Patente Nautica QUIZ Flashcards
1
Q
What is the maximum length of the vessel, i.e. that measured between the
fore and aft ends?
A
overall length.
2
Q
The hull of a sailing vessel is the immersed part of the keel.
A
FALSE
3
Q
What is meant by the longitudinal axis of a ship?
A
the axis passing through the bow and stern, parallel to the keel.
4
Q
The hull of a sailing vessel is its floating and load-bearing structure.
A
TRUE
5
Q
What function does a ship’s bilge perform?
A
contain dirty water and liquid residues.
6
Q
The presence of the ballasted bulb in a sailing vessel has the function of providing the
itself greater stability to counter external actions (wind).
A
TRUE
7
Q
The walls are:
A
the outer and lateral portion of the hull (dead work) extending between the bow and the
stern.
8
Q
The presence of the ballasted bulb in a sailing vessel has the function of giving it greater penetration at the bow, enabling it to reach higher speeds
high.
A
FALSE
9
Q
What is the deck?
A
the bridge extending longitudinally and transversely, in a continuous manner,
enclosing the hull entirely.
10
Q
The sail is oriented in relation to the flow of the wind.
A
TRUE
11
Q
What is meant by the prow of the unit?
A
the front portion at the end of the unit.
12
Q
By gait is meant the direction in which it proceeds in relation to the direction
of wind origin.
A
TRUE
13
Q
What is meant by the stern of a unit?
A
the rear portion at the end of the hull.
14
Q
The gait is defined as the speed regained by the sailing vessel in relation to the
wind direction
A
FALSE
15
Q
What is meant by a unit’s transom?
A
the outer and upper portion of the stern.
16
Q
When the sailing unit moves into the wind, the apparent wind is equivalent to the
difference between the actual wind and the speed of the vessel itself.
A
TRUE
17
Q
What is a machine room or engine room of a unit?
A
the on-board environment where the main engines and most of the systems are located
auxiliaries.
18
Q
When the sailing unit moves into the wind, the apparent wind, corresponding to the
sum of real wind and unit speed wind
A
FALSE
19
Q
With reference to the figure, which portion of the hull is indicated by the transverse lines?
A
living work.
20
Q
When the sailing unit is moving upwind, the apparent wind corresponds to the sum
between the actual wind and the ship’s speed.
A
TRUE
21
Q
With reference to the drawing shown in the figure, which portion of the hull is
indicated by the cross lines?
A
dead work.
22
Q
When the sailing unit is moving upwind, the apparent wind is equal to the wind of
speed of the ship itself.
A
FALSE
23
Q
When sailing a sailing vessel, the apparent wind is always directed more to
ahead of the actual wind.
A
TRUE
24
Q
What does the form stability torque of a vessel depend on?
A
by the shape of the hull.
25
When sailing a sailing vessel, the apparent wind is always oriented
orthogonally to the true wind.
FALSE
26
The elements that divide the hull in a transverse direction are:
the bulkheads.
27
During sailing, the apparent wind has a greater intensity the more
the more the ship proceeds towards the direction from which the wind is coming.
TRUE
28
The transom is:
the part of the stern above the foredeck.
29
When sailing a sailing ship, the apparent wind has such an intensity
The greater the distance the vessel moves away from the direction the wind is coming from.
FALSE
30
The emerged part of the unit is named:
dead work.
31
An 'upwind' course is when a sailing vessel proceeds with a direction
of course forming an angle of approximately 135° to the true wind direction.
FALSE
32
The submerged part of the unit is called:
living work.
33
A 'traverse' gait is when a sailing unit proceeds with a
course direction forming a 45° angle to the true wind direction.
FALSE
34
The 'cleat' is:
a handhold to anchor and/or vault the mooring line or a shipboard rope
(such as halyards/sheets).
35
A slackening gait is when a sailing unit proceeds with a direction of
course forming an angle of approximately 45° to the true wind direction.
FALSE
36
The bollard is:
low and robust column, generally with a mushroom head, placed on the
docks and on the decks of ships to tie chains or mooring ropes;
37
A stern drive is when a sailing unit proceeds with a direction of
course forming a 90° angle to the true wind direction.
FALSE
38
The locker of a pleasure boat is:
the fore and aft storage compartment.
39
Proceeding upwind, the perceived speed of the sailing unit seems high because
the perceived wind intensity is higher than the actual wind intensity.
TRUE
40
The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:
left jaw.
41
Proceeding upwind, the perceived speed of the sailing unit seems high because
the perceived wind intensity is lower than the actual wind intensity.
FALSE
42
The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:
starboard jaw.
43
Proceeding aft, the speed felt by the sailing unit seems lower because
the perceived wind intensity is lower than the actual wind intensity.
TRUE
44
The draught of a vessel is:
the vertical distance between the waterline and the extreme lower point of the
hull.
45
Proceeding astern, the perceived speed of the sailing vessel seems lower
because the perceived wind intensity is higher than the actual wind intensity.
FALSE
46
The tidy master is that one:
which corresponds to the main section of the unit's hull.
47
The 'tacking sector', or 'dead angle', refers to that upwind sector within which a sailing vessel cannot steer its bow due to lack of lift of the
sails.
TRUE
48
The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:
starboard garden.
49
A "tack sector", or "blind spot", is defined as that sector within which a
sailing units can sail in order to increase speed to reach a certain destination.
FALSE
50
The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:
left garden.
51
A temporary increase in real wind intensity (gust) leads to a
favourable change in apparent wind direction to assume a better upwind angle.
TRUE
52
The scupper is:
a small opening for draining water on deck or in the cockpit
53
A temporary attenuation of the actual wind intensity results in a favourable change in apparent wind direction to assume a better upwind angle.
FALSE
54
The bilge of a unit is the space between:
the bottom inside the hull and the dunnage.
55
The angle of incidence is the angle formed between the wind direction
apparent and that towards which the sail is oriented.
TRUE
56
The line separating the living work from the dead work is called:
waterline.
57
The sail centre is the point of application of the apparent wind force
on the sails and on the dead work.
FALSE
58
What is the interior floor of a pleasure boat called?
dunnage.
59
The centre of drift is the geometric centre of the drift surface placed
under the keel of the sailing unit.
FALSE
60
The battlement is:
a kind of side railing to help the passage between stern and bow.
61
The sail centre and centre of drift influence each other, generating effects that are
identifiable and predictable for each sailing unit.
TRUE
62
Which of the following statements is correct?
the set of draperies and stanchions forms the battlement protecting the
walkway between stern and bow.
63
In centre rudder conditions, when the sail centre is aligned with the centre of
drift, the sailing unit is defined as 'neutral' (neither pontoon nor gilt).
TRUE
64
The hull of a pleasure craft is the:
structure that forms the shell of the unit.
65
In centre rudder conditions, when the sail centre is aligned with the centre of
drift, the sailing unit approaches the direction of the wind (gyre).
FALSE
66
The 'shady' is:
an opening in the stern through which the rudder shaft passes.
67
The position of the sail centre in sailing vessels depends on the area and shape of the sails, the reciprocal influence between the sails tacked and the tuning
of the equipment.
TRUE
68
Pitching is the oscillation of the unit around its axis:
transversal.
69
The term 'glide' refers to the state in which the sailing unit is in dynamic equilibrium on the crest of a wave generated by its own
advancement.
TRUE
70
The structural part of the stern, to which the rudder, if external, hinges, is:
the stern.
71
The 'setting' of the sails is generated by the apparent wind while sailing.
TRUE
72
The vertical structures, which subdivide the hull internally, are:
the bulkheads.
73
The pressure exerted by the wind on the sails depends on the angle of incidence.
TRUE
74
The hull is:
the living work.
75
The pressure exerted by the wind on the sails depends solely on the value of the
heading assumed by the unit.
FALSE
76
A superstructure is that part of the ship that rises above the:
deck in the case of single-deck units.
77
The drift force is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the sailing unit.
TRUE
78
The deckhouse is:
the habitable superstructure raised above a bridge.
79
The propulsion force is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the sail unit.
FALSE
80
The line is:
a rope of small diameter
81
the mast of a sailing unit inclined towards the stern makes it tend to
orziera.
TRUE
82
What is meant by a small garden?
the end portion of the outer part of the hull, located near the stern
(starboard and left), with an angular or rounded profile.
83
The mast of a sailing unit inclined towards the bow makes it tend to
headrest.
TRUE
84
What is the hatch?
the opening in the deck for the passage of persons or things inside.
85
The function of the battens on the mainsail is to preserve the shape
of sailing in all weather conditions.
TRUE
86
What is the function of zincs?
avoid galvanic corrosion.
87
The function of the battens on the mainsail is to ensure optimum indication
of the wind direction on the sail?
FALSE
88
The flying bridge, also known as the fly, is:
the upper deck of a motorised unit, where the second wheelhouse is located.
89
With regard to sailing theory, the multihull has greater stability.
TRUE
90
What is the maximum beam:
the maximum width of the hull.
91
The ballasted bulb of a sailing unit provides more stability to counteract the action
external wind.
TRUE
92
The dunnage of a pleasure boat is:
a removable, walkable deck below deck.
93
The stability of a sailing boat is ensured by the ballasted bulb.
TRUE
94
The vertical distance between the deck and the waterline is:
the freeboard.
95
The sail tends, by its nature, to assume a neutral position of 45° with respect to the
wind flow and receive a push in that direction.
FALSE
96
What is the hull cross-section?
the central cross-section, which normally has a greater width
97
A gait is defined as the direction in which a sailing unit is proceeding in relation to the
wind direction.
FALSE
98
In a pleasure boat, the deckhouse is:
the elevated superstructure on the deck, which does not extend across the entire width
of the unit.
99
Upwind' is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction that
forms an angle of approximately 45° to the true wind direction.
TRUE
100
The candlesticks are:
vertical elements of the rails.
101
A 'slack' is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction that
forms an angle of approximately 135° to the true wind direction.
TRUE
102
The lowest floor of a recreational craft is called:
dunnage.
103
A 'traverse' is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction
which forms an angle of 90° to the true wind direction.
TRUE
104
The hull is called displacement if it is of the type:
round.
105
A 'slack' is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a course direction that
forms an angle of approximately 90° to the true wind direction.
FALSE
106
The waterline:
is the line dividing the hull into opera viva and opera morta.
107
A catamaran:
has two hulls.
108
A 'stern' or 'wheelspin' is the gait in which the sailing unit proceeds with a
course direction forming an angle of 180° to the true wind direction.
TRUE
109
The rudder is compensated when:
part of the blade is forward of the axle.
110
Proceeding upwind, the perceived wind intensity on board is greater than that
real.
TRUE
111
What is the name of the rudder surface on which the water pressure acts?
shovel.
112
Moving aft, the perceived speed of the sailing unit seems high because
the perceived wind intensity is higher than the actual wind intensity.
FALSE
113
The rudder is compensated if:
part of the blade is forward of the axle.
114
The tacking area is the area of the hull of a sailing vessel that contributes to providing sail thrust and thus increasing its speed as a function of
wind direction.
FALSE
115
The arrow towards the unit shown in the adjacent figure indicates the:
traverse.
116
The leeward side is defined as the upwind surface of the sail that is subjected to
a depression.
FALSE
117
The arrows in the figure indicate:
the left broadside.
118
The sail centre is the point of application of the resultant of the forces due to the action
of the wind on the sails.
TRUE
119
The arrows in the figure indicate:
the starboard broadside.
120
The sail centre is the point of application of the hydrodynamic force on the hull due to
to the drift.
FALSE
121
The tubulars are:
the external parts of an inflatable boat, which guarantee part of its reserve
buoyancy.
122
The centre of drift is the centre of the small sail hull.
FALSE
123
RIB (or RHIB) means:
inflatable boats with a rigid keel.
124
The centre of drift is the point of application of the lateral resistance opposing the
hydrodynamic forces exerted on the living work.
TRUE
125
It is called a sourpuss:
the hardware located at the extreme bow, generally consisting of a single block,
which includes the anchor chain loop.
126
The sail centre and centre of drift are used to determine the ship's point under sail.
FALSE
127
The pass-through is:
the threaded part that passes through the thickness of the hull and connects to the sea inlet
in the pipes carrying water to or from the various utilities.
128
In neutral (centre) rudder conditions, when the sail centre is set forward
of the centre of drift, the sailing vessel moves away from the direction of the wind (it is resting).
TRUE
129
The cockpit is:
the external part of a boat where the rigging and the
helm, designed to accommodate guests in safety.
130
In neutral (centre) rudder conditions, when the sail centre is aligned with the
centre of drift, the sailing vessel is defined as balanced (neither headland nor gyre).
TRUE
131
The pulpit is:
fall protection located at the extreme bow and stern, usually in tube
of steel, to which the guardrail is anchored.
132
The position of the sail centre for sailing vessels depends on the shape of the sail,
by the reciprocal influence of the sails being tacked and the fine-tuning of the equipment.
TRUE
133
They say taken overboard:
the valves, placed in connection with the through-hulls, which allow you to close
the entry of water into the boat.
134
The position of the centre of drift of sailing vessels depends on the shape of the sails.
FALSE
135
Based on the nautical performance of the main hull types, it can be stated that:
the deep 'V' hull copes better with very formed swell.
136
Upwind means the side of the unit located below the point of application
of the apparent wind.
FALSE
137
Rolling is the oscillation of the unit around its axis:
longitudinal.
138
Downwind is defined as the side of the unit opposite that on which the
wind.
TRUE
139
The hull is said to be displacement if:
is either round or deep V-shaped.
140
The term 'starboard/left tack' indicates the forward part of the hull on the
which the waves break.
FALSE
141
The hull is called displacement if it is of the type:
does not glide and navigates the water to the right and left.
142
Sail fat is defined as the part of the sail closest to the tension of the
halyard.
FALSE
143
By trim is meant:
the hydraulic piston that acts on the position of the outboard motor, modifying
the angle between the transom and the stem of the engine itself.
144
The sail plan is the organisation of the sails of a unit as designed and is
essentially characterised by the number of masts and the type of sails available.
TRUE
145
The flaps are:
submerged appendages, mounted on the transom, to affect the trim of the
hull.
146
Lift is defined as the total weight of all sailing equipment loaded on
a sailing unit.
FALSE
147
The flaps:
are mounted on the transom, there are always two, one on the starboard end and
the other on the left end.
148
The twisting of the sail depends on the actual wind speed, which increases in
function of the height from which it blows in relation to the sea surface.
TRUE
149
Flaps control is usually:
realised through the monitoring of a display, normally placed on the dashboard,
analogue or digital, indicating their height.
150
Straining' refers to the sudden change of heading towards the direction of origin
wind, caused by a gust or a particularly strong wave.
TRUE
151
Between a fixed-pitch propeller, one with retractable blades and one with steerable blades, the propeller that has
the lowest efficiency in reverse gear is a:
folding shovels.
152
Overhanging' means the sudden deviation of the bow from the direction of the wind
such as to cause a jibe.
TRUE
153
In reverse with a single right-hand propeller:
the stern turns more easily to the left.
154
A 'gust' is a particular type of wind, of significant intensity, which
predominantly from the east or west.
FALSE
155
Motorised pleasure craft with starboard propeller; can be reasonably assumed to be
than the one on the left:
is left-handed.
156
A 'drift' is defined as the lateral movement of the sailing unit due to the wind
exerted on the hull during navigation.
TRUE
157
In reverse with a single left-handed propeller:
the stern turns more easily to starboard.
158
A sailing unit capsizes when capsizing, submerging the mast even up to 180°.
from the initial position.
TRUE
159
On a unit equipped with two engines, the propellers are generally:
left-handed on the left and right-handed on the starboard side.
160
Thinning' the sail is understood to mean varying the sail's load-bearing surface area
by reducing its concavity.
TRUE
161
In motor navigation, where the axis of rotation is located in relation to the centre of the ship
around which the unit approaches?
towards the bow.
162
Tightening the wind' is defined as leading the sailing unit by leaving as much as possible the
sails, moving the bow away from the direction from which the wind is coming.
FALSE
163
A propeller is right-handed if, looking at the stern from the outside, the blades:
turn clockwise in forward gear.
164
Leaning' is defined as leading the unit under sail by leaving the sails as far as possible,
moving the bow away from the direction from which the wind is coming.
TRUE
165
What, apart from the thrust exerted by individual blades, influences the evolutionary effect
of the propeller?
the flow of water pushed against the rudder blade or the hull.
166
The propulsion force is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the sailing vessel.
TRUE
167
The compensated rudder serves to:
reduce the resistance of the blade to rotation and thus the hardness of the bar/wheel.
168
The drift force and the propulsion force originate from the resultant force
generated by the wind on the sail surface.
TRUE
169
A compensated rudder is that rudder:
which has part of the blade forward of the axle.
170
The 'chord' of the sail is the line ideally drawn to join the two ends
of the sail profile.
TRUE
171
How is the difference between the theoretical and actual distance travelled by
a propeller in one complete revolution?
recourse.
172
The concavity of the sail serves the function of decreasing drag
of the unit.
FALSE
173
The evolutionary effect of a right-handed propeller rotating backwards (reverse) rotates:
the stern to port, then the bow to starboard.
174
Shifting the weight of the crew on board while sailing can
serve to counteract the heeling action generated by the wind on the sail surface.
TRUE
175
What is the angle of rotation of the rudder (around its axis) to achieve maximum
government effect?
between 30 degrees and 40 degrees.
176
In order to counteract the leaning tendency of the sail unit, it is useful to shift the weights towards the bow.
TRUE
177
In forward gear, turning the rudder wheel to the left, how does the stern behave
of the unit?
pull over to starboard.
178
To counteract the gyre tendency of the sail unit, it is useful to shift the weights towards
the tree.
FALSE
179
A propeller is defined as left-handed when, looking at the stern from the outside, the blades
turn in the direction:
anti-clockwise in forward gear.
180
It is best to avoid setting a unit too heavily because such a setting
greatly limits the action of the rudder.
TRUE
181
The theoretical distance a propeller would travel in one complete revolution if the water were
solid is called:
theoretical step.
182
A unit under sail with an upwind gait, if excessively heeled
downwind, it suffers an increase in speed and a better performance of the sails tacked.
FALSE
183
A propeller with a long pitch and small diameter, compared to one, which, on the contrary, has pitch
small and larger diameter:
produces greater speed.
184
It is better to prefer a slightly northeastern setting of a sailboat because such a
setting favours performance and safety on board.
TRUE
185
In general, in addition to pulling over, the use of the paddle rudder produces the following effects:
speed reduction, lateral displacement on the opposite side of the blade, slight
procurement.
186
The inclination towards the bow of the mast of a sailing vessel makes the same
tends to lean.
TRUE
187
The evolution curve:
is the trajectory described by the unit pulling to starboard or left.
188
The inclination towards the stern of the mast of a sailing unit makes the same
tends to lean.
FALSE
189
Regarding tiller steering, we have that:
if in reverse motion, with tiller to starboard the stern pulls to the left.
190
Leaving the halyard and mainsail base increases sail concave (fat) and makes them
assume a configuration suitable for wheelspin.
TRUE
191
To make a correct stern mooring at the quay:
with a left-handed propeller, it backs up perpendicularly to the quay presenting the
starboard side of the quay.
192
The angle of incidence is that formed between the apparent wind direction and the
towards which the sail is oriented, in practice the angle at which the profile slices through the air.
TRUE
193
I perform a sideways (English) mooring with a right-handed propeller:
with the quay to the left, you back up with the left jaw to the
dock, approaching the stern and stopping the buoyancy.
194
The mainsail's thrust is mainly gaff, that of the genoa or jib
tended to rest.
TRUE
195
The evolutionary effect of the propeller is greater with a unit:
without buoyancy and with the gear engaged.
196
As the wind grows, the cunningham (or mainsail halyard), the tesabase, the halyard
genoa.
TRUE
197
Cavitation occurs when the propeller:
over the rev limit and you no longer have the propulsive thrust.
198
As the wind increases, it is useful to move the genoa carriage towards the bow.
FALSE
199
With left-handed propeller, if I manoeuvre in reverse:
with the rudder in the middle, the stern pulls to starboard.
200
In fractional rigging, flying rigging serves to support the mast,
counterbalancing the strain transmitted from the sails to the forestay.
TRUE
201
If a bi-propeller pleasure craft has a left-handed propeller, it can
reasonably assume that the starboard one:
is right-handed.
202
In fractional rigs with spreaders quartered towards the stern and backstay, the
Flying rigging can give support to the mast but is not structural.
TRUE
203
The rudder is compensated when:
part of the blade is forward of the axle.
204
A split-rigged unit is one in which the forestay is not
'hooded' in the masthead.
TRUE
205
With a right-hand propeller, I manoeuvre in reverse:
With the rudder on the starboard side, I limit the stern turn to the left.
206
A split-rigged unit is one whose hull is divided into
at least three compartments.
FALSE
207
Manoeuvring a pleasure craft with two shaft lines (starboard and
left-hand side); we have that:
with only the starboard engine in reverse (port engine stopped), the bow
pull over to starboard.
208
T h e spreaders ensure adequate strength and retention of the sheets on the
blanket.
FALSE
209
A right-handed propeller:
In reverse, the propeller tends to pull the stern to the left.
210
The spreaders are used to tension the shrouds that support the mast laterally.
TRUE
211
On the manoeuvring and operation of tiller steering, without considering the effect
of the propeller, in forward motion we have that:
with tiller to port, the bow goes to starboard.
212
The adjustment of the shrouds is carried out through the use of the sheet trolley.
FALSE
213
Turning the wheel to the left in forward motion; it happens that the:
prow goes to the left.
214
The foresail furler is a special cleat where the leeward sheet of the
jib.
FALSE
215
A left-handed propeller:
Looking at the stern from the outside, in forward motion it turns anticlockwise.
216
The leech is the shortest side of the mainsail, which goes inside the channel
of the boom.
FALSE
217
With an outboard motor:
in forward gear, turning the foot to starboard, the stern pulls to the left.
218
The mainsail luff is the cable sewn into the luff side to be introduced
inside the shaft channel.
TRUE
219
A right-handed propeller:
in reverse, the propeller rotates anti-clockwise.
220
The 'base' of the mainsail means the free side of the sail where the pockets are located
to be able to introduce the slats.
FALSE
221
The rudder having the entire blade abaft the core is called:
ordinary.
222
The mainsail sheet angle is defined as that between the base and the leech,
where the tesabase is docked.
TRUE
223
Installing a compensated rudder results in:
less effort is required to turn the wheel.
224
The mainsail 'feathering angle' is defined as the angle between the base and the luff.
where the boom trough is hooked.
FALSE
225
How should one manoeuvre in the event of a rudder failure on a boat of
small size?
dipping an oar on the left side to tack to the left.
226
The 'tack angle' of the mainsail is defined as the angle between the leech and the
luff, placed at the upper end of the sail, where the halyard is attached.
FALSE
227
With inboard engine and left-handed propeller, in forward gear and with the rudder in the middle:
the stern tends to evolve towards the left.
228
The jib allows the sailing unit to sail exclusively with angles between
40° and 70° with respect to the direction from which the wind blows.
FALSE
229
With inboard engine and left-handed propeller, in reverse and with the rudder in the middle,
it happens that:
the stern tends to evolve towards starboard.
230
The mainsail is the main sail of a sailing unit, located abaft
of the tree, and triangular in shape.
TRUE
231
The evolutionary effect of the propeller on an inboard engine is compensated:
with the helm.
232
The genoa or genoa represents a particular type of headsail having a
reduced surface area used in the event of adverse marine weather conditions.
FALSE
233
What is meant by coupled rudders of a unit?
two equal and symmetrical rudders used on some bi-elica naval units acting in
synchrony.
234
The genoa or genoa is the headsail having a surface that does not overlap with
that of the mainsail.
FALSE
235
In a bi-propeller unit (with two propeller shafts), why isthe starboard propeller
right-handed and the left-hand propeller is left-handed?
To compensate for the side effect of the blades.
236
The genoa (or genoa) extends beyond the mast towards the stern to a length generally
equal to 50% of the distance between the mast and the tack point .
TRUE
237
In general, what effect does a right-hand propeller in forward gear have on a unit
single-pole ship with the rudder in the middle?
the bow will move to the left and the stern to starboard.
238
The jib is the foresail having a surface that does not overlap with that of the
mainsail.
TRUE
239
In general, what effect does a left-handed forward propeller have on a unit
single-pole ship with the rudder in the middle?
the bow will move to starboard and the stern to port.
240
The spinnaker is the main sail, used in particular in the gaits
upwind in order to give more power and sail area.
FALSE
241
What is meant by the trim of a naval unit?
the equilibrium position assumed in the longitudinal plane (bow - stern).
242
The gennaker is an asymmetrical sail suitable for sailing between the transverse and the
slack (60°- 120° from the wind).
TRUE
243
What is meant by the rolling of a ship?
rotation along the longitudinal axis of the unit, which determines the inclination of the
same to starboard and left.
244
The Code 0 is an asymmetrical sail suitable for low-wind sailing between the
upwind and the traverse.
TRUE
245
What is meant by the pitching of a unit?
the rotation that occurs along the transverse axis, resulting in the immersion of the
bow and the simultaneous raising of the stern and vice versa.
246
Code 0 is an inferred sail.
FALSE
247
What is meant by pulling over a unit?
the rotation of the unit along the vertical axis, resulting in the simultaneous deviation
of the bow on one side and the stern on the opposite side.
248
The sloop is a rig characterised by the presence of a single mast and the possibility of
hoist only one headsail at a time.
TRUE
249
The weight of the ship corresponds to:
displacement.
250
The cutter is the rig characterised by the presence of a single mast, armed with two jibs
at the same time.
TRUE
251
Normally the diesel engine is switched off:
preventing fuel from flowing to the injection pump.
252
The ketch is that rig characterised by the presence of the mizzenmast forward
of the rudder shaft.
TRUE
253
Before starting a petrol-powered inboard engine, what is the first thing to do?
accomplish?
ventilate the engine compartment.
254
Fixed rigging includes halyards and sheets.
FALSE
255
The main problem, in terms of safety, of a petrol engine is:
the accumulation of petrol vapours in the engine compartment.
256
Current rigging includes stays and shrouds.
FALSE
257
What can cause damage to the cooling circuit impeller of
an outboard motor?
operation of the outboard when its water intake is outside the
water level.
258
The sheet hoist fulfils the function of demultiplying the effort.
TRUE
259
A forced ventilation system in the compartment housing the inboard diesel engine of
a recreational unit:
is not compulsory, but it is recommended.
260
The one shown is a hoist with a 6:1 ratio
FALSE
261
What are the phases of a four-stroke internal combustion engine?
intake, compression, exhaust.
262
The one shown is a double hoist with the most favourable ratio, the
so-called 'up' of 8:1.
TRUE
263
I need to reverse the rotation of the propeller: I need to reverse the rotation of the engine?
no; reversing the rotation of the propeller is achieved by operating the appropriate lever of the
reducer/inverter system.
264
The cunningham performs the function of tensioning the lower bow part of the
mainsail, by means of a vertical hoist.
TRUE
265
Generally speaking, the most common cause for an inboard engine to fail is
overheating occurs when:
the sea inlet of the water pump has occluded.
266
The spanker is the yardarm on which the base of the mainsail is fixed.
FALSE
267
An 'inboard' engine is an engine:
inboard with the transmission components combined in an outboard foot attached to the
stern.
268
A winch is a special mechanism consisting of two blocks used to
multiply the tractive effort exerted on the lines.
FALSE
269
The term 'purge' refers to the fuel system of a diesel engine,
of course:
remove all air from the fuel supply circuit before
restart the engine.
270
The sheets must always be wound around the winch drum in a clockwise direction,
taking special care to avoid overlapping 'parcels'.
TRUE
271
Excluding propeller problems, if a diesel engine 'loses steam and drops in rpm' and there is
sufficient fuel; what happened?
dirty fuel is present in the tank.
272
On-board hardware consists of the set of elements such as cleats, winches,
arriders and cockers.
TRUE
273
The propulsion system of a motor boat is given:
from the engine and propeller.
274
Polypropylene is only used for floating lines used for rescue.
TRUE
275
The heat exchanger in an inboard marine engine:
serves to cool the fluid in the closed circuit by means of seawater.
276
The shackles assume the function of reducing or tensile stress on the cables.
FALSE
277
What is the name given to that organ of the marine engine that allows you to alternate the phases of
forward - neutral - reverse motion?
inverter.
278
The mainsail carriage (or mainsail traveller) is the device on which the
mainsail sheets.
FALSE
279
In the electrical system of a marine diesel engine:
the battery is an essential element for starting.
280
The cleat is the device with which the dragnets are fixed.
FALSE
281
In a 4-stroke engine, how many revolutions does the crankshaft describe for one cycle
complete?
two laps.
282
The mainsail is the cleat or plate placed on the deck used to fasten the shrouds and
the stays.
TRUE
283
Regarding the duty cycle of a 4-stroke engine:
consists of 4 piston strokes and 2 crankshaft revolutions.
284
The eyebolt is the carriage of the boom where the mainsail engages.
FALSE
285
In the electrical system of a marine engine:
ignition system only exists in internal combustion engines.
286
The tangon is the attachment ring of the shroud.
FALSE
287
If a petrol engine runs but does not start, the cause could be:
the carburettor is flooded.
288
The trough is the joint that joins the boom to the mast.
TRUE
289
If the engine hits the head, direct causes may be:
the injectors are out of calibration.
290
Tensile strength is an important quality in the fibres of the
a sail, determining its transverse stability.
TRUE
291
If by turning the ignition key the diesel engine runs but does not start, the direct causes
can be:
there is air in the fuel circuit.
292
Dacron is not a commonly used material for making sails.
cruise.
FALSE
293
The unit's motor is running when it stops suddenly; direct causes
can be:
the propeller shaft got stuck with the invertor engaged.
294
Very prolonged exposure of sails to sunlight causes them to decay
of its mechanical strength characteristics.
TRUE
295
The engine, if in neutral, stays running and, if in gear, stops. Why?
the propeller got stuck.
296
The standard set of sails on a catamaran consists of mainsail, jib and gennaker.
TRUE
297
The inboard engine does not start and the lights on the panel go out at the
time of start-up: the cause could be:
the batteries are completely discharged.
298
The basic set of sails on a sloop-rigged hull consists of mainsail and genoa (or genoa).
TRUE
299
The axis line is:
a set of mechanical parts that transmits movement to the propeller.
300
The garrocci are the specific carabiners that allow the forward side of the
genoa and jib to the forestay.
TRUE
301
The diesel engine shuts down immediately after ignition; the cause may be:
presence of air in the injection pump.
302
The backstay's function is to adjust the vang.
FALSE
303
What can be the most probable cause that an inboard engine
emits blue smoke from the exhaust?
lubricating oil has entered the combustion chamber.
304
Cocking the backstay results in significant slimming of the central part of the
mainsail.
TRUE
305
What can be the most probable cause that an inboard engine
emits black smoke from the exhaust?
dirty fuel, dirty air filter or fuel filter, dirty carburettor or
damaged.
306
The lover's knot is one that tends to unravel easily.
FALSE
307
What is the function of the injector in a diesel engine?
spraying the diesel to make it burn quickly.
308
The gassa d'amante is used to shorten a line.
FALSE
309
What is the additional percentage of fuel that it is advisable to keep on board
to ensure safe navigation?
30%.
310
The flat knot should be used to join two cables with different diameters.
FALSE
311
The function of a savoia knot is to prevent the end of a cable from slipping out of a
grommet.
TRUE
312
How much fuel must I have on board, including the 30% safety increase, to travel 10
miles at a speed of 5 knots, knowing that the hourly consumption is 50 litres/hour?
at least 130 litres.
313
The spoken knot is useful for securing wings to the dredges.
TRUE
314
A 2-stroke outboard petrol engine consumes 300 g per horsepower per hour of running time. Assuming a specific weight of 0.75 kg per litre, what is the average fuel consumption of the above-mentioned 2-stroke outboard petrol engine of 80
Hp?
32 litres per hour.
315
The daisy knot is used to shorten a line.
TRUE
316
Regarding the navigational autonomy of a pleasure boat, it is possible to state that:
if the hourly consumption is not known, the hourly range can be calculated by knowing the
HP power output and the specific weight of the fuel used.
317
A lazy jack is a special halyard used to hoist sails in conditions of
emergency.
FALSE
318
Regarding fuel consumption and cruising range, it can be said that:
with rough seas, the range in miles decreases at the same speed.
319
A lazy jack refers to the line system that helps pick up the mainsail during
lowered.
TRUE
320
Which calculation of the amount of fuel plus reserve (S = space, V = speed, C =
consumption l/h, RIS = reserve, Q = fuel quantity in litres) is correct?
S = 15 Miles C = 15 litres/h V = 15 Knots Q = 19.5 litres
321
The feeder is the device used in order to facilitate the introduction of the inferitura of the
jib or genoa inside the forestay channel.
TRUE
322
As a calculation of the fuel quantity including the 30% increase in safety (S
= space, V = speed, C = consumption l/h, RIS = reserve, Q = fuel quantity in litres) is correct?
S = 10 Miles C = 10 litres/h V = 10 Knots Q = 13.0 litres.
323
The tesabase is the device designed to keep the base of the jib taut.
FALSE
324
The consumption figure of an engine:
corresponds to the hourly litre consumption at maximum engine power of the unit from
boating.
325
The manoeuvres required to use the spinnaker are sheet, spring, vang, borosa and
meolo del tangone.
FALSE
326
Fuel consumption is calculated:
multiplying the hourly consumption by the duration of the navigation actually carried out
(consumption x time).
327
An arm is defined as the cable used to manoeuvre and thus adjust the tack of the
spinnaker.
TRUE
328
Calculated theoretical consumption for a certain navigation, according to a good rule of thumb
marinara is added at least 30% because of:
any disturbing elements of the motion (wind and/or current).
329
The matafion is a respect jib used in adverse marine weather conditions.
FALSE
330
With 30 litres of fuel and an hourly consumption of 20 litres, the sailing range,
considering the 30% increase in security, it will be:
total of 90 minutes, but considering the 30% increase, they become
approximately 69 minutes.
331
Splicing refers to the interlacing of the strands of the ends of textile or
steel, in order to join them together or to make a fixed ring to which hardware or rigging can be attached.
TRUE
332
Determine, to t h e nearest approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to safely complete 150 nautical miles, knowing its hourly consumption (40 l/h) and speed
cruising speed (25 knots).
312 litres.
333
Borosa refers to the upper end of the hollow forestay connecting it
to the tree.
FALSE
334
Determine, w i t h due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to safely complete 180 nautical miles, knowing its hourly consumption (31 l/h) and speed
cruising speed (30 knots).
242 litres.
335
Shrouds, are cables generally made of steel (but also of textile fibres particularly
tenacious), which support the tree.
TRUE
336
To correctly calculate the amount of fuel to be taken on my unit
I must multiply:
hourly consumption for sailing hours and add 30%.
337
The turnbuckle is a device used to join two lines of different material.
FALSE
338
1 Kw is equivalent to:
1.36 hp
339
The vang is an adjustable boom restraint system that performs two main functions: it regulates the longitudinal deflection of the mast and influences the bearing surface
of sailing.
TRUE
340
What are the main parts of which the propeller is composed?
hub and blades.
341
Fixed rigging such as shrouds and stays can be run inside the mast.
FALSE
342
What feature does diesel fuel offer over petrol?
higher flash point.
343
The mainsail furler is a piece of equipment that allows the mainsail to be stowed in a locker once
ended navigation.
FALSE
344
What are the phases of a four-stroke internal combustion engine?
intake, compression, exhaust.
345
Mast adjustment is carried out with the unit at the mooring by acting on each
single current manoeuvre in strict adherence to the manufacturer's instructions.
FALSE
346
What materials can outboard motor propellers be made of?
aluminium, stainless steel, composite.
347
Current manoeuvres are those used to manoeuvre the sails, such as the sheets,
halyards, wangs, base brim, etc.
TRUE
348
What is the main characteristic of a good lubricant for a diesel engine?
viscosity or density.
349
A self-tailing winch is an electronic winch controlled from the wheelhouse for which
use of the handle is not necessary.
FALSE
350
What intervention should be carried out after a long voyage of an engine
inboard?
let the engine cool down, check the oil level and, if necessary, carry out the
topping up.
351
Shrouds and shrouds are fixed rigging.
TRUE
352
Which part of the outboard motor in the picture do the arrows indicate?
the cooling water intakes.
353
Turning the handle clockwise gives the winch better traction and power.
TRUE
354
Which part of the outboard motor in the picture shows the arrows?
the 'warning light', a water leakage which testifies to the correct functioning of the
cooling.
355
The reason why the mainsail shackle is of the locking pin type is because of
allow the sail to be unhooked, preventing it from falling into the sea.
TRUE
356
Which part of the outboard motor in the picture shows the arrows?
propeller.
357
The stocking is a kind of canvas tube with which the spinnaker or gennaker is picked up
before lowering it.
TRUE
358
Which part of the inboard transmission is indicated by the arrow?
aft group.
359
With the self-tacking jib, it is necessary to caulk the sheet when tacking.
FALSE
360
Which part of the hull is indicated by the arrow?
engine compartment bulkhead.
361
With the self-tacking jib, the sheet is generally returned to a sheave on the mast.
TRUE
362
Which part of the transmission components of an inboard engine is indicated by the
arrow?
box.
363
With the furling genoa reduced by more than 30% of the surface area, there is a significant reduction
of profile efficiency.
TRUE
364
Which part of the transmission components of an inboard engine is indicated by the
arrow?
propeller shaft.
365
The foresail furler and the modern system for reducing the headsail without
lower it.
TRUE
366
Which part of the transmission components of an inboard engine is indicated by the
arrow?
inverter/reducer.
367
The stopper is the manoeuvre by which the boom is fixed in its rest position.
FALSE
368
What is the operating principle of a waterjet engine?
propulsion is achieved by a jet of water delivered at high speed from the stern of the vessel, through a pump driven by a conventional engine.
369
The stopper is the locking system that allows a halyard to be throttled.
TRUE
370
What are the main parts of a waterjet propulsion system?
intake duct, propeller, penstock and steering mechanism.
371
Foiling' is defined as the manoeuvre to steer the vessel with its bow to the wind
or to let go of the sheets so that the sails are not load-bearing
TRUE
372
The water-jet propulsion system results:
Difficult to manoeuvre at minimum rpm and in windy conditions.
373
Foiling' refers to the manoeuvre aimed at bringing the vessel's stern to the
wind.
FALSE
374
With regard to a diesel engine, which statement is correct?
needs as many injectors as cylinders.
375
With tiller steering it is necessary to place the tiller of the rudder to windward
i.e. on the opposite side of the mainsail.
TRUE
376
What are the basic organs that make up the power system of a
diesel engine?
fuel pump, injection pump, injectors.
377
With tiller steering, the rudder tiller must be placed downwind to rest
i.e. on the same side as the mainsail.
FALSE
378
What is required to ensure starting in indirect injection diesel engines?
glow plug.
379
When two sailing vessels are sailing upwind with converging courses, the one with the
port tack will lay off to leave a clear course for the one with the starboard tack, passing them by the stern.
TRUE
380
How does the electric start-up of an outboard motor take place?
through the action of a starter motor connected to the electrical system.
381
When two sailing vessels sail upwind with converging courses, the more
slow will leave the course clear for the faster one, passing them by the stern.
FALSE
382
Which of the following can be a cause of an outboard motor overheating?
obstruction of the cooling water flow due, for example, to the possible presence of algae or plastic fragments at the intake
suction of the water circuit.
383
When two sailing vessels sail upwind both with the same tack, the one
upwind will heave to leave the course clear for the downwind one.
TRUE
384
Which of these checks is correct in the case of an outboard motor
present start-up difficulties?
check that the gear lever is in the neutral position.
385
After stringing the mainsail halyard, the base of the mainsail can be caulked, a little or a lot, depending on whether you want to take wide or
upwind.
TRUE
386
Concerning the phenomenon of cavitation in relation to an outboard motor, which statement
is that correct?
can occur when the length of the foot is not compatible with the height of the transom, of the vessel on which it is installed.
387
Downing is the manoeuvre by which the sailing unit changes tack by crossing
with the stern the direction from which the wind comes.
TRUE
388
Which of the following can cause amotor to fail to start
petrol?
lack of fuel flow, dirty or flooded carburettor, deterioration of the
candles.
389
Turning is the manoeuvre to avoid an obstacle.
FALSE
390
What can be the causes of black exhaust smoke emission
of a petrol engine?
poor combustion and faulty carburation.
391
The tacking manoeuvre is the manoeuvre used to reach a destination by sailing with the wind in the thread of
wheel.
FALSE
392
What can be the reasons why a diesel engine runs but does not start?
presence of air in the fuel circuit, clogged fuel filter,
393
The downswing is performed when the boat is at maximum speed and sailing at the
traverse or upwind.
FALSE
394
What can be the reasons why a diesel engine is difficult to start?
presence of water in the fuel, clogged exhaust pipe,
395
To rig the mainsail: connect the mainsail to the tack angle, tension the base and close it
the sheet stopper.
FALSE
396
What can be the causes for which a diesel engine produces exhaust fumes of
colour black or grey?
injection pump malfunction, air filter clogging.
397
The tack point is positioned on the boom's boom area.
FALSE
398
What can be the causes for which a diesel engine produces exhaust fumes of
colour blue or white?
clogging of the oil filter, malfunction of the turbocharger.
399
We rig the mainsail by hauling in the meolo, inserting the plank inside the
pocket on the highest part of the shaft.
FALSE
400
What can be the causes of an engine misfire
diesel?
presence of air in the fuel circuit, deformation or rupture of one or more pipes
of the injector.
401
After letting go of the mainsail halyard, the base of the mainsail can be left, little or
a lot, depending on whether you want to go upwind or downwind.
FALSE
402
What can be the reasons why a diesel engine does not run smoothly?
clogging of the fuel filter, deformation or rupture of one or more pipes that
bring fuel to the injectors.
403
Genoa (or genoa) and jib arm themselves in the same way because they have, in general, the same tack point as well as being inferred from the same forestay.
TRUE
404
What can be the causes of excessive vibration of a motor
diesel?
breakage or loosening of the motor mounting brackets.
405
The first operation required to hoist the jib or genoa equipped with
garocci is to fix the clevis eye into the attachment located at the base of the forestay.
FALSE
406
What could be the cause of the formation of water in the tank
fuel?
topping up the tank with poor quality fuel.
407
The garters with which the jib is equipped should be hooked to the forestay starting from the point of
pen and continuing towards the point of the sheet.
FALSE
408
What steps can be taken to avoid contamination of the
fuel?
install an appropriate filter separator.
409
The device usually used to attach the halyard to the pen is a
snap hook spliced to the halyard itself.
TRUE
410
What damage can a prolonged overheating of an outboard motor cause?
engine seizure, damage to the cylinder head and its gaskets.
411
The knot usually used to fasten the two sheets to the jib cleat, one per
side, it is double speech.
FALSE
412
What consequence could clogging the water intake of an engine cause
outboard?
overheating of the engine and subsequent engine shutdown.
413
The boat is driven with the bow to the wind in order to allow the jib to not
swell while being hoisted.
TRUE
414
What consequence could the presence of algae or floating debris cause
on the propeller of an outboard motor?
excessive vibration of the engine.
415
The hollow forestay offers the advantage of lowering the sail centre of the jib.
FALSE
416
What causes or factors can affect the ship's autonomy?
the weather and sea conditions and the overall displacement of the vessel.
417
The double channel of a hollow forestay serves to facilitate the replacement of a sail of
bow.
TRUE
418
By what factors can the autonomy of a vessel be influenced?
cruising speed maintained.
419
Hoisting the tormentor is the manoeuvre that can be adopted in order to reduce speed
upwind
FALSE
420
Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 4-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (24
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.
125 litres.
421
The manoeuvre that can be adopted in order to reduce speed in load-bearing gaits
is to spin the mainsail.
FALSE
422
Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 5-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (32
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.
208 litres.
423
The manoeuvre known as 'creaming' is used to increase speed.
FALSE
424
Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 6-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (18
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.
140 litres.
425
The manoeuvre known as 'creaming' consists of placing the headsail at the neck
leaving the mainsail tacked for the wide windward leg as well as putting the rudder to the windward.
TRUE
426
Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to safely navigate in a 7-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (27 litres/h)
of the engine installed on board.
246 litres.
427
The manoeuvre known as 'putting on the hood' consists of a particular technique that
allows sailing at reduced speed using the floating anchor spun aft.
FALSE
428
Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 9-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (19 litres/h)
of the engine installed on board.
222 litres.
429
The 'reefing hand or hold' refers to the manoeuvre to lower the tangon and
spinnaker, changing from a flush to a traverse.
FALSE
430
Determine, with due approximation, the amount of fuel (including 30% reserve) required for a recreational vessel to navigate safely in a 3-hour period, knowing the hourly consumption (47
litres/h) of the engine installed on board.
183 litres.
431
The 'reefing grip' consists of completely lowering the mainsail and hoisting the
in its place the mainsail called matafion.
FALSE
432
Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (90 nautical miles), the cruising speed (30 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (28 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a unit.
25 litres.
433
By 'trimming' sails, we mean furling them correctly after use in
navigation for their subsequent ready use.
FALSE
434
Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (84 nautical miles), the cruising speed (21 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (18 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a unit.
22 litres.
435
The advantage of gliding is the increased displacement of the unit.
FALSE
436
Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (100 nautical miles), the cruising speed (40 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (60 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.
45 litres.
437
When the boat is positioned with the bow to the wind, the sails become tapered, arranging themselves transversally to the longitudinal axis of the unit and pointing in the direction of
source of the apparent wind.
FALSE
438
Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (54 nautical miles), the cruising speed (18 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (30 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.
27 litres.
439
The manoeuvre known as 'strallare' consists of turning the tangon towards the
bow of the vessel by leading its free end close to the forestay.
TRUE
440
Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (150 nautical miles), the cruising speed (30 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (16 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.
24 litres.
441
The manoeuvre known as 'squaring' consists of turning the tangon towards the
bow of the vessel by leading its free end close to the forestay.
FALSE
442
Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (48 nautical miles), the cruising speed (12 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (26 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.
31 litres.
443
Leaning means varying the prow of the unit by moving it away from the bow
with respect to the direction of origin of the wind.
TRUE
444
Knowing the data on the length of the route to be covered (68 nautical miles), the cruising speed (12 knots) and the corresponding hourly consumption (12 l/h), determine the amount of fuel relative to the reserve to be taken on board at
on board a naval unit.
20 litres.
445
Heading is defined as changing the course of the vessel by assuming a new value of
course opposite to that of the wind's direction of origin.
FALSE
446
IPS (Inboard Performance System) means:
a type of transmission with a fully immersed foot, characterised by
trailing and bow-facing propellers.
447
Foiling is defined as the manoeuvre aimed at driving the vessel with the stern to the wind.
FALSE
448
Pod-type transmissions consist of:
by a transmitting body contained in a fully immersed foot, which
by rotating it orients the bow of the boat.
449
The tack and the downswing are the fundamental manoeuvres for changing tack.
TRUE
450
The one in the image opposite is:
an IPS transmission.
451
The tacking is the manoeuvre by which the sailing unit prepares to haul off the
spinnaker.
FALSE
452
By 'S drive' is meant:
the foot inside of which are two conical gears that transmit motion
from the engine to the propeller, used on sailing boats instead of the shaft line.
453
To rest, the bar must be placed in the centre
FALSE
454
For safety purposes, an important element in the maintenance of the 'S drive' is:
the regular replacement of the foot seal in accordance with
manufacturer's deadline, moulded into the rubber.
455
When two sailing vessels sail upwind with converging courses, the slower one
will leave the course clear for the faster one, passing it by the stern.
FALSE
456
The diesel fuel currently on the market:
promotes the formation of algae in the reservoir, which can obstruct the feeding of the
engine.
457
If two sailing units both sail with the same tack, the one that is
located downwind.
TRUE
458
To ensure the perfect functioning of a diesel engine:
it is advisable to clean the tank frequently and replace the filters of the
fuel to combat algae formation
459
If two sailing vessels sail upwind with converging courses, the one with a port tack
takes precedence.
FALSE
460
For which fire classes (A, B, C, D) is the powder extinguisher suitable?
all classes.
461
If two units sail with different sails (one on the port side and the other on the starboard side), has the
precedence for those who take the wind to the left.
FALSE
462
For what type of fire is the foam extinguisher suitable?
fires from solids and fires from liquids.
463
If two units sail with different sails (one on the port side and the other on the starboard side), has the
precedence for those who take the wind on their starboard side.
TRUE
464
The carbon dioxide extinguisher must be used:
inside closed rooms as it extinguishes fire by suffocation.
465
If two units sail on opposite courses, the one with the wind on the left must
leaving the other's course clear.
TRUE
466
Which fire extinguishers must be EC type-approved?
all.
467
If a unit with the wind on its port side sees another unit sailing upwind and cannot
establish with certainty whether it has the wind on its port or starboard side, it must manoeuvre so as to leave the course clear .
TRUE
468
With regard to fire prevention, which of these statements is correct?
certain substances, such as oil-soaked rags left in the engine compartment or in poorly ventilated lockers, can slowly heat up, leading to a
spontaneous combustion.
469
When sailing close-hauled, you can temporarily reduce speed by stinging the
wind beyond the tack angle.
TRUE
470
What fire-fighting equipment is most appropriate for extinguishing fires
generated by equipment or switchboards?
carbon dioxide powder extinguisher.
471
Leaning from close hauled to wide hauled, the boat accelerates.
TRUE
472
Which of these statements is correct?
the jet of the foam extinguishers must be directed at the base of the flames and must not
be used to extinguish fires involving live electrical equipment.
473
To reduce heeling, the sails are trimmed, the cunnincham and the
mainsail halyard, genoa halyard and genoa (or genoa) sheet point are retracted.
TRUE
474
Using water to extinguish metal fires:
is a dangerous use.
475
To increase power in a weak wind, the sails are trimmed, chasing the
cunnincham and the mainsail l u f f , the genoa halyard and the genoa (or genoa) sheet point are retracted.
FALSE
476
What causes a Class B fire?
from flammable liquids.
477
The 'setting' of the sails is achieved when the sails are completely set at
shore.
FALSE
478
Air is introduced into a room attacked by fire:
you feed the fire.
479
To reduce heeling under gusts, the mainsail traveller (trasto) is moved
downwind or, in the absence of a trolley, leave the sheet on.
TRUE
480
The initials 13B on fire extinguishers indicate:
fire class and extinguishing capacity.
481
For a quick lean to avoid an obstacle, I only have to leave the
jib.
FALSE
482
Powder extinguishers are used for:
extinguishing fires involving liquid or gaseous substances as well as equipment fires
live electricity.
483
Boom restraint is that manoeuvre that can be used to avoid gybing
in the gaits of granlasco and giardinetto.
TRUE
484
The CO2 extinguisher can be used for fires of:
flammable liquids and live electrical equipment.
485
If the wind increases, reducing the mainsail decreases the gyre tendency
of the unit.
TRUE
486
What causes a Class E fire?
from live electrical equipment.
487
When you start thinking about whether you should reduce the sail because of the excessive
skidding is probably the time to do it.
TRUE
488
A foam extinguisher can be used for fires:
classes A and B.
489
It is certainly appropriate to reduce the sail if the boat permanently has the foresail in
water.
TRUE
490
What causes a Class A fire?
from solid fuels.
491
The gybe is the biggest risk one runs when sailing downwind or upwind
(small garden).
TRUE
492
A flammable gas fire is a fire of:
class C.
493
Jibing and jibing are the same thing.
FALSE
494
For gas and electrical fires (classes C and E) it is preferable to use:
a CO2 extinguisher.
495
The gybe is the involuntary and uncontrolled jibe.
TRUE
496
VHF radio equipment on fire:
you cool the radio using the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher.
497
Subject to local ordinances, it is normally possible to enter a port by sailing.
FALSE
498
Using water to extinguish a fire from electrical equipment (class E):
is a very dangerous use.
499
Letting go of the mainsail makes it easier to lean.
TRUE
500
The ship's point obtained by the 'coastal' navigation method:
determines the position with sufficient accuracy; it is therefore reliable for the continuation
of navigation.
501
The Rv route is:
the actual course the ship has taken or will have to take in relation to the seabed.
502
The heading angle Rv is the angle that:
the path of the pleasure boat at each point forms with the direction North
of the geographic meridian.
503
The course angle may vary:
between 0 and 360 degrees clockwise from the North.
504
The bow of the ship is:
the direction in which the ship's keel line is oriented with respect to north.
505
Two opposite routes have an angular difference of:
180 degrees.
506
Does navigating with Rv 090 degrees change any geographical coordinates?
yes, only the longitude.
507
Does navigating with Rv 180 degrees change any geographical coordinates?
yes, only the latitude.
508
The true heading angle is between true north and la:
true heading of the unit and is measured clockwise.
509
The true heading angle is read:
on the wind rose on nautical charts.
510
The actual speed (Ve) is that speed:
due to the actions on the ship of thrusters, wind and current.
511
The proper or propulsive motion of a motorised ship is generated:
by the action of the propeller-propellers alone.
512
The drift angle is that angle below which it is:
deflected the path of the unit due to wind action.
513
Effective motion is defined by the following terms:
Rv (true heading angle) and Ve (true speed).
514
The drift angle is that angle below which it is:
diverted the path of the unit due to the action of the current.
515
Own or propulsive speed (Vp) is the speed imparted to the motor unit:
solely by its propeller-propeller.
516
For the same current, how does drift affect different types of hulls?
is indifferent and does not depend on the type of hull or exposure of the dead work.
517
The actual speed (Ve) is nothing but the speed:
real compared to the seabed.
518
Except in theoretical cases of bow or stern drift, the positive or
negative is:
the lateral displacement occurring respectively to the starboard or left of the
prow of the ship.
519
With the same wind action, the drift speed:
the smaller the living work and the larger the surface area
exposed to the wind.
520
Why does the wind appear different when sailing?
because the wind due to the motion of the ship is vectorially added to the real one.
521
The drift influences:
on all units.
522
Wind 180 degrees and current 180 degrees; what does that mean?
the wind blows north (Ostro), the current, on the contrary, goes south.
523
The drift:
depends on the intensity of the wind, the speed of the unit, the surface area exposed to the
wind and the type of hull.
524
Of the possible motions on the water that the ship can make or undergo, it can be stated that:
drift is the movement due to the presence of currents.
525
The drift is:
the disruptive effect of the sea current on the motion of the unit.
526
The drift is due:
to the action of the wind.
527
The drift is due:
to the effect of the current.
528
With wind, aft, whose direction coincides with the direction of the ship's motion:
you have an effect on the speed of the ship but not on the direction of its course.
529
We are sailing on a northerly course in a wind and current both 180;
it happens that:
the motion of the ship is facilitated by the drift while it is counteracted by the drift.
530
True heading angle and true heading angle may coincide in the presence of drift
and/or drift?
yes, but only if they come exactly from the bow or stern.
531
Here is a list of all nautical publications published by the Hydrographic Institute
of the Navy?
in the catalogue of nautical charts and publications (I.I. 3001).
532
By 'updating' nautical publications is meant:
an adaptation of publications to the changes that occur.
533
The 'reprint' of an I.I.M.M. published nautical chart:
is a new run of the current edition of a charter on which no major changes have been incorporated except those resulting from any
Notices to Mariners (AA.NN.) issued over time.
534
The Notices to Mariners (AA.NN.):
are intended to update nautical charts.
535
If the pilot book warns that for a given port the crosswinds are those of the
second quadrant, what considerations?
the port is poorly protected in the case of Levante, Scirocco and Ostro.
536
The List of Lighthouses and Fog Signals is:
a publication listing the location, description and characteristics of the
light and sound signals of the Mediterranean coasts
537
The Portolano:
provides information necessary for coastal navigation as a description of the coast,
hazards, appearance of lighthouses, beacons, port services, buoys.
538
The nautical documents are:
all nautical charts and publications necessary for the conduct of the
navigation.
539
When the master of a vessel is required to file an occurrence report
extraordinary to the Maritime Authority?
within three days of arrival in port.
540
Pursuant to the Recreational Boating Code, abroad what is the authority to which the
filed an extraordinary event report?
the Consular Authority.
541
Who is exclusively responsible for directing the manoeuvre and navigation of
a unit?
to the unit commander.
542
The master of the vessel who, in the event of a collision, does not, as far as possible, give the other units the information necessary for the identification of his own vessel:
is liable to an administrative fine of between EUR 1,032.00 and EUR 6,197.00 Euro.
543
Under the Code of Navigation, what is meant by a report of extraordinary events?
the declaration that the master of the vessel is required to submit to the Master of the port or to the Consular Authority of the port of call when, during the voyage, they have
extraordinary events occurred with regard to the vessel. or persons on board.
544
Under the Recreational Boating Code, which of these behaviours constitutes an administrative offence?
taking command or conduct or nautical direction of a recreational craft without the prescribed certificate, because it was not obtained or revoked or not
validated for lack of requirements, or suspended or withdrawn.
545
The master of a vessel who, while at sea, becomes aware of the
danger of another unit.
is obliged to rush to render assistance when it can foresee a useful
result.
546
A collision occurred between naval units:
the commander of each is obliged to render assistance to the others, their crew and their passengers, if this does not pose a serious danger to his vessel and t h e persons
on board.
547
The commander of the rescuing unit is obliged to attempt the rescue of persons who
are at sea or in inland waters in danger:
if this does not pose a serious danger to his vessel and the persons who
are on board.
548
The master of a vessel who fails to render assistance or attempt the
rescue in cases where it is obliged to do so under the Code of Navigation:
shall be punished by imprisonment of up to two years.
549
Which of these conducts constitutes an administrative offence?
unless the act constitutes an infringement of the legislation on marine protected areas,
the use of a recreational craft without complying with a provision of the law or of navigation safety regulations.
550
The navigation limits of units bearing the 'CE' mark are defined:
by the significant height of the waves and the strength of the wind.
551
A pleasure boat may be registered at:
the Telematics Archive of Pleasure Craft (ATCN).
552
Baselines have the function of:
mark the internal limit from which the territorial sea area is measured.
553
The national flag for pleasure craft registered in the registers:
is displayed in the most visible, most appropriate position.
554
If boats, marine engines, etc. are found on the beach:
a report is filed with the local maritime authority.
555
For pleasure boats, the name:
is not compulsory.
556
When navigating in the vicinity of roadsteads, we must be careful:
to the orders of the Maritime Authority.
557
The ordinances are from:
requirements regulating maritime navigation in the local area.
558
What is meant by inland navigation?
that carried out on lakes, rivers, canals and other inland waters.
559
Can a unit with an overall length of 9.90 metres be registered?
yes, but it is subject to the legal regime of registered pleasure boats.
560
Where should the RTF licence for the VHF installed on board pleasure craft be applied for?
Ministry of Economic Development through the STED (Sportello Telematico del
Diportist).
561
Are vessels obliged to display the national flag?
yes, always.
562
A person residing in Genoa, where he can register his boat from
boating?
at any STED (Sportello Telematico del Diportista).
563
Pleasure craft means:
any construction of any kind and by any means of propulsion, which is
intended for recreational navigation, which may be of a 'lusoria' (private) or 'commercial' nature.
564
A pleasure boat registered in the ATCN (Archivio Telematico Centrale della
Yachting), has the following abbreviation:
alphanumeric code consisting of 4 letters and 4 numbers followed by the letter D.
565
Pleasure craft used for commercial purposes means:
that used for activities under the Boating Code, including leasing and
hire.
566
Pleasure craft used for commercial purposes means:
that used for activities under the Boating Code, including assisting the
diving activities and professional teaching.
567
The provisions of the Nautical Code:
apply both to pleasure boating exercised for lusory (recreational) purposes and to
commercial purposes, as defined by the code itself.
568
In the absence of specific provisions, the navigation of recreational craft is
apply:
the provisions of the Navigation Code.
569
The provisions on compulsory liability insurance (Decree
Legislative Decree No 209 of 7 September 2005, as amended) shall apply:
to all recreational craft as defined by the nautical code,with the exclusion of
rowing and sailing units not equipped with an auxiliary engine.
570
An outboard motor is subject to compulsory insurance (Legislative Decree 7
September 2005, No 209, as amended):
always.
571
The provisions on compulsory liability insurance (Decree
Legislative Decree No 209 of 7 September 2005, as amended):
also apply to engines with a foreign certificate of use or other document
equivalent issued abroad, if used in national territorial waters.
572
The provisions governing the navigation of recreational craft contained in the
nautical code are completed:
by the Regulations implementing the Nautical Code.
573
For matters not covered by the provisions of the Nautical Code, the following shall apply:
the provisions of the Navigation Code.
574
Assistance and towing:
is permitted with regard to boats and vessels, subject to the signing of a
insurance policy and communication to the competent harbour master's office.
575
The unauthorised pursuit of commercial activities with pleasure craft:
is subject to a penalty of between EUR 2,775 and EUR 11,017.
576
Nautical leasing agreement means:
a loan granted by a bank or financial intermediary consisting of the granting for use, for a certain period of time and against payment of a fee, of
payment of a periodic consideration (fee), of a vessel.
577
The user of a nautical leasing contract:
even if it is not the owner of the vessel, assumes all risks relating to the perimento
of the good.
578
In the event of violations by a leasing unit of provisions on
navigation involving fines:
the lessee of the unit is jointly and severally liable with the author of the
violations, if a different person.
579
The unauthorised pursuit of commercial activities with recreational craft is punished:
with an administrative fine ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 11,017.
580
In the case of nautical leasing:
the user assumes full responsibility for the control.
581
The master of the vessel who, in the event of a collision, does not, as far as possible, give the other units the information necessary for the identification of his own vessel:
is liable to an administrative fine of between EUR 1,032.00 and 6,197.00 Euro.
582
With regard to the leasing of pleasure craft, which of these statements is
correct?
the lessee of a leased pleasure craft, navigates it assuming the
responsibilities and risks.
583
What are the obligations to be fulfilled by the keeper of a recreational vessel
located?
use the vessel in accordance with the technical characteristics resulting from the licence
of navigation and in accordance with the purpose of recreation.
584
The lease of pleasure boats and ships:
original or certified copy must be kept on board.
585
The navigation licence and other prescribed documents are kept on board:
in the original, or in a certified copy if sailing between ports of the State.
586
The security certificate:
certifies the seaworthiness of the unit and is part of the on-board documents.
587
The power declaration of the engine installed on board:
is part of the on-board documents of watercraft and outboard boats.
588
The temporary navigation authorisation act
is valid as a ship's document and entitles the holder to navigation within the limits permitted by the construction characteristics of the vessel, as well as to navigation in foreign territorial waters for the period of time necessary for participation in trade fairs,
salons and other exhibition events.
589
With regard to the chartering of pleasure craft, which of these statements is correct?
the contract shall be drawn up in writing under penalty of nullity and shall be kept on board in
original or certified copy.
590
The use of a recreational craft by means of leases or
rental results:
from the navigation licence.
591
How far from the coast can rowing boats (pedalos, sandolines, etc.) sail?
within 1 mile from the coast.
592
On reaching the age of 16:
you may take command and conduct motorised and sailing vessels with auxiliary engines and motor sailers, provided that no licence is required
sailing.
593
A boating licence may be suspended:
for taking command while intoxicated (intoxication) or under the influence of
narcotics (drugs).
594
Pleasure craft are classified according to the:
overall length.
595
A 9-metre long motorised unit is classified:
pleasure boat.
596
The discovery of a wreck must be reported to the competent authority by:
3 days after finding or landing.
597
Inland maritime waters consist of:
from the maritime waters between the coast and the baseline.
598
Are vessels obliged to fly the national flag?
no.
599
The navigation limits of units bearing the 'CE' mark are defined:
by the significant height of the waves and the strength of the wind.
600
Can a 'habitual offender' obtain a boating licence?
no.
601
The national flag must be displayed:
from ships and pleasure boats.
602
Can a 'CE' marked pleasure boat go abroad?
yes, if the design category allows you to undertake the necessary navigation
to reach the foreign destination.
603
A report of an extraordinary event is filed if in the course of:
navigation, abnormal events have occurred with regard to the unit or persons on board.
604
The navigation licence is valid:
as long as the recreational craft does not undergo any changes to structural or
identification of the same or important innovations.
605
The obligation to have a licence to drive a pleasure boat arises:
when the engine power exceeds 40.8 hp, subject to the displacement, the
engine and the fuel used.
606
A boating licence is required for the command or conduct of a boat from
pleasure boating within 6 miles from the coast, when an engine of 29 kW and 750 cubic centimetres capacity is installed on board?
no, in this case it is only required to have reached the age of 18.
607
Which recreational craft are subject to the 'CE' marking?
units between 2.5 metres and 24 metres in length, if placed on the market after the
16/06/1998.
608
A boating licence is compulsory for the command or conduct of a vessel from
boating within 6 miles from the coast?
yes, if the unit is equipped with an engine with more than 40.8 horsepower.
609
A licence may be suspended in the case of assuming command of a unit from
boating with an expired licence?
there is no suspension in this case.
610
When is the second engine considered auxiliary?
when it is of the removable type, placed on its own support with power not exceeding
to 20% of that of the main engine.
611
The 'owner's manual' is that document containing technical data:
of the EC type-approved vessel.
612
The extraordinary event report is filed:
to the Maritime or Consular Authority of the port of arrival.
613
What does assuming, with the expired licence, the command or conduct of
a unit subject to a licence requirement?
a hefty administrative fine.
614
The licence and other documents for recreational craft must always be kept at edge in the original?
no, for navigation between national ports it is sufficient to have the certified copies on board
to the original.
615
Where are pleasure boats and ships registered?
in the ATCN (Archivio Telematico Centrale della Nautica da Diporto) through the
STED (Sportello Telematico del Diportista)
616
For the command and conduct of a sailing pleasure boat without auxiliary engine, for navigation in inland waters and in maritime waters within 6 miles
from the coast is sufficient:
have reached the age of eighteen.
617
With a nautical licence within 12 miles of the coast, you can command
a recreational vessel authorised to sail without distance limits from the coast?
yes, as long as it does not exceed the 12-mile limit from the coast.
618
It is possible to command and drive a pleasure boat used with contracts
of hire?
yes, only on condition of possession of an appropriate yachting qualification
prescribed by law.
619
A sum is paid to 'take pleasure' in a vessel for a certain period of time and the contract excludes the 'possibility of redemption' on its expiry;
we are in the presence of a contract of:
lease.
620
If you pay a sum to use the services of a person, who makes himself available and puts his vessel at your disposal for a certain period of time
time, you have a contract of:
hire.
621
Which of the following statements about chartering pleasure craft is correct?
the chartered unit remains at the disposal of the owner/owner (charterer),
to which the crew also remains.
622
Occasional hire is:
the right of the owner of a vessel to charter his vessel for a maximum of 42 days per year after notifying the Agency of each individual contract
Inland Revenue and the Maritime Authority. It does not constitute a professional
activity.
623
Which of the following statements on the yacht charter contract is correct?
may also provide for several "cabin charterers"; unless the parties agree otherwise, several charter contracts shall be concluded for as many charterers of each
cabin or group of cabins.
624
A pleasure craft with an overall length of 7 metres may be registered in the
register of pleasure boats?
Yes, but it is subject to the legal regime of pleasure boats.
625
A 55-year-old citizen needs to renew his driving licence; the validity of the new document will be:
of 10 years.
626
Pleasure boating is defined as boating carried out for the purpose:
sporting or recreational or commercial, as provided for in the Boating Code by
boating.
627
How is the temporal validity of the boating licence structured?
10 years if not over 60, 5 years if over 60
of age.
628
Taking command of a unit without having obtained the required qualification,
involves:
administrative sanction ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 11,017 and suspension of the
navigation licence for 30 days.
629
Do I always need a licence to drive a jet ski?
yes, always.
630
The declaration of an extraordinary event must be issued:
by the unit commander.
631
The service vessel (tender) is not obliged to have safety equipment and means of
rescue, without prejudice to individual life-saving equipment, if it sails:
within one mile of the coast or the mother unit.
632
Is a nautical licence compulsory for the command or conduct of a pleasure boat within 6 miles from the coast when an engine with a power rating of 29 kW and a cubic capacity of 1,398 cubic centimetres with 4-stroke carburettor is installed on board?
yes, in this case there is a boating licence requirement.
633
The obligation of liability insurance falls:
on any marine engine, removable or not, regardless of power.
634
If no injuries occurred to persons on board, the report of the event
extraordinary must be submitted:
within three days of arrival in port.
635
When is a boating licence suspended?
for serious acts of inexperience and imprudence.
636
All motorised units are obliged to keep the declaration of
engine power (or engine certificate)?
no, in addition to pleasure boats, only pleasure boats equipped with
outboard motor.
637
The document containing, among other characteristics, the data of a vessel and the data
the personal data of its owner, is referred to as:
navigation licence.
638
In the case of a non-chartered unit, is the safety certificate issued?
only to ships and pleasure boats.
639
The limits set by law for obtaining a boating licence with regard to the
engine are determined:
from maximum operating power.
640
The driver of a jet ski must:
wear a lifejacket and observe the locally prescribed speed limits.
641
A 13-metre long unit with a sail area of 80 square metres and an engine
of 45 hp:
requires a navigation licence.
642
A boating licence is revoked in the event of:
in case of loss of moral and physical requirements.
643
A 'CE' marked vessel, how many people can it carry?
those indicated in the type-approval certificate.
644
A licence is compulsory for the command or conduct of a pleasure boat within 6 miles from the coast when an outboard engine is installed on board
with a power output of 29 kW and a displacement of 1,299 cubic centimetres with direct
injection?
yes, in this case there is a boating licence requirement.
645
A licence to operate a jet ski is compulsory:
always.
646
It is certainly considered an 'extraordinary event':
the stranding.
647
To whom the report of an extraordinary event should be submitted
abroad?
to the flagship consulate.
648
A nautical licence is compulsory for sailing with a pleasure boat
within 6 miles from the coast, when an engine with a power output of 29 kW and a cubic capacity of 1,098 cubic centimetres and four-stroke carburettor is installed on board?
yes, in this case there is a boating licence requirement.
649
A boating licence is compulsory to drive a recreational craft with an engine of
35 Kw?
always.
650
The validity of the boating licence is 10 years until the completion of the
60th year and then 5 years.
651
A vessel is that unit:
not registered.
652
Whoever holds the helm of a pleasure boat must necessarily have of boating licence?
no, as long as there is another person on board who is duly qualified for the type of navigation
in place to take responsibility for command and conduct.
653
The document listing the characteristics of a vessel's engine is known under
of:
power declaration.
654
Design category 'B' presupposes that the recreational craft is in
able to navigate (identify the correct statement):
in the presence of wind force not exceeding 8 and significant wave height not
greater than 4 metres.
655
Design category 'C' presupposes that the recreational craft is in
able to navigate (identify the correct statement):
in the presence of wind force not exceeding 6 and significant wave height not
greater than 2 metres.
656
A nautical licence is compulsory for navigation with a pleasure boat within 6 miles from
the coast when an engine with a power of 29 kW is installed on board and displacement of 998 cubic centimetres and four-stroke outboard carburettor?
no, in this case it is only required to have reached the age of 16.
657
Design category 'D' presupposes that the recreational craft is in
able to navigate (identify the correct statement):
in the presence o f wind force not exceeding 4 and significant wave height not
greater than 0.3 metres, occasionally 0.5 metres.
658
Check before departure that the safety equipment of a vessel is
efficient, is a task for whom?
of the unit commander.
659
Generally speaking, the minimum number of crew members of any unit from
pleasure boats (provided they are not for hire) is established:
by the master according to the navigation to be undertaken in relation to the
sea conditions and distance from safe harbours.
660
The jet ski can sail beyond the minimum speed:
more than 1000 metres from the coast, 500 metres from the cliffs.
661
Is a driving licence compulsory for the use of jet skis?
yes, always.
662
A CE-approved vessel can sail:
within 12 miles from the coast, if approved for navigation without any limits.
663
The commander is responsible:
the replacement of life-saving appliances and safety equipment with
deterioration or deficiencies impairing its efficiency.
664
The practice of water skiing also involves the use of the following equipment:
first-aid kit and a lifebuoy for each of the towed skiers.
665
What equipment does water skiing involve?
first-aid kit and a lifebuoy for each of the towed skiers.
666
Drivers of recreational craft with inboard and outboard engines,
used for the practice of water skiing:
must have a boating licence.
667
Drivers of inboard and outboard-powered vessels used for operating
of water skiing, they must:
always be assisted by another person experienced in swimming.
668
With regard to the discipline of water skiing, which of these statements is correct?
it is forbidden for any motorised vessel to follow, in its wake or at a shorter than safe distance, other vessels towing skiers or to cross their wake in
speed close enough to run over skiers in the event of a fall.
669
In the sea areas in front of beaches, in the absence of launching corridors, the departure or
the return of motorised naval units towing skiers:
must take place at a speed not exceeding three knots in the last 200 metres from the bathymetric depth of 1.60 metres.
670
Water skiing is permitted for safety reasons:
exclusively during daylight hours, when the weather is favourable and the sea is calm.
671
The driver of a recreational craft must hold a licence
in the practice of water skiing?
yes.
672
For water skiing, in addition to the skier, how many people must be at
edge:
one, an expert in swimming.
673
In which sea area is water skiing possible?
more than 200 metres from the beach, measured from a bathymetric depth of 1.60 metres, unless otherwise
provisions of the Maritime Authority.
674
Water skiing is practicable:
in daylight hours, with favourable weather and calm seas.
675
The minimum distance between the water skier and the towing vehicle is
12 metres.
676
The unit with which water skiing is practised:
can be any type of vessel.
677
In the case of water skiing performed with a recreational vessel, the driver must possess
a boating licence.
678
Where should the water skier start and recover?
only in waters free of swimmers and boats, if not prohibited by ordinances
premises, i.e. within the launch corridors.
679
The unit towing the water skier must be equipped with:
first-aid kit, tow bar and rear-view mirror.
680
Generally speaking, what is the minimum distance for water skiing from the falling coastline at
peak over the sea?
100 metres.
681
Who recognises the suitability of the tow bar and rear-view mirror for the purposes of
water skiing?
the Harbour Master's Office.
682
In the sea areas in front of beaches, in the absence of launching and stationary corridors subject to the provisions of the Maritime Authority's order, the departure and
return of the unit towing the water skier:
takes place on a course normal to the coastline and at a speed not exceeding 3 knots.
683
For each skier towed, there must be a skier on board the towing unit:
1 lifebuoy at hand.
684
In order to water-ski, the engine of the unit towing the water skier
must be:
equipped with a gear reverser and a neutralisation device.
685
To carry out water skiing, as equipment, not provided for in Annex V to the DM
146/2008, in order to sail within 12 miles from the coast, do you have to add on board?
a first-aid kit.
686
To water-ski, the driver observes the skier through a mirror
rear-view mirror:
convex.
687
How many skiers can be towed simultaneously by the same unit from
boating?
two.
688
The lateral distance between a boat towing a skier and other vessels must be:
longer than the length of the tow cable.
689
There are two people in the boat when one of them decides he wants to ski
nautical. Is it possible?
no.
690
Non-professional speargun fishing may be permitted to
those who have accomplished:
16 years.
691
Recreational underwater fishing is permitted:
only in apnoea without the use of breathing aids.
692
During the exercise of underwater sport fishing:
the use of light sources with the exception of the torch is prohibited.
693
Underwater fishing is prohibited
is prohibited from sunset to sunrise.
694
If the diver is accompanied by a support vessel, the prescribed
red flag with white diagonal stripe
must be hoisted onto the vehicle itself.
695
The diving diver is obliged to signal himself with a buoyant bearing:
a red flag with a white diagonal stripe, visible at a distance of not less than
300 metres away.
696
With regard to the discipline of underwater fishing, which of these statements is
correct?
it is forbidden to hold the speargun in the cocked position unless underwater.
697
The practice of underwater fishing is:
prohibited at a distance of less than 100 metres from ships anchored outside ports.
698
The practice of underwater fishing is:
prohibited at a distance of less than 100 metres from fixed fishing installations and gillnets.
699
With regard to the discipline of sport fishing, which of these statements is
correct?
is exercised through the use of recreational units only for recreational or
competitive.
700
Sport fishing is the activity pursued:
for recreational or competitive purposes. It is prohibited, in any form whatsoever, to sell and
trade in the products of that fishery.
701
The permitted fixed lines in sport fishing are :
rods with no more than three hooks, dead lines, bolentini, short lines with no more than six hooks and
cephalopod lines.
702
Sport fishing events and competitions are subordinate:
to the approval of the Head of the Maritime Compartment who shall issue a
ordinance.
703
The sports fisherman cannot catch on a daily basis:
fish, molluscs and crustaceans in quantities of more than 5 kg in total, except in the case of single fish weighing more, and may not catch more than one fish per day
of grouper.
704
Breathing apparatus (cylinders) can be used for fishing
underwater?
absolutely not.
705
The marketing of bluefin tuna caught as sport fishermen:
is prohibited.
706
What is the limit of bluefin tuna that can be caught and kept at
board?
1
707
In the event of a breakdown or accident occurring to one's own unit, which may result in a
oil spill, the master must:
inform without delay the maritime authority nearest to the scene of the accident.
708
Any person who sails by motorboat within a marine protected area that is not adequately marked by the prescribed perimeter buoys, not being aware of the constraints relating to
to that area is.
subject to an administrative penalty.
709
Which authorities are responsible for the supervision of marine protected areas?
harbour master's offices, as well as the police of local authorities delegated in the management of
same protected areas.
710
Marine Protected Area management bodies may, in 'B' (general reserve) or 'C' (partial reserve) areas of a Marine Protected Area, establish
establish, in zones "B" (of general reserve) or "C" (of partial reserve), buoy fields and equipped mooring fields, including with the use of information technology and
telematics.
711
Within the buoy and mooring fields of Marine Protected Areas:
15% of the berths are reserved for sailing vessels.
712
Generally, in zone 'A' of Marine Protected Areas, navigation:
is not permitted.
713
Generally, navigation is allowed in Zone B of Marine Protected Areas:
is governed by the founding decree and the management regulation.
714
The spillage of 5 kilos of used oil into the sea (typical quantity of a 115 HP engine
outboard):
is absolutely prohibited and is capable of polluting an area one and
half a football pitch.
715
The expired distress signals (rockets-hand flares-smoke bombs):
must be returned to the dealer when they are replaced.
716
In general, marine protected areas are:
divided into three protection zones called A-B-C, some have an additional zone D.
717
The areas into which a Marine Protected Area is divided are:
delimited by geographical coordinates and shown on the map attached to the Decree
establishment published in the Official Journal.
718
Generally, in Zone A of Marine Protected Areas the anchorage:
is not permitted.
719
The immediate and definitive cessation of bluefin tuna catches for sporting purposes-
recrerative:
is established by decree of the competent Ministry when the quota of
fishing allocated to Italy.
720
In marine protected areas in zone B (general reserve):
rowing and sailing is permitted.
721
Abandoned plastic containers in the sea:
last up to 450 years.
722
In marine protected areas where mooring is regulated by buoy fields:
anchoring is never permitted in buoy fields.
723
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
a spindle-shaped light buoy with a radar reflector as its mirage.
724
With reference to nautical chart excerpt Q11, what colour is the signal light
seafarer depicted in the picture?
white.
725
What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?
a flash every 3 seconds with a nominal range of 7 nautical miles.
726
A 'side signal' is that maritime signal that indicates:
on which side of the ship (starboard or port) the signal must be left according to the
conventional sense of signalling.
727
The geographical scope is the:
distance at which the light from a lighthouse can be seen in relation to the curvature of the
Earth and the height of the observer.
728
The headlights are:
light sources signalling port entrances, buoys, dangers, navigable channels,
platforms, etc.
729
The luminous range is the:
maximum distance at which the light of a beacon is visible as a function of its
light intensity and meteorological visibility.
730
The nominal capacity is the:
luminous range in a homogeneous atmosphere with 'meteorological visibility' of 10 miles.
731
Based on the IALA maritime signalling system, which of the two prescribed systems is
adopted in the Mediterranean Sea?
System A (red on the left).
732
The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:
cardinal indicating to pass north of it because the danger is to the south.
733
The abbreviation in English 'Fl (3) W 10s' can be found in the list of beacons and signals from
fog published in Italian by I.I.M., means:
3 white flashes, period 10 seconds.
734
What does 'Int (2) 10s 26m 20M' mean?
2 flashing; white light; period: 10 seconds; light elevation above sea level: 26 metres;
nominal range: 20 miles.
735
The cardinal signal indicates:
the N, E, S or W side on which to pass with respect to the same signal to avoid the danger.
736
The abbreviation in English 'Oc (3) W 5s' can be found in the list of beacons and signals from
fog published in Italian by I.I.M., means:
white flashing, period 5 seconds.
737
In an 'ISO' light:
has the same duration as the interval.
738
The luminous range of a beacon is influenced by:
transparency of the atmosphere at the time in question and the power of the lamp
expressed in candles.
739
The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:
of isolated danger.
740
Next to the symbol of a lighthouse on the nautical chart are the following indications:
"Lam (2) 8s 30m 11M". What does this beacon express?
2 white flashes; period: 8 seconds; light elevation above sea level: 30 metres; range
nominal: 11 miles.
741
The 'special signal' has the function of indicating:
a special zone for special activities (e.g. presence of underwater cables or pipelines, areas reserved for boating, presence of data collection stations
oceanographic etc.).
742
In the AISM - IALA side system of Region A, the signals to be kept on the side
left entering a port are the black ones:
red, cylindrical shape and cylindrical mirage.
743
For each maritime signal, the daytime coding elements that give the
significance are:
the shape and colour of the buoy or the shape and colour of the miraglio.
744
The abbreviation in English 'Fl G 5s' can be found in the list of beacons and fog signals
published in Italian by I.I.M., means:
1 green flash, period 5 seconds.
745
In the AISM - IALA system, there are differences between regions A and B regarding the
special, safe water and isolated danger signs?
no, there are no differences; there are only differences in the lateral system.
746
In the lighthouse characteristic, the 'period' is the time interval:
during which the sequence of flashes and eclipses of the
characteristic of the lighthouse.
747
Next to the symbol of a lighthouse on the nautical chart are the following indications: "Lam (2) 12s 27m 17M". What does this beacon express?
flashing light, 2 flashes in a 12-second period, light 27 metres above sea level, 17 miles of
nominal flow rate.
748
What types of maritime signals does the AISM - IALA system provide?
lateral, cardinal, isolated danger, safe waters, special.
749
A meda indicating isolated danger is coloured:
black with one or more horizontal red bands.
750
The use of cardinal signals is associated:
to the compass and the colours are black and yellow.
751
The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:
cardinal indicating to pass to the east of it because the danger is to the west.
752
The possible mirage of the special signal:
is unique in the shape of an 'X' and is yellow in colour.
753
The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:
cardinal indicating to pass to the west of it because the danger is to the east.
754
The AISM - IALA region A signal, shown here, is a signal:
cardinal indicating to pass to the south of it because the danger is to the north.
755
The 'light characteristic' of the lighthouse is:
the set of 'type', 'colour' of the light and 'period' that allow it to be identified.
756
Among the most distinctive aspects of headlamps and lights, normally:
lighthouses allow coastal recognition, beacons signal harbour works, dangers
various and coastal points of secondary interest.
757
Regarding daytime signalling:
buoys are small diamond-shaped floats, for temporary signalling.
758
About AISM - IALA maritime signalling, a white, isophase, intermittent or long flashing light, or reproducing the letter A (Alpha) of the Morse alphabet, is a
signal:
of safe waters.
759
With reference to the light emitted by a signal:
different coloured lights can be emitted for given fields of visibility.
760
Headlight and light differ:
for the nominal flow rate.
761
The meda is:
a fixed construction or pole on the seabed that emerges.
762
With reference to the scope of a signalling:
the nominal range is the luminous range in an atmosphere with meteorological visibility of
10 miles.
763
About AISM - IALA maritime signalling, a white, flashing light (duration
of light less than that of the eclipse), is a:
isolated danger signal.
764
The possible mirage of the safe water signal consists of:
a red sphere.
765
The north cardinal signal mirage consists of:
two overlapping cones with their vertices pointing upwards.
766
Cardinal signs indicate:
the side where there is a danger and, consequently, where to navigate safely.
767
What does the following indication 'F.r. 18M' mean for a lighthouse?
red steady light beacon with a nominal range of 18 miles.
768
The East Cardinal Signal Mirage consists of:
two overlapping cones joined by their respective bases.
769
The miracle of the south cardinal signal consists of:
two overlapping cones with their vertices pointing downwards.
770
A buoy with a mirage formed by two black cones joined by the vertex signals:
to pass to the west of the signal (the danger is to the east).
771
A buoy with a miraglio formed by two black cones joined by the base signals:
to pass to the east of the signal (the danger is to the west).
772
The West Cardinal Signal Mirage consists of:
two overlapping cones joined by their respective vertices.
773
The AISM - IALA region A signal of isolated danger is indicated with:
spindle buoy or black rod with one or more broad red horizontal bands.
774
The abbreviation 'Alt', found on Italian nautical charts and referring to lights, indicates:
alternating light.
775
Regarding the types of light in a lighthouse, we can say that:
the alternating light of a lighthouse is a rhythmic light that alternately shows colours
several.
776
A beacon at night is spotted:
by its 'feature'.
777
What is the area of visibility of a lighthouse as in the figure opposite?
its light can be seen from east to west, i.e. from 090° to 270°.
778
What is the 'range' of the lighthouse shown on the nautical chart, published by I.I.M,
representing the Italian seas?
the nominal flow rate.
779
A lighthouse reads << 0.5 (bold) - 1 - 0.5 (bold) - 2 >> in the Lighthouse List and
fog signals:
the 'period' has a duration of 4 seconds.
780
A lighthouse reads << 1.5 (bold) - 2 - 1.5 (bold) - 2 >> in the Lighthouse List and
fog signals:
the 'period' has a duration of 7 seconds.
781
The cardinal signal, which emits nine sparkles at night, indicates:
danger to the east: pass to the west.
782
The cardinal signal, which emits three sparkles at night, indicates:
danger to the west: pass to the east.
783
The cardinal signal, which emits six sparkles at night, indicates:
danger to the north: move south.
784
On the nautical chart, next to the lighthouse symbol, it says 'red sector'.
It means that in that area:
navigation is permitted, but attention must be paid to a certain
danger.
785
What are the elements that influence the luminous range of headlights?
light intensity, weather visibility and eye sensitivity
of the observer.
786
The nominal range of a lighthouse:
corresponds to the luminous flux of a light referred to a homogeneous atmosphere in
where the meteorological visibility is 10 nautical miles.
787
What are the elements that influence the geographical range of a lighthouse?
the curvature of the earth, the height of the light and the elevation of the observer's eye.
788
What is the 'phase' of a maritime signal?
by each successive element that makes up a cycle of a rhythmic light (flash,
eclipse).
789
What is meant by 'light buoy'?
a floating beacon tied to the seabed.
790
What, in principle, do the light buoys signal?
the limits of navigable channels, dangers pertaining to the safety of navigation and mirrors
waters of special interest.
791
The description 'Sc.(3)' identifies a light signal:
sparkling, in groups of 3.
792
The description 'Alt. b.r.' identifies a light signal:
alternately showing the colours white and red.
793
The description 'Int.(2)' identifies a light signal:
intermittent, in eclipse groups of 2.
794
How can you define a 'radar reflector'?
a device, which can also be fitted on signals, enabling
passively reflect radar impulses.
795
What does the following alphanumeric code in the vicinity of the Capo Negro lighthouse on the island of Zannone Fl(3) 10s 37m 12M indicate?
which emits a flashing light in groups of 3 flashes every 10 seconds, whose structure has a height above mean sea level of 37 metres, and is visible at a nominal range of 12
nautical miles.
796
A vessel navigating in the vicinity of the maritime signal of
side indicated, what precaution should he take?
pass to the west of the buoy, this being a cardinal signal of the AISM-
IALA.
797
What does the alphabetical code under the light buoy shown opposite indicate?
that the structure of the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the system
AISM-IALA, has a yellow colouring with a black band.
798
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
a safe water signal from the AISM-IALA maritime signalling system.
799
What is indicated by the maritime sign shown in the figure, placed near (S) the
port of Piombino?
rod light buoy indicating a special signalling system signal
maritime AISM-IALA.
800
What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the figure, placed in
proximity (S) of the port of Piombino?
yellow.
801
What is indicated by the characteristic of the maritime signal depicted in the figure, located to the south
of the port of Piombino?
a yellow flash every 3 seconds with a nominal range of 4 nautical miles.
802
With reference to the characteristics of maritime signals shown on a nautical chart, what does the alphanumeric marking on the side of the light buoy of
side represented?
that the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the AISM-IALA system, emits
twinkling lights in groups of 3 every 10 seconds, and is visible at a nominal range of 5 nautical miles.
803
What is indicated by the maritime signal mirage shown in the figure, placed in
proximity (NE) of the Islands of the Poor?
that the navigable area is located to the east of the signal itself.
804
What does the alphabetical code under the light buoy shown opposite indicate?
that the structure of the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the system
AISM-IALA, has a black colouring with a yellow band.
805
What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the picture, placed in
proximity (N) of P.ta della Volpe?
black colour over yellow.
806
What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?
continuous shimmering and a nominal range of 4 nautical miles.
807
What is indicated by the maritime signal shown in the figure, placed in the vicinity (SW)
of Mortorio Island?
non-luminous pole buoy indicating a South cardinal signal of the
AISM-IALA maritime signalling.
808
What is indicated by the maritime signal mirage shown in the figure, placed in
proximity (SW) of Mortorio Island?
that the navigable area is located to the south of the signal itself.
809
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
the left-hand signal (zone A) entering ports or channels.
810
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
the starboard signal (zone A) when entering ports or channels.
811
Inland navigation; the signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:
call and redial signal; head for the bank where the signal is located and
abandon it immediately upon reaching it.
812
River navigation; between two vessels sailing on opposite routes, who has the
precedence over the other?
the one that sails with the current in its favour.
813
River navigation; a bridge with several arches must be crossed; under which
archway is passed?
the one marked with a yellow diamond.
814
River navigation; we proceed upstream when we cross a white buoy:
you pass to the left of the signal.
815
River navigation; we detect the approach of a sharp bend:
one long sound is emitted and one stays on listening to the reply from
any other unit.
816
River navigation; the signal depicted in the adjacent figure:
if present on the right bank, indicates that we must head towards the bank where the
find the signal.
817
River navigation; the signal depicted in the adjacent figure:
if present on the left bank, indicates that we must head towards the bank where the
find the signal.
818
Inland navigation; the signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:
continuation signal; I must continue along the bank where the signal is located until
at a later date.
819
Inland waterway navigation: which of the following equipment must be taken on board
equipment on board the unit?
a pivoting low beam headlamp.
820
What scale is used to measure wind strength?
the Beaufort scale.
821
Which of these statements is correct?
the breeze that blows during the daytime hours is more intense than at night.
822
What is meant by a diurnal temperature range?
the difference between the maximum temperature value and the minimum temperature value in the
course of the day.
823
What phenomena are generated by water vapour?
as a result of its condensation, clouds and fog are generated in the air while on the
dew and frost form on the earth's surface.
824
What is the international unit of measurement for the value of pressure
atmospheric?
Hectopascal (hPa).
825
What is meant by an isobar?
Lines of equal pressure.
826
What is meant by fog?
any form of condensation of water vapour in the atmospheric layers at
immediate contact with soil or bodies of water.
827
How do you define wind?
the almost horizontal displacement of an air mass whose distinctive features
are the direction and speed.
828
What are the main movements to which the sea is subject?
currents, waves and tides.
829
How are tides defined?
the oscillation of the sea level generated by the force of gravitational attraction
exerted mainly by the sun and the moon.
830
How to define the atmospheric phenomenon generated by the overlapping of a front
cold and a warm front?
occluded front.
831
Which element is fundamental in predicting the evolution of conditions
weather during navigation?
knowledge of atmospheric pressure trends over time.
832
What are the main characteristics of the clouds known as cirrus clouds?
white colour, fibrous structure, isolated.
833
What are the main meteorological effects generated by cumulonimbus-type clouds?
showers, thunderstorms or hail.
834
A weather front is:
the contact surface, and therefore discontinuity, between two air masses having
different temperature, pressure and humidity characteristics.
835
When do you have a warm front?
when a warm (and therefore more humid) air mass approaches a
relatively cooler (and less humid), running over it.
836
When is a front defined as cold?
when a cold (hence less moist but denser) air mass approaches and wedges itself under a relatively warmer (wetter and lighter) mass,
causing it to rise and leading to a cooling of the region in which it transits.
837
How can it be defined as a stationary front?
a front with no movement, i.e. none of the air masses
concerned significantly encroaches on the area occupied by the other.
838
In our hemisphere:
the wind on the ground blows anticlockwise around a low pressure (or cyclone).
839
What is a horizontal baric gradient?
the pressure difference existing between two neighbouring air masses.
840
The trade winds are:
permanent winds blowing at a speed of between 13 and 18 knots and whose
intensity is greater in the cold months.
841
What is meant by tidal height?
the value of the height of the high tide or low tide in relation to hydrographic zero
(in English chart datum ).
842
Which national body is responsible for producing information for assistance
weather of naval units sailing in the Mediterranean Sea?
the National Centre for Aeronautical Meteorology and Climatology.
843
What are weather 'warnings' are messages that contain:
useful information concerning meteorological phenomena hazardous to navigation
maritime.
844
In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the
continuation of good weather?
pressure remains constant or rises slowly and the sun turns red
in the evening hours under clear sky conditions.
845
In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the possible
worsening of the weather?
thickening of cirrus clouds into cirrostrates, sudden pressure reduction and presence of
sustained wind already in the early hours of the morning.
846
In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the possible
improvement of the weather?
rising cloud bases, clockwise rotation of the wind from east to south
and then West and rapid rise in pressure.
847
In the context of local forecasts, which premonitory signs may indicate the possible
occurrence of rainfall?
clouds thicken, cirrus clouds take on a reddish hue with a sudden decrease
pressure and strengthening of the winds from the south.
848
Which of these elements heralds the approach of bad weather
during navigation?
Abrupt drop in atmospheric pressure and presence of high clouds
vertical.
849
In the context of local forecasting, what premonitory signs can indicate the possible formation of fog?
movement of a flow of warm, moist air from a warmer oceanic region to a colder one, presence of much colder water than the air above, and presence
of weak wind.
850
How can weather maps be subdivided?
maps on the ground and maps at altitude.
851
What type of forehead is depicted in the picture?
cold front.
852
What type of forehead is depicted in the picture?
warm front.
853
What type of forehead is depicted in the picture?
stationary front.
854
What kind of forehead is represented in the picture?
occluded front
855
What are the winds in quadrant I?
Tramontana, Grecale and Levante.
856
What are the winds in quadrant II?
Levante, Sirocco and Mezzogiorno.
857
What are the winds in quadrant III?
Mezzogiorno, Libeccio and Ponente.
858
What are the winds in quadrant IV?
Ponente, Maestrale and Tramontana.
859
The compass rose represents:
the visible horizon, with the name and direction of origin of the winds typical of the
Mediterranean.
860
The 'gale warnings' are broadcast by radio:
preceded by the 'SECURITÈ' safety sign.
861
The 'storm warnings' or 'gale warnings':
warn of an ongoing or imminent storm or gale.
862
The Ponente blows from the cardinal direction:
West.
863
The anemometer measures:
Wind speed.
864
From which direction does the Sirocco wind come?
Southeast.
865
Which of the following information is given in the Meteomar:
warnings (e.g. of thunderstorms or gales), ongoing or expected.
866
From which direction does the Grecale wind come?
North-East.
867
What wind is blowing from 135 degrees?
Sirocco.
868
From the north-east, the:
Grecale.
869
How is the Meteomar bulletin disseminated?
on channel 68, continuously.
870
The Breeze blows from the sea because:
the land warms up faster than the sea.
871
Meteomar issued at 12:00 UTC today:
is valid until 00:00 UTC tomorrow.
872
Does the wind originate from?
different air temperature and air pressure values.
873
The 'Trend' section in Meteomar indicates:
the sea state trend in the 12 hours following the period of validity of the
'Forecast'.
874
Breezes originate:
whether there are differences in heating between sea and land.
875
The Breeze blows from the land at night because the land:
cools faster than the sea.
876
The Meteomar is broadcast:
by the Coastal Radio Stations.
877
From the east it blows:
Levante.
878
Gale Warnings:
are broadcast via VHF with absolute priority over all other messages of a nature
meteorological.
879
The breeze:
by day it blows from the sea to the mainland.
880
The land breeze blows:
at night.
881
With current and wind, against each other in opposite directions, the wave is:
steep.
882
The land breeze is triggered:
by the rapid cooling of the land relative to the sea.
883
The breeze:
at night it breathes out from the land towards the sea.
884
The 'Trend' section about the wind indicated in Meteomar:
provides the wind trend over the next 12 hours after the
Meteomar itself.
885
The direction of origin:
of the mistral is from the NW.
886
From which direction does the Libeccio wind come?
South-West.
887
The breeze:
at night is reasonably due to the faster cooling of the land
than the sea.
888
The wind that comes from 270 degrees is called:
Ponente.
889
Which of the following statements is correct?
air pressure is measured with a barometer.
890
Ostro and Noon:
are the same wind.
891
Which of the following statements is correct?
the barometer measures air pressure.
892
Identify the correct direction of origin:
the Tramontana blows from the N.
893
From which direction does the Libeccio wind come?
South-West.
894
Identify the correct statement:
the Ostro blows from 180 degrees.
895
Regarding the meteomar bulletin:
timetables and service channels can be found in the Radioservizi publication for the
navigation published by I.I.M.
896
Relative humidity is measured with:
hygrometer.
897
The formation of breezes is triggered by the different:
temperature between two zones.
898
The air, when warm, is:
lighter than the cold one.
899
Atmospheric pressure is considered:
normal if equal to 1013.2 hPa; high if higher and low if lower than the above
value.
900
Which of the following statements is correct?
generally, the clear horizon, with calm winds, heralds good weather.
901
What are the minimum and maximum values of the wind and sea scales?
wind 0 to 12, sea 0 to
9.
902
Which of the following statements is correct?
the east wind comes from the east.
903
Which of the following statements is correct?
the sirocco blows from the SE.
904
The winds blowing from the 4 intercardinal points (NE, SE, SW, NW) are named after the
region:
of origin.
905
When a cold front passes, the pressure:
rises abruptly.
906
A 'gale':
corresponds to a descriptive term for Wind Force.
907
The 'Cirri' are:
higher clouds that normally indicate good weather if the pressure is stationary or in
ascent.
908
The violence of a thunderstorm is in operation:
of the vertical development of the cloud.
909
The front:
is a line expressing the contact surface or discontinuity separating two
air masses.
910
The 'Cumuli' are:
vertically developed clouds.
911
The 'minimum fetch' is:
the stretch of sea, free of obstacles, over which a wind blows for a certain period, beyond the
which stretch of sea the waves will reach their maximum height for that given wind.
912
In general, the pressure increases if:
cold winds blow from the 4th and 1st quadrant.
913
They are storm clouds:
cumulonimbuses.
914
Generally, when a cold front passes:
the pressure rises sharply, the wind strengthens with gusts.
915
Generally, with unstable air comes precipitation:
of strong intensity and intermittent.
916
How do you define a tidal current?
the horizontal displacement of sea water generated by the tide, unrelated to the
wave motion
917
A sea current is:
a movement of water masses not resulting from wave or tidal motion.
918
Generally, with unstable air, visibility is:
good, sometimes very good.
919
With regard to the sea current, it can be stated that:
occurs in deep water and open seas and is affected by rotational motion
terrestrial.
920
The tidal current:
occurs in relatively shallow waters and in and around straits connecting
two kisses.
921
A stationary front indicates:
a persistent stalemate and bad weather situation.
922
The wind is tense when:
the average direction and average speed remain constant for a certain period of
time.
923
The wind is gusting when:
the average direction remains constant while the average speed has sudden peaks
with values of at least 10 knots above average and a duration of less than one minute.
924
Foehn (or Fohn) indicates:
a wind that forcibly descends the downwind slope of a
orographic obstacle.
925
What causes wave motion?
the wind.
926
The length of a wave is given by the distance:
horizontal between two successive ridges.
927
The height of a wave is given by the vertical distance:
between the ridge and the hollow.
928
Generally, a wave fringes when:
the ratio of height to length (steepness) of the wave is greater than 1/7.
929
Generally, a wave fringes when:
the depth of the seabed is less than twice the height of the wave.
930
What is meant by 'living sea'?
is generated by a wind acting on the place where the observer is standing.
931
When is there a so-called 'long sea' about waves?
when there is wave motion coming by propagation from a distant area, with respect to
to the observer, in which a 'living sea' is present.
932
The observer assesses that he is navigating an 'old' (or 'dead') sea if the system
of waves:
persists at the observer's location in the absence of direct wind action
that had generated it.
933
What is the average pressure value above sea level?
1013.2 hPa.
934
Generally, in the area preceding a warm front:
pressure falls rapidly.
935
If the pressure rises sharply, what can we expect:
the passage of a cold front.
936
What are the effects of a warm front?
as the warm air cools, it causes light rain as the front passes.
937
What are the effects of a cold front?
The rapid rise of warm air generates cumulonimbus-type clouds, generating
even violent weather phenomena such as showers, thunderstorms and strong winds.
938
What is the difference between fog and mist?
both reduce visibility, but fog occurs when visibility is reduced to
values of less than 1 km.
939
About the baric gradient, the winds will be:
the stronger the smaller the distance between one isobara and the other, because the greater the
pressure difference.
940
The degree of longitude is a measure of distance:
angular between two meridians and is equal to 60 minutes of arc.
941
The degree of latitude is a measure of distance:
angular between the equator and the parallel, or between two parallels.
942
The arc of the meridian between the equator and the parallel passing through the point
expresses:
the latitude of the point.
943
Latitude is measured:
Latitude is measured from 0° to 90° north or south.
944
Longitude is measured:
from 0° to 180° east or west.
945
The meridian is:
each maximum semicircle passing through the two geographical poles North and South.
946
The geographical coordinates are given by:
latitude and longitude.
947
The fundamental circles of the coordinate system are:
the equator and the Greenwich meridian.
948
Considering the earth to be perfectly spherical, the nautical mile corresponds:
to the length of the maximum circular arc corresponding to 1' (one prime) of
latitude.
949
The Greenwich meridian is:
the fundamental maximum semicircle to which the longitudes of the locations are related.
950
What is 'rank'?
is the unit of angular measurement, equal to the 360th part of a round angle; it is divided into 60'
(arc minutes) and each first in 60" (arc seconds).
951
The arc of the equator between the prime meridian and the meridian through
for the point expresses:
the longitude of the point.
952
The Maximum Circles are:
the Equator and the Meridians with their respective Antimeridians.
953
The parallels are the infinities:
smaller circles running parallel from the equator towards the poles.
954
Given that the reference lines of the geographical coordinate system are the equator
and the Greenwich meridian, these lines are respectively:
the first is a maximum circle, the second is a maximum semicircle.
955
For each degree of longitude, 180 meridians are considered between 0 and 180 degrees East, 180
meridians between 0 and 180 degrees West, but:
are indeed infinite.
956
Longitude is measured:
0 to 180 degrees towards E and 0 to 180 degrees towards W.
957
The parallels are:
minor circles perpendicular to the earth's axis and parallel to the equator.
958
The equator is:
the fundamental maximum circle, to which the latitudes of places are related. Divide
the earth in the northern (Boreal) and southern (Southern) hemispheres.
959
How long is a nautical mile?
1852 metres.
960
How are geographical coordinates expressed?
in latitude and longitude.
961
Usually, the Greek letter 'λ ' (lambda) is used:
to indicate longitude.
962
Navigating with Rv = 180 degrees will remain unchanged:
the longitude.
963
They are elements of the reference system on the terrestrial sphere:
geographical poles, equator and Greenwich meridian.
964
Usually, the Greek letter 'ϕ ' (fi) is used:
to indicate latitude.
965
The meridians are the infinities:
semicircles joining the poles.
966
Where is the longitude value indicated on the nautical chart?
top and bottom.
967
The equator:
is the reference for measuring latitude
968
The maximum circle dividing the earth into the two hemispheres, known under the name 'Southern' and
"Boreal', it is called:
equator.
969
With the geographical longitude coordinate alone, it is possible to identify
unambiguously a geographical point on the earth?
no, the second geographical co-ordinate of latitude is also necessarily required.
970
One of the following values is definitely wrong; which one?
95 degrees north latitude.
971
The characteristic of points along a parallel arc is that:
all have the same latitude.
972
The characteristic of points along a meridian arc is that:
all have the same longitude.
973
When navigating with Rv 090 degrees, it remains unchanged:
latitude.
974
The latitude of a point is the arc:
of meridian between the equator and the point (or the parallel passing through the point
considered).
975
The longitude of a point is the arc:
of equator between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian passing through the
point considered.
976
By convention, parallels are said to be:
180, of which 90 are counted in degrees from the equator (zero degrees) to the North Pole and 90 counted in degrees from the equator (zero degrees) to the South Pole, however
we can trace infinite ones.
977
By convention, the meridians are said to be:
360, of which 180 are counted in degrees from the meridian of Greenwich towards the East and an equal number of 180 counted in degrees from the meridian of Greenwich towards
West, but we can trace infinite ones.
978
The 'zero' meridian corresponds:
to that commonly referred to as the Greenwich meridian.
979
The 90th parallel can be found:
at the pole.
980
The 90th meridian:
falls exactly midway between the Greenwich meridian and its antimeridian, i.e.
in the East or West hinge.
981
I read on the nautical chart in mercator projection that an island lies at 45 degrees of
latitude: is it North or South?
is north if we see the latitude values increasing towards the north.
982
That is the southern hemisphere:
austral.
983
If the longitude of a point measures 0°, it means that:
the point lies exactly on the Greenwich meridian.
984
If the latitude of a point measures 0°, it means that:
the point lies on the equator.
985
Which maritime areas do the published nautical charts and publications refer to
by the I.I.M.?
the Italian national seas and coastlines as well as those of the Mediterranean Sea.
986
In a Mercator map, does the latitude scale remain the same throughout the map?
no, it is not constant and increases with latitude.
987
Updates to the nautical chart are reported:
on one side in the margin of the same chart.
988
Mercator's map:
in it the parallels have varying distances according to increasing latitudes.
989
Depending on the scale, into which categories can nautical charts be divided?
general charts, landing charts, coastal charts, littoral charts and nautical plans.
990
What is the scale of general nautical charts?
1:3,000,000 and below.
991
How can coastal nautical charts be defined?
charts used by the navigator mainly during the phase close to landing and depicting bathymetric and maritime signalling elements in great detail.
992
The bathymetric lines:
are lines of equal depth.
993
How are the meridians represented on Mercator's map?
with straight lines perpendicular to the equator and equidistant from each other.
994
Which map is not used to conduct coastal navigation?
the small-scale map.
995
What characteristic does Mercator's map have?
isogony, because it preserves the angles formed by meridians and parallels.
996
Flatbeds' are used for:
know the entrance to ports and other information such as the location of quays,
the mooring points, the depths present, etc.
997
What type of chart is the nautical plan in relation to the scale of the chart?
large-scale map depicting areas of limited size such as harbours, roadsteads, islets.
998
Is the gnomonic chart used for estimated coastal navigation?
no, it can be used to plan an ocean crossing.
999
Which of those listed below are shown on the nautical chart published by I.I.M.?
symbols indicating the nature of the seabed.
1000
What is the isogony property of a nautical chart?
paper holds the corners of reality.
1001
Nautical charts are classified according to the criterion:
of the ladder.
1002
General cards can be used for:
the planning of routes over long distances.
1003
On Mercator's map, parallels are represented by straight lines:
parallel to each other, but not equidistant as latitude increases.
1004
On Mercator's projection, the primes of longitude:
are equal to each other.
1005
Generally, the 'general map' is expressed as:
scale of less than 1:3,000,000.
1006
Which of the following scales is used in the 'coastal map'?
1:100.000.
1007
Which of the following scales is used in the 'nautical plan' for
represent a port and its roadstead?
1:5.000.
1008
Besides the coastline profile, what is shown on nautical charts?
depth, elevations, conventional signals, etc.
1009
Between two paper scales, the major one is the one:
with the smaller denominator.
1010
In navigation, is it possible to chart on charts?
no, because apart from not being up-to-date, they are not official documents.
1011
Poles cannot be represented with the Mercator Map:
as the length of the first of latitude becomes infinite near the Poles.
1012
Regarding the characteristics of the Mercator projection, it can be said that:
that the projection point is located at the centre of the Earth.
1013
Information on the type of seabed:
can be read on the nautical chart.
1014
In order to preserve the reusability of the nautical chart:
the compass, possibly with dry points, is used to measure or report distances.
1015
The characteristics of Mercator projection include:
makes rhumb lines straight.
1016
On the nautical chart in Mercator projection, a marker preceded
by an 'F'; it means that:
is a steady light.
1017
In Mercator's nautical chart, meridians and parallels form angles of:
90 degrees.
1018
The characteristics of Mercator projection include:
cannot be used above 70 degrees latitude.
1019
The scale 1:50,000 identifies a nautical chart:
'large-scale coastal', which can be used to conduct coastal navigation.
1020
The 'new edition' nautical chart, published by I.I.M.:
is the edition of an existing representation that contains modifications essential for safe navigation or any other modifications that cannot be made
by updating through Notices to Skippers (AA.NN.).
1021
How do you measure distance on the nautical chart scale?
is performed with the compasses open equal to the distance to be measured, moving horizontally (along a parallel taken as a reference) indifferently towards the
right or left of the latitudes.
1022
What does the letter 'r' on the national nautical chart indicate in the area representing the
sea?
rocky seabed.
1023
The letter 'f' on the nautical chart, in the area representing the sea, indicates:
the muddy bottom.
1024
The symbol in the figure opposite, shown on the nautical chart, indicates:
the limits of a regulated area.
1025
The symbol in the figure, shown on the nautical chart, indicates:
the presence of an outcropping rock.
1026
The symbol in the figure, shown on the nautical chart, indicates:
the presence of submerged rocks dangerous to navigation.
1027
The symbol in the figure opposite, shown on the nautical chart, is prescribed to indicate the
presence of a cable:
submarine no longer in operation or abandoned.
1028
The inscription 'P.A.', positioned next to a symbol on the nautical chart, is used for
indicate:
'approximate position'.
1029
The symbol in the figure opposite indicates the presence of an area where:
anchoring of small ships is possible.
1030
The Mercator projection allows a route to be plotted:
rhumb line.
1031
The Mercator projection allows a route to be plotted:
at a constant angle.
1032
An isobath is a line joining points of:
equal sea depth.
1033
How can coastal nautical charts be defined?
maps with a larger scale than coastal maps, produced to depict in more detail particular areas of interest such as access to the
ports and areas related to straits and passages.
1034
The symbol shown in the figure indicates:
the presence of a traffic separation scheme, divided by a
separation.
1035
The symbol shown in the figure indicates:
the prohibited anchorage.
1036
The symbol shown in the figure indicates:
the presence of a partly emerging wreck.
1037
The symbol shown in the figure indicates:
the presence of unspecified conduct.
1038
The symbol shown in the figure indicates:
a point of fonda.
1039
What is meant by orthodromy?
the arc of a maximum circle followed by a unit, intersecting the meridians in succession
with different angles and describes the shortest path between two points.
1040
What is meant by rhumb line?
the route maintained by a unit outlining a path intersecting all the meridians
according to a constant angle.
1041
For what purpose was the MOB (Man Over Board ) function created on GPS devices?
knowing at any time the distance to the point where a man fell into the sea
and determine the relative course required to attempt its recovery.
1042
What does the GPS system consist of?
is a receiver capable of determining its own distance to each of the
satellites that make up its orbiting network, and thus the ship's point, with a small margin of error.
1043
What is the main information provided by the GPS system?
Latitude and longitude, distance and course required to reach a waypoint,
speed and course relative to the seabed (Ve and Rv) and estimated time of arrival at the destination point.
1044
Which of these statements is correct?
pleasure craft can be equipped with both fixed GPS equipment, powered by the on- board electrical system, and portable GPS equipment, powered by batteries
alkaline.
1045
What is the margin of error of the G.P.S.?
a few metres.
1046
What is the usefulness of G.P.S.?
provide the ship's point at all times.
1047
Is GPS mandatory?
in navigation beyond 12 miles.
1048
When using GPS for navigation, the WAY-POINT should be positioned:
at least 500 metres outside the harbour lights, taking care that the route does not pass over
obstacles or shoals.
1049
What you should check on your GPS equipment:
the existence and correct use of the MOB button.
1050
What is the MOB?
the GPS function that tracks the point where a man falls overboard and the bearing for
return.
1051
The GPS calculates the route for the set WAY-POINT:
if not the latest generation, does not take into account obstacles, dangers and the morphology of the coast, it is therefore necessary to set broken routes; however, even in
In the case of automatic routing, the outcome must always be verified.
1052
Navigation by G.P.S. is called:
navigation by WAY- POINT.
1053
The cartographic GPS indicates:
one's own course, off course, estimated time of arrival, distance, deviation in degrees from the place set as arrival, date and time, speed, and finally the arrow showing at all times the direction we should
follow to arrive at your destination.
1054
The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: 1 NE; 2 SE; 3 SW; 4 NW.
The
direction (Rv or Rlv) 157° in which quadrant is it heading?
second quadrant.
1055
On a nautical chart of the northern (boreal) hemisphere, as is well known, the direction of north is towards the top edge of the chart.
Starting from any point on the map, the directions 048 degrees and 167 degrees (either
they routes or surveys) in which direction respectively?
the direction 048 degrees upwards and to the right; the direction 167 degrees downwards and to the right.
1056
On a nautical chart of the northern (boreal) hemisphere, as is well known, the direction of north is towards the top edge of the chart.
Starting from any point on the map, the directions 301 degrees and 249 degrees (be they
routes or surveys) in which direction respectively?
the direction 301 degrees upwards and to the left; the direction 249 degrees downwards and to the left.
1057
The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 224 degrees towards which quadrant is
directs?
third quadrant.
1058
The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 320 degrees in which
quadrant does it head?
fourth quadrant.
1059
The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 038 degrees in which
quadrant does it head?
first quadrant.
1060
The 360 degrees of the horizon are divided into four quadrants: the first, NE; the second, SE; the third, SW; the fourth, NW. The direction (Rv or Rlv) 099 degrees in which
quadrant does it head?
second quadrant.
1061
Course angle and heading angle are measured with values ranging from 0° to 360° in
sense:
time.
1062
What are the cardinal directions?
North (N), South (S), East (E) and West (W).
1063
Which of these statements is correct?
cardinal directions constitute the main reference directions with respect to the
which all other directions are identified.
1064
What are the intercardinal directions?
NE (North-East), SE (South-East), SW (South-West) and NW (North-West).
1065
In which direction do the needles of a magnetic compass on board the unit point?
North compass.
1066
What function does the lubber line of a magnetic compass fulfil?
indicates the angle the unit forms with the direction of the meridian indicated by the compass.
1067
What does a magnetic compass rose consist of?
by a float under which are placed the magnetic needles and the dial consisting of a disc on which is represented the graduation from 0° to 360° in direction
time.
1068
What is an on-board magnetic compass?
the on-board instrument used for estimated navigation, based on the properties of the
earth's magnetic field, capable of orienting itself towards the compass north.
1069
Who can carry out the operation of the "giribussola"?
the compensating surveyor authorised by the Maritime Authority.
1070
What is the angle representing the difference between Nv and Nm?
magnetic declination.
1071
Magnetic declination is in operation:
of the orientation of the earth's magnetic field force lines.
1072
What is the angle representing the difference between Nm and Nb?
the magnetic deviation.
1073
The table of residual magnetic deviations is derived:
with compensated compass turns.
1074
Magnetic declination is the difference:
between the direction indicated by the geographic meridian and that indicated by the meridian
magnetic.
1075
The navigator derives the value of magnetic declination:
from the nautical chart.
1076
The theoretical limits of variability of magnetic declination are included:
between 0 and 180 degrees East and between 0 and 180 degrees West.
1077
Compass turns serve to:
to draw up, with the compass compensated, the table of residual deviations.
1078
The variation of magnetic declination depends:
by the time and place where the ship is at the time.
1079
What does the magnetic deviation depend on?
by the hard irons and soft irons on board.
1080
Magnetic deviation values can be found:
on tables supplied with the boats.
1081
What is the function of the liquid inside the mortar of a magnetic compass
on board?
absorbing sea shocks and vibrations, as well as giving maximum stability to small
internal magnets.
1082
The sensitive element of the compass consists of:
magnetic crew (small internal magnets).
1083
The magnetic needles of the magnetic compass, installed on a boat, are
oriented towards the:
north compass.
1084
The orientation of the line of faith of a compass is:
parallel to the longitudinal axis of the unit.
1085
The declination varies:
as the geographical location of the unit changes.
1086
The rose of a compass is graduated:
from 0 to 360 degrees clockwise measured from the direction of the compass north
(Nb).
1087
Magnetic declination is indicated by the sign:
East-West (positive and negative respectively).
1088
From a theoretical point of view, in which particular case does the on-board magnetic compass point exactly to magnetic north?
if there is no magnetic influence on board, such as on a wooden boat in which there are no ferrous elements or electrical equipment of any kind.
1089
The compass line of faith:
maintains the predetermined heading.
1090
What method can I use to check the deviation of my compass?
alignment method; polar star observation method.
1091
The magnetic deviation has a sign:
positive sign if compass north is east of magnetic north and negative sign if north
compass lies to the west of magnetic north.
1092
Magnetic declination is caused by magnetism:
terrestrial.
1093
Magnetic deflection is caused by magnetism:
on board.
1094
The line of faith:
indicates the forward direction of the longitudinal axis of the unit.
1095
The magnetic deviation varies as a function:
of the heading you intend to set.
1096
For conversion/correction of the available heading angle, the value of the deviation
magnetic reads:
on the residual deviation table after having the compensation performed by the
compensating expert.
1097
The reference of a compass, under which the heading angle is read, is:
the line of faith.
1098
When installing the magnetic compass on the pleasure boat one must
ensure that the line of faith:
is parallel to the longitudinal axis (keel) of the boat.
1099
North indicated by the compass on board a vessel under way is referred to as:
compass north: which is that given by that specific compass.
1100
The 'magnetic variation' of the magnetic compass is equal to declination magnetic if:
the aforementioned compass is on board a wooden or GRP unit, in the absence of masses
ferrous and electrical equipment in its vicinity.
1101
In the absence of external magnetic fields, a magnetic compass on the ground indicates the
direction of:
Nm.
1102
The cardanic suspension of the magnetic compass:
enables said compass to be kept parallel to the horizontal plane.
1103
Which of these tools and equipment do not provide an estimated position?
GPS and radar.
1104
In relation to the estimated navigation, it can be stated that:
Estimated navigation problems are usually solved by the graphical method,
using nautical charts, squares and compasses.
1105
With regard to estimated navigation, it can be stated that:
if carried out over a long period of time can result in the estimated position of the unit being shifted several nautical miles from its actual position.
1106
What is the adoption of the security criterion in the planning of
estimated navigation?
keep the unit away from potential dangers of both hydrographic and
meteorological.
1107
What is one of the possible safety criteria of a hydrographical nature that must be taken into account when planning a route to be carried out
through estimated navigation?
ensure that the distance between the bottom and the sea surface is not less than the draught of the vessel.
1108
What is one of the possible safety criteria of a meteorological nature that must be taken into account when planning a route to be undertaken
through estimated navigation?
avoid the possible presence of ice, fog and storms.
1109
In relation to the estimated navigation, it can be stated that:
the correct knowledge and assessment of the effects caused by wind and current
allow the consequences to be counteracted by appropriately altering the direction of the heading and propulsive speed of their unit.
1110
With regard to the concept of estimated navigation, which of these statements is correct?
the maritime experience gained in the conduct of navigation contributes to the
seafarer being able to know, at any given moment, the most probable position achieved with its own naval unit.
1111
With regard to the concept of estimated navigation, what is meant by an estimated point?
a point that approximates the position of the unit.
1112
How are the problems of estimated navigation solved in principle?
graphically by using the Mercator nautical chart, which rectifies the
rhumb lines.
1113
What can be the factors that contribute to making the estimated ship point not
accurate?
drift, drift, magnetic declination and magnetic deviation.
1114
Having to make a landing at the end of an estimated navigation, it is
it should be considered that:
the estimated position actually represents the centre of a zone of uncertainty, whose
extension can also be very large.
1115
What is the unit of measurement for speed at sea?
the knot.
1116
Given the calculation of sea speeds, what does the knot correspond to?
one nautical mile covered in one hour.
1117
With regard to estimated navigation, if we wish to calculate the value of the speed referred to an estimated route, taken in a given time interval, such as
of the following formulae should be applied?
V = S / T, where S is expressed in nautical miles and T in hours and tenths of an hour.
1118
Having regard to estimated navigation, wishing to calculate the value of the estimated path between two points, taking into account the propulsive speed of one's own vessel and the time taken to travel it, which of the following formulae
will have to be applied?
S = V * T, where V is expressed in knots (nautical miles per hour) and T in hours and tenths of an hour.
1119
With regard to estimated navigation, if we want to calculate the time interval required to travel the distance between two points at a given speed
propulsive, which of the following formulas should be applied?
T = S / V, where S is expressed in nautical miles and V in knots (nautical miles per hour).
1120
What nautical instruments can be used to measure the value of
an estimated route plotted on a Mercator nautical chart?
nautical squares and parallels.
1121
With regard to coastal navigation, what the compass is mainly used for
nautical in charting operations?
the calculation of distances and the identification of geographical coordinates.
1122
One nautical mile is equivalent to:
1,852 metres.
1123
Definition of nautical mile:
is the length of the meridian arc one sixtieth of a degree wide (1', one prime).
1124
What is the most important cause of the estimated point inaccuracy?
subjective errors in knowledge and/or appreciation of the
drift.
1125
The instruments of estimated navigation are:
compass, solcometer (for measuring one's own speed) and clock.
1126
A ship travelling 12 miles in two hours, how fast is it sailing?
6 knots.
1127
The node is:
the unit of measurement of the ship's speed.
1128
The sea mile is the unit of measurement:
of distances at sea.
1129
A ship sailing at 16 effective knots will travel in 15 minutes:
4 miles.
1130
Navigation is estimated if the determination:
of the estimated ship point is a function of the set heading and the miles travelled in a
given time interval.
1131
The estimated point for the sailor:
is irreplaceable, but insufficient for safe navigation.
1132
In order to determine the estimated point, the following elements must be known:
true heading Pv, own speed, initial position, elapsed time.
1133
A ship sailing at 15 effective knots will travel in 45 minutes:
11.25 miles.
1134
One degree of latitude includes:
60 miles.
1135
To measure the distance between two points on the nautical chart:
the distance between the two points is measured with a compass and plotted on the scale of the
latitudes.
1136
A ship sailing at 15 effective knots will travel in 35 minutes:
8.75 miles.
1137
Proper estimated navigation consists, among other things, of calculating:
the position with the relation 'S = V x T' at each speed change.
1138
The ship point is obtained:
with at least two locations.
1139
180 miles corresponds to:
3 degrees latitude.
1140
One degree of latitude includes:
60 arc primes.
1141
A ship sailing at 9 effective knots will travel in 45 minutes:
6.75 miles.
1142
The location of equal azimuth difference:
is that place formed by a circumference whose points see two conspicuous points on the
always costs the same angle and therefore the same azimuth difference.
1143
A ship sailing at an effective speed of 19 knots will travel in 15 minutes:
4.75 miles.
1144
How many firsts are contained in a mile?
1' (one first) latitude.
1145
A ship sailing at an effective 18 knots will travel in 25 minutes:
7.50 miles
1146
A ship sailing at an effective speed of 19 knots will travel in nine minutes:
2.85 miles.
1147
A ship sailing at 24 effective knots will travel in 35 minutes:
14 miles.
1148
A ship sailing at an effective speed of 22 knots will travel in 15 minutes:
5.50 miles.
1149
A ship sailing at an effective speed of 22 knots will travel in 45 minutes:
16.5 miles.
1150
A ship sailing at an effective 21 knots will travel in 45 minutes:
15.75 miles.
1151
A ship sailing at 16 effective knots will travel in 45 minutes:
12 miles.
1152
1 nautical mile corresponds to the:
60th part of an arc of latitude of 1 degree.
1153
What does the statement 'speed 5 knots' mean?
that you can cover five miles in an hour.
1154
To measure the distance between two points on the nautical chart in mercator projection, one
uses the ladder:
of latitudes, at the same latitude as the area where the distance between two points.
1155
A 4'.4 stretch of latitude corresponds to:
4 miles and 4 tenths of a mile.
1156
Applying the formula T = S : V (time = space divided by speed), we obtain 4.4. This
means that navigation will last:
4 hours and 24 minutes.
1157
The estimated ship point is determined with:
the formula S = V x T.
1158
S = 14 miles; V = 10 knots. The sailing time will be:
1 hour 24 minutes.
1159
S = 11.6 miles; V = 6 knots. The sailing time will be:
1 hour and 56 minutes.
1160
S = 12.4 miles; V = 6 knots. The sailing time will be:
2 hours and 4 minutes.
1161
V = 8 knots; T = 1 hour and 15 minutes. The travelled space will be:
10 miles.
1162
V = 6 knots; T = 2 hours 45 minutes. The distance travelled will be:
16.5 miles.
1163
V = 9 knots; T = 20 minutes. The travelled space will be:
3 miles.
1164
T = 1 hour and 40 minutes; S = 20 miles. The speed will be:
12 knots.
1165
T = 1 hour and 15 minutes; S = 12 miles. The speed will be:
9.6 knots.
1166
T = 3 hours and 30 minutes; S = 24.5 miles. The speed will be:
7 knots.
1167
T = 2 hours and 20 minutes; V = 12 knots. The distance travelled will be:
28 miles.
1168
S = 18 miles; V = 7 knots. The sailing time will be:
2 hours and 34 minutes.
1169
A ship sailing at an actual 10 knots will travel in 18 minutes:
3 miles.
1170
A ship sailing at 15 effective knots will travel in 18 minutes:
4.50 miles.
1171
A ship sailing at 6 effective knots will travel in 35 minutes:
3.50 miles.
1172
A ship sailing at 7.5 knots will travel in 20 minutes:
2.50 miles.
1173
A ship sailing at 12.5 knots will travel in 30 minutes:
6.25 miles.
1174
When are nautical chart instruments mandatory on board?
for navigation beyond 12 miles.
1175
A coastal ship point can be determined:
by the intersection of two or more position locations.
1176
The locations are:
detection lines, capable circles, circles of equal distance and lines
bathymetrics.
1177
One of the indispensable elements for proper coastal navigation is:
the availability of navigation maps with an appropriate scale, in order to identify
possible conspicuous points useful for determining the ship's point.
1178
Which of these equipment on board a vessel is indispensable for
carry out appropriate coastal navigation?
appropriate nautical publications enabling the coast to be recognised.
1179
With regard to coastal navigation, which of these statements is correct?
coastal navigation constitutes a very demanding type of navigation, as
carried out near the coast, where there are very often conspicuous unknown spots, which are not easily identifiable coming from the open sea.
1180
With regard to coastal navigation, which of these statements is correct?
the more accurate the coastal vessel point is, the more reliable the instruments used to determine it, as well as the method employed and experience
seafaring sailor.
1181
The conspicuous points observed by the navigator to determine the coastal ship point must
resultare:
clearly visible and within a visual radius of between eight and ten nautical miles from the coast.
1182
With regard to coastal navigation, what is meant by polar bearing?
the angle between the longitudinal axis of the vessel (bow) and the plane
containing the observed unit-object junction.
1183
With regard to coastal navigation, how does the bearing vary angularly
polar?
000° to 360° degrees clockwise from the longitudinal axis of the unit.
1184
The semicircular polar bearing is represented by the angle between:
the longitudinal axis of the unit and the unit-object junction observed, counted by
000° to 180° to the starboard or left of the unit.
1185
The alignment represents a particular location resulting from the observation of two conspicuous points on the coast whose difference in bearing
is equal to:
0° or 180°.
1186
With regard to coastal navigation, what is the use of nautical squares in the
charting operations?
to the tracking of course angles and bearings.
1187
With regard to coastal navigation, what the compass is mainly used for
nautical in charting operations?
the calculation of distances and the identification of geographical coordinates.
1188
With regard to locations, what is meant by 'capable circle'?
is the locus of position represented by a circumference along which all observers, at the same instant, measure the same difference in bearing of two
conspicuous spots on the coast.
1189
I am south-west of the Meloria Lighthouse; that means I detect it for:
045 degrees.
1190
If I am 5 miles on Rlv 180 degrees from the Lighthouse of Pianosa with my unit; it means that
I find myself:
north of the lighthouse, distance 5 miles.
1191
90-degree and transverse polar detection:
always coincide.
1192
In the event of drift or drift, pull over when crossing a point
conspicuous means when:
the conspicuous point is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the unit.
1193
What I need in order to determine the position of the unit when navigating
compared to a conspicuous point?
of a conspicuous point bearing and distance.
1194
I am south-east of a lighthouse; that means I detect it for:
315 degrees.
1195
If I am 6 miles on the south-west Rlv of the Meloria Lighthouse with my unit; it means
that I find myself:
north-east of the lighthouse, distance 6 miles.
1196
If I am south of a lighthouse; it means I detect it for:
360 degrees.
1197
Navigation is 'coastal' when the ship's point is determined:
is a function of conspicuous elements recognisable from the sea.
1198
The angle of detection of an object means:
the angle between the vertical plane passing through North and the vertical plane passing through
the object detected, both passing through the observer.
1199
I am north of the lighthouse; that means I detect it for:
180 degrees.
1200
I am on Rlv 045 degrees of the lighthouse; that means I am there:
south-west of the lighthouse.
1201
I am on Rlv 135 degrees of the lighthouse; that means I am there:
north-west of the lighthouse.
1202
I am on Rlv 225 degrees of the lighthouse; that means I detect it for:
South-West.
1203
Semicircular polar detection is considered positive or negative if:
the detected object is respectively to the starboard or left of the observer facing
towards the bow.
1204
If I am north-west of a lighthouse; it means I detect it for:
135 degrees.
1205
If I am south-east of the Africa Rock; it means I detect it for:
315 degrees.
1206
We note two conspicuous objects with equal or spaced detections between
them by 180 degrees; they are:
an alignment.
1207
A traverse bearing corresponds to a polar bearing of:
90 degrees.
1208
They are on Rlv 270 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:
east of the lighthouse.
1209
Polar tracking is measured with:
the graphometer.
1210
I am east of the lighthouse; that means I detect it for:
270 degrees.
1211
They are on Rlv 157.5 degrees; that means they are:
north-northwest of the lighthouse.
1212
Which of the answers listed below is not a location?
compass rose.
1213
A place of position:
is a set of points that all enjoy a certain property at the same time
and that this property must be measurable.
1214
They are on Rlv 337.5 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:
south-southeast of the lighthouse.
1215
For coastal navigation it is indispensable:
be in sight of the coast.
1216
They are on Rlv 022.5 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:
south-southwest of the lighthouse.
1217
They are on Rlv 067.5 degrees of the lighthouse; that means they are:
west-southwest of the lighthouse.
1218
I sail with Rv heading west, in the absence of wind and current, and I see on the bow a
lighthouse; it means that I detect it:
for 270 degrees.
1219
It is a conspicuous point:
the bell tower.
1220
Can the ship's point be determined with only one location?
no.
1221
During navigation, the ship's point can be determined with a single conspicuous point if
known the distance to it?
yes.
1222
Can the actual ship point be determined by surveying 2 aligned towers?
Yes, but I need at least one more location.
1223
How often should a fire extinguisher be serviced?
when the gauge needle is on the red.
1224
Should a fire extinguisher be serviced?
never, unless it has been used or there has been a loss of pressure, is sufficient
periodically check that the gauge needle is on green.
1225
How often should a fire extinguisher be replaced?
when it is in a bad state.
1226
What are the elements of the so-called 'fire triangle' that fuel a
fire?
fuel, oxidiser, heat.
1227
How can a fire be extinguished?
significantly lowering the temperature.
1228
A fire is extinguished:
lacking oxygen.
1229
How can combustion be defined?
the heat-producing chemical reaction that takes place between the oxidiser and the
fuel.
1230
On what does the greater or lesser combustibility of a liquid depend?
the flammability temperature of the liquid.
1231
The number and positioning of fire extinguishers in a CE marked unit is determined by the
orders of the Maritime Authority?
no, established in the Owner's Manual.
1232
For pleasure boats NOT CE marked (placed on the market before 17 June 1998):
the number and positioning of fire extinguishers is set by the Regulations implementing the Marine Code according to engine power and provides for a minimum of 1
fire extinguisher in the driver's seat and 1 fire extinguisher in each of the other rooms.
1233
What is comburent?
the substance that fuels combustion by oxidation of the fuel,
generally oxygen.
1234
If, as a result of the conduct of a recreational craft while intoxicated, a
damage or a danger of environmental damage:
revocation of the licence is always ordered.
1235
Whoever assumes or retains command or conduct or nautical direction of
a recreational craft in a state of intoxication is punished,
with an administrative fine ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 15,000 in relation to the
blood alcohol level detected.
1236
Concerning the conduct of a pleasure craft while intoxicated:
suspension of the boating licence from 3 months to 24 months is always ordered, in
in relation to the blood alcohol level detected.
1237
Whoever takes command or conducts a recreational craft in a state of psycho-
physical activity after taking drugs or psychotropic substances is punishable:
with an administrative fine ranging from EUR 2,755 to EUR 11,017.
1238
If, in committing the administrative offence of conducting a recreational craft in a
state of intoxication, as a result of the use of alcoholic beverages, from which damage or danger of environmental damage arises:
revocation of the licence is always ordered.
1239
In the case of driving under the influence of alcohol of a recreational craft for hire:
the penalties provided for shall be increased by one third where a value has been established
corresponding to a blood alcohol level of more than 0.5 and not more than 0.8 grams per litre.
1240
Which of these behaviours involves, in addition to the elevation of an offence administrative, also the application of the accessory sanction of the suspension
of the navigation licence?
taking command or driving a recreational craft while intoxicated.
1241
The penalty for anyone who takes command or conducts a recreational craft in a state of
psycho-physical alteration:
doubles in the event of a claim.
1242
The effects of alcohol:
last up to five hours.
1243
In the case of driving under the influence of alcohol of a recreational craft for hire:
a boating licence is always revoked if a value has been established
corresponding to a blood alcohol level of more than 1.5 grams per litre .
1244
Taking sedative drugs:
has very dangerous effects if alcoholic beverages are consumed at the same time.
1245
In case of excessive intake of alcoholic beverages:
you have a very low level of attention.
1246
When is the use of VHF equipment mandatory for a pleasure boat?
when sailing more than 6 nautical miles from the coast.
1247
On board the recreational craft, while sailing within 6 miles from the coast,
how many fire extinguishers must be on board?
at least 1.
1248
The 'orange smoke buoy' is a signal:
daytime.
1249
Which answer correctly indicates the type and quantity of all lighting equipment
emergency measures prescribed for navigation within 12 miles from the coast:
1 light buoy, 2 red light hand flares, 2 red light parachute flares.
1250
Which of the following must be carried on board
a pleasure boat sailing within 12 miles from the coast?
1 compass and compass deviation tables.
1251
According to the Regulation for the Safety of Pleasure Boating, what are the
individual means of rescue?
lifejackets for each person on board.
1252
According to the Regulation for the Safety of Pleasure Boating, how many smoke buoys must a boat licensed to sail within 12 miles of the
costs?
2
1253
According to the Table of Minimum Safety Equipment to be Kept on Board (Annex V of Ministerial Decree 146/2008), navigation lights are mandatory:
in night navigation over 1 mile from the coast.
1254
The minimum collective life-saving equipment for pleasure boats in navigation
within 12 miles from the coast is:
the coastal self-inflating life raft for navigation within 12 miles of the
coast.
1255
The first-aid kit:
contains medicines and equipment as laid down in a ministerial decree.
1256
How many smoke buoys must a sailing pleasure boat keep on board
within 3 nautical miles of the coast?
1
1257
The legal requirement to have a life belt for each person on board is
prescribed:
for all types of navigation beyond 300 metres from the coast.
1258
For pleasure boats sailing within 3 miles from the coast, as a means
collective rescue is prescribed?
the collective means of rescue is not foreseen.
1259
When sailing within 3 miles from the coast, the vessel must be kept on board:
the 2 red-light hand fires.
1260
When navigating within 300 metres of the coast, there is no requirement for any
safety and rescue. Does this also apply to river navigation?
no, you must have on board at least 1 lifebuoy with rope and belts
rescue for each person on board.
1261
Normally, what is the mileage range of red-light hand fires?
6 miles.
1262
Normally, what is the night range in miles of parachute light rockets
red?
25 miles.
1263
How many red-light hand fires a pleasure boat must keep on board
sailing within 6 nautical miles of the coast?
2
1264
On a unit with 4 people on board, licensed to transport 8 people, how many seatbelts
rescue must be present?
4
1265
The smoke emitted by the smoke tube, once activated, is coloured:
orange.
1266
In general, what is the deadline for emergency and rescue signals such as fires at
hand, parachute rockets and smoke bombs?
every 4 years
1267
The E.P.I.R.B. (Emergency Position Indicator Radio Beacon) is mandatory:
more than 50 miles from the coast.
1268
What emergency lighting equipment is required for seaworthy vessels
'without any limits' from the coast?
4 red-light hand flares, 4 red-light parachute rockets, 1 light buoy.
1269
A radar reflector is compulsory when boats are sailing:
beyond 12 miles from the coast:
1270
A life raft must be serviced:
every two years.
1271
The E.P.I.R.B. is an emergency transmitter:
programmed with the MMSI code assigned by the Ministry of Economic Development.
1272
The amount of life belts to be kept on board:
is in relation to the number of persons on board.
1273
Normally, what is the approximate daytime range of red light parachute rockets?
7 miles.
1274
Normally, what is the ignition duration of red light parachute rockets
used by a pleasure boat?
less than 1 minute.
1275
Is radar compulsory?
no, but it is recommended for night navigation.
1276
What are the correct equipment ranges for lights and signal lights?
up to 3 miles, up to 6 miles, up to 12 miles, up to 50 miles, unlimited from the coast.
1277
Which statement is correct?
navigation within 12 miles and up to 50 miles from the coast provides for different equipment
emergency lighting.
1278
A coastal raft is required:
for navigation beyond 6 miles from the coast, up to 12 miles from the coast.
1279
When is the use of the EPIRB mandatory for a pleasure boat?
when sailing more than 50 nautical miles from the coast.
1280
The coastal life raft is not provided:
when sailing within 6 miles of the coast.
1281
The (non-coastal) life raft for all persons on board when
must be maintained on a pleasure boat?
When sailing more than 12 nautical miles from the coast.
1282
On which document is the number of persons that can be transported on the vessels from
mass-produced yachts?
type-approval certification.
1283
At what distance from the coast are boarders obliged to wear the
individual means of rescue?
regardless of the distance from the coast.
1284
For a pleasure boat sailing within 12 nautical miles from the coast it is
compulsory to have a (non-coastal) life raft on board?
No.
1285
When is the use of VHF equipment mandatory for a pleasure boat?
when sailing more than 6 nautical miles from the coast.
1286
How many red-light hand fires a pleasure boat must keep on board
sailing within 50 nautical miles of the coast?
three.
1287
How many red-light parachute flares must a vessel keep on board from
pleasure boating within 50 nautical miles from the coast?
three.
1288
When is the use of binoculars mandatory for a pleasure boat?
when navigating beyond 12 nautical miles from the coast.
1289
Drivers of sailing boards, jet skis and similar units:
permanently wear individual life-saving equipment, including the persons carried, regardless of the distance from the coast where the
navigation takes place.
1290
Which medicines and medication items must be provided by the
recreational vessels?
are set out in the Ministry of Health Decree of 1 October 2015.
1291
The minimum indispensable sanitary equipment to be equipped with
the pleasure boats used in 'unlimited' chartering activities from the coast is the same as that of vessels not used in chartering activities?
no, it is fixed in a special table.
1292
What is the Table of Equipment containing the minimum indispensable quantity of sanitary equipment that recreational craft licensed for navigation without any limits, without personnel on board, and not engaged in activities
of hire?
Table 'D'.
1293
Which of these statements is correct?
Pleasure craft sailing more than 12 nautical miles from the coast must be
equipped with a first-aid kit.
1294
Where can the security certificate be validated?
at any STED (Sportello Telematico del Diportista) following the visit
inspection by the Technical Board.
1295
A recreational unit must be inspected occasionally:
as a result of damage or changes to the hull or engine, if the
conditions of seaworthiness or safety.
1296
A recreational craft with a CE marking is subject to inspection:
periodic and occasional.
1297
Which recreational craft are subject to periodic safety inspections?
only pleasure boats and ships.
1298
The Recreational Craft Safety Certificate is issued:
from the Telematics Register of Pleasure Craft through the STED, Telematics Desk
of the yachtsman
1299
During the initial safety inspection, the notified or authorised technical body:
determines the maximum number of persons that can be transported.
1300
The registered recreational craft is subject to occasional inspection:
if the need arises.
1301
After the first expiry of the safety certificate, every how many years a recreational craft must be inspected for renewal of the certificate
same?
5 years.
1302
Is the licence subject to validation?
no, you validate the security certificate.
1303
Are pleasure boats subject to the issuance of a safety certificate?
no, they are not subjects.
1304
The validation of a recreational craft's Safety Certificate must be carried out:
if the unit has suffered serious breakdowns or innovations have been made.
1305
Which of these requirements are necessary for the renewal of the Safety Certificate of
a pleasure craft?
issue of an appropriate certificate of suitability by an entrusted Technical Body.
1306
The Security Certificate:
is renewed every five years.
1307
The Safety Certificate of a pleasure craft, in case of first issue:
is valid for eight years after registration for units in the categories of
design A and B.
1308
The Safety Certificate of a pleasure craft, in case of first issue,
is valid for ten years after registration for units in the categories of
design C and D.
1309
The safety certificate of a pleasure craft:
is renewed on the occasion of periodic visits.
1310
A recreational craft bearing the CE mark class B performs the required inspection
periodic afterwards:
8 years from the date of registration; thereafter every 5 years.
1311
In which document is the outcome of the inspection carried out by the Technical Body recorded?
notified or authorised?
security certificate.
1312
Which of the following answer alternatives is true?
the security certificate is subject to expiry.
1313
In the event of an irreparable breach on board, the commander radios the:
MAYDAY and works to save the people on board.
1314
In case of a flaw, which of the following is the most correct operation
alternative answers:
plug the leak from the outside so that the water pressure does not make
move the makeshift 'cap'.
1315
When can voluntary stranding occur?
when voluntarily leading the vessel aground to avoid a potential shipwreck resulting from a leak, fire or collision with another vessel
unit.
1316
What factors must be taken into due consideration when carrying out de- escalation operations?
type and relief of the seabed, the extent of the damage suffered, the most appropriate manoeuvre to be carried out in relation to the characteristics of the vessel and the
place where the accident occurred.
1317
With regard to stranding, which of these statements is correct?
grounding may result from a lack of accuracy in determining the ship's point
near the coast.
1318
With regard to the flaw, which of these statements is correct?
if there is a leak in the bow, the motion of the vessel should be stopped in order to prevent it from increasing the inflow
of water in its interior.
1319
Which of these procedures can be carried out when a unit has suffered
a minor flaw?
operate the bilge pump.
1320
Which of these statements is correct?
the flaw may affect the buoyancy of the vessel as there is a
reduction of the unit's thrust reserve.
1321
What solution can be adopted in order to disengage a vessel?
wait for the high tide to come in.
1322
What measures can best be taken to plug a breach of
considerable size?
plugging the waterway using bulky materials such as, waxed canvas,
mattresses etc.
1323
Which of the following manoeuvres may be the most effective in limiting damage
when two units are about to collide?
stop the engine and possibly engage reverse gear by pulling over
simultaneously, to mitigate the impact.
1324
A fire develops on board and we are in the vicinity of a port: it is right to accelerate to
reach the port as soon as possible?
no.
1325
In the event of a fire in the engine compartment, it is necessary:
first attempt to close the fuel valve.
1326
In the event of a fire on deck, it is essential:
place the boat with the flames downwind.
1327
In the event of a fire with a high flame, where do we direct the jet of the extinguisher?
at the base of the flame.
1328
In the event of a serious fire on board:
I prepare the procedures for abandoning the ship.
1329
An electrical panel on board caught fire; I extinguished the fire:
using a powder extinguisher.
1330
In the event of a fire, what primary order should the captain on board give?
wear life jackets and move away from the fire.
1331
There is a fire in the aft engine compartment, I drive the unit so:
put the fire downwind.
1332
In the event of a fire, while manoeuvring in port, the most appropriate first action is
that of:
Attempt to move the unit away from the harbour by switching off.
1333
What is the function of forced ventilation on board pleasure craft?
equipped with a petrol engine?
ensure complete air exchange before starting the engine.
1334
How to extinguish a fire resulting from the combustion of common substances (wood,
textiles and paper)?
by cooling action through water jets.
1335
What precautions must be taken if the fire develops in the area
stern of the naval unit?
orienting the bow to the wind.
1336
How do you extinguish a fire resulting from the combustion of liquid substances?
through the suffocation action generated, chemical powder, foam, anhydride
carbon dioxide (CO2) or other inert gas.
1337
What countermeasures can be taken in the event of a fire in the room
motor apparatus?
Immediately close the airways and fuel supply.
1338
What manoeuvre can be adopted in the event of a fire occurring in the forward area
of a recreational vessel?
placing the stern to the wind and then the bow to the leeward.
1339
The number and positioning of fire extinguishers in a CE marked unit:
is set out in the Owner's Manual.
1340
For pleasure boats NOT CE marked (placed on the market before 17
June 1998) the number and positioning of fire extinguishers is laid down in the Regulations implementing the Marine Code according to engine power?
yes, and provides for a minimum of 1 fire extinguisher in the driver's seat and 1 fire extinguisher in each of the other rooms.
1341
During the motor manoeuvre of man overboard recovery, how should it be carried out
the final approach to the castaway?
with caution, after the initial speed has been exhausted.
1342
Which of these actions is the most appropriate to take in the case of a man overboard?
throw the ring lifebuoy on board in the direction of the survivor.
1343
A man falls into the sea on the starboard side from a motorised boat,
which of the three manoeuvres in the figure opposite is correct?
the manoeuvre in figure B.
1344
To the cry 'man overboard to ... (left or starboard)':
quickly approaches from the same side as the man overboard.
1345
Which of these precautions is the most appropriate to take in the case of a man overboard?
maintain constant visual control of the castaway.
1346
What is the reason for the timely approach from the
same side from which the castaway fell?
to immediately move the unit's propellers as far away from the shipwreck as possible.
1347
What is the reason for maintaining visual control of the castaway immediately
after his fall into the sea?
facilitate the recovery of the shipwrecked person during the evolutionary manoeuvre
carried out by the unit, averting the risk of its dispersion.
1348
Which of these actions is the most appropriate to take during the recovery phases of
a man who fell into the sea from a naval unit?
throw the ring lifebuoy into the sea as close to the survivor as possible
to facilitate its recovery.
1349
In the event that a crew member falls overboard from the starboard side of the unit:
you must immediately turn the helm to starboard while maintaining constant visual control of the
castaway.
1350
In the event of an accident and subsequent abandonment of the unit, the master:
makes each person on board wear a lifejacket.
1351
In case of abandonment of the vessel:
the raft line must be secured to the boat before launching it into the water.
1352
In which position should the life raft not be placed?
below deck.
1353
In which position should the life raft not be placed?
in a closed locker in a difficult to reach position.
1354
The 'Grab Bag' is:
is that bag containing the equipment normally kept inside the raft of
rescue.
1355
The 'Grab Bag' must:
be kept within reach so that it can be launched into the raft of
rescue in case of abandonment of the boat.
1356
What is meant by maritime rescue?
all activities aimed at searching for and saving human life at sea.
1357
Which national body ensures the overall coordination of the
maritime rescue?
the General Command of the Harbour Master Corps.
1358
In the event of a serious injury occurring to a crew member during the
navigation, which body should be contacted as soon as possible?
International Radio Medical Centre (CIRM).
1359
When the Maritime Authority may order recreational craft to participate in the
rescue activities at sea?
when in or near port.
1360
Under what conditions is it compulsory for a master of a recreational craft to perform
assistance to another unit in danger?
when there are life-threatening persons on board the unit in distress and when not
there is a risk to the rescuing unit and the persons on board.
1361
Under the Navigation Code, which of these statements is the most correct
with regard to 'abandoning ship'?
the commander of the unit orders its 'abandonment' only after ascertaining that
person that all means suggested by the nautical art are unable to save her.
1362
In the event of a collision between two or more vessels, the masters of the vessels are obliged to
provide the other naval units involved with the information to identify their own?
yes, as far as possible.
1363
What steps must the master of the vessel take before ordering it to be abandoned?
ensure that all persons on board are wearing lifejackets and that the collective lifeboat (raft), if fitted, is equipped with the required
safety equipment.
1364
What effect is generated in navigation by lowering the foot (negative trim), in a unit
powered by an outboard motor?
the downward slope of the bow to cushion wave impacts with the sea
format.
1365
What are the main precautions that a recreational vessel will have to take if it is affected by an abrupt worsening of weather conditions?
marines?
(securing) all objects on board, carefully closing portholes and skylights, instructing persons on board on the correct use of collective and individual means of
rescue.
1366
What precautions should be taken in the event of a storm from the
dry land?
head safely towards the coast where the swell is gentler.
1367
What precautions should be taken in the event of a storm from the
sea?
lead the naval unit to the cape.
1368
What arrangements can be made in the event that a vessel
do you sail with particularly heavy seas in the stern causing abrupt engine changes?
reduce speed appropriately.
1369
When navigating in dense fog, what factors may indicate possible
proximity of the coast?
changing colour of the water and the roar of the breakers.
1370
What is the function of the DSC (Digital Selective Calling) system installed on certain types of radio equipment?
transmitting on VHF and HF frequencies, it allows a signal to be sent automatically of distress, emergency or safety to other ships in the vicinity, Maritime Rescue
Coordination Centres and Coastal Stations.
1371
Motor boating in very rough seas:
I do what I can to avoid catching waves on the side.
1372
To mitigate the impact of the formed wave:
you should aim slightly towards the ridge, and then move away from it when the
boat descends into the hollow of the wave.
1373
Sailing with a stern wave:
you hold the positive trim (propeller more up) to raise the bow and limit the strokes on the wave.
1374
Regarding the adjustment of the flaps, with contrary swell is appropriate:
keep them more or less lowered, depending on the type of hull, to counteract the tendency
of the hull to raise the bow due to the mass of water flowing under it.
1375
Regarding the adjustment of the flaps, with a stern sea, it is appropriate:
keep the flaps up, to squash the stern downwards, to counter the wave that
tends to lift the stern and submerge the bow.
1376
Normally, when the flap indicator is on zero, this means:
that at that moment the flap is 'neutral', i.e. horizontal, when instead they are
reported negative numbers this means that the flaps are tilted downwards.
1377
Regarding the adjustment of the flaps, it is possible to state:
which can generally be adjusted independently, so that they can
vary not only the heading adjustment, but also the transverse balance.
1378
Raising the left flap or lowering the right flap results in:
to tilt the hull towards the straight side.
1379
The 'safety break' is:
the switch connected via a red spiral cord (or with a device
electronic) to those who steer an outboard, which 'automatically' shuts down the engine in
case of a fall into the water.
1380
Suddenly visibility becomes poor:
you slow down, turn on your lights and give the prescribed signals.
1381
In which cases can the floating anchor be useful?
when downwind of us is a nearby coast.
1382
To go 'alla cappa' means to take to the sea:
to the anchor with the engine at a speed that allows the unit to drift, leaving a rowing area upwind that can dampen the breakers before
arrive on the windward side.
1383
What is undertow?
ebb waves.
1384
The floating anchor:
serves to limit the unit's traversal.
1385
In the case of solo sailing:
wear a seat belt and secure yourself to the deck.
1386
In the event of bad weather sailing, what action should be taken:
portholes, hatches and sea inlets are closed, leaving only the engine ones open.
1387
To draw the attention of another unit in case of danger:
you perform a slow, repeated movement of both arms extended, from top to
low.
1388
Which statement is correct?
1530 is the emergency telephone number of the Coast Guard.
1389
What qualification entitles the master of a pleasure boat to use a
VHF/FM transceiver equipment?
the restricted certificate of radiotelephone operator for minor ships.
1390
What is the call sign?
allows the VHF to be used on board a recreational vessel.
1391
To install a fixed-type VHF on board:
is only required to check that the equipment is type-approved.
1392
The international call sign allows
using VHF equipment on board pleasure boats and ships.
1393
How often are two-way radios installed on board subjected to
ordinary inspections?
are exempt from ordinary inspections.
1394
In the event of a distress call, on what occasion are 'parachute rockets' used at
red light'?
whether the presence of a ship, a plane, the coast is presumed.
1395
In the event of a distress call, on what occasion are 'hand-held light fires' used
red'?
whether the lights of a ship, an aeroplane, the coast are clearly visible.
1396
Which VHF/FM radio channel is used for distress calls?
channel 16.
1397
As a rule, red-light parachute rockets, when fired into the air, achieve a
minimum quota:
of 300 metres.
1398
The frequency of Channel 16 is:
156.8 Mhz.
1399
Who receives a distress call:
relays the distress call and, if necessary, takes steps to provide assistance
to the endangered unit.
1400
Which word is the distress call preceded by?
MAYDAY repeated three times.
1401
What is the emergency call preceded by?
the words PAN PAN repeated three times.
1402
The procedure for correctly transmitting a distress message:
the distress message to be transmitted must be preceded by the word MAYDAY
repeated three times.
1403
Which word is the security call preceded by?
by the word SECURITE' repeated three times.
1404
Mayday must be repeated during the call:
3 times.
1405
The obligation of radio silence on channel 16 occurs:
in the first 3 minutes after the start of the full and half-hour.
1406
Channel 16 on the VHF frequency band is usable:
only for the first call; to continue communication, you must then switch to
another channel.
1407
In case it becomes necessary to launch a MAYDAY via radio:
the following are communicated in order: international call sign, location coordinates and type
of ongoing danger.
1408
How do you impose radio silence with VHF?
uttering the word SILENCE MAYDAY.
1409
For boat-to-boat communication you can use the channels
channels 6, 8, 72 or 77.
1410
For communication via VHF with fixed apparatus:
when at close range, the reduced power of 1 watt should be used.
1411
On the subject of VHF, which of the following statements is correct:
the master of the vessel is responsible for the proper use of the facilities and
of on-board transceiver equipment.
1412
Radio communications using VHF equipment may be carried out
if:
the antennas of two communicating stations are located above the line
of the horizon.
1413
What is the general range of VHF equipment for communication between vessels?
between 10 and 20 nautical miles
1414
What is the maximum range of VHF equipment for communication between a vessel and
coastal radio stations?
approximately 40 nautical miles.
1415
What function does the squelch of a radio receiver perform?
attenuate background noise during communications.
1416
What is the function of the radar reflector, installed on board the small boating?
intensify the radar return echo, allowing even a small
vessel on which it is installed, both at a great distance and between the various echoes of the sea.
1417
For safety reasons, what are the time intervals for which it is forbidden to carry out
radio communications?
between the minutes 00-03 and 30-33 of each hour.
1418
What is the administrative penalty for exceeding the speed limit?
provided for navigation in port waterways?
the payment of a sum from EUR 414 to EUR 2,066.
1419
Is there a speed limit for a pleasure craft in transit within a port?
yes, it is determined by the maritime authority of jurisdiction, generally 3 knots.
1420
In which ports should you keep starboard both going in and out?
in ports as regulated by order of the Maritime Authority.
1421
In which ports should precedence be given to units leaving over those entering?
in all ports where the regulations of the Maritime Authority so stipulate.
1422
Entering a commercial harbour, with no recreational equipment, we normally have to
warning:
the Maritime Authority.
1423
Subject to local ordinances, as a rule, near the entrance to a port:
We give priority to manoeuvring large ships.
1424
Approaching an Italian port, sailing at night, and detecting the
mouth lights so that the green is on your left and the red is on your starboard:
you have to change course because you are going against the breakwater.
1425
What does the entrance to a harbour mouth look like during the day?
two turrets or small towers: red on the left green on the starboard side.
1426
Subject to local ordinances, as a rule which of the two boats in the picture opposite has the
right of way?
unit B, because it is leaving port.
1427
Subject to local ordinances, at what distance from the harbour entrance is it good practice to reduce
the speed of a pleasure boat?
500 metres away.
1428
Subject to local ordinances, at what speed is it good to enter port?
3 knots.
1429
Barring local ordinances, is it normally possible to enter a port while sailing?
no, it is not possible.
1430
How is the entrance to a port signalled at night?
2 lights: green on the starboard side and red on the left.
1431
Subject to local ordinances, if you want to enter the harbour, which light should you steer towards
their own unit?
towards the green light.
1432
When leaving port, in doubt of not being seen by other boats, how do you
involves?
emitting 1 long beep and listening for a response.
1433
As a result of my mooring and the consequent wave motion generated, the unit moored alongside me suffers damage from hitting the quay.
Therefore, the injured party:
is entitled to compensation for the damage due to the irregular conduct of navigation and the consequent liability for collision between ships, even if only due to wave motion.
1434
Subject to local ordinances, how should the unit transiting the 500
metres in front of the harbour entrance?
must give precedence to units entering and leaving the port.
1435
For non-concessionary maritime property intended for navigation and maritime
transport, the reservation of berths for recreational craft in transit is disciplined:
by order of the Head of the competent maritime district.
1436
Which statement is correct?
a unit navigating along a channel must, when possible and not involving
danger, keep close to the right-hand edge of your course.
1437
Licensees of recreational boating facilities must reserve
moorings in transit:
for the duration of 72 hours.
1438
Berths reserved for persons with disabilities:
when not used for this purpose, may be occupied by another unit, with the obligation to be released in the event of a request by a disabled person notified to the
dealer at least 24 hours in advance.
1439
What precautions must be taken by a motorised pleasure vessel sailing close to the coast during the bathing season?
sail at a speed not exceeding 10 knots in the sea area between the bathing limit and the
1,000 metres from the coast.
1440
What is the minimum distance vessels must maintain from the buoys of
divers, sighted during navigation?
a distance of at least 100 metres.
1441
Which regulations govern the limits of navigation from the coast and the related requirements
to the landing of pleasure craft on the beach?
orders of the local maritime district chiefs pursuant to Art. 81 of the Maritime Code. Navigation.
1442
What is, in principle, the minimum distance from beaches beyond which it is possible to
circulating, stopping or anchoring by a vessel?
a maximum of 200 metres.
1443
How are the boundaries of the water areas facing 200 metres from the line marked
of foreshore during the bathing season?
by placing red buoys at a distance of 50 metres
from each other parallel to the coastline.
1444
How launch corridors are signposted for landing and departure
of units on the beach during the bathing season?
with yellow or orange buoys placed perpendicular to the coast to a
distance of 250 metres.
1445
How are the outer buoys marking the launching corridors that allow units to land and depart on the beach, during the season
bathing?
by means of white flags placed on the outer buoys.
1446
In addition to the maritime signals required by the regulations in force, which maritime signals mark a vessel engaged in underwater activities during
daylight hours?
a red ball on which is placed a red flag with a white diagonal.
1447
Which maritime signals characterise a unit employed in activities
diving during night hours?
in addition to the prescribed maritime signals, an all-round visible yellow flashing light at
a distance of no less than 300 metres.
1448
What administrative sanction is provided for those who use a recreational craft
exceeding the prescribed speed limits?
the payment of a sum from EUR 414 to EUR 2,066.
1449
During the bathing season, which route should I take to reach the shore
(given the absolute necessity for emergency reasons)?
I approach in slow motion with the aid of the oars and in any case taking a course in
direction perpendicular to the shoreline profile.
1450
A unit in transit in the vicinity of a diver:
moderates speed and continues navigating while keeping a distance of at least
100 metres away from the signal.
1451
If, during navigation, it is detected that a sporting event is taking place on a race course on one's route, then, without prejudice to the requirements set out in the maritime police order, the following shall be adopted to continue navigation
following precautions:
alter their course to keep a safe distance from the limits of the competition course.
1452
The A (Alpha) flag shown opposite is prescribed by the International Code of Signals,
is displayed by a unit to indicate that:
has a diver diving.
1453
A red flag with a white diagonal band placed on a float indicates the
presence of:
a diver diving within 50 metres of the signal.
1454
To signal his position, the night diver must display a buoy equipped with a beacon that emits visible yellow flashes, round the horizon, at
a distance:
not less than 300 metres.
1455
Launch corridors are sea areas where:
the launching and landing of motor-powered recreational craft is permitted.
1456
Can sport fishing be carried out with a recreational craft?
Yes, within certain catch limits.
1457
The maximum distance between the spearfisherman and his buoy of
signalling is equal to:
50 metres.
1458
The jet ski can sail:
within 1 mile from the coast.
1459
The sailboard can sail:
within 1 mile from the coast.
1460
Boats serving (tenders) the pleasure craft may sail:
within 1 mile from the coast or from the mother unit, wherever it is located.
1461
A vessel with a sail area of no more than 4 square metres may sail:
within 1 mile from the coast.
1462
Vessels commonly referred to as skates, jolos, pedalos, etc., may
navigate:
within 1 mile from the coast.
1463
Can motorised navigation be banned?
yes, e.g. in the strip of sea prioritised for bathing.
1464
Spearfishing is permitted:
more than 500 metres from beaches frequented by bathers.
1465
Can spearfishing with a rifle be carried out at night?
no.
1466
The use of encircling nets is possible for the exercise of sport fishing with units
recreational?
no, it is not possible.
1467
Is it possible to carry out professional fishing on board pleasure craft?
no, it is not possible.
1468
Recreational underwater fishing is prohibited at distances of less than:
100 metres from the fixed fishing facilities.
1469
Recreational underwater fishing may be carried out with the use of auxiliary equipment of
breathing?
no, never.
1470
The pursuit of sport fishing activities (not underwater) with a recreational craft:
is prohibited within 500 metres of units engaged in professional fishing.
1471
What does the tensile strength of an anchor depend on?
by its weight and, in part, by its shape.
1472
Which of these factors should be taken into account before giving
at anchor?
the presence of possible bans as well as the local weather situation.
1473
How many chain-link lengths should be spun during the anchoring manoeuvre?
3 to 5 times the seabed.
1474
When is mooring on an anchor or wheel used in principle?
in bodies of water with adequate free space around them.
1475
What type of anchorage should be adopted, in principle, in rivers?
using two anchors whose chains create a 180° angle between them, sunk in the
direction of the current.
1476
The umbrella anchor, with lockable flukes, is generally used:
by small units, including inflatable boats.
1477
What are the main characteristics of grappino?
it is a small anchor with four fixed gears, used only for
anchorages of small units.
1478
What are the main characteristics of the Bruce anchor?
is a one-piece anchor, equipped with a single wing-shaped fluke and
with no other articulated parts.
1479
Anchor chains used on board vessels consist of links
having form:
elliptical.
1480
What is meant by 'barbotin'?
the shaped wheel with chain imprint, located at the base of the winch, which prevents the
slipping of chain links during anchor manoeuvring operations.
1481
What advantage does anchoring by means of two anchors with anchors attached?
reduce the unit's turning range, which thus assumes an elliptical configuration at
difference from wheel anchorage.
1482
What are the main steps involved in an anchoring manoeuvre?
one heads for the anchorage site with only the buoyancy, keeping the bow to the
wind or current. The anchor is dropped, while simultaneously giving a light blow to backward march.
1483
When is it appropriate to use the claw and grapple before dropping anchor?
if you have to anchor on a rocky seabed or one strewn with wrecks, where the anchor
can get stuck.
1484
What does a 'grippia' look like?
by a rather thin line, one end of which is tied to the anchor diamond
while the other is attested to a buoy.
1485
What steps must be taken to check for proper sealing
of the anchor?
it is advisable to carry out subsequent surveys, using conspicuous points of the
coast, or of subsequent ship points.
1486
The anchor arms are called:
marres.
1487
When an anchor makes heads, it means that:
has taken hold of the bottom.
1488
Regarding the tightness of an anchorage, it can be said that:
The anchor must remain horizontal on the bottom, even if the boat forces the calamus.
1489
The lower part, in the centre of the flukes, of an anchor is called:
diamond.
1490
The term calumus indicates:
the part of the chain that is outboard.
1491
According to a good rule of seamanship, what is the ideal weight of an anchor to use for
a 10-metre unit?
between 15 and 20 kg.
1492
An afflicted unit is that unit which:
he bottomed out 2 anchors with calumens open at about 45 degrees.
1493
What is not to be done in the anchorage to the wheel?
also give an additional anchor from the stern.
1494
If an anchor does not hold, it is said:
is ploughing.
1495
What is the name of the part of the anchor that grips the bottom?
fluke.
1496
The 'grippia' is a rope that binds:
to the anchor diamond to facilitate its recovery.
1497
To anchor in calm seas on a 16-metre seabed, how much line do you need
spinning?
at least 48 metres.
1498
The grappling 'iron' is:
an anchorage for small boats.
1499
To anchor in calm seas on a 9-metre seabed, how much line do you need
spinning?
at least 27 metres.
1500
To anchor in calm seas on a 5-metre seabed, how much line do you need
spinning?
at least 15 metres.
1501
When an anchor makes heads, it means that:
has taken hold of the bottom.
1502
Regarding the tightness of an anchorage, it can be said that:
the calume is increased by 3 to 5 times the bottom depending on the conditions
meteomarine.
1503
The lower part, in the centre of the marres, of an anchor is called:
diamond.
1504
The term calumus indicates:
the length of rope and/or chain spun to anchor.
1505
Anchoring to the wheel means:
freedom of rotation of 360 degrees of the boat at anchor.
1506
Anchoring using a single spun bow anchor is called:
to the wheel.
1507
An anchor is said to dispatch if:
does not hold its grip on the bottom.
1508
So-called 'brushed anchors' occur when:
for better sealing in critical conditions, the main anchor diamond is
fixed a second anchor, called a 'brush', with a chain of 4-6 metres.
1509
With reference to the use of the anchor depending on the seabed, it is possible to state
that:
the Danforth anchor is excellent on sandy-muddy bottoms.
1510
With reference to the various types of anchors, it can be stated that:
the CQR and Delta are anchor types for all bottoms.
1511
Anchoring in a bay of several units at a broadside is:
not recommended because you are exposed to wave motion.
1512
The commonly used procedure for proper anchoring is:
after spinning an appropriate amount of lime, start backing slightly, continuing to spin the cable-top, in order to spread the appropriate lime and make
head to the anchor.
1513
The commonly used procedure for proper anchoring is:
After setting the unit's bow to the wind, having exhausted the buoyancy, the anchor is dropped.
1514
In the illustrated situation of a unit at anchor, where is it most appropriate to drop anchor?
in point C.
1515
What is the correct position for anchoring in the crowded roadstead shown in the figure?
that of boat B, because it has space for the wheel.
1516
When anchoring in strong winds, it is advisable:
quickly spinning a suitable amount of chain, loosening the barbotin of the
anchor winch.
1517
In the event of strong winds, having to drop anchor and then moor aft to the
dock, it is appropriate:
set the anchor slightly upwind of the berth you want
occupy.
1518
The anchorage in the bay of several units at a broadside is:
not recommended because you are exposed to wave motion.
1519
On the subject of anchors, which statement is correct?
dynamically sealed anchors, e.g. Mantus and Ultra, are suitable for all bottoms.
1520
In anchoring, what is the minimum calumny, i.e. length of cable or chain, to be given
compared to the depth of the seabed?
3 times the bottom.
1521
To weigh anchor:
you give a slight forward stroke to take tension off the chain.
1522
The characteristics of the Rocna anchor are:
a single fixed fluke, in the shape of a concave blade, equipped with a roll-bar that ensures that
did not tip over onto the seabed.
1523
I anchor and observe the situation depicted in the picture, I deduce:
the presence of a sustained current, which I must take into account when manoeuvring
anchorage.
1524
I anchor and observe the situation depicted in the picture, I deduce.
the westward rotation of units at anchor, should the wind cease.
1525
What does a 'dead body' look like?
a concrete block, laid on the seabed, to which a ring is attached with a chain that has a floating buoy at the other end in
surface.
1526
The manoeuvre to approach a mooring buoy is carried out:
making the vessel move slowly towards the buoy, keeping the bow at the
wind or current.
1527
A unit is said to be docked when:
is secured to the quay by mooring cables.
1528
What is the main function of mooring cables called 'springs'?
immobilise the unit from movement in the longitudinal direction.
1529
What is the main function of mooring cables known as 'sleepers'?
do not move the vessel away from the quay or other vessel alongside.
1530
When mooring with the stern on the quay, the stern lines are arranged in a manner
crossed:
in the presence of undertow, in order to prevent the stern from moving sideways.
1531
The 'doublet' is a mooring line:
rotated around the bollard at the quay and then secured the two ends to the
on-board bollard.
1532
What condition is necessary for a unit to decide to moor in
two-buoy security?
that the two buoys are located one forward and the other aft of the vessel.
1533
Pictured opposite is a unit at the 'English' berth, as the
mooring cables indicated by arrows?
spring.
1534
With reference to the drawing opposite, with what type of cables is the unit moored?
stern transom and bow transom.
1535
Can the pictured unit be considered correctly moored?
no, because without a bow 'spring' and a stern 'spring' it can move along
the longitudinal axis.
1536
The 'spring' is:
the mooring cable running from the bow or stern of the boat to the quay
towards the centre of the boat, which is essential in 'English-style' mooring.
1537
In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be secured
first?
the one on bollard A.
1538
In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be secured
first?
the one on bollard B.
1539
In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be freed for
first wanting to leave the dock?
the one on bollard B.
1540
In the situation depicted in the figure opposite, which stern line should be freed for
first wanting to leave the dock?
the one on bollard A.
1541
The polypropylene cable is:
used only for floating lines used for rescue.
1542
Polyester cable is used:
for mooring lines.
1543
The lover's bowline is a knot:
of great tightness, suitable for mooring cables.
1544
The spoken node:
it is useful for securing wings to pulpits and dredges.
1545
What is the trapeze (or drape)?
the line that joins the catenary to the quay in marinas and acts as a mooring to the
wide.
1546
How to make use of the bow truster by mooring at the quay on your side
straight?
to starboard, so as to favour the translation of the unit parallel to the
quay.
1547
What is the instrument used to measure the speed of the units?
solcometer.
1548
Having to pull in aft, with a unit equipped with a single right-hand propeller, which
manoeuvre:
manoeuvre no. 2.
1549
Having to approach aft with a unit equipped with a single left-handed propeller, which
manoeuvre compared to those proposed in the figures:
manoeuvre no. 1.
1550
Having to reach the quay with the stern aboard a unit equipped with a single
left-handed propeller, it is more convenient to take as the starting position:
position 3.
1551
Having to reach the quay with the stern aboard a unit equipped with a single
right-hand propeller, it is more convenient to take as the starting position:
position 2.
1552
To make a correct stern approach to the quay:
with a left-handed propeller, it backs up perpendicularly to the quay presenting the
starboard side of the quay.
1553
The operation of approaching a quay or a float is known under the
name of:
berthing.
1554
To pull alongside (English style) a quay with a unit equipped with a propeller
right-handed:
with the quay to the left, you back up with the left jaw at the
dock, approaching the stern and stopping the buoyancy.
1555
Wanting to rotate on the spot from a standstill, simultaneously exploiting the effects evolution of propeller and rudder:
with a left-handed propeller, in forward gear we put the rudder on the starboard side, pulling over
definitely to starboard.
1556
To secure the unit to a buoy, one binds:
to the top under the buoy.
1557
How do you measure the length of a trailer?
from the stern of the tug to the stern of the last towed unit.
1558
Approaching a roadstead, one must:
proceed with caution, if necessary engaging and disengaging the gear to ensure
a moderate speed
1559
In the wind situation illustrated, what is the best approach manoeuvre to the quay
correct?
image 1
1560
When navigating within a roadstead, one must take into account:
that the wave formed by one's boat may create a disturbing situation or
danger to other units at anchor.
1561
With regard to an outboard motor, you should know that:
adjusting the foot upwards with the 'TRIM' causes the bow to be elevated
relative to the surface of the sea.
1562
When the TRIM is all down, the trim is said to be:
all in the negative and serves as an initial push to achieve the
glide.
1563
We are on a collision course; as a rule, the unit with the right of
precedence must:
Maintain a steady course and speed, making sure the other unit gives way.
1564
How should one present oneself in the manoeuvre for the buoy catch?
downwind of the buoy.
1565
The floating anchor:
serves to limit the unit's traversal.
1566
The floating anchor:
is suitable for use near the leeward coast.
1567
The use of the floating anchor is advantageous in the case of:
depths too great and in the presence of drift.
1568
Generally, the 'TRIM' function in an outboard engine causes the unit's bow to rise by an angle between the sea surface and
the plan:
horizontal of the unit itself.
1569
In general, the solcometer (also commonly referred to as the log):
gives the speed and path data travelled in a given time.
1570
The electronic sounder is called:
fishfinder.
1571
When the speed data provided by the solcometer (also commonly called log)
is not reliable:
in the event of a power failure.
1572
The solcometer (also commonly called log) measures speed:
own or propulsive, i.e. that produced by the propellers.
1573
A motorised vessel, less than 50 metres in length, which is conducting ordinary night navigation, must show (identify the
correct combination):
masthead White, starboard Green, port Red, crowning White.
1574
A fishing vessel intent on trawling, daytime shows:
a bicone with the vertices joined.
1575
An air-cushion ship in displacement navigation; at night it shows:
the lights prescribed for the mechanically propelled vessel.
1576
The visible sector of the crowning light is large:
135 degrees.
1577
What is the width of the arc of the horizon in which the uninterrupted light of a lantern is visible
side of a naval unit in navigation?
112°,5.
1578
A pleasure boat, sailing at night within 3 miles from the coast, what
can it use to signal its position in place of the regulation lights?
a white light safety torch.
1579
The light beam of the crowning light in night navigation is:
135 degrees wide towards the stern, centred on the longitudinal axis.
1580
The side lights have a wide field of vision:
112.5 degrees measured from the longitudinal axis of the unit to starboard aft and
left.
1581
We are in daytime navigation aboard our boat when we detect a unit with a cone arranged as in the figure opposite: what does this indicate
signal?
a unit that proceeds simultaneously under sail and motor.
1582
A ship at anchor in the daytime must show:
a black balloon.
1583
The light of a masthead light is coloured:
white.
1584
The second masthead light has a visibility sector of:
225 degrees towards the bow, centred on the longitudinal axis.
1585
The unit engaged in fishing, when underway, must leave the course clear:
to a ship that does not steer.
1586
In night navigation, pleasure craft have priority over ships that
show special lights under the Regulation to Prevent Collisions at Sea - Colreg?
never.
1587
Which pleasure craft instead of the statutory navigation lights may
use a white torch at night?
sailing yachts of less than 7 metres in length.
1588
A mechanically propelled unit underway must leave the course clear to a
unit that does not govern?
yes, always.
1589
The crowning light of a trailer unit is coloured:
white.
1590
Lanterns displayed by a motor vessel of 50 metres or more with
trailer up to 200 metres long:
are reported in Colreg.
1591
What lights does a ship of 50 m or more in length display that is
stranded?
the additional lights established by the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.
1592
Which lights does the motor vessel of 50 metres or more show with
trailer longer than 200 metres?
additional lights on the towing vessel, as laid down in the Regulation for
Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.
1593
Daytime signals of the ship with limited manoeuvrability, intent on dredging or in operations
underwater are:
defined by the Regulation to Prevent Collisions at Sea - Colreg.
1594
The bearing does not change and the distance decreases; it means that:
there is a risk of collision with the other unit.
1595
The navigation lights must be lit:
at dusk and in poor visibility conditions.
1596
A towed ship, when sailing at night, shows:
lit, the way and crowning lights.
1597
What signals does a ship of 50 metres or more in length show, conditioned
from its immersion?
the lights and signals laid down in the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.
1598
Regulatory navigation lights are prescribed:
in any case, if the unit is used for navigation at night, in accordance with the Regulations for
Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.
1599
Are navigation lights prescribed for pleasure craft?
yes, for pleasure craft sailing more than 1 mile from the coast.
1600
The range of the side lights of a unit 12 metres or more in length but
less than 50 metres is:
2 miles.
1601
A mechanically propelled ship 280 metres long, how many masthead lights
exposes?
2
1602
The total angular amplitude given by the sum of the visibility sectors of the 'beacons
side' is by:
225 degrees towards the bow, centred on the longitudinal axis.
1603
The ship can use the service lights to illuminate the decks when:
is at anchor.
1604
An additional cone with the apex upwards is shown in the direction of the gear by the non-trawler vessel that is operating with an external extending gear
more than:
150 metres.
1605
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a ship:
fishing vessel of a length of 50 metres or more, which is intent on fishing at
train, which heads to the left of the observer.
1606
In addition to the lights prescribed for the mechanically propelled vessel under way, a
air cushion ship must show:
1 yellow, flashing light, visible over the entire horizon, if the unit is operating in trim
non-displacement.
1607
At night they light up on board:
regulatory headlights.
1608
The following lights are lit on the sides of a vessel underway:
green to starboard and red to port.
1609
In night navigation, a motorised pleasure craft with an overall length of 45
metres must be shown:
both the white masthead light, the side marker lights and the
crowning.
1610
A motorised unit of 50 metres or more, what should it turn on in
more than one with a length of less than 50 metres?
a white light higher than the masthead and aft, visible for
225 degrees.
1611
A vessel sailing at night is obliged to light:
side marker lights and crowning light.
1612
The visibility sector of the red and green repeater (or optional) lights showing
on the mast of some sailing units is:
is equal to 360 degrees.
1613
The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates a unit:
engaged in non-trawl fishing, whose gear extends outboard for more than 150
metres, which it directs towards the observer.
1614
The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates a unit:
less than 50 metres long, engaged in trawling, heading towards
the observer.
1615
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a unit:
motorboat less than 50 metres long showing starboard.
1616
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a unit:
motorised, less than 20 metres long, showing the prow.
1617
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a boat:
sail with optional lights, showing the stern.
1618
A pilot ship shows:
the lights and signals laid down in the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea - Colreg.
1619
The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates one:
sailing ship showing the left.
1620
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate one:
non-trawling fishing vessel without a draft.
1621
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate one:
non-trawling fishing vessel, with draft, seen from its straight side.
1622
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate:
a fishing vessel, intent on non-trawling, with outboard nets for more than
150 metres and heads to the starboard of the observer.
1623
The light shown in the adjacent figure indicates:
a sailing unit showing starboard.
1624
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a ship:
trawling, showing the left.
1625
The daytime signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:
a fishing vessel operating with non-trawl gear extended overboard for more than
150 metres.
1626
The daytime signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:
a unit at anchor.
1627
The daytime signal shown in the adjacent figure indicates:
a sailing unit that also sails with a motor.
1628
When are navigation lights to be kept on?
from sunset to sunrise and from sunrise to sunset in case of visibility
reduced, as well as in all other circumstances where it is deemed necessary.
1629
The one shown in the figure:
is a unit at anchor with a length of less than 50 metres.
1630
In the figure, which unit is it?
a sailing vessel under 20 metres in length, seen from the bow.
1631
In the figure, which unit is it?
a sailing vessel under sail, 20 metres or more in length, seen from the bow.
1632
A unit of less than 50 metres in length, trawling, with a draft, such as
daytime signals must show?
two cones with their vertices joined in a vertical line on each other.
1633
What lights must a sailing vessel longer than 20 metres display in
navigation?
the side and stern lights.
1634
The complete list of lights shown by the ships is indicated:
in Colreg.
1635
The lights shown in the adjacent figure indicate a ship:
motor vehicle, 50 metres or more in length, which is heading to the left
of the observer.
1636
Two mechanically propelled units that are sailing, as shown in the figure opposite, on opposite courses with a risk of boarding, how should they
involve?
each pulls to starboard.
1637
What is the regulation governing the issue of collisions at sea?
the 1972 International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, known as
COLREG '72.
1638
Under COLREG '72, what does the expression 'reduced visibility' mean?
any condition in which visibility is reduced by fog, mist, falling snow, violent
downpours, sandstorms or any other similar event.
1639
Any manoeuvre undertaken with the aim of avoiding a collision, if the circumstances of the case
allow it, it must be executed:
decisively and with due respect for the observance of good rules of seamanship.
1640
Any change of course and/or speed to avoid a collision, if the
circumstances of the case permit, must:
be large enough to be obvious to the other observing vessel
visually or with radar.
1641
Regarding the navigation of vessels within a traffic separation scheme, such as in the Strait of Messina, which of these statements is
correct?
the unit of less than 20 metres in length or the sailing unit shall not obstruct the passage of a mechanically propelled vessel following the traffic separation scheme.
1642
When two sailing units approach each other taking the wind from different sides,
so as to run the risk of a collision:
the unit that has the wind on its left must leave the course clear for the other.
1643
When two sailing vessels approach each other taking the wind from the
same side, thus running the risk of a collision:
the unit that is upwind must leave the course clear for the one that is downwind.
1644
Which statement is correct?
a unit that has difficulty manoeuvring must leave the course clear to a vessel that
does not govern.
1645
With regard to the situation of cross-routes, implying a danger of collision, between two mechanically propelled units:
the unit that sees the other on its starboard side must leave its course clear and, when the
circumstances permit, it must avoid passing them from the bow.
1646
In case of limited visibility:
each unit must proceed at a safe speed relative to the circumstances of the
time and visibility conditions.
1647
With regard to the scope of application of the rules on lights:
from sunset to sunrise, the units must not show any light other than
can be confused with the lights prescribed by the COLREG.
1648
With regard to the scope of application of the rules on lights:
in case of reduced visibility and in all other circumstances, if deemed necessary,
the lights prescribed by the COLREG must also be displayed from sunrise to sunset.
1649
Which sound signal equipment must a unit of length be equipped with?
less than 12 metres?
There is no obligation, under 12 metres the unit must be provided with a means in
capable of producing an effective sound signal.
1650
Regarding the warning signs that a unit must use or display when
needs help or is in danger, which of these statements is correct?
can use a continuous sound emitted by any signal equipment from
fog.
1651
Which of the two sailing units is obliged to leave the course clear for the other?
unit A, which has the wind on the left, must leave the course clear for unit B.
1652
Taking the wind from the same side, which of the two sailing units is held to leave
free course to the other?
unit A, which is upwind, must leave the course clear for unit B, which is downwind.
1653
The 'reaching ship' can be recognised at night because:
is within the radius of the crowning light of the one preceding it.
1654
A collision course is present, in the case of converging routes, when:
the bearing remains constant and the distance decreases.
1655
One unit, reaching another unit:
must leave the course clear for the ship reached.
1656
In the presence of fog, what sound signals should a motor vessel emit in
navigation with draft?
1 prolonged whistle at intervals of no more than 2 minutes.
1657
A mechanically propelled ship underway signals other units in view,
a starboard pull-up with:
1 short sound emitted with a whistle.
1658
A reaching unit emitting 2 long and 2 short beeps is
signalling to the unit reached that it intends to:
pass it on the left.
1659
A mechanically propelled ship underway, as signalled by
pull over to the left?
with 2 short sounds emitted with the whistle.
1660
The unit engaged in fishing, when underway, must leave the course clear:
to a ship with limited manoeuvrability.
1661
Pictured opposite are two motor-powered pleasure craft: which one
of the two has the duty to manoeuvre?
Unit A pulls to starboard and passes aft of Unit B.
1662
A dredger intent on dredging is considered to be one:
ship with limited manoeuvrability.
1663
The bearing does not change and the distance decreases; it means that:
there is a risk of collision with the other unit.
1664
I am in command of a motor boat and give way to another motor boat
which emits two short whistles; so I expect that:
such a boat performs a left-hand approach.
1665
Unless otherwise expressly provided for in the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea (Colreg '72), in general a motor vehicle towards whom it is obliged to
give precedence? (identify the answer with the correct order of precedence):
in order: ship not steering, ship with limited manoeuvrability, ship fishing, ship sailing.
1666
We note that there is a risk of collision with another unit if:
in the case of opposite routes, the polar bearing does not change and the distance decreases.
1667
Which, between two sailing units A and B in the figure, whose routes cross, has the right of way considering that unit A displays a black cone with its vertex pointing towards
the bass?
the B unit.
1668
Which, between two sailing vessels A and B in the picture, whose routes cross, has the right to
precedence?
unit A.
1669
Are navigation lights prescribed for pleasure craft?
yes, for pleasure craft sailing more than 1 mile from the coast.
1670
The range of side lights of a unit 12 metres or more in length but
less than 50 metres is:
2 miles.
1671
A unit longer than 20 metres, at anchor in fog, to signal the
his presence emits:
rapid bell sounds for five seconds at intervals of no more than one
minute.
1672
The fog bell is mandatory for units that are equal in length or
higher than:
12 metres.
1673
A ship in navigation intending to overtake another unit on the left emits the
following sound signals:
2 long and 2 short sounds.
1674
The abbrivo or abbrivio is:
the motion that remains when the engine reverser is disengaged or the sails are foiled.
1675
Two motor units sailing on collision courses (not opposite):
the unit coming from the port side pulls to its starboard and then passes astern
to the other unit.
1676
In case of fog, one unit:
with engine, stationary and without buoyancy, emits, at intervals not exceeding 2 minutes, 2 sounds
prolonged with an interval between them of about 2 seconds.
1677
The following lights are lit on the sides of a vessel underway:
green to starboard and red to port.
1678
In night navigation, a motorised pleasure craft with an overall length of 45
metres must be shown:
both the white masthead light, the side marker lights and the
crowning.
1679
A motorised unit of 50 metres or more, what should it turn on in
more than one with a length of less than 50 metres?
a white light higher than the masthead and aft, visible for
225 degrees.
1680
A vessel sailing at night is obliged to light:
side marker lights and crowning light.
1681
The danger of a collision between two units may exist if:
opposite sides are shown.
1682
There is a danger of collision between two units if:
through successive surveys, the simultaneity of transit for the
same point.
1683
I am in command of the unit that does not have the right of way and the danger of
collision: what to do?
I implement the manoeuvre to give precedence.
1684
Among three motorised recreational craft, the one with the right of precedence has the right of precedence:
coming from starboard.
1685
A unit is defined as a 'ship reached' when:
shows the crowning sector to the reaching ship.
1686
If two motorised recreational craft display, both to each other, side lights and
that of the masthead, takes precedence:
none; they must both manoeuvre on their starboard side.
1687
To establish that two units arrive at the 'collision point' at the same time, it is sufficient:
take two polar surveys at successive times of the other unit. The danger of collision is
effective and real if the angle remains constant and the distance between the two units decreases.
1688
The sound signal '2 prolonged sounds followed by 1 short' indicates:
which I intend to overtake to starboard.
1689
The sound signal '1 short sound' indicates:
I intend to pull over to starboard.
1690
The intention to overtake is signalled with:
2 long sounds (to which I will add 1 short for overtaking to starboard and 2 short for
overtake to the left).
1691
Relating to sound signal equipment:
a unit with a length of less than 12 metres must in any case be equipped with any
medium capable of producing an effective sound signal.
1692
In the event of poor visibility, what is the sound signal that sailing yachts
have to issue?
1 long sound and 2 short ones at intervals of no more than two minutes.
1693
In the event of poor visibility, who shall make 1 prolonged sound every two minutes
in accordance with the Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?
motor units sailing with a buoyancy.
1694
In night navigation I see a white light in the direction of my bow:
I am joining another unit, so I will have to give it priority.
1695
As long as it is not clear who has the right of way, in the case of intersecting routes such that the red side light of the minor unit B is visible from unit A
dimensions:
Polar surveys of unit B are carried out at successive times to assess the need for the manoeuvre to give way.
1696
The Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea stipulate that:
in doubtful situations the danger is considered to exist.
1697
The Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea stipulate that:
the manoeuvre to give way is decisive, timely and evident.
1698
The 'reaching ship' can be recognised at night because:
is within the radius of the crowning light of the one preceding it.
1699
Taking the wind from the same side, which one of the two sailing units is required to leave
free course to the other?
unit A, which is upwind, must leave the course clear for unit B, which is downwind.
1700
What are the elements that influence the luminous range of headlights?
light intensity, weather visibility and eye sensitivity
of the observer.
1701
The nominal range of a lighthouse:
corresponds to the luminous flux of a light referred to a homogeneous atmosphere in
where the meteorological visibility is 10 nautical miles.
1702
What are the elements that influence the geographical range of a lighthouse?
the curvature of the earth, the height of the light and the elevation of the observer's eye.
1703
What is the 'phase' of a maritime signal?
by each successive element that makes up a cycle of a rhythmic light (flash,
eclipse).
1704
What is meant by 'light buoy'?
a floating beacon tied to the seabed.
1705
What, in principle, do the light buoys signal?
the limits of navigable channels, dangers pertaining to the safety of navigation and mirrors
waters of special interest.
1706
The description 'Sc.(3)' identifies a light signal:
sparkling, in groups of 3.
1707
The description 'Alt. b.r.' identifies a light signal:
alternately showing the colours white and red.
1708
The description 'Int.(2)' identifies a light signal:
intermittent, in eclipse groups of 2.
1709
How can you define a 'radar reflector'?
a device, which can also be fitted on signals, enabling
passively reflect radar impulses.
1710
What does the following alphanumeric code in the vicinity of the Capo Negro lighthouse on the island of Zannone Fl(3) 10s 37m 12M indicate?
which emits a flashing light in groups of 3 flashes in 10 seconds, the light has a height above mean sea level of 37 metres, and is visible at a range of
nominal 12 nautical miles.
1711
With reference to the AISM-IALA signalling system, in which maritime contexts is it
used the signal on the side depicted?
is a 'special signal' used to indicate particular configurations or situations
of the coast not shown on the nautical chart.
1712
What does the symbol shown alongside indicate on a nautical chart?
is a fog signal consisting of a 'wave-operated buoy with bell'.
1713
With reference to the characteristics of maritime signals on a map
nautical, what does the alphanumeric code on the side of the light buoy shown?
that the light buoy, part of the cardinal signals of the AISM-IALA system, emits twinkling lights in groups of 9 every 15 seconds, and is visible at a nominal range of 5
nautical miles.
1714
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
an isolated distress signal from the AISM-IALA maritime signalling system.
1715
What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown on the nautical chart and
represented in the figure?
black colour with red horizontal band(s).
1716
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
a radar transponder with horn that emits a foghorn sound.
1717
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
a luminous spherical buoy.
1718
What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the picture?
yellow.
1719
What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?
5 yellow flashes every 20 seconds with a nominal range of 3 nautical miles.
1720
What does the maritime signal shown in the picture indicate?
spindle light buoy.
1721
What colour is the body of the maritime signal shown in the picture?
yellow.
1722
What does the maritime signal characteristic shown in the picture indicate?
5 yellow flashes every 20 seconds with a nominal range of 3 nautical miles.
