields.

723
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

a spindle-shaped light buoy with a radar reflector as its mirage.

724
Q

With reference to nautical chart excerpt Q11, what colour is the signal light
seafarer depicted in the picture?

A

white.

725
Q

What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?

A

a flash every 3 seconds with a nominal range of 7 nautical miles.

726
Q

A ‘side signal’ is that maritime signal that indicates:

A

on which side of the ship (starboard or port) the signal must be left according to the
conventional sense of signalling.

727
Q

The geographical scope is the:

A

distance at which the light from a lighthouse can be seen in relation to the curvature of the
Earth and the height of the observer.

728
Q

The headlights are:

A

light sources signalling port entrances, buoys, dangers, navigable channels,
platforms, etc.

729
Q

The luminous range is the:

A

maximum distance at which the light of a beacon is visible as a function of its
light intensity and meteorological visibility.

730
Q

The nominal capacity is the:

A

luminous range in a homogeneous atmosphere with ‘meteorological visibility’ of 10 miles.

731
Q

Based on the IALA maritime signalling system, which of the two prescribed systems is
adopted in the Mediterranean Sea?

A

System A (red on the left).

732
Q

The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:

A

cardinal indicating to pass north of it because the danger is to the south.

733
Q

The abbreviation in English ‘Fl (3) W 10s’ can be found in the list of beacons and signals from
fog published in Italian by I.I.M., means:

A

3 white flashes, period 10 seconds.

734
Q

What does ‘Int (2) 10s 26m 20M’ mean?

A

2 flashing; white light; period: 10 seconds; light elevation above sea level: 26 metres;
nominal range: 20 miles.

735
Q

The cardinal signal indicates:

A

the N, E, S or W side on which to pass with respect to the same signal to avoid the danger.

736
Q

The abbreviation in English ‘Oc (3) W 5s’ can be found in the list of beacons and signals from
fog published in Italian by I.I.M., means:

A

white flashing, period 5 seconds.

737
Q

In an ‘ISO’ light:

A

has the same duration as the interval.

738
Q

The luminous range of a beacon is influenced by:

A

transparency of the atmosphere at the time in question and the power of the lamp
expressed in candles.

739
Q

The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:

A

of isolated danger.

740
Q

Next to the symbol of a lighthouse on the nautical chart are the following indications:
“Lam (2) 8s 30m 11M”. What does this beacon express?

A

2 white flashes; period: 8 seconds; light elevation above sea level: 30 metres; range
nominal: 11 miles.

741
Q

The ‘special signal’ has the function of indicating:

A

a special zone for special activities (e.g. presence of underwater cables or pipelines, areas reserved for boating, presence of data collection stations
oceanographic etc.).

742
Q

In the AISM - IALA side system of Region A, the signals to be kept on the side
left entering a port are the black ones:

A

red, cylindrical shape and cylindrical mirage.

743
Q

For each maritime signal, the daytime coding elements that give the
significance are:

A

the shape and colour of the buoy or the shape and colour of the miraglio.

744
Q

The abbreviation in English ‘Fl G 5s’ can be found in the list of beacons and fog signals
published in Italian by I.I.M., means:

A

1 green flash, period 5 seconds.

745
Q

In the AISM - IALA system, there are differences between regions A and B regarding the
special, safe water and isolated danger signs?

A

no, there are no differences; there are only differences in the lateral system.

746
Q

In the lighthouse characteristic, the ‘period’ is the time interval:

A

during which the sequence of flashes and eclipses of the
characteristic of the lighthouse.

747
Q

Next to the symbol of a lighthouse on the nautical chart are the following indications: “Lam (2) 12s 27m 17M”. What does this beacon express?

A

flashing light, 2 flashes in a 12-second period, light 27 metres above sea level, 17 miles of
nominal flow rate.

748
Q

What types of maritime signals does the AISM - IALA system provide?

A

lateral, cardinal, isolated danger, safe waters, special.

749
Q

A meda indicating isolated danger is coloured:

A

black with one or more horizontal red bands.

750
Q

The use of cardinal signals is associated:

A

to the compass and the colours are black and yellow.

751
Q

The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:

A

cardinal indicating to pass to the east of it because the danger is to the west.

752
Q

The possible mirage of the special signal:

A

is unique in the shape of an ‘X’ and is yellow in colour.

753
Q

The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:

A

cardinal indicating to pass to the west of it because the danger is to the east.

754
Q

The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:

A

cardinal indicating to pass to the south of it because the danger is to the north.

755
Q

The ‘light characteristic’ of the lighthouse is:

A

the set of ‘type’, ‘colour’ of the light and ‘period’ that allow it to be identified.

756
Q

Among the most distinctive aspects of headlamps and lights, normally:

A

lighthouses allow coastal recognition, beacons signal harbour works, dangers
various and coastal points of secondary interest.

757
Q

Regarding daytime signalling:

A

buoys are small diamond-shaped floats, for temporary signalling.

758
Q

About AISM - IALA maritime signalling, a white, isophase, intermittent or long flashing light, or reproducing the letter A (Alpha) of the Morse alphabet, is a
signal:

A

of safe waters.

759
Q

With reference to the light emitted by a signal:

A

different coloured lights can be emitted for given fields of visibility.

760
Q

Headlight and light differ:

A

for the nominal flow rate.

761
Q

The meda is:

A

a fixed construction or pole on the seabed that emerges.

762
Q

With reference to the scope of a signalling:

A

the nominal range is the luminous range in an atmosphere with meteorological visibility of
10 miles.

763
Q

About AISM - IALA maritime signalling, a white, flashing light (duration
of light less than that of the eclipse), is a:

A

isolated danger signal.

764
Q

The possible mirage of the safe water signal consists of:

A

a red sphere.

765
Q

The north cardinal signal mirage consists of:

A

two overlapping cones with their vertices pointing upwards.

766
Q

Cardinal signs indicate:

A

the side where there is a danger and, consequently, where to navigate safely.

767
Q

What does the following indication ‘F.r. 18M’ mean for a lighthouse?

A

red steady light beacon with a nominal range of 18 miles.

768
Q

The East Cardinal Signal Mirage consists of:

A

two overlapping cones joined by their respective bases.

769
Q

The miracle of the south cardinal signal consists of:

A

two overlapping cones with their vertices pointing downwards.

770
Q

A buoy with a mirage formed by two black cones joined by the vertex signals:

A

to pass to the west of the signal (the danger is to the east).

771
Q

A buoy with a miraglio formed by two black cones joined by the base signals:

A

to pass to the east of the signal (the danger is to the west).

772
Q

The West Cardinal Signal Mirage consists of:

A

two overlapping cones joined by their respective vertices.

773
Q

The AISM - IALA region A signal of isolated danger is indicated with:

A

spindle buoy or black rod with one or more broad red horizontal bands.

774
Q

The abbreviation ‘Alt’, found on Italian nautical charts and referring to lights, indicates:

A

alternating light.

775
Q

Regarding the types of light in a lighthouse, we can say that:

A

the alternating light of a lighthouse is a rhythmic light that alternately shows colours
several.

776
Q

A beacon at night is spotted:

A

by its ‘feature’.

777
Q

What is the area of visibility of a lighthouse as in the figure opposite?

A

its light can be seen from east to west, i.e. from 090° to 270°.

778
Q

What is the ‘range’ of the lighthouse shown on the nautical chart, published by I.I.M,
representing the Italian seas?

A

the nominal flow rate.

779
Q

A lighthouse reads &laquo_space;0.5 (bold) - 1 - 0.5 (bold) - 2&raquo_space; in the Lighthouse List and
fog signals:

A

the ‘period’ has a duration of 4 seconds.

780
Q

A lighthouse reads &laquo_space;1.5 (bold) - 2 - 1.5 (bold) - 2&raquo_space; in the Lighthouse List and
fog signals:

A

the ‘period’ has a duration of 7 seconds.

781
Q

The cardinal signal, which emits nine sparkles at night, indicates:

A

danger to the east: pass to the west.

782
Q

The cardinal signal, which emits three sparkles at night, indicates:

A

danger to the west: pass to the east.

783
Q

The cardinal signal, which emits six sparkles at night, indicates:

A

danger to the north: move south.

784
Q

On the nautical chart, next to the lighthouse symbol, it says ‘red sector’.
It means that in that area:

A

navigation is permitted, but attention must be paid to a certain
danger.

785
Q

What are the elements that influence the luminous range of headlights?

A

light intensity, weather visibility and eye sensitivity
of the observer.

786
Q

The nominal range of a lighthouse:

A

corresponds to the luminous flux of a light referred to a homogeneous atmosphere in
where the meteorological visibility is 10 nautical miles.

787
Q

What are the elements that influence the geographical range of a lighthouse?

A

the curvature of the earth, the height of the light and the elevation of the observer’s eye.

788
Q

What is the ‘phase’ of a maritime signal?

A

by each successive element that makes up a cycle of a rhythmic light (flash,
eclipse).

789
Q

What is meant by ‘light buoy’?

A

a floating beacon tied to the seabed.

790
Q

What, in principle, do the light buoys signal?

A

the limits of navigable channels, dangers pertaining to the safety of navigation and mirrors
waters of special interest.

791
Q

The description ‘Sc.(3)’ identifies a light signal:

A

sparkling, in groups of 3.

792
Q

The description ‘Alt. b.r.’ identifies a light signal:

A

alternately showing the colours white and red.

793
Q

The description ‘Int.(2)’ identifies a light signal:

A

intermittent, in eclipse groups of 2.

794
Q

How can you define a ‘radar reflector’?

A

a device, which can also be fitted on signals, enabling
passively reflect radar impulses.

795
Q

What does the following alphanumeric code in the vicinity of the Capo Negro lighthouse on the island of Zannone Fl(3) 10s 37m 12M indicate?

A

which emits a flashing light in groups of 3 flashes every 10 seconds, whose structure has a height above mean sea level of 37 metres, and is visible at a nominal range of 12
nautical miles.

796
Q

A vessel navigating in the vicinity of the maritime signal of
side indicated, what precaution should he take?

A

pass to the west of the buoy, this being a cardinal signal of the AISM-
IALA.

797
Q

What does the alphabetical code under the light buoy shown opposite indicate?

A

that the structure of the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the system
AISM-IALA, has a yellow colouring with a black band.

798
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

a safe water signal from the AISM-IALA maritime signalling system.

799
Q

What is indicated by the maritime sign shown in the figure, placed near (S) the
port of Piombino?

A

rod light buoy indicating a special signalling system signal
maritime AISM-IALA.

800
Q

What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the figure, placed in
proximity (S) of the port of Piombino?

A

yellow.

801
Q

What is indicated by the characteristic of the maritime signal depicted in the figure, located to the south
of the port of Piombino?

A

a yellow flash every 3 seconds with a nominal range of 4 nautical miles.

802
Q

With reference to the characteristics of maritime signals shown on a nautical chart, what does the alphanumeric marking on the side of the light buoy of
side represented?

A

that the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the AISM-IALA system, emits
twinkling lights in groups of 3 every 10 seconds, and is visible at a nominal range of 5 nautical miles.

803
Q

What is indicated by the maritime signal mirage shown in the figure, placed in
proximity (NE) of the Islands of the Poor?

A

that the navigable area is located to the east of the signal itself.

804
Q

What does the alphabetical code under the light buoy shown opposite indicate?

A

that the structure of the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the system
AISM-IALA, has a black colouring with a yellow band.

805
Q

What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the picture, placed in
proximity (N) of P.ta della Volpe?

A

black colour over yellow.

806
Q

What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?

A

continuous shimmering and a nominal range of 4 nautical miles.

807
Q

What is indicated by the maritime signal shown in the figure, placed in the vicinity (SW)
of Mortorio Island?

A

non-luminous pole buoy indicating a South cardinal signal of the
AISM-IALA maritime signalling.

808
Q

What is indicated by the maritime signal mirage shown in the figure, placed in
proximity (SW) of Mortorio Island?

A

that the navigable area is located to the south of the signal itself.

809
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

the left-hand signal (zone A) entering ports or channels.

810
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

the starboard signal (zone A) when entering ports or channels.

811
Q

Inland navigation; the signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:

A

call and redial signal; head for the bank where the signal is located and
abandon it immediately upon reaching it.

812
Q

River navigation; between two vessels sailing on opposite routes, who has the
precedence over the other?

A

the one that sails with the current in its favour.

813
Q

River navigation; a bridge with several arches must be crossed; under which
archway is passed?

A

the one marked with a yellow diamond.

814
Q

River navigation; we proceed upstream when we cross a white buoy:

A

you pass to the left of the signal.

815
Q

River navigation; we detect the approach of a sharp bend:

A

one long sound is emitted and one stays on listening to the reply from
any other unit.

816
Q

River navigation; the signal depicted in the adjacent figure:

A

if present on the right bank, indicates that we must head towards the bank where the
find the signal.

817
Q

River navigation; the signal depicted in the adjacent figure:

A

if present on the left bank, indicates that we must head towards the bank where the
find the signal.

818
Q

Inland navigation; the signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:

A

continuation signal; I must continue along the bank where the signal is located until
at a later date.

819
Q

Inland waterway navigation: which of the following equipment must be taken on board
equipment on board the unit?

A

a pivoting low beam headlamp.

820
Q

What scale is used to measure wind strength?

A

the Beaufort scale.

821
Q

Which of these statements is correct?

A

the breeze that blows during the daytime hours is more intense than at night.

822
Q

What is meant by a diurnal temperature range?

A

the difference between the maximum temperature value and the minimum temperature value in the
course of the day.

823
Q

What phenomena are generated by water vapour?

A

as a result of its condensation, clouds and fog are generated in the air while on the
dew and frost form on the earth’s surface.

824
Q

What is the international unit of measurement for the value of pressure
atmospheric?

A

Hectopascal (hPa).

825
Q

What is meant by an isobar?

A

Lines of equal pressure.

826
Q

What is meant by fog?

A

any form of condensation of water vapour in the atmospheric layers at
immediate contact with soil or bodies of water.

827
Q

How do you define wind?

A

the almost horizontal displacement of an air mass whose distinctive features
are the direction and speed.

828
Q

What are the main movements to which the sea is subject?

A

currents, waves and tides.

829
Q

How are tides defined?

A

the oscillation of the sea level generated by the force of gravitational attraction
exerted mainly by the sun and the moon.

830
Q

How to define the atmospheric phenomenon generated by the overlapping of a front
cold and a warm front?

A

occluded front.

831
Q

Which element is fundamental in predicting the evolution of conditions
weather during navigation?

A

knowledge of atmospheric pressure trends over time.

832
Q

What are the main characteristics of the clouds known as cirrus clouds?

A

white colour, fibrous structure, isolated.

833
Q

What are the main meteorological effects generated by cumulonimbus-type clouds?

A

showers, thunderstorms or hail.

834
Q

A weather front is:

A

the contact surface, and therefore discontinuity, between two air masses having
different temperature, pressure and humidity characteristics.

835
Q

When do you have a warm front?

A

when a warm (and therefore more humid) air mass approaches a
relatively cooler (and less humid), running over it.

836
Q

When is a front defined as cold?

A

when a cold (hence less moist but denser) air mass approaches and wedges itself under a relatively warmer (wetter and lighter) mass,
causing it to rise and leading to a cooling of the region in which it transits.

837
Q

How can it be defined as a stationary front?

A

a front with no movement, i.e. none of the air masses
concerned significantly encroaches on the area occupied by the other.

838
Q

In our hemisphere:

A

the wind on the ground blows anticlockwise around a low pressure (or cyclone).

839
Q

What is a horizontal baric gradient?

A

the pressure difference existing between two neighbouring air masses.

840
Q

The trade winds are:

A

permanent winds blowing at a speed of between 13 and 18 knots and whose
intensity is greater in the cold months.

841
Q

What is meant by tidal height?

A

the value of the height of the high tide or low tide in relation to hydrographic zero
(in English chart datum ).

842
Q

Which national body is responsible for producing information for assistance
weather of naval units sailing in the Mediterranean Sea?

A

the National Centre for Aeronautical Meteorology and Climatology.

843
Q

What are weather ‘warnings’ are messages that contain:

A

useful information concerning meteorological phenomena hazardous to navigation
maritime.

844
Q

In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the
continuation of good weather?

A

pressure remains constant or rises slowly and the sun turns red
in the evening hours under clear sky conditions.

845
Q

In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the possible
worsening of the weather?

A

thickening of cirrus clouds into cirrostrates, sudden pressure reduction and presence of
sustained wind already in the early hours of the morning.

846
Q

In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the possible
improvement of the weather?

A

rising cloud bases, clockwise rotation of the wind from east to south
and then West and rapid rise in pressure.

847
Q

In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the possible
occurrence of rainfall?

A

clouds thicken, cirrus clouds take on a reddish hue with a sudden decrease
pressure and strengthening of the winds from the south.

848
Q

Which of these elements heralds the approach of bad weather
during navigation?

A

Abrupt drop in atmospheric pressure and presence of high clouds
vertical.

849
Q

In the context of local forecasting, what premonitory signs can indicate the possible formation of fog?

A

movement of a flow of warm, moist air from a warmer oceanic region to a colder one, presence of much colder water than the air above, and presence
of weak wind.

850
Q

How can weather maps be subdivided?

A

maps on the ground and maps at altitude.

851
Q

What type of forehead is depicted in the picture?

A

cold front.

852
Q

What type of forehead is depicted in the picture?

A

warm front.

853
Q

What type of forehead is depicted in the picture?

A

stationary front.

854
Q

What kind of forehead is represented in the picture?

A

occluded front

855
Q

What are the winds in quadrant I?

A

Tramontana, Grecale and Levante.

856
Q

What are the winds in quadrant II?

A

Levante, Sirocco and Mezzogiorno.

857
Q

What are the winds in quadrant III?

A

Mezzogiorno, Libeccio and Ponente.

858
Q

What are the winds in quadrant IV?

A

Ponente, Maestrale and Tramontana.

859
Q

The compass rose represents:

A

the visible horizon, with the name and direction of origin of the winds typical of the
Mediterranean.

860
Q

The ‘gale warnings’ are broadcast by radio:

A

preceded by the ‘SECURITÈ’ safety sign.

861
Q

The ‘storm warnings’ or ‘gale warnings’:

A

warn of an ongoing or imminent storm or gale.

862
Q

The Ponente blows from the cardinal direction:

A

West.

863
Q

The anemometer measures:

A

Wind speed.

864
Q

From which direction does the Sirocco wind come?

A

Southeast.

865
Q

Which of the following information is given in the Meteomar:

A

warnings (e.g. of thunderstorms or gales), ongoing or expected.

866
Q

From which direction does the Grecale wind come?

A

North-East.

867
Q

What wind is blowing from 135 degrees?

A

Sirocco.

868
Q

From the north-east, the:

A

Grecale.

869
Q

How is the Meteomar bulletin disseminated?

A

on channel 68, continuously.

870
Q

The Breeze blows from the sea because:

A

the land warms up faster than the sea.

871
Q

Meteomar issued at 12:00 UTC today:

A

is valid until 00:00 UTC tomorrow.

872
Q

Does the wind originate from?

A

different air temperature and air pressure values.

873
Q

The ‘Trend’ section in Meteomar indicates:

A

the sea state trend in the 12 hours following the period of validity of the
‘Forecast’.

874
Q

Breezes originate:

A

whether there are differences in heating between sea and land.

875
Q

The Breeze blows from the land at night because the land:

A

cools faster than the sea.

876
Q

The Meteomar is broadcast:

A

by the Coastal Radio Stations.

877
Q

From the east it blows:

A

Levante.

878
Q

Gale Warnings:

A

are broadcast via VHF with absolute priority over all other messages of a nature
meteorological.

879
Q

The breeze:

A

by day it blows from the sea to the mainland.

880
Q

The land breeze blows:

A

at night.

881
Q

With current and wind, against each other in opposite directions, the wave is:

A

steep.

882
Q

The land breeze is triggered:

A

by the rapid cooling of the land relative to the sea.

883
Q

The breeze:

A

at night it breathes out from the land towards the sea.

884
Q

The ‘Trend’ section about the wind indicated in Meteomar:

A

provides the wind trend over the next 12 hours after the
Meteomar itself.

885
Q

The direction of origin:

A

of the mistral is from the NW.

886
Q

From which direction does the Libeccio wind come?

A

South-West.

887
Q

The breeze:

A

at night is reasonably due to the faster cooling of the land
than the sea.

888
Q

The wind that comes from 270 degrees is called:

A

Ponente.

889
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

air pressure is measured with a barometer.

890
Q

Ostro and Noon:

A

are the same wind.

891
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

the barometer measures air pressure.

892
Q

Identify the correct direction of origin:

A

the Tramontana blows from the N.

893
Q

From which direction does the Libeccio wind come?

A

South-West.

894
Q

Identify the correct statement:

A

the Ostro blows from 180 degrees.

895
Q

Regarding the meteomar bulletin:

A

timetables and service channels can be found in the Radioservizi publication for the
navigation published by I.I.M.

896
Q

Relative humidity is measured with:

A

hygrometer.

897
Q

The formation of breezes is triggered by the different:

A

temperature between two zones.

898
Q

The air, when warm, is:

A

lighter than the cold one.

899
Q

Atmospheric pressure is considered:

A

normal if equal to 1013.2 hPa; high if higher and low if lower than the above
value.

900
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

generally, the clear horizon, with calm winds, heralds good weather.

901
Q

What are the minimum and maximum values of the wind and sea scales?

A

wind 0 to 12, sea 0 to
9.

902
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

the east wind comes from the east.

903
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

the sirocco blows from the SE.

904
Q

The winds blowing from the 4 intercardinal points (NE, SE, SW, NW) are named after the
region:

A

of origin.

905
Q

When a cold front passes, the pressure:

A

rises abruptly.

906
Q

A ‘gale’:

A

corresponds to a descriptive term for Wind Force.

907
Q

The ‘Cirri’ are:

A

higher clouds that normally indicate good weather if the pressure is stationary or in
ascent.

908
Q

The violence of a thunderstorm is in operation:

A

of the vertical development of the cloud.

909
Q

The front:

A

is a line expressing the contact surface or discontinuity separating two
air masses.

910
Q

The ‘Cumuli’ are:

A

vertically developed clouds.

911
Q

The ‘minimum fetch’ is:

A

the stretch of sea, free of obstacles, over which a wind blows for a certain period, beyond the
which stretch of sea the waves will reach their maximum height for that given wind.

912
Q

In general, the pressure increases if:

A

cold winds blow from the 4th and 1st quadrant.

913
Q

They are storm clouds:

A

cumulonimbuses.

914
Q

Generally, when a cold front passes:

A

the pressure rises sharply, the wind strengthens with gusts.

915
Q

Generally, with unstable air comes precipitation:

A

of strong intensity and intermittent.

916
Q

How do you define a tidal current?

A

the horizontal displacement of sea water generated by the tide, unrelated to the
wave motion

917
Q

A sea current is:

A

a movement of water masses not resulting from wave or tidal motion.

918
Q

Generally, with unstable air, visibility is:

A

good, sometimes very good.

919
Q

With regard to the sea current, it can be stated that:

A

occurs in deep water and open seas and is affected by rotational motion
terrestrial.

920
Q

The tidal current:

A

occurs in relatively shallow waters and in and around straits connecting
two kisses.

921
Q

A stationary front indicates:

A

a persistent stalemate and bad weather situation.

922
Q

The wind is tense when:

A

the average direction and average speed remain constant for a certain period of
time.

923
Q

The wind is gusting when:

A

the average direction remains constant while the average speed has sudden peaks
with values of at least 10 knots above average and a duration of less than one minute.

924
Q

Foehn (or Fohn) indicates:

A

a wind that forcibly descends the downwind slope of a
orographic obstacle.

925
Q

What causes wave motion?

A

the wind.

926
Q

The length of a wave is given by the distance:

A

horizontal between two successive ridges.

927
Q

The height of a wave is given by the vertical distance:

A

between the ridge and the hollow.

928
Q

Generally, a wave fringes when:

A

the ratio of height to length (steepness) of the wave is greater than 1/7.

929
Q

Generally, a wave fringes when:

A

the depth of the seabed is less than twice the height of the wave.

930
Q

What is meant by ‘living sea’?

A

is generated by a wind acting on the place where the observer is standing.

931
Q

When is there a so-called ‘long sea’ about waves?

A

when there is wave motion coming by propagation from a distant area, with respect to
to the observer, in which a ‘living sea’ is present.

932
Q

The observer assesses that he is navigating an ‘old’ (or ‘dead’) sea if the system
of waves:

A

persists at the observer’s location in the absence of direct wind action
that had generated it.

933
Q

What is the average pressure value above sea level?

A

1013.2 hPa.

934
Q

Generally, in the area preceding a warm front:

A

pressure falls rapidly.

935
Q

If the pressure rises sharply, what can we expect:

A

the passage of a cold front.

936
Q

What are the effects of a warm front?

A

as the warm air cools, it causes light rain as the front passes.

937
Q

What are the effects of a cold front?

A

The rapid rise of warm air generates cumulonimbus-type clouds, generating
even violent weather phenomena such as showers, thunderstorms and strong winds.

938
Q

What is the difference between fog and mist?

A

both reduce visibility, but fog occurs when visibility is reduced to
values of less than 1 km.

939
Q

About the baric gradient, the winds will be:

A

the stronger the smaller the distance between one isobara and the other, because the greater the
pressure difference.

940
Q

The degree of longitude is a measure of distance:

A

angular between two meridians and is equal to 60 minutes of arc.

941
Q

The degree of latitude is a measure of distance:

A

angular between the equator and the parallel, or between two parallels.

942
Q

The arc of the meridian between the equator and the parallel passing through the point
expresses:

A

the latitude of the point.

943
Q

Latitude is measured:

A

Latitude is measured from 0° to 90° north or south.

944
Q

Longitude is measured:

A

from 0° to 180° east or west.

945
Q

The meridian is:

A

each maximum semicircle passing through the two geographical poles North and South.

946
Q

The geographical coordinates are given by:

A

latitude and longitude.

947
Q

The fundamental circles of the coordinate system are:

A

the equator and the Greenwich meridian.

948
Q

Considering the earth to be perfectly spherical, the nautical mile corresponds:

A

to the length of the maximum circular arc corresponding to 1’ (one prime) of
latitude.

949
Q

The Greenwich meridian is:

A

the fundamental maximum semicircle to which the longitudes of the locations are related.

950
Q

What is ‘rank’?

A

is the unit of angular measurement, equal to the 360th part of a round angle; it is divided into 60’
(arc minutes) and each first in 60” (arc seconds).

951
Q

The arc of the equator between the prime meridian and the meridian through
for the point expresses:

A

the longitude of the point.

952
Q

The Maximum Circles are:

A

the Equator and the Meridians with their respective Antimeridians.

953
Q

The parallels are the infinities:

A

smaller circles running parallel from the equator towards the poles.

954
Q

Given that the reference lines of the geographical coordinate system are the equator
and the Greenwich meridian, these lines are respectively:

A

the first is a maximum circle, the second is a maximum semicircle.

955
Q

For each degree of longitude, 180 meridians are considered between 0 and 180 degrees East, 180
meridians between 0 and 180 degrees West, but:

A

are indeed infinite.

956
Q

Longitude is measured:

A

0 to 180 degrees towards E and 0 to 180 degrees towards W.

957
Q

The parallels are:

A

minor circles perpendicular to the earth’s axis and parallel to the equator.

958
Q

The equator is:

A

the fundamental maximum circle, to which the latitudes of places are related. Divide
the earth in the northern (Boreal) and southern (Southern) hemispheres.

959
Q

How long is a nautical mile?

A

1852 metres.

960
Q

How are geographical coordinates expressed?

A

in latitude and longitude.

961
Q

Usually, the Greek letter ‘λ ‘ (lambda) is used:

A

to indicate longitude.

962
Q

Navigating with Rv = 180 degrees will remain unchanged:

A

the longitude.

963
Q

They are elements of the reference system on the terrestrial sphere:

A

geographical poles, equator and Greenwich meridian.

964
Q

Usually, the Greek letter ‘ϕ ‘ (fi) is used:

A

to indicate latitude.

965
Q

The meridians are the infinities:

A

semicircles joining the poles.

966
Q

Where is the longitude value indicated on the nautical chart?

A

top and bottom.

967
Q

The equator:

A

is the reference for measuring latitude

968
Q

The maximum circle dividing the earth into the two hemispheres, known under the name ‘Southern’ and
“Boreal’, it is called:

A

equator.

969
Q

With the geographical longitude coordinate alone, it is possible to identify
unambiguously a geographical point on the earth?

A

no, the second geographical co-ordinate of latitude is also necessarily required.

970
Q

One of the following values is definitely wrong; which one?

A

95 degrees north latitude.

971
Q

The characteristic of points along a parallel arc is that:

A

all have the same latitude.

972
Q

The characteristic of points along a meridian arc is that:

A

all have the same longitude.

973
Q

When navigating with Rv 090 degrees, it remains unchanged:

A

latitude.

974
Q

The latitude of a point is the arc:

A

of meridian between the equator and the point (or the parallel passing through the point
considered).

975
Q

The longitude of a point is the arc:

A

of equator between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian passing through the
point considered.

976
Q

By convention, parallels are said to be:

A

180, of which 90 are counted in degrees from the equator (zero degrees) to the North Pole and 90 counted in degrees from the equator (zero degrees) to the South Pole, however
we can trace infinite ones.

977
Q

By convention, the meridians are said to be:

A

360, of which 180 are counted in degrees from the meridian of Greenwich towards the East and an equal number of 180 counted in degrees from the meridian of Greenwich towards
West, but we can trace infinite ones.

978
Q

The ‘zero’ meridian corresponds:

A

to that commonly referred to as the Greenwich meridian.

979
Q

The 90th parallel can be found:

A

at the pole.

980
Q

The 90th meridian:

A

falls exactly midway between the Greenwich meridian and its antimeridian, i.e.
in the East or West hinge.

981
Q

I read on the nautical chart in mercator projection that an island lies at 45 degrees of
latitude: is it North or South?

A

is north if we see the latitude values increasing towards the north.

982
Q

That is the southern hemisphere:

A

austral.

983
Q

If the longitude of a point measures 0°, it means that:

A

the point lies exactly on the Greenwich meridian.

984
Q

If the latitude of a point measures 0°, it means that:

A

the point lies on the equator.

985
Q

Which maritime areas do the published nautical charts and publications refer to
by the I.I.M.?

A

the Italian national seas and coastlines as well as those of the Mediterranean Sea.

986
Q

In a Mercator map, does the latitude scale remain the same throughout the map?

A

no, it is not constant and increases with latitude.

987
Q

Updates to the nautical chart are reported:

A

on one side in the margin of the same chart.

988
Q

Mercator’s map:

A

in it the parallels have varying distances according to increasing latitudes.

989
Q

Depending on the scale, into which categories can nautical charts be divided?

A

general charts, landing charts, coastal charts, littoral charts and nautical plans.

990
Q

What is the scale of general nautical charts?

A

1:3,000,000 and below.

991
Q

How can coastal nautical charts be defined?

A

charts used by the navigator mainly during the phase close to landing and depicting bathymetric and maritime signalling elements in great detail.

992
Q

The bathymetric lines:

A

are lines of equal depth.

993
Q

How are the meridians represented on Mercator’s map?

A

with straight lines perpendicular to the equator and equidistant from each other.

994
Q

Which map is not used to conduct coastal navigation?

A

the small-scale map.

995
Q

What characteristic does Mercator’s map have?

A

isogony, because it preserves the angles formed by meridians and parallels.

996
Q

Flatbeds’ are used for:

A

know the entrance to ports and other information such as the location of quays,
the mooring points, the depths present, etc.

997
Q

What type of chart is the nautical plan in relation to the scale of the chart?

A

large-scale map depicting areas of limited size such as harbours, roadsteads, islets.

998
Q

Is the gnomonic chart used for estimated coastal navigation?

A

no, it can be used to plan an ocean crossing.

999
Q

Which of those listed below are shown on the nautical chart published by I.I.M.?

A

symbols indicating the nature of the seabed.

1000
Q

What is the isogony property of a nautical chart?

A

paper holds the corners of reality.

1001
Q

Nautical charts are classified according to the criterion:

A

of the ladder.

1002
Q

General cards can be used for:

A

the planning of routes over long distances.

1003
Q

On Mercator’s map, parallels are represented by straight lines:

A

parallel to each other, but not equidistant as latitude increases.

1004
Q

On Mercator’s projection, the primes of longitude:

A

are equal to each other.

1005
Q

Generally, the ‘general map’ is expressed as:

A

scale of less than 1:3,000,000.

1006
Q

Which of the following scales is used in the ‘coastal map’?

A

1:100.000.

1007
Q

Which of the following scales is used in the ‘nautical plan’ for
represent a port and its roadstead?

A

1:5.000.

1008
Q

Besides the coastline profile, what is shown on nautical charts?

A

depth, elevations, conventional signals, etc.

1009
Q

Between two paper scales, the major one is the one:

A

with the smaller denominator.

1010
Q

In navigation, is it possible to chart on charts?

A

no, because apart from not being up-to-date, they are not official documents.

1011
Q

Poles cannot be represented with the Mercator Map:

A

as the length of the first of latitude becomes infinite near the Poles.

1012
Q

Regarding the characteristics of the Mercator projection, it can be said that:

A

that the projection point is located at the centre of the Earth.

1013
Q

Information on the type of seabed:

A

can be read on the nautical chart.

1014
Q

In order to preserve the reusability of the nautical chart:

A

the compass, possibly with dry points, is used to measure or report distances.

1015
Q

The characteristics of Mercator projection include:

A

makes rhumb lines straight.

1016
Q

On the nautical chart in Mercator projection, a marker preceded
by an ‘F’; it means that:

A

is a steady light.

1017
Q

In Mercator’s nautical chart, meridians and parallels form angles of:

A

90 degrees.

1018
Q

The characteristics of Mercator projection include:

A

cannot be used above 70 degrees latitude.

1019
Q

The scale 1:50,000 identifies a nautical chart:

A

‘large-scale coastal’, which can be used to conduct coastal navigation.

1020
Q

The ‘new edition’ nautical chart, published by I.I.M.:

A

is the edition of an existing representation that contains modifications essential for safe navigation or any other modifications that cannot be made
by updating through Notices to Skippers (AA.NN.).

1021
Q

How do you measure distance on the nautical chart scale?

A

is performed with the compasses open equal to the distance to be measured, moving horizontally (along a parallel taken as a reference) indifferently towards the
right or left of the latitudes.

1022
Q

What does the letter ‘r’ on the national nautical chart indicate in the area representing the
sea?

A

rocky seabed.

1023
Q

The letter ‘f’ on the nautical chart, in the area representing the sea, indicates:

A

the muddy bottom.

1024
Q

The symbol in the figure opposite, shown on the nautical chart, indicates:

A

the limits of a regulated area.

1025
Q

The symbol in the figure, shown on the nautical chart, indicates:

A

the presence of an outcropping rock.

1026
Q

The symbol in the figure, shown on the nautical chart, indicates:

A

the presence of submerged rocks dangerous to navigation.

1027
Q

The symbol in the figure opposite, shown on the nautical chart, is prescribed to indicate the
presence of a cable:

A

submarine no longer in operation or abandoned.

1028
Q

The inscription ‘P.A.’, positioned next to a symbol on the nautical chart, is used for
indicate:

A

‘approximate position’.

1029
Q

The symbol in the figure opposite indicates the presence of an area where:

A

anchoring of small ships is possible.

1030
Q

The Mercator projection allows a route to be plotted:

A

rhumb line.

1031
Q

The Mercator projection allows a route to be plotted:

A

at a constant angle.

1032
Q

An isobath is a line joining points of:

A

equal sea depth.

1033
Q

How can coastal nautical charts be defined?

A

maps with a larger scale than coastal maps, produced to depict in more detail particular areas of interest such as access to the
ports and areas related to straits and passages.

1034
Q

The symbol shown in the figure indicates:

A

the presence of a traffic separation scheme, divided by a
separation.

1035
Q

The symbol shown in the figure indicates:

A

the prohibited anchorage.

1036
Q

The symbol shown in the figure indicates:

A

the presence of a partly emerging wreck.

1037
Q

The symbol shown in the figure indicates:

A

the presence of unspecified conduct.

1038
Q

The symbol shown in the figure indicates:

A

a point of fonda.

1039
Q

What is meant by orthodromy?

A

the arc of a maximum circle followed by a unit, intersecting the meridians in succession
with different angles and describes the shortest path between two points.

1040
Q

What is meant by rhumb line?

A

the route maintained by a unit outlining a path intersecting all the meridians
according to a constant angle.

1041
Q

For what purpose was the MOB (Man Over Board ) function created on GPS devices?

A

knowing at any time the distance to the point where a man fell into the sea
and determine the relative course required to attempt its recovery.

1042
Q

What does the GPS system consist of?

A

is a receiver capable of determining its own distance to each of the
satellites that make up its orbiting network, and thus the ship’s point, with a small margin of error.

1043
Q

What is the main information provided by the GPS system?

A

Latitude and longitude, distance and course required to reach a waypoint,
speed and course relative to the seabed (Ve and Rv) and estimated time of arrival at the destination point.

1044
Q

Which of these statements is correct?

A

pleasure craft can be equipped with both fixed GPS equipment, powered by the on- board electrical system, and portable GPS equipment, powered by batteries
alkaline.

1045
Q

What is the margin of error of the G.P.S.?

A

a few metres.

1046
Q

What is the usefulness of G.P.S.?

A

provide the ship’s point at all times.

1047
Q

Is GPS mandatory?

A

in navigation beyond 12 miles.

1048
Q

When using GPS for navigation, the WAY-POINT should be positioned:

A

at least 500 metres outside the harbour lights, taking care that the route does not pass over
obstacles or shoals.

1049
Q

What you should check on your GPS equipment:

A

the existence and correct use of the MOB button.

1050
Q

What is the MOB?

A

the GPS function that tracks the point where a man falls overboard and the bearing for
return.

1051
Q

The GPS calculates the route for the set WAY-POINT:

A

if not the latest generation, does not take into account obstacles, dangers and the morphology of the coast, it is therefore necessary to set broken routes; however, even in
In the case of automatic routing, the outcome must always be verified.

1052
Q

Navigation by G.P.S. is called:

A

navigation by WAY- POINT.

1053
Q

The cartographic GPS indicates:

A

one’s own course, off course, estimated time of arrival, distance, deviation in degrees from the place set as arrival, date and time, speed, and finally the arrow showing at all times the direction we should
follow to arrive at your destination.

1054
Q

The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: 1 NE; 2 SE; 3 SW; 4 NW.
The
direction (Rv or Rlv) 157° in which quadrant is it heading?

A

second quadrant.

1055
Q

On a nautical chart of the northern (boreal) hemisphere, as is well known, the direction of north is towards the top edge of the chart.
Starting from any point on the map, the directions 048 degrees and 167 degrees (either
they routes or surveys) in which direction respectively?

A

the direction 048 degrees upwards and to the right; the direction 167 degrees downwards and to the right.

1056
Q

On a nautical chart of the northern (boreal) hemisphere, as is well known, the direction of north is towards the top edge of the chart.
Starting from any point on the map, the directions 301 degrees and 249 degrees (be they
routes or surveys) in which direction respectively?

A

the direction 301 degrees upwards and to the left; the direction 249 degrees downwards and to the left.

1057
Q

The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 224 degrees towards which quadrant is
directs?

A

third quadrant.

1058
Q

The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 320 degrees in which
quadrant does it head?

A

fourth quadrant.

1059
Q

The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 038 degrees in which
quadrant does it head?

A

first quadrant.

1060
Q

The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 099 degrees in which
quadrant does it head?

A

second quadrant.

1061
Q

Course angle and heading angle are measured with values ranging from 0° to 360° in
sense:

A

time.

1062
Q

What are the cardinal directions?

A

North (N), South (S), East (E) and West (W).

1063
Q

Which of these statements is correct?

A

cardinal directions constitute the main reference directions with respect to the
which all other directions are identified.

1064
Q

What are the intercardinal directions?

A

NE (North-East), SE (South-East), SW (South-West) and NW (North-West).

1065
Q

In which direction do the needles of a magnetic compass on board the unit point?

A

North compass.

1066
Q

What function does the lubber line of a magnetic compass fulfil?

A

indicates the angle the unit forms with the direction of the meridian indicated by the compass.

1067
Q

What does a magnetic compass rose consist of?

A

by a float under which are placed the magnetic needles and the dial consisting of a disc on which is represented the graduation from 0° to 360° in direction
time.

1068
Q

What is an on-board magnetic compass?

A

the on-board instrument used for estimated navigation, based on the properties of the
earth’s magnetic field, capable of orienting itself towards the compass north.

1069
Q

Who can carry out the operation of the “giribussola”?

A

the compensating surveyor authorised by the Maritime Authority.

1070
Q

What is the angle representing the difference between Nv and Nm?

A

magnetic declination.

1071
Q

Magnetic declination is in operation:

A

of the orientation of the earth’s magnetic field force lines.

1072
Q

What is the angle representing the difference between Nm and Nb?

A

the magnetic deviation.

1073
Q

The table of residual magnetic deviations is derived:

A

with compensated compass turns.

1074
Q

Magnetic declination is the difference:

A

between the direction indicated by the geographic meridian and that indicated by the meridian
magnetic.

1075
Q

The navigator derives the value of magnetic declination:

A

from the nautical chart.

1076
Q

The theoretical limits of variability of magnetic declination are included:

A

between 0 and 180 degrees East and between 0 and 180 degrees West.

1077
Q

Compass turns serve to:

A

to draw up, with the compass compensated, the table of residual deviations.

1078
Q

The variation of magnetic declination depends:

A

by the time and place where the ship is at the time.

1079
Q

What does the magnetic deviation depend on?

A

by the hard irons and soft irons on board.

1080
Q

Magnetic deviation values can be found:

A

on tables supplied with the boats.

1081
Q

What is the function of the liquid inside the mortar of a magnetic compass
on board?

A

absorbing sea shocks and vibrations, as well as giving maximum stability to small
internal magnets.

1082
Q

The sensitive element of the compass consists of:

A

magnetic crew (small internal magnets).

1083
Q

The magnetic needles of the magnetic compass, installed on a boat, are
oriented towards the:

A

north compass.

1084
Q

The orientation of the line of faith of a compass is:

A

parallel to the longitudinal axis of the unit.

1085
Q

The declination varies:

A

as the geographical location of the unit changes.

1086
Q

The rose of a compass is graduated:

A

from 0 to 360 degrees clockwise measured from the direction of the compass north
(Nb).

1087
Q

Magnetic declination is indicated by the sign:

A

East-West (positive and negative respectively).

1088
Q

From a theoretical point of view, in which particular case does the on-board magnetic compass point exactly to magnetic north?

A

if there is no magnetic influence on board, such as on a wooden boat in which there are no ferrous elements or electrical equipment of any kind.

1089
Q

The compass line of faith:

A

maintains the predetermined heading.

1090
Q

What method can I use to check the deviation of my compass?

A

alignment method; polar star observation method.

1091
Q

The magnetic deviation has a sign:

A

positive sign if compass north is east of magnetic north and negative sign if north
compass lies to the west of magnetic north.

1092
Q

Magnetic declination is caused by magnetism:

A

terrestrial.

1093
Q

Magnetic deflection is caused by magnetism:

A

on board.

1094
Q

The line of faith:

A

indicates the forward direction of the longitudinal axis of the unit.

1095
Q

The magnetic deviation varies as a function:

A

of the heading you intend to set.

1096
Q

For conversion/correction of the available heading angle, the value of the deviation
magnetic reads:

A

on the residual deviation table after having the compensation performed by the
compensating expert.

1097
Q

The reference of a compass, under which the heading angle is read, is:

A

the line of faith.

1098
Q

When installing the magnetic compass on the pleasure boat one must
ensure that the line of faith:

A

is parallel to the longitudinal axis (keel) of the boat.

1099
Q

North indicated by the compass on board a vessel under way is referred to as:

A

compass north: which is that given by that specific compass.

1100
Q

The ‘magnetic variation’ of the magnetic compass is equal to declination magnetic if:

A

the aforementioned compass is on board a wooden or GRP unit, in the absence of masses
ferrous and electrical equipment in its vicinity.

1101
Q

In the absence of external magnetic fields, a magnetic compass on the ground indicates the
direction of:

A

Nm.

1102
Q

The cardanic suspension of the magnetic compass:

A

enables said compass to be kept parallel to the horizontal plane.

1103
Q

Which of these tools and equipment do not provide an estimated position?

A

GPS and radar.

1104
Q

In relation to the estimated navigation, it can be stated that:

A

Estimated navigation problems are usually solved by the graphical method,
using nautical charts, squares and compasses.

1105
Q

With regard to estimated navigation, it can be stated that:

A

if carried out over a long period of time can result in the estimated position of the unit being shifted several nautical miles from its actual position.

1106
Q

What is the adoption of the security criterion in the planning of
estimated navigation?

A

keep the unit away from potential dangers of both hydrographic and
meteorological.

1107
Q

What is one of the possible safety criteria of a hydrographical nature that must be taken into account when planning a route to be carried out
through estimated navigation?

A

ensure that the distance between the bottom and the sea surface is not less than the draught of the vessel.

1108
Q

What is one of the possible safety criteria of a meteorological nature that must be taken into account when planning a route to be undertaken
through estimated navigation?

A

avoid the possible presence of ice, fog and storms.

1109
Q

In relation to the estimated navigation, it can be stated that:

A

the correct knowledge and assessment of the effects caused by wind and current
allow the consequences to be counteracted by appropriately altering the direction of the heading and propulsive speed of their unit.

1110
Q

With regard to the concept of estimated navigation, which of these statements is correct?

A

the maritime experience gained in the conduct of navigation contributes to the
seafarer being able to know, at any given moment, the most probable position achieved with its own naval unit.

1111
Q

With regard to the concept of estimated navigation, what is meant by an estimated point?

A

a point that approximates the position of the unit.

1112
Q

How are the problems of estimated navigation solved in principle?

A

graphically by using the Mercator nautical chart, which rectifies the
rhumb lines.

1113
Q

What can be the factors that contribute to making the estimated ship point not
accurate?

A

drift, drift, magnetic declination and magnetic deviation.

1114
Q

Having to make a landing at the end of an estimated navigation, it is
it should be considered that:

A

the estimated position actually represents the centre of a zone of uncertainty, whose
extension can also be very large.

1115
Q

What is the unit of measurement for speed at sea?

A

the knot.

1116
Q

Given the calculation of sea speeds, what does the knot correspond to?

A

one nautical mile covered in one hour.

1117
Q

With regard to estimated navigation, if we wish to calculate the value of the speed referred to an estimated route, taken in a given time interval, such as
of the following formulae should be applied?

A

V = S / T, where S is expressed in nautical miles and T in hours and tenths of an hour.

1118
Q

Having regard to estimated navigation, wishing to calculate the value of the estimated path between two points, taking into account the propulsive speed of one’s own vessel and the time taken to travel it, which of the following formulae
will have to be applied?

A

S = V * T, where V is expressed in knots (nautical miles per hour) and T in hours and tenths of an hour.

1119
Q

With regard to estimated navigation, if we want to calculate the time interval required to travel the distance between two points at a given speed
propulsive, which of the following formulas should be applied?

A

T = S / V, where S is expressed in nautical miles and V in knots (nautical miles per hour).

1120
Q

What nautical instruments can be used to measure the value of
an estimated route plotted on a Mercator nautical chart?

A

nautical squares and parallels.

1121
Q

With regard to coastal navigation, what the compass is mainly used for
nautical in charting operations?

A

the calculation of distances and the identification of geographical coordinates.

1122
Q

One nautical mile is equivalent to:

A

1,852 metres.

1123
Q

Definition of nautical mile:

A

is the length of the meridian arc one sixtieth of a degree wide (1’, one prime).

1124
Q

What is the most important cause of the estimated point inaccuracy?

A

subjective errors in knowledge and/or appreciation of the
drift.

1125
Q

The instruments of estimated navigation are:

A

compass, solcometer (for measuring one’s own speed) and clock.

1126
Q

A ship travelling 12 miles in two hours, how fast is it sailing?

A

6 knots.

1127
Q

The node is:

A

the unit of measurement of the ship’s speed.

1128
Q

The sea mile is the unit of measurement:

A

of distances at sea.

1129
Q

A ship sailing at 16 effective knots will travel in 15 minutes:

A

4 miles.

1130
Q

Navigation is estimated if the determination:

A

of the estimated ship point is a function of the set heading and the miles travelled in a
given time interval.

1131
Q

The estimated point for the sailor:

A

is irreplaceable, but insufficient for safe navigation.

1132
Q

In order to determine the estimated point, the following elements must be known:

A

true heading Pv, own speed, initial position, elapsed time.

1133
Q

A ship sailing at 15 effective knots will travel in 45 minutes:

A

11.25 miles.

1134
Q

One degree of latitude includes:

A

60 miles.

1135
Q

To measure the distance between two points on the nautical chart:

A

the distance between the two points is measured with a compass and plotted on the scale of the
latitudes.

1136
Q

A ship sailing at 15 effective knots will travel in 35 minutes:

A

8.75 miles.

1137
Q

Proper estimated navigation consists, among other things, of calculating:

A

the position with the relation ‘S = V x T’ at each speed change.

1138
Q

The ship point is obtained:

A

with at least two locations.

1139
Q

180 miles corresponds to:

A

3 degrees latitude.

1140
Q

One degree of latitude includes:

A

60 arc primes.

1141
Q

A ship sailing at 9 effective knots will travel in 45 minutes:

A

6.75 miles.

1142
Q

The location of equal azimuth difference:

A

is that place formed by a circumference whose points see two conspicuous points on the
always costs the same angle and therefore the same azimuth difference.

1143
Q

A ship sailing at an effective speed of 19 knots will travel in 15 minutes:

A

4.75 miles.

1144
Q

How many firsts are contained in a mile?

A

1’ (one first) latitude.

1145
Q

A ship sailing at an effective 18 knots will travel in 25 minutes:

A

7.50 miles

1146
Q

A ship sailing at an effective speed of 19 knots will travel in nine minutes:

A

2.85 miles.

1147
Q

A ship sailing at 24 effective knots will travel in 35 minutes:

A

14 miles.

1148
Q

A ship sailing at an effective speed of 22 knots will travel in 15 minutes:

A

5.50 miles.

1149
Q

A ship sailing at an effective speed of 22 knots will travel in 45 minutes:

A

16.5 miles.

1150
Q

A ship sailing at an effective 21 knots will travel in 45 minutes:

A

15.75 miles.

1151
Q

A ship sailing at 16 effective knots will travel in 45 minutes:

A

12 miles.

1152
Q

1 nautical mile corresponds to the:

A

60th part of an arc of latitude of 1 degree.

1153
Q

What does the statement ‘speed 5 knots’ mean?

A

that you can cover five miles in an hour.

1154
Q

To measure the distance between two points on the nautical chart in mercator projection, one
uses the ladder:

A

of latitudes, at the same latitude as the area where the distance between two points.

1155
Q

A 4’.4 stretch of latitude corresponds to:

A

4 miles and 4 tenths of a mile.

1156
Q

Applying the formula T = S : V (time = space divided by speed), we obtain 4.4. This
means that navigation will last:

A

4 hours and 24 minutes.

1157
Q

The estimated ship point is determined with:

A

the formula S = V x T.

1158
Q

S = 14 miles; V = 10 knots. The sailing time will be:

A

1 hour 24 minutes.

1159
Q

S = 11.6 miles; V = 6 knots. The sailing time will be:

A

1 hour and 56 minutes.

1160
Q

S = 12.4 miles; V = 6 knots. The sailing time will be:

A

2 hours and 4 minutes.

1161
Q

V = 8 knots; T = 1 hour and 15 minutes. The travelled space will be:

A

10 miles.

1162
Q

V = 6 knots; T = 2 hours 45 minutes. The distance travelled will be:

A

16.5 miles.

1163
Q

V = 9 knots; T = 20 minutes. The travelled space will be:

A

3 miles.

1164
Q

T = 1 hour and 40 minutes; S = 20 miles. The speed will be:

A

12 knots.

1165
Q

T = 1 hour and 15 minutes; S = 12 miles. The speed will be:

A

9.6 knots.

1166
Q

T = 3 hours and 30 minutes; S = 24.5 miles. The speed will be:

A

7 knots.

1167
Q

T = 2 hours and 20 minutes; V = 12 knots. The distance travelled will be:

A

28 miles.

1168
Q

S = 18 miles; V = 7 knots. The sailing time will be:

A

2 hours and 34 minutes.

1169
Q

A ship sailing at an actual 10 knots will travel in 18 minutes:

A

3 miles.

1170
Q

A ship sailing at 15 effective knots will travel in 18 minutes:

A

4.50 miles.

1171
Q

A ship sailing at 6 effective knots will travel in 35 minutes:

A

3.50 miles.

1172
Q

A ship sailing at 7.5 knots will travel in 20 minutes:

A

2.50 miles.

1173
Q

A ship sailing at 12.5 knots will travel in 30 minutes:

A

6.25 miles.

1174
Q

When are nautical chart instruments mandatory on board?

A

for navigation beyond 12 miles.

1175
Q

A coastal ship point can be determined:

A

by the intersection of two or more position locations.

1176
Q

The locations are:

A

detection lines, capable circles, circles of equal distance and lines
bathymetrics.

1177
Q

One of the indispensable elements for proper coastal navigation is:

A

the availability of navigation maps with an appropriate scale, in order to identify
possible conspicuous points useful for determining the ship’s point.

1178
Q

Which of these equipment on board a vessel is indispensable for
carry out appropriate coastal navigation?

A

appropriate nautical publications enabling the coast to be recognised.

1179
Q

With regard to coastal navigation, which of these statements is correct?

A

coastal navigation constitutes a very demanding type of navigation, as
carried out near the coast, where there are very often conspicuous unknown spots, which are not easily identifiable coming from the open sea.

1180
Q

With regard to coastal navigation, which of these statements is correct?

A

the more accurate the coastal vessel point is, the more reliable the instruments used to determine it, as well as the method employed and experience
seafaring sailor.

1181
Q

The conspicuous points observed by the navigator to determine the coastal ship point must
resultare:

A

clearly visible and within a visual radius of between eight and ten nautical miles from the coast.

1182
Q

With regard to coastal navigation, what is meant by polar bearing?

A

the angle between the longitudinal axis of the vessel (bow) and the plane
containing the observed unit-object junction.

1183
Q

With regard to coastal navigation, how does the bearing vary angularly
polar?

A

000° to 360° degrees clockwise from the longitudinal axis of the unit.

1184
Q

The semicircular polar bearing is represented by the angle between:

A

the longitudinal axis of the unit and the unit-object junction observed, counted by
000° to 180° to the starboard or left of the unit.

1185
Q

The alignment represents a particular location resulting from the observation of two conspicuous points on the coast whose difference in bearing
is equal to:

A

0° or 180°.

1186
Q

With regard to coastal navigation, what is the use of nautical squares in the
charting operations?

A

to the tracking of course angles and bearings.

1187
Q

With regard to coastal navigation, what the compass is mainly used for
nautical in charting operations?

A

the calculation of distances and the identification of geographical coordinates.

1188
Q

With regard to locations, what is meant by ‘capable circle’?

A

is the locus of position represented by a circumference along which all observers, at the same instant, measure the same difference in bearing of two
conspicuous spots on the coast.

1189
Q

I am south-west of the Meloria Lighthouse; that means I detect it for:

A

045 degrees.

1190
Q

If I am 5 miles on Rlv 180 degrees from the Lighthouse of Pianosa with my unit; it means that
I find myself:

A

north of the lighthouse, distance 5 miles.

1191
Q

90-degree and transverse polar detection:

A

always coincide.

1192
Q

In the event of drift or drift, pull over when crossing a point
conspicuous means when:

A

the conspicuous point is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the unit.

1193
Q

What I need in order to determine the position of the unit when navigating
compared to a conspicuous point?

A

of a conspicuous point bearing and distance.

1194
Q

I am south-east of a lighthouse; that means I detect it for:

A

315 degrees.

1195
Q

If I am 6 miles on the south-west Rlv of the Meloria Lighthouse with my unit; it means
that I find myself:

A

north-east of the lighthouse, distance 6 miles.

1196
Q

If I am south of a lighthouse; it means I detect it for:

A

360 degrees.

1197
Q

Navigation is ‘coastal’ when the ship’s point is determined:

A

is a function of conspicuous elements recognisable from the sea.

1198
Q

The angle of detection of an object means:

A

the angle between the vertical plane passing through North and the vertical plane passing through
the object detected, both passing through the observer.

1199
Q

I am north of the lighthouse; that means I detect it for:

A

180 degrees.

1200
Q

I am on Rlv 045 degrees of the lighthouse; that means I am there:

A

south-west of the lighthouse.

1201
Q

I am on Rlv 135 degrees of the lighthouse; that means I am there:

A

north-west of the lighthouse.

1202
Q

I am on Rlv 225 degrees of the lighthouse; that means I detect it for:

A

South-West.

1203
Q

Semicircular polar detection is considered positive or negative if:

A

the detected object is respectively to the starboard or left of the observer facing
towards the bow.

1204
Q

If I am north-west of a lighthouse; it means I detect it for:

A

135 degrees.

1205
Q

If I am south-east of the Africa Rock; it means I detect it for:

A

315 degrees.

1206
Q

We note two conspicuous objects with equal or spaced detections between
them by 180 degrees; they are:

A

an alignment.

1207
Q

A traverse bearing corresponds to a polar bearing of:

A

90 degrees.

1208
Q

They are on Rlv 270 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:

A

east of the lighthouse.

1209
Q

Polar tracking is measured with:

A

the graphometer.

1210
Q

I am east of the lighthouse; that means I detect it for:

A

270 degrees.

1211
Q

They are on Rlv 157.5 degrees; that means they are:

A

north-northwest of the lighthouse.

1212
Q

Which of the answers listed below is not a location?

A

compass rose.

1213
Q

A place of position:

A

is a set of points that all enjoy a certain property at the same time
and that this property must be measurable.

1214
Q

They are on Rlv 337.5 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:

A

south-southeast of the lighthouse.

1215
Q

For coastal navigation it is indispensable:

A

be in sight of the coast.

1216
Q

They are on Rlv 022.5 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:

A

south-southwest of the lighthouse.

1217
Q

They are on Rlv 067.5 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:

A

west-southwest of the lighthouse.

1218
Q

I sail with Rv heading west, in the absence of wind and current, and I see on the bow a
lighthouse; it means that I detect it:

A

for 270 degrees.

1219
Q

It is a conspicuous point:

A

the bell tower.

1220
Q

Can the ship’s point be determined with only one location?

A

no.

1221
Q

During navigation, the ship’s point can be determined with a single conspicuous point if
known the distance to it?

A

yes.

1222
Q

Can the actual ship point be determined by surveying 2 aligned towers?

A

Yes, but I need at least one more location.

1223
Q

How often should a fire extinguisher be serviced?

A

when the gauge needle is on the red.

1224
Q

Should a fire extinguisher be serviced?

A

never, unless it has been used or there has been a loss of pressure, is sufficient
periodically check that the gauge needle is on green.

1225
Q

How often should a fire extinguisher be replaced?

A

when it is in a bad state.

1226
Q

What are the elements of the so-called ‘fire triangle’ that fuel a
fire?

A

fuel, oxidiser, heat.

1227
Q

How can a fire be extinguished?

A

significantly lowering the temperature.

1228
Q

A fire is extinguished:

A

lacking oxygen.

1229
Q

How can combustion be defined?

A

the heat-producing chemical reaction that takes place between the oxidiser and the
fuel.

1230
Q

On what does the greater or lesser combustibility of a liquid depend?

A

the flammability temperature of the liquid.

1231
Q

The number and positioning of fire extinguishers in a CE marked unit is determined by the
orders of the Maritime Authority?

A

no, established in the Owner’s Manual.

1232
Q

For pleasure boats NOT CE marked (placed on the market before 17 June 1998):

A

the number and positioning of fire extinguishers is set by the Regulations implementing the Marine Code according to engine power and provides for a minimum of 1
fire extinguisher in the driver’s seat and 1 fire extinguisher in each of the other rooms.

1233
Q

What is comburent?

A

the substance that fuels combustion by oxidation of the fuel,
generally oxygen.

1234
Q

If, as a result of the conduct of a recreational craft while intoxicated, a
damage or a danger of environmental damage:

A

revocation of the licence is always ordered.

1235
Q

Whoever assumes or retains command or conduct or nautical direction of
a recreational craft in a state of intoxication is punished,

A

with an administrative fine ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 15,000 in relation to the
blood alcohol level detected.

1236
Q

Concerning the conduct of a pleasure craft while intoxicated:

A

suspension of the boating licence from 3 months to 24 months is always ordered, in
in relation to the blood alcohol level detected.

1237
Q

Whoever takes command or conducts a recreational craft in a state of psycho-
physical activity after taking drugs or psychotropic substances is punishable:

A

with an administrative fine ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 11,017.

1238
Q

If, in committing the administrative offence of conducting a recreational craft in a
state of intoxication, as a result of the use of alcoholic beverages, from which damage or danger of environmental damage arises:

A

revocation of the licence is always ordered.

1239
Q

In the case of driving under the influence of alcohol of a recreational craft for hire:

A

the penalties provided for shall be increased by one third where a value has been established
corresponding to a blood alcohol level of more than 0.5 and not more than 0.8 grams per litre.

1240
Q

Which of these behaviours involves, in addition to the elevation of an offence administrative, also the application of the accessory sanction of the suspension
of the navigation licence?

A

taking command or driving a recreational craft while intoxicated.

1241
Q

The penalty for anyone who takes command or conducts a recreational craft in a state of
psycho-physical alteration:

A

doubles in the event of a claim.

1242
Q

The effects of alcohol:

A

last up to five hours.

1243
Q

In the case of driving under the influence of alcohol of a recreational craft for hire:

A

a boating licence is always revoked if a value has been established
corresponding to a blood alcohol level of more than 1.5 grams per litre .

1244
Q

Taking sedative drugs:

A

has very dangerous effects if alcoholic beverages are consumed at the same time.

1245
Q

In case of excessive intake of alcoholic beverages:

A

you have a very low level of attention.

1246
Q

When is the use of VHF equipment mandatory for a pleasure boat?

A

when sailing more than 6 nautical miles from the coast.

1247
Q

On board the recreational craft, while sailing within 6 miles from the coast,
how many fire extinguishers must be on board?

A

at least 1.

1248
Q

The ‘orange smoke buoy’ is a signal:

A

daytime.

1249
Q

Which answer correctly indicates the type and quantity of all lighting equipment
emergency measures prescribed for navigation within 12 miles from the coast:

A

1 light buoy, 2 red light hand flares, 2 red light parachute flares.

1250
Q

Which of the following must be carried on board
a pleasure boat sailing within 12 miles from the coast?

A

1 compass and compass deviation tables.

1251
Q

According to the Regulation for the Safety of Pleasure Boating, what are the
individual means of rescue?

A

lifejackets for each person on board.

1252
Q

According to the Regulation for the Safety of Pleasure Boating, how many smoke buoys must a boat licensed to sail within 12 miles of the
costs?

A

2

1253
Q

According to the Table of Minimum Safety Equipment to be Kept on Board (Annex V of Ministerial Decree 146/2008), navigation lights are mandatory:

A

in night navigation over 1 mile from the coast.

1254
Q

The minimum collective life-saving equipment for pleasure boats in navigation
within 12 miles from the coast is:

A

the coastal self-inflating life raft for navigation within 12 miles of the
coast.

1255
Q

The first-aid kit:

A

contains medicines and equipment as laid down in a ministerial decree.

1256
Q

How many smoke buoys must a sailing pleasure boat keep on board
within 3 nautical miles of the coast?

A

1

1257
Q

The legal requirement to have a life belt for each person on board is
prescribed:

A

for all types of navigation beyond 300 metres from the coast.

1258
Q

For pleasure boats sailing within 3 miles from the coast, as a means
collective rescue is prescribed?

A

the collective means of rescue is not foreseen.

1259
Q

When sailing within 3 miles from the coast, the vessel must be kept on board:

A

the 2 red-light hand fires.

1260
Q

When navigating within 300 metres of the coast, there is no requirement for any
safety and rescue. Does this also apply to river navigation?

A

no, you must have on board at least 1 lifebuoy with rope and belts
rescue for each person on board.

1261
Q

Normally, what is the mileage range of red-light hand fires?

A

6 miles.

1262
Q

Normally, what is the night range in miles of parachute light rockets
red?

A

25 miles.

1263
Q

How many red-light hand fires a pleasure boat must keep on board
sailing within 6 nautical miles of the coast?

A

2

1264
Q

On a unit with 4 people on board, licensed to transport 8 people, how many seatbelts
rescue must be present?

A

4

1265
Q

The smoke emitted by the smoke tube, once activated, is coloured:

A

orange.

1266
Q

In general, what is the deadline for emergency and rescue signals such as fires at
hand, parachute rockets and smoke bombs?

A

every 4 years

1267
Q

The E.P.I.R.B. (Emergency Position Indicator Radio Beacon) is mandatory:

A

more than 50 miles from the coast.

1268
Q

What emergency lighting equipment is required for seaworthy vessels
‘without any limits’ from the coast?

A

4 red-light hand flares, 4 red-light parachute rockets, 1 light buoy.

1269
Q

A radar reflector is compulsory when boats are sailing:

A

beyond 12 miles from the coast:

1270
Q

A life raft must be serviced:

A

every two years.

1271
Q

The E.P.I.R.B. is an emergency transmitter:

A

programmed with the MMSI code assigned by the Ministry of Economic Development.

1272
Q

The amount of life belts to be kept on board:

A

is in relation to the number of persons on board.

1273
Q

Normally, what is the approximate daytime range of red light parachute rockets?

A

7 miles.

1274
Q

Normally, what is the ignition duration of red light parachute rockets
used by a pleasure boat?

A

less than 1 minute.

1275
Q

Is radar compulsory?

A

no, but it is recommended for night navigation.

1276
Q

What are the correct equipment ranges for lights and signal lights?

A

up to 3 miles, up to 6 miles, up to 12 miles, up to 50 miles, unlimited from the coast.

1277
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

navigation within 12 miles and up to 50 miles from the coast provides for different equipment
emergency lighting.

1278
Q

A coastal raft is required:

A

for navigation beyond 6 miles from the coast, up to 12 miles from the coast.

1279
Q

When is the use of the EPIRB mandatory for a pleasure boat?

A

when sailing more than 50 nautical miles from the coast.

1280
Q

The coastal life raft is not provided:

A

when sailing within 6 miles of the coast.

1281
Q

The (non-coastal) life raft for all persons on board when
must be maintained on a pleasure boat?

A

When sailing more than 12 nautical miles from the coast.

1282
Q

On which document is the number of persons that can be transported on the vessels from
mass-produced yachts?

A

type-approval certification.

1283
Q

At what distance from the coast are boarders obliged to wear the
individual means of rescue?

A

regardless of the distance from the coast.

1284
Q

For a pleasure boat sailing within 12 nautical miles from the coast it is
compulsory to have a (non-coastal) life raft on board?

A

No.

1285
Q

When is the use of VHF equipment mandatory for a pleasure boat?

A

when sailing more than 6 nautical miles from the coast.

1286
Q

How many red-light hand fires a pleasure boat must keep on board
sailing within 50 nautical miles of the coast?

A

three.

1287
Q

How many red-light parachute flares must a vessel keep on board from
pleasure boating within 50 nautical miles from the coast?

A

three.

1288
Q

When is the use of binoculars mandatory for a pleasure boat?

A

when navigating beyond 12 nautical miles from the coast.

1289
Q

Drivers of sailing boards, jet skis and similar units:

A

permanently wear individual life-saving equipment, including the persons carried, regardless of the distance from the coast where the
navigation takes place.

1290
Q

Which medicines and medication items must be provided by the
recreational vessels?

A

are set out in the Ministry of Health Decree of 1 October 2015.

1291
Q

The minimum indispensable sanitary equipment to be equipped with
the pleasure boats used in ‘unlimited’ chartering activities from the coast is the same as that of vessels not used in chartering activities?

A

no, it is fixed in a special table.

1292
Q

What is the Table of Equipment containing the minimum indispensable quantity of sanitary equipment that recreational craft licensed for navigation without any limits, without personnel on board, and not engaged in activities
of hire?

A

Table ‘D’.

1293
Q

Which of these statements is correct?

A

Pleasure craft sailing more than 12 nautical miles from the coast must be
equipped with a first-aid kit.

1294
Q

Where can the security certificate be validated?

A

at any STED (Sportello Telematico del Diportista) following the visit
inspection by the Technical Board.

1295
Q

A recreational unit must be inspected occasionally:

A

as a result of damage or changes to the hull or engine, if the
conditions of seaworthiness or safety.

1296
Q

A recreational craft with a CE marking is subject to inspection:

A

periodic and occasional.

1297
Q

Which recreational craft are subject to periodic safety inspections?

A

only pleasure boats and ships.

1298
Q

The Recreational Craft Safety Certificate is issued:

A

from the Telematics Register of Pleasure Craft through the STED, Telematics Desk
of the yachtsman

1299
Q

During the initial safety inspection, the notified or authorised technical body:

A

determines the maximum number of persons that can be transported.

1300
Q

The registered recreational craft is subject to occasional inspection:

A

if the need arises.

1301
Q

After the first expiry of the safety certificate, every how many years a recreational craft must be inspected for renewal of the certificate
same?

A

5 years.

1302
Q

Is the licence subject to validation?

A

no, you validate the security certificate.

1303
Q

Are pleasure boats subject to the issuance of a safety certificate?

A

no, they are not subjects.

1304
Q

The validation of a recreational craft’s Safety Certificate must be carried out:

A

if the unit has suffered serious breakdowns or innovations have been made.

1305
Q

Which of these requirements are necessary for the renewal of the Safety Certificate of
a pleasure craft?

A

issue of an appropriate certificate of suitability by an entrusted Technical Body.

1306
Q

The Security Certificate:

A

is renewed every five years.

1307
Q

The Safety Certificate of a pleasure craft, in case of first issue:

A

is valid for eight years after registration for units in the categories of
design A and B.

1308
Q

The Safety Certificate of a pleasure craft, in case of first issue,

A

is valid for ten years after registration for units in the categories of
design C and D.

1309
Q

The safety certificate of a pleasure craft:

A

is renewed on the occasion of periodic visits.

1310
Q

A recreational craft bearing the CE mark class B performs the required inspection
periodic afterwards:

A

8 years from the date of registration; thereafter every 5 years.

1311
Q

In which document is the outcome of the inspection carried out by the Technical Body recorded?
notified or authorised?

A

security certificate.

1312
Q

Which of the following answer alternatives is true?

A

the security certificate is subject to expiry.

1313
Q

In the event of an irreparable breach on board, the commander radios the:

A

MAYDAY and works to save the people on board.

1314
Q

In case of a flaw, which of the following is the most correct operation
alternative answers:

A

plug the leak from the outside so that the water pressure does not make
move the makeshift ‘cap’.

1315
Q

When can voluntary stranding occur?

A

when voluntarily leading the vessel aground to avoid a potential shipwreck resulting from a leak, fire or collision with another vessel
unit.

1316
Q

What factors must be taken into due consideration when carrying out de- escalation operations?

A

type and relief of the seabed, the extent of the damage suffered, the most appropriate manoeuvre to be carried out in relation to the characteristics of the vessel and the
place where the accident occurred.

1317
Q

With regard to stranding, which of these statements is correct?

A

grounding may result from a lack of accuracy in determining the ship’s point
near the coast.

1318
Q

With regard to the flaw, which of these statements is correct?

A

if there is a leak in the bow, the motion of the vessel should be stopped in order to prevent it from increasing the inflow
of water in its interior.

1319
Q

Which of these procedures can be carried out when a unit has suffered
a minor flaw?

A

operate the bilge pump.

1320
Q

Which of these statements is correct?

A

the flaw may affect the buoyancy of the vessel as there is a
reduction of the unit’s thrust reserve.

1321
Q

What solution can be adopted in order to disengage a vessel?

A

wait for the high tide to come in.

1322
Q

What measures can best be taken to plug a breach of
considerable size?

A

plugging the waterway using bulky materials such as, waxed canvas,
mattresses etc.

1323
Q

Which of the following manoeuvres may be the most effective in limiting damage
when two units are about to collide?

A

stop the engine and possibly engage reverse gear by pulling over
simultaneously, to mitigate the impact.

1324
Q

A fire develops on board and we are in the vicinity of a port: it is right to accelerate to
reach the port as soon as possible?

A

no.

1325
Q

In the event of a fire in the engine compartment, it is necessary:

A

first attempt to close the fuel valve.

1326
Q

In the event of a fire on deck, it is essential:

A

place the boat with the flames downwind.

1327
Q

In the event of a fire with a high flame, where do we direct the jet of the extinguisher?

A

at the base of the flame.

1328
Q

In the event of a serious fire on board:

A

I prepare the procedures for abandoning the ship.

1329
Q

An electrical panel on board caught fire; I extinguished the fire:

A

using a powder extinguisher.

1330
Q

In the event of a fire, what primary order should the captain on board give?

A

wear life jackets and move away from the fire.

1331
Q

There is a fire in the aft engine compartment, I drive the unit so:

A

put the fire downwind.

1332
Q

In the event of a fire, while manoeuvring in port, the most appropriate first action is
that of:

A

Attempt to move the unit away from the harbour by switching off.

1333
Q

What is the function of forced ventilation on board pleasure craft?
equipped with a petrol engine?

A

ensure complete air exchange before starting the engine.

1334
Q

How to extinguish a fire resulting from the combustion of common substances (wood,
textiles and paper)?

A

by cooling action through water jets.

1335
Q

What precautions must be taken if the fire develops in the area
stern of the naval unit?

A

orienting the bow to the wind.

1336
Q

How do you extinguish a fire resulting from the combustion of liquid substances?

A

through the suffocation action generated, chemical powder, foam, anhydride
carbon dioxide (CO2) or other inert gas.

1337
Q

What countermeasures can be taken in the event of a fire in the room
motor apparatus?

A

Immediately close the airways and fuel supply.

1338
Q

What manoeuvre can be adopted in the event of a fire occurring in the forward area
of a recreational vessel?

A

placing the stern to the wind and then the bow to the leeward.

1339
Q

The number and positioning of fire extinguishers in a CE marked unit:

A

is set out in the Owner’s Manual.

1340
Q

For pleasure boats NOT CE marked (placed on the market before 17
June 1998) the number and positioning of fire extinguishers is laid down in the Regulations implementing the Marine Code according to engine power?

A

yes, and provides for a minimum of 1 fire extinguisher in the driver’s seat and 1 fire extinguisher in each of the other rooms.

1341
Q

During the motor manoeuvre of man overboard recovery, how should it be carried out
the final approach to the castaway?

A

with caution, after the initial speed has been exhausted.

1342
Q

Which of these actions is the most appropriate to take in the case of a man overboard?

A

throw the ring lifebuoy on board in the direction of the survivor.

1343
Q

A man falls into the sea on the starboard side from a motorised boat,
which of the three manoeuvres in the figure opposite is correct?

A

the manoeuvre in figure B.

1344
Q

To the cry ‘man overboard to … (left or starboard)’:

A

quickly approaches from the same side as the man overboard.

1345
Q

Which of these precautions is the most appropriate to take in the case of a man overboard?

A

maintain constant visual control of the castaway.

1346
Q

What is the reason for the timely approach from the
same side from which the castaway fell?

A

to immediately move the unit’s propellers as far away from the shipwreck as possible.

1347
Q

What is the reason for maintaining visual control of the castaway immediately
after his fall into the sea?

A

facilitate the recovery of the shipwrecked person during the evolutionary manoeuvre
carried out by the unit, averting the risk of its dispersion.

1348
Q

Which of these actions is the most appropriate to take during the recovery phases of
a man who fell into the sea from a naval unit?

A

throw the ring lifebuoy into the sea as close to the survivor as possible
to facilitate its recovery.

1349
Q

In the event that a crew member falls overboard from the starboard side of the unit:

A

you must immediately turn the helm to starboard while maintaining constant visual control of the
castaway.

1350
Q

In the event of an accident and subsequent abandonment of the unit, the master:

A

makes each person on board wear a lifejacket.

1351
Q

In case of abandonment of the vessel:

A

the raft line must be secured to the boat before launching it into the water.

1352
Q

In which position should the life raft not be placed?

A

below deck.

1353
Q

In which position should the life raft not be placed?

A

in a closed locker in a difficult to reach position.

1354
Q

The ‘Grab Bag’ is:

A

is that bag containing the equipment normally kept inside the raft of
rescue.

1355
Q

The ‘Grab Bag’ must:

A

be kept within reach so that it can be launched into the raft of
rescue in case of abandonment of the boat.

1356
Q

What is meant by maritime rescue?

A

all activities aimed at searching for and saving human life at sea.

1357
Q

Which national body ensures the overall coordination of the
maritime rescue?

A

the General Command of the Harbour Master Corps.

1358
Q

In the event of a serious injury occurring to a crew member during the
navigation, which body should be contacted as soon as possible?

A

International Radio Medical Centre (CIRM).

1359
Q

When the Maritime Authority may order recreational craft to participate in the
rescue activities at sea?

A

when in or near port.

1360
Q

Under what conditions is it compulsory for a master of a recreational craft to perform
assistance to another unit in danger?

A

when there are life-threatening persons on board the unit in distress and when not
there is a risk to the rescuing unit and the persons on board.

1361
Q

Under the Navigation Code, which of these statements is the most correct
with regard to ‘abandoning ship’?

A

the commander of the unit orders its ‘abandonment’ only after ascertaining that
person that all means suggested by the nautical art are unable to save her.

1362
Q

In the event of a collision between two or more vessels, the masters of the vessels are obliged to
provide the other naval units involved with the information to identify their own?

A

yes, as far as possible.

1363
Q

What steps must the master of the vessel take before ordering it to be abandoned?

A

ensure that all persons on board are wearing lifejackets and that the collective lifeboat (raft), if fitted, is equipped with the required
safety equipment.

1364
Q

What effect is generated in navigation by lowering the foot (negative trim), in a unit
powered by an outboard motor?

A

the downward slope of the bow to cushion wave impacts with the sea
format.

1365
Q

What are the main precautions that a recreational vessel will have to take if it is affected by an abrupt worsening of weather conditions?
marines?

A

(securing) all objects on board, carefully closing portholes and skylights, instructing persons on board on the correct use of collective and individual means of
rescue.

1366
Q

What precautions should be taken in the event of a storm from the
dry land?

A

head safely towards the coast where the swell is gentler.

1367
Q

What precautions should be taken in the event of a storm from the
sea?

A

lead the naval unit to the cape.

1368
Q

What arrangements can be made in the event that a vessel
do you sail with particularly heavy seas in the stern causing abrupt engine changes?

A

reduce speed appropriately.

1369
Q

When navigating in dense fog, what factors may indicate possible
proximity of the coast?

A

changing colour of the water and the roar of the breakers.

1370
Q

What is the function of the DSC (Digital Selective Calling) system installed on certain types of radio equipment?

A

transmitting on VHF and HF frequencies, it allows a signal to be sent automatically of distress, emergency or safety to other ships in the vicinity, Maritime Rescue
Coordination Centres and Coastal Stations.

1371
Q

Motor boating in very rough seas:

A

I do what I can to avoid catching waves on the side.

1372
Q

To mitigate the impact of the formed wave:

A

you should aim slightly towards the ridge, and then move away from it when the
boat descends into the hollow of the wave.

1373
Q

Sailing with a stern wave:

A

you hold the positive trim (propeller more up) to raise the bow and limit the strokes on the wave.

1374
Q

Regarding the adjustment of the flaps, with contrary swell is appropriate:

A

keep them more or less lowered, depending on the type of hull, to counteract the tendency
of the hull to raise the bow due to the mass of water flowing under it.

1375
Q

Regarding the adjustment of the flaps, with a stern sea, it is appropriate:

A

keep the flaps up, to squash the stern downwards, to counter the wave that
tends to lift the stern and submerge the bow.

1376
Q

Normally, when the flap indicator is on zero, this means:

A

that at that moment the flap is ‘neutral’, i.e. horizontal, when instead they are
reported negative numbers this means that the flaps are tilted downwards.

1377
Q

Regarding the adjustment of the flaps, it is possible to state:

A

which can generally be adjusted independently, so that they can
vary not only the heading adjustment, but also the transverse balance.

1378
Q

Raising the left flap or lowering the right flap results in:

A

to tilt the hull towards the straight side.

1379
Q

The ‘safety break’ is:

A

the switch connected via a red spiral cord (or with a device
electronic) to those who steer an outboard, which ‘automatically’ shuts down the engine in
case of a fall into the water.

1380
Q

Suddenly visibility becomes poor:

A

you slow down, turn on your lights and give the prescribed signals.

1381
Q

In which cases can the floating anchor be useful?

A

when downwind of us is a nearby coast.

1382
Q

To go ‘alla cappa’ means to take to the sea:

A

to the anchor with the engine at a speed that allows the unit to drift, leaving a rowing area upwind that can dampen the breakers before
arrive on the windward side.

1383
Q

What is undertow?

A

ebb waves.

1384
Q

The floating anchor:

A

serves to limit the unit’s traversal.

1385
Q

In the case of solo sailing:

A

wear a seat belt and secure yourself to the deck.

1386
Q

In the event of bad weather sailing, what action should be taken:

A

portholes, hatches and sea inlets are closed, leaving only the engine ones open.

1387
Q

To draw the attention of another unit in case of danger:

A

you perform a slow, repeated movement of both arms extended, from top to
low.

1388
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

1530 is the emergency telephone number of the Coast Guard.

1389
Q

What qualification entitles the master of a pleasure boat to use a
VHF/FM transceiver equipment?

A

the restricted certificate of radiotelephone operator for minor ships.

1390
Q

What is the call sign?

A

allows the VHF to be used on board a recreational vessel.

1391
Q

To install a fixed-type VHF on board:

A

is only required to check that the equipment is type-approved.

1392
Q

The international call sign allows

A

using VHF equipment on board pleasure boats and ships.

1393
Q

How often are two-way radios installed on board subjected to
ordinary inspections?

A

are exempt from ordinary inspections.

1394
Q

In the event of a distress call, on what occasion are ‘parachute rockets’ used at
red light’?

A

whether the presence of a ship, a plane, the coast is presumed.

1395
Q

In the event of a distress call, on what occasion are ‘hand-held light fires’ used
red’?

A

whether the lights of a ship, an aeroplane, the coast are clearly visible.

1396
Q

Which VHF/FM radio channel is used for distress calls?

A

channel 16.

1397
Q

As a rule, red-light parachute rockets, when fired into the air, achieve a
minimum quota:

A

of 300 metres.

1398
Q

The frequency of Channel 16 is:

A

156.8 Mhz.

1399
Q

Who receives a distress call:

A

relays the distress call and, if necessary, takes steps to provide assistance
to the endangered unit.

1400
Q

Which word is the distress call preceded by?

A

MAYDAY repeated three times.

1401
Q

What is the emergency call preceded by?

A

the words PAN PAN repeated three times.

1402
Q

The procedure for correctly transmitting a distress message:

A

the distress message to be transmitted must be preceded by the word MAYDAY
repeated three times.

1403
Q

Which word is the security call preceded by?

A

by the word SECURITE’ repeated three times.

1404
Q

Mayday must be repeated during the call:

A

3 times.

1405
Q

The obligation of radio silence on channel 16 occurs:

A

in the first 3 minutes after the start of the full and half-hour.

1406
Q

Channel 16 on the VHF frequency band is usable:

A

only for the first call; to continue communication, you must then switch to
another channel.

1407
Q

In case it becomes necessary to launch a MAYDAY via radio:

A

the following are communicated in order: international call sign, location coordinates and type
of ongoing danger.

1408
Q

How do you impose radio silence with VHF?

A

uttering the word SILENCE MAYDAY.

1409
Q

For boat-to-boat communication you can use the channels

A

channels 6, 8, 72 or 77.

1410
Q

For communication via VHF with fixed apparatus:

A

when at close range, the reduced power of 1 watt should be used.

1411
Q

On the subject of VHF, which of the following statements is correct:

A

the master of the vessel is responsible for the proper use of the facilities and
of on-board transceiver equipment.

1412
Q

Radio communications using VHF equipment may be carried out
if:

A

the antennas of two communicating stations are located above the line
of the horizon.

1413
Q

What is the general range of VHF equipment for communication between vessels?

A

between 10 and 20 nautical miles

1414
Q

What is the maximum range of VHF equipment for communication between a vessel and
coastal radio stations?

A

approximately 40 nautical miles.

1415
Q

What function does the squelch of a radio receiver perform?

A

attenuate background noise during communications.

1416
Q

What is the function of the radar reflector, installed on board the small boating?

A

intensify the radar return echo, allowing even a small
vessel on which it is installed, both at a great distance and between the various echoes of the sea.

1417
Q

For safety reasons, what are the time intervals for which it is forbidden to carry out
radio communications?

A

between the minutes 00-03 and 30-33 of each hour.

1418
Q

What is the administrative penalty for exceeding the speed limit?
provided for navigation in port waterways?

A

the payment of a sum from EUR 414 to EUR 2,066.

1419
Q

Is there a speed limit for a pleasure craft in transit within a port?

A

yes, it is determined by the maritime authority of jurisdiction, generally 3 knots.

1420
Q

In which ports should you keep starboard both going in and out?

A

in ports as regulated by order of the Maritime Authority.

1421
Q

In which ports should precedence be given to units leaving over those entering?

A

in all ports where the regulations of the Maritime Authority so stipulate.

1422
Q

Entering a commercial harbour, with no recreational equipment, we normally have to
warning:

A

the Maritime Authority.

1423
Q

Subject to local ordinances, as a rule, near the entrance to a port:

A

We give priority to manoeuvring large ships.

1424
Q

Approaching an Italian port, sailing at night, and detecting the
mouth lights so that the green is on your left and the red is on your starboard:

A

you have to change course because you are going against the breakwater.

1425
Q

What does the entrance to a harbour mouth look like during the day?

A

two turrets or small towers: red on the left green on the starboard side.

1426
Q

Subject to local ordinances, as a rule which of the two boats in the picture opposite has the
right of way?

A

unit B, because it is leaving port.

1427
Q

Subject to local ordinances, at what distance from the harbour entrance is it good practice to reduce
the speed of a pleasure boat?

A

500 metres away.

1428
Q

Subject to local ordinances, at what speed is it good to enter port?

A

3 knots.

1429
Q

Barring local ordinances, is it normally possible to enter a port while sailing?

A

no, it is not possible.

1430
Q

How is the entrance to a port signalled at night?

A

2 lights: green on the starboard side and red on the left.

1431
Q

Subject to local ordinances, if you want to enter the harbour, which light should you steer towards
their own unit?

A

towards the green light.

1432
Q

When leaving port, in doubt of not being seen by other boats, how do you
involves?

A

emitting 1 long beep and listening for a response.

1433
Q

As a result of my mooring and the consequent wave motion generated, the unit moored alongside me suffers damage from hitting the quay.
Therefore, the injured party:

A

is entitled to compensation for the damage due to the irregular conduct of navigation and the consequent liability for collision between ships, even if only due to wave motion.

1434
Q

Subject to local ordinances, how should the unit transiting the 500
metres in front of the harbour entrance?

A

must give precedence to units entering and leaving the port.

1435
Q

For non-concessionary maritime property intended for navigation and maritime
transport, the reservation of berths for recreational craft in transit is disciplined:

A

by order of the Head of the competent maritime district.

1436
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

a unit navigating along a channel must, when possible and not involving
danger, keep close to the right-hand edge of your course.

1437
Q

Licensees of recreational boating facilities must reserve
moorings in transit:

A

for the duration of 72 hours.

1438
Q

Berths reserved for persons with disabilities:

A

when not used for this purpose, may be occupied by another unit, with the obligation to be released in the event of a request by a disabled person notified to the
dealer at least 24 hours in advance.

1439
Q

What precautions must be taken by a motorised pleasure vessel sailing close to the coast during the bathing season?

A

sail at a speed not exceeding 10 knots in the sea area between the bathing limit and the
1,000 metres from the coast.

1440
Q

What is the minimum distance vessels must maintain from the buoys of
divers, sighted during navigation?

A

a distance of at least 100 metres.

1441
Q

Which regulations govern the limits of navigation from the coast and the related requirements
to the landing of pleasure craft on the beach?

A

orders of the local maritime district chiefs pursuant to Art. 81 of the Maritime Code. Navigation.

1442
Q

What is, in principle, the minimum distance from beaches beyond which it is possible to
circulating, stopping or anchoring by a vessel?

A

a maximum of 200 metres.

1443
Q

How are the boundaries of the water areas facing 200 metres from the line marked
of foreshore during the bathing season?

A

by placing red buoys at a distance of 50 metres
from each other parallel to the coastline.

1444
Q

How launch corridors are signposted for landing and departure
of units on the beach during the bathing season?

A

with yellow or orange buoys placed perpendicular to the coast to a
distance of 250 metres.

1445
Q

How are the outer buoys marking the launching corridors that allow units to land and depart on the beach, during the season
bathing?

A

by means of white flags placed on the outer buoys.

1446
Q

In addition to the maritime signals required by the regulations in force, which maritime signals mark a vessel engaged in underwater activities during
daylight hours?

A

a red ball on which is placed a red flag with a white diagonal.

1447
Q

Which maritime signals characterise a unit employed in activities
diving during night hours?

A

in addition to the prescribed maritime signals, an all-round visible yellow flashing light at
a distance of no less than 300 metres.

1448
Q

What administrative sanction is provided for those who use a recreational craft
exceeding the prescribed speed limits?

A

the payment of a sum from EUR 414 to EUR 2,066.

1449
Q

During the bathing season, which route should I take to reach the shore
(given the absolute necessity for emergency reasons)?

A

I approach in slow motion with the aid of the oars and in any case taking a course in
direction perpendicular to the shoreline profile.

1450
Q

A unit in transit in the vicinity of a diver:

A

moderates speed and continues navigating while keeping a distance of at least
100 metres away from the signal.

1451
Q

If, during navigation, it is detected that a sporting event is taking place on a race course on one’s route, then, without prejudice to the requirements set out in the maritime police order, the following shall be adopted to continue navigation
following precautions:

A

alter their course to keep a safe distance from the limits of the competition course.

1452
Q

The A (Alpha) flag shown opposite is prescribed by the International Code of Signals,
is displayed by a unit to indicate that:

A

has a diver diving.

1453
Q

A red flag with a white diagonal band placed on a float indicates the
presence of:

A

a diver diving within 50 metres of the signal.

1454
Q

To signal his position, the night diver must display a buoy equipped with a beacon that emits visible yellow flashes, round the horizon, at
a distance:

A

not less than 300 metres.

1455
Q

Launch corridors are sea areas where:

A

the launching and landing of motor-powered recreational craft is permitted.

1456
Q

Can sport fishing be carried out with a recreational craft?

A

Yes, within certain catch limits.

1457
Q

The maximum distance between the spearfisherman and his buoy of
signalling is equal to:

A

50 metres.

1458
Q

The jet ski can sail:

A

within 1 mile from the coast.

1459
Q

The sailboard can sail:

A

within 1 mile from the coast.

1460
Q

Boats serving (tenders) the pleasure craft may sail:

A

within 1 mile from the coast or from the mother unit, wherever it is located.

1461
Q

A vessel with a sail area of no more than 4 square metres may sail:

A

within 1 mile from the coast.

1462
Q

Vessels commonly referred to as skates, jolos, pedalos, etc., may
navigate:

A

within 1 mile from the coast.

1463
Q

Can motorised navigation be banned?

A

yes, e.g. in the strip of sea prioritised for bathing.

1464
Q

Spearfishing is permitted:

A

more than 500 metres from beaches frequented by bathers.

1465
Q

Can spearfishing with a rifle be carried out at night?

A

no.

1466
Q

The use of encircling nets is possible for the exercise of sport fishing with units
recreational?

A

no, it is not possible.

1467
Q

Is it possible to carry out professional fishing on board pleasure craft?

A

no, it is not possible.

1468
Q

Recreational underwater fishing is prohibited at distances of less than:

A

100 metres from the fixed fishing facilities.

1469
Q

Recreational underwater fishing may be carried out with the use of auxiliary equipment of
breathing?

A

no, never.

1470
Q

The pursuit of sport fishing activities (not underwater) with a recreational craft:

A

is prohibited within 500 metres of units engaged in professional fishing.

1471
Q

What does the tensile strength of an anchor depend on?

A

by its weight and, in part, by its shape.

1472
Q

Which of these factors should be taken into account before giving
at anchor?

A

the presence of possible bans as well as the local weather situation.

1473
Q

How many chain-link lengths should be spun during the anchoring manoeuvre?

A

3 to 5 times the seabed.

1474
Q

When is mooring on an anchor or wheel used in principle?

A

in bodies of water with adequate free space around them.

1475
Q

What type of anchorage should be adopted, in principle, in rivers?

A

using two anchors whose chains create a 180° angle between them, sunk in the
direction of the current.

1476
Q

The umbrella anchor, with lockable flukes, is generally used:

A

by small units, including inflatable boats.

1477
Q

What are the main characteristics of grappino?

A

it is a small anchor with four fixed gears, used only for
anchorages of small units.

1478
Q

What are the main characteristics of the Bruce anchor?

A

is a one-piece anchor, equipped with a single wing-shaped fluke and
with no other articulated parts.

1479
Q

Anchor chains used on board vessels consist of links
having form:

A

elliptical.

1480
Q

What is meant by ‘barbotin’?

A

the shaped wheel with chain imprint, located at the base of the winch, which prevents the
slipping of chain links during anchor manoeuvring operations.

1481
Q

What advantage does anchoring by means of two anchors with anchors attached?

A

reduce the unit’s turning range, which thus assumes an elliptical configuration at
difference from wheel anchorage.

1482
Q

What are the main steps involved in an anchoring manoeuvre?

A

one heads for the anchorage site with only the buoyancy, keeping the bow to the
wind or current. The anchor is dropped, while simultaneously giving a light blow to backward march.

1483
Q

When is it appropriate to use the claw and grapple before dropping anchor?

A

if you have to anchor on a rocky seabed or one strewn with wrecks, where the anchor
can get stuck.

1484
Q

What does a ‘grippia’ look like?

A

by a rather thin line, one end of which is tied to the anchor diamond
while the other is attested to a buoy.

1485
Q

What steps must be taken to check for proper sealing
of the anchor?

A

it is advisable to carry out subsequent surveys, using conspicuous points of the
coast, or of subsequent ship points.

1486
Q

The anchor arms are called:

A

marres.

1487
Q

When an anchor makes heads, it means that:

A

has taken hold of the bottom.

1488
Q

Regarding the tightness of an anchorage, it can be said that:

A

The anchor must remain horizontal on the bottom, even if the boat forces the calamus.

1489
Q

The lower part, in the centre of the flukes, of an anchor is called:

A

diamond.

1490
Q

The term calumus indicates:

A

the part of the chain that is outboard.

1491
Q

According to a good rule of seamanship, what is the ideal weight of an anchor to use for
a 10-metre unit?

A

between 15 and 20 kg.

1492
Q

An afflicted unit is that unit which:

A

he bottomed out 2 anchors with calumens open at about 45 degrees.

1493
Q

What is not to be done in the anchorage to the wheel?

A

also give an additional anchor from the stern.

1494
Q

If an anchor does not hold, it is said:

A

is ploughing.

1495
Q

What is the name of the part of the anchor that grips the bottom?

A

fluke.

1496
Q

The ‘grippia’ is a rope that binds:

A

to the anchor diamond to facilitate its recovery.

1497
Q

To anchor in calm seas on a 16-metre seabed, how much line do you need
spinning?

A

at least 48 metres.

1498
Q

The grappling ‘iron’ is:

A

an anchorage for small boats.

1499
Q

To anchor in calm seas on a 9-metre seabed, how much line do you need
spinning?

A

at least 27 metres.

1500
Q

To anchor in calm seas on a 5-metre seabed, how much line do you need
spinning?

A

at least 15 metres.

1501
Q

When an anchor makes heads, it means that:

A

has taken hold of the bottom.

1502
Q

Regarding the tightness of an anchorage, it can be said that:

A

the calume is increased by 3 to 5 times the bottom depending on the conditions
meteomarine.

1503
Q

The lower part, in the centre of the marres, of an anchor is called:

A

diamond.

1504
Q

The term calumus indicates:

A

the length of rope and/or chain spun to anchor.

1505
Q

Anchoring to the wheel means:

A

freedom of rotation of 360 degrees of the boat at anchor.

1506
Q

Anchoring using a single spun bow anchor is called:

A

to the wheel.

1507
Q

An anchor is said to dispatch if:

A

does not hold its grip on the bottom.

1508
Q

So-called ‘brushed anchors’ occur when:

A

for better sealing in critical conditions, the main anchor diamond is
fixed a second anchor, called a ‘brush’, with a chain of 4-6 metres.

1509
Q

With reference to the use of the anchor depending on the seabed, it is possible to state
that:

A

the Danforth anchor is excellent on sandy-muddy bottoms.

1510
Q

With reference to the various types of anchors, it can be stated that:

A

the CQR and Delta are anchor types for all bottoms.

1511
Q

Anchoring in a bay of several units at a broadside is:

A

not recommended because you are exposed to wave motion.

1512
Q

The commonly used procedure for proper anchoring is:

A

after spinning an appropriate amount of lime, start backing slightly, continuing to spin the cable-top, in order to spread the appropriate lime and make
head to the anchor.

1513
Q

The commonly used procedure for proper anchoring is:

A

After setting the unit’s bow to the wind, having exhausted the buoyancy, the anchor is dropped.

1514
Q

In the illustrated situation of a unit at anchor, where is it most appropriate to drop anchor?

A

in point C.

1515
Q

What is the correct position for anchoring in the crowded roadstead shown in the figure?

A

that of boat B, because it has space for the wheel.

1516
Q

When anchoring in strong winds, it is advisable:

A

quickly spinning a suitable amount of chain, loosening the barbotin of the
anchor winch.

1517
Q

In the event of strong winds, having to drop anchor and then moor aft to the
dock, it is appropriate:

A

set the anchor slightly upwind of the berth you want
occupy.

1518
Q

The anchorage in the bay of several units at a broadside is:

A

not recommended because you are exposed to wave motion.

1519
Q

On the subject of anchors, which statement is correct?

A

dynamically sealed anchors, e.g. Mantus and Ultra, are suitable for all bottoms.

1520
Q

In anchoring, what is the minimum calumny, i.e. length of cable or chain, to be given
compared to the depth of the seabed?

A

3 times the bottom.

1521
Q

To weigh anchor:

A

you give a slight forward stroke to take tension off the chain.

1522
Q

The characteristics of the Rocna anchor are:

A

a single fixed fluke, in the shape of a concave blade, equipped with a roll-bar that ensures that
did not tip over onto the seabed.

1523
Q

I anchor and observe the situation depicted in the picture, I deduce:

A

the presence of a sustained current, which I must take into account when manoeuvring
anchorage.

1524
Q

I anchor and observe the situation depicted in the picture, I deduce.

A

the westward rotation of units at anchor, should the wind cease.

1525
Q

What does a ‘dead body’ look like?

A

a concrete block, laid on the seabed, to which a ring is attached with a chain that has a floating buoy at the other end in
surface.

1526
Q

The manoeuvre to approach a mooring buoy is carried out:

A

making the vessel move slowly towards the buoy, keeping the bow at the
wind or current.

1527
Q

A unit is said to be docked when:

A

is secured to the quay by mooring cables.

1528
Q

What is the main function of mooring cables called ‘springs’?

A

immobilise the unit from movement in the longitudinal direction.

1529
Q

What is the main function of mooring cables known as ‘sleepers’?

A

do not move the vessel away from the quay or other vessel alongside.

1530
Q

When mooring with the stern on the quay, the stern lines are arranged in a manner
crossed:

A

in the presence of undertow, in order to prevent the stern from moving sideways.

1531
Q

The ‘doublet’ is a mooring line:

A

rotated around the bollard at the quay and then secured the two ends to the
on-board bollard.

1532
Q

What condition is necessary for a unit to decide to moor in
two-buoy security?

A

that the two buoys are located one forward and the other aft of the vessel.

1533
Q

Pictured opposite is a unit at the ‘English’ berth, as the
mooring cables indicated by arrows?

A

spring.

1534
Q

With reference to the drawing opposite, with what type of cables is the unit moored?

A

stern transom and bow transom.

1535
Q

Can the pictured unit be considered correctly moored?

A

no, because without a bow ‘spring’ and a stern ‘spring’ it can move along
the longitudinal axis.

1536
Q

The ‘spring’ is:

A

the mooring cable running from the bow or stern of the boat to the quay
towards the centre of the boat, which is essential in ‘English-style’ mooring.

1537
Q

In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be secured
first?

A

the one on bollard A.

1538
Q

In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be secured
first?

A

the one on bollard B.

1539
Q

In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be freed for
first wanting to leave the dock?

A

the one on bollard B.

1540
Q

In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be freed for
first wanting to leave the dock?

A

the one on bollard A.

1541
Q

The polypropylene cable is:

A

used only for floating lines used for rescue.

1542
Q

Polyester cable is used:

A

for mooring lines.

1543
Q

The lover’s bowline is a knot:

A

of great tightness, suitable for mooring cables.

1544
Q

The spoken node:

A

it is useful for securing wings to pulpits and dredges.

1545
Q

What is the trapeze (or drape)?

A

the line that joins the catenary to the quay in marinas and acts as a mooring to the
wide.

1546
Q

How to make use of the bow truster by mooring at the quay on your side
straight?

A

to starboard, so as to favour the translation of the unit parallel to the
quay.

1547
Q

What is the instrument used to measure the speed of the units?

A

solcometer.

1548
Q

Having to pull in aft, with a unit equipped with a single right-hand propeller, which
manoeuvre:

A

manoeuvre no. 2.

1549
Q

Having to approach aft with a unit equipped with a single left-handed propeller, which
manoeuvre compared to those proposed in the figures:

A

manoeuvre no. 1.

1550
Q

Having to reach the quay with the stern aboard a unit equipped with a single
left-handed propeller, it is more convenient to take as the starting position:

A

position 3.

1551
Q

Having to reach the quay with the stern aboard a unit equipped with a single
right-hand propeller, it is more convenient to take as the starting position:

A

position 2.

1552
Q

To make a correct stern approach to the quay:

A

with a left-handed propeller, it backs up perpendicularly to the quay presenting the
starboard side of the quay.

1553
Q

The operation of approaching a quay or a float is known under the
name of:

A

berthing.

1554
Q

To pull alongside (English style) a quay with a unit equipped with a propeller
right-handed:

A

with the quay to the left, you back up with the left jaw at the
dock, approaching the stern and stopping the buoyancy.

1555
Q

Wanting to rotate on the spot from a standstill, simultaneously exploiting the effects evolution of propeller and rudder:

A

with a left-handed propeller, in forward gear we put the rudder on the starboard side, pulling over
definitely to starboard.

1556
Q

To secure the unit to a buoy, one binds:

A

to the top under the buoy.

1557
Q

How do you measure the length of a trailer?

A

from the stern of the tug to the stern of the last towed unit.

1558
Q

Approaching a roadstead, one must:

A

proceed with caution, if necessary engaging and disengaging the gear to ensure
a moderate speed

1559
Q

In the wind situation illustrated, what is the best approach manoeuvre to the quay
correct?

A

image 1

1560
Q

When navigating within a roadstead, one must take into account:

A

that the wave formed by one’s boat may create a disturbing situation or
danger to other units at anchor.

1561
Q

With regard to an outboard motor, you should know that:

A

adjusting the foot upwards with the ‘TRIM’ causes the bow to be elevated
relative to the surface of the sea.

1562
Q

When the TRIM is all down, the trim is said to be:

A

all in the negative and serves as an initial push to achieve the
glide.

1563
Q

We are on a collision course; as a rule, the unit with the right of
precedence must:

A

Maintain a steady course and speed, making sure the other unit gives way.

1564
Q

How should one present oneself in the manoeuvre for the buoy catch?

A

downwind of the buoy.

1565
Q

The floating anchor:

A

serves to limit the unit’s traversal.

1566
Q

The floating anchor:

A

is suitable for use near the leeward coast.

1567
Q

The use of the floating anchor is advantageous in the case of:

A

depths too great and in the presence of drift.

1568
Q

Generally, the ‘TRIM’ function in an outboard engine causes the unit’s bow to rise by an angle between the sea surface and
the plan:

A

horizontal of the unit itself.

1569
Q

In general, the solcometer (also commonly referred to as the log):

A

gives the speed and path data travelled in a given time.

1570
Q

The electronic sounder is called:

A

fishfinder.

1571
Q

When the speed data provided by the solcometer (also commonly called log)
is not reliable:

A

in the event of a power failure.

1572
Q

The solcometer (also commonly called log) measures speed:

A

own or propulsive, i.e. that produced by the propellers.

1573
Q

A motorised vessel, less than 50 metres in length, which is conducting ordinary night navigation, must show (identify the
correct combination):

A

masthead White, starboard Green, port Red, crowning White.

1574
Q

A fishing vessel intent on trawling, daytime shows:

A

a bicone with the vertices joined.

1575
Q

An air-cushion ship in displacement navigation; at night it shows:

A

the lights prescribed for the mechanically propelled vessel.

1576
Q

The visible sector of the crowning light is large:

A

135 degrees.

1577
Q

What is the width of the arc of the horizon in which the uninterrupted light of a lantern is visible
side of a naval unit in navigation?

A

112°,5.

1578
Q

A pleasure boat, sailing at night within 3 miles from the coast, what
can it use to signal its position in place of the regulation lights?

A

a white light safety torch.

1579
Q

The light beam of the crowning light in night navigation is:

A

135 degrees wide towards the stern, centred on the longitudinal axis.

1580
Q

The side lights have a wide field of vision:

A

112.5 degrees measured from the longitudinal axis of the unit to starboard aft and
left.

1581
Q

We are in daytime navigation aboard our boat when we detect a unit with a cone arranged as in the figure opposite: what does this indicate
signal?

A

a unit that proceeds simultaneously under sail and motor.

1582
Q

A ship at anchor in the daytime must show:

A

a black balloon.

1583
Q

The light of a masthead light is coloured:

A

white.

1584
Q

The second masthead light has a visibility sector of:

A

225 degrees towards the bow, centred on the longitudinal axis.

1585
Q

The unit engaged in fishing, when underway, must leave the course clear:

A

to a ship that does not steer.

1586
Q

In night navigation, pleasure craft have priority over ships that
show special lights under the Regulation to Prevent Collisions at Sea - Colreg?

A

never.

1587
Q

Which pleasure craft instead of the statutory navigation lights may
use a white torch at night?

A

sailing yachts of less than 7 metres in length.

1588
Q

A mechanically propelled unit underway must leave the course clear to a
unit that does not govern?

A

yes, always.

1589
Q

The crowning light of a trailer unit is coloured:

A

white.

1590
Q

Lanterns displayed by a motor vessel of 50 metres or more with
trailer up to 200 metres long:

A

are reported in Colreg.

1591
Q

What lights does a ship of 50 m or more in length display that is
stranded?

A

the additional lights established by the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.

1592
Q

Which lights does the motor vessel of 50 metres or more show with
trailer longer than 200 metres?

A

additional lights on the towing vessel, as laid down in the Regulation for
Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.

1593
Q

Daytime signals of the ship with limited manoeuvrability, intent on dredging or in operations
underwater are:

A

defined by the Regulation to Prevent Collisions at Sea - Colreg.

1594
Q

The bearing does not change and the distance decreases; it means that:

A

there is a risk of collision with the other unit.

1595
Q

The navigation lights must be lit:

A

at dusk and in poor visibility conditions.

1596
Q

A towed ship, when sailing at night, shows:

A

lit, the way and crowning lights.

1597
Q

What signals does a ship of 50 metres or more in length show, conditioned
from its immersion?

A

the lights and signals laid down in the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.

1598
Q

Regulatory navigation lights are prescribed:

A

in any case, if the unit is used for navigation at night, in accordance with the Regulations for
Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.

1599
Q

Are navigation lights prescribed for pleasure craft?

A

yes, for pleasure craft sailing more than 1 mile from the coast.

1600
Q

The range of the side lights of a unit 12 metres or more in length but
less than 50 metres is:

A

2 miles.

1601
Q

A mechanically propelled ship 280 metres long, how many masthead lights
exposes?

A

2

1602
Q

The total angular amplitude given by the sum of the visibility sectors of the ‘beacons
side’ is by:

A

225 degrees towards the bow, centred on the longitudinal axis.

1603
Q

The ship can use the service lights to illuminate the decks when:

A

is at anchor.

1604
Q

An additional cone with the apex upwards is shown in the direction of the gear by the non-trawler vessel that is operating with an external extending gear
more than:

A

150 metres.

1605
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a ship:

A

fishing vessel of a length of 50 metres or more, which is intent on fishing at
train, which heads to the left of the observer.

1606
Q

In addition to the lights prescribed for the mechanically propelled vessel under way, a
air cushion ship must show:

A

1 yellow, flashing light, visible over the entire horizon, if the unit is operating in trim
non-displacement.

1607
Q

At night they light up on board:

A

regulatory headlights.

1608
Q

The following lights are lit on the sides of a vessel underway:

A

green to starboard and red to port.

1609
Q

In night navigation, a motorised pleasure craft with an overall length of 45
metres must be shown:

A

both the white masthead light, the side marker lights and the
crowning.

1610
Q

A motorised unit of 50 metres or more, what should it turn on in
more than one with a length of less than 50 metres?

A

a white light higher than the masthead and aft, visible for
225 degrees.

1611
Q

A vessel sailing at night is obliged to light:

A

side marker lights and crowning light.

1612
Q

The visibility sector of the red and green repeater (or optional) lights showing
on the mast of some sailing units is:

A

is equal to 360 degrees.

1613
Q

The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates a unit:

A

engaged in non-trawl fishing, whose gear extends outboard for more than 150
metres, which it directs towards the observer.

1614
Q

The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates a unit:

A

less than 50 metres long, engaged in trawling, heading towards
the observer.

1615
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a unit:

A

motorboat less than 50 metres long showing starboard.

1616
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a unit:

A

motorised, less than 20 metres long, showing the prow.

1617
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a boat:

A

sail with optional lights, showing the stern.

1618
Q

A pilot ship shows:

A

the lights and signals laid down in the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.

1619
Q

The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates one:

A

sailing ship showing the left.

1620
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate one:

A

non-trawling fishing vessel without a draft.

1621
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate one:

A

non-trawling fishing vessel, with draft, seen from its straight side.

1622
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate:

A

a fishing vessel, intent on non-trawling, with outboard nets for more than
150 metres and heads to the starboard of the observer.

1623
Q

The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates:

A

a sailing unit showing starboard.

1624
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a ship:

A

trawling, showing the left.

1625
Q

The daytime signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:

A

a fishing vessel operating with non-trawl gear extended overboard for more than
150 metres.

1626
Q

The daytime signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:

A

a unit at anchor.

1627
Q

The daytime signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:

A

a sailing unit that also sails with a motor.

1628
Q

When are navigation lights to be kept on?

A

from sunset to sunrise and from sunrise to sunset in case of visibility
reduced, as well as in all other circumstances where it is deemed necessary.

1629
Q

The one shown in the figure:

A

is a unit at anchor with a length of less than 50 metres.

1630
Q

In the figure, which unit is it?

A

a sailing vessel under 20 metres in length, seen from the bow.

1631
Q

In the figure, which unit is it?

A

a sailing vessel under sail, 20 metres or more in length, seen from the bow.

1632
Q

A unit of less than 50 metres in length, trawling, with a draft, such as
daytime signals must show?

A

two cones with their vertices joined in a vertical line on each other.

1633
Q

What lights must a sailing vessel longer than 20 metres display in
navigation?

A

the side and stern lights.

1634
Q

The complete list of lights shown by the ships is indicated:

A

in Colreg.

1635
Q

The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a ship:

A

motor vehicle, 50 metres or more in length, which is heading to the left
of the observer.

1636
Q

Two mechanically propelled units that are sailing, as shown in the figure opposite, on opposite courses with a risk of boarding, how should they
involve?

A

each pulls to starboard.

1637
Q

What is the regulation governing the issue of collisions at sea?

A

the 1972 International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, known as
COLREG ‘72.

1638
Q

Under COLREG ‘72, what does the expression ‘reduced visibility’ mean?

A

any condition in which visibility is reduced by fog, mist, falling snow, violent
downpours, sandstorms or any other similar event.

1639
Q

Any manoeuvre undertaken with the aim of avoiding a collision, if the circumstances of the case
allow it, it must be executed:

A

decisively and with due respect for the observance of good rules of seamanship.

1640
Q

Any change of course and/or speed to avoid a collision, if the
circumstances of the case permit, must:

A

be large enough to be obvious to the other observing vessel
visually or with radar.

1641
Q

Regarding the navigation of vessels within a traffic separation scheme, such as in the Strait of Messina, which of these statements is
correct?

A

the unit of less than 20 metres in length or the sailing unit shall not obstruct the passage of a mechanically propelled vessel following the traffic separation scheme.

1642
Q

When two sailing units approach each other taking the wind from different sides,
so as to run the risk of a collision:

A

the unit that has the wind on its left must leave the course clear for the other.

1643
Q

When two sailing vessels approach each other taking the wind from the
same side, thus running the risk of a collision:

A

the unit that is upwind must leave the course clear for the one that is downwind.

1644
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

a unit that has difficulty manoeuvring must leave the course clear to a vessel that
does not govern.

1645
Q

With regard to the situation of cross-routes, implying a danger of collision, between two mechanically propelled units:

A

the unit that sees the other on its starboard side must leave its course clear and, when the
circumstances permit, it must avoid passing them from the bow.

1646
Q

In case of limited visibility:

A

each unit must proceed at a safe speed relative to the circumstances of the
time and visibility conditions.

1647
Q

With regard to the scope of application of the rules on lights:

A

from sunset to sunrise, the units must not show any light other than
can be confused with the lights prescribed by the COLREG.

1648
Q

With regard to the scope of application of the rules on lights:

A

in case of reduced visibility and in all other circumstances, if deemed necessary,
the lights prescribed by the COLREG must also be displayed from sunrise to sunset.

1649
Q

Which sound signal equipment must a unit of length be equipped with?
less than 12 metres?

A

There is no obligation, under 12 metres the unit must be provided with a means in
capable of producing an effective sound signal.

1650
Q

Regarding the warning signs that a unit must use or display when
needs help or is in danger, which of these statements is correct?

A

can use a continuous sound emitted by any signal equipment from
fog.

1651
Q

Which of the two sailing units is obliged to leave the course clear for the other?

A

unit A, which has the wind on the left, must leave the course clear for unit B.

1652
Q

Taking the wind from the same side, which of the two sailing units is held to leave
free course to the other?

A

unit A, which is upwind, must leave the course clear for unit B, which is downwind.

1653
Q

The ‘reaching ship’ can be recognised at night because:

A

is within the radius of the crowning light of the one preceding it.

1654
Q

A collision course is present, in the case of converging routes, when:

A

the bearing remains constant and the distance decreases.

1655
Q

One unit, reaching another unit:

A

must leave the course clear for the ship reached.

1656
Q

In the presence of fog, what sound signals should a motor vessel emit in
navigation with draft?

A

1 prolonged whistle at intervals of no more than 2 minutes.

1657
Q

A mechanically propelled ship underway signals other units in view,
a starboard pull-up with:

A

1 short sound emitted with a whistle.

1658
Q

A reaching unit emitting 2 long and 2 short beeps is
signalling to the unit reached that it intends to:

A

pass it on the left.

1659
Q

A mechanically propelled ship underway, as signalled by
pull over to the left?

A

with 2 short sounds emitted with the whistle.

1660
Q

The unit engaged in fishing, when underway, must leave the course clear:

A

to a ship with limited manoeuvrability.

1661
Q

Pictured opposite are two motor-powered pleasure craft: which one
of the two has the duty to manoeuvre?

A

Unit A pulls to starboard and passes aft of Unit B.

1662
Q

A dredger intent on dredging is considered to be one:

A

ship with limited manoeuvrability.

1663
Q

The bearing does not change and the distance decreases; it means that:

A

there is a risk of collision with the other unit.

1664
Q

I am in command of a motor boat and give way to another motor boat
which emits two short whistles; so I expect that:

A

such a boat performs a left-hand approach.

1665
Q

Unless otherwise expressly provided for in the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea (Colreg ‘72), in general a motor vehicle towards whom it is obliged to
give precedence? (identify the answer with the correct order of precedence):

A

in order: ship not steering, ship with limited manoeuvrability, ship fishing, ship sailing.

1666
Q

We note that there is a risk of collision with another unit if:

A

in the case of opposite routes, the polar bearing does not change and the distance decreases.

1667
Q

Which, between two sailing units A and B in the figure, whose routes cross, has the right of way considering that unit A displays a black cone with its vertex pointing towards
the bass?

A

the B unit.

1668
Q

Which, between two sailing vessels A and B in the picture, whose routes cross, has the right to
precedence?

A

unit A.

1669
Q

Are navigation lights prescribed for pleasure craft?

A

yes, for pleasure craft sailing more than 1 mile from the coast.

1670
Q

The range of side lights of a unit 12 metres or more in length but
less than 50 metres is:

A

2 miles.

1671
Q

A unit longer than 20 metres, at anchor in fog, to signal the
his presence emits:

A

rapid bell sounds for five seconds at intervals of no more than one
minute.

1672
Q

The fog bell is mandatory for units that are equal in length or
higher than:

A

12 metres.

1673
Q

A ship in navigation intending to overtake another unit on the left emits the
following sound signals:

A

2 long and 2 short sounds.

1674
Q

The abbrivo or abbrivio is:

A

the motion that remains when the engine reverser is disengaged or the sails are foiled.

1675
Q

Two motor units sailing on collision courses (not opposite):

A

the unit coming from the port side pulls to its starboard and then passes astern
to the other unit.

1676
Q

In case of fog, one unit:

A

with engine, stationary and without buoyancy, emits, at intervals not exceeding 2 minutes, 2 sounds
prolonged with an interval between them of about 2 seconds.

1677
Q

The following lights are lit on the sides of a vessel underway:

A

green to starboard and red to port.

1678
Q

In night navigation, a motorised pleasure craft with an overall length of 45
metres must be shown:

A

both the white masthead light, the side marker lights and the
crowning.

1679
Q

A motorised unit of 50 metres or more, what should it turn on in
more than one with a length of less than 50 metres?

A

a white light higher than the masthead and aft, visible for
225 degrees.

1680
Q

A vessel sailing at night is obliged to light:

A

side marker lights and crowning light.

1681
Q

The danger of a collision between two units may exist if:

A

opposite sides are shown.

1682
Q

There is a danger of collision between two units if:

A

through successive surveys, the simultaneity of transit for the
same point.

1683
Q

I am in command of the unit that does not have the right of way and the danger of
collision: what to do?

A

I implement the manoeuvre to give precedence.

1684
Q

Among three motorised recreational craft, the one with the right of precedence has the right of precedence:

A

coming from starboard.

1685
Q

A unit is defined as a ‘ship reached’ when:

A

shows the crowning sector to the reaching ship.

1686
Q

If two motorised recreational craft display, both to each other, side lights and
that of the masthead, takes precedence:

A

none; they must both manoeuvre on their starboard side.

1687
Q

To establish that two units arrive at the ‘collision point’ at the same time, it is sufficient:

A

take two polar surveys at successive times of the other unit. The danger of collision is
effective and real if the angle remains constant and the distance between the two units decreases.

1688
Q

The sound signal ‘2 prolonged sounds followed by 1 short’ indicates:

A

which I intend to overtake to starboard.

1689
Q

The sound signal ‘1 short sound’ indicates:

A

I intend to pull over to starboard.

1690
Q

The intention to overtake is signalled with:

A

2 long sounds (to which I will add 1 short for overtaking to starboard and 2 short for
overtake to the left).

1691
Q

Relating to sound signal equipment:

A

a unit with a length of less than 12 metres must in any case be equipped with any
medium capable of producing an effective sound signal.

1692
Q

In the event of poor visibility, what is the sound signal that sailing yachts
have to issue?

A

1 long sound and 2 short ones at intervals of no more than two minutes.

1693
Q

In the event of poor visibility, who shall make 1 prolonged sound every two minutes
in accordance with the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?

A

motor units sailing with a buoyancy.

1694
Q

In night navigation I see a white light in the direction of my bow:

A

I am joining another unit, so I will have to give it priority.

1695
Q

As long as it is not clear who has the right of way, in the case of intersecting routes such that the red side light of the minor unit B is visible from unit A
dimensions:

A

Polar surveys of unit B are carried out at successive times to assess the need for the manoeuvre to give way.

1696
Q

The Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea stipulate that:

A

in doubtful situations the danger is considered to exist.

1697
Q

The Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea stipulate that:

A

the manoeuvre to give way is decisive, timely and evident.

1698
Q

The ‘reaching ship’ can be recognised at night because:

A

is within the radius of the crowning light of the one preceding it.

1699
Q

Taking the wind from the same side, which one of the two sailing units is required to leave
free course to the other?

A

unit A, which is upwind, must leave the course clear for unit B, which is downwind.

1700
Q

What are the elements that influence the luminous range of headlights?

A

light intensity, weather visibility and eye sensitivity
of the observer.

1701
Q

The nominal range of a lighthouse:

A

corresponds to the luminous flux of a light referred to a homogeneous atmosphere in
where the meteorological visibility is 10 nautical miles.

1702
Q

What are the elements that influence the geographical range of a lighthouse?

A

the curvature of the earth, the height of the light and the elevation of the observer’s eye.

1703
Q

What is the ‘phase’ of a maritime signal?

A

by each successive element that makes up a cycle of a rhythmic light (flash,
eclipse).

1704
Q

What is meant by ‘light buoy’?

A

a floating beacon tied to the seabed.

1705
Q

What, in principle, do the light buoys signal?

A

the limits of navigable channels, dangers pertaining to the safety of navigation and mirrors
waters of special interest.

1706
Q

The description ‘Sc.(3)’ identifies a light signal:

A

sparkling, in groups of 3.

1707
Q

The description ‘Alt. b.r.’ identifies a light signal:

A

alternately showing the colours white and red.

1708
Q

The description ‘Int.(2)’ identifies a light signal:

A

intermittent, in eclipse groups of 2.

1709
Q

How can you define a ‘radar reflector’?

A

a device, which can also be fitted on signals, enabling
passively reflect radar impulses.

1710
Q

What does the following alphanumeric code in the vicinity of the Capo Negro lighthouse on the island of Zannone Fl(3) 10s 37m 12M indicate?

A

which emits a flashing light in groups of 3 flashes in 10 seconds, the light has a height above mean sea level of 37 metres, and is visible at a range of
nominal 12 nautical miles.

1711
Q

With reference to the AISM-IALA signalling system, in which maritime contexts is it
used the signal on the side depicted?

A

is a ‘special signal’ used to indicate particular configurations or situations
of the coast not shown on the nautical chart.

1712
Q

What does the symbol shown alongside indicate on a nautical chart?

A

is a fog signal consisting of a ‘wave-operated buoy with bell’.

1713
Q

With reference to the characteristics of maritime signals on a map
nautical, what does the alphanumeric code on the side of the light buoy shown?

A

that the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the AISM-IALA system, emits twinkling lights in groups of 9 every 15 seconds, and is visible at a nominal range of 5
nautical miles.

1714
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

an isolated distress signal from the AISM-IALA maritime signalling system.

1715
Q

What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown on the nautical chart and
represented in the figure?

A

black colour with red horizontal band(s).

1716
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

a radar transponder with horn that emits a foghorn sound.

1717
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

a luminous spherical buoy.

1718
Q

What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the picture?

A

yellow.

1719
Q

What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?

A

5 yellow flashes every 20 seconds with a nominal range of 3 nautical miles.

1720
Q

What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?

A

spindle light buoy.

1721
Q

What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the picture?

A

yellow.

1722
Q

What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?

A

5 yellow flashes every 20 seconds with a nominal range of 3 nautical miles.