Pastpaper Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Why would you be unlikely to use carbon dating of a sample is more than 60,000 years old
Half-life of carbon-14 is 5740 years

A

Too few C-14 atoms

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2
Q

Define the Avogadro constant

A

The number of particles in 1 mole of a substance

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3
Q

Why would two different elements have different mean square speeds at the same temperature?

A
  • mean kinetic energy is equal at the same temperature

- mass difference

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4
Q

Define the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water

A
  • the energy required for 1kg of water to change to steam

- when at it’s boiling point temperature

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5
Q

A nuclear reactor core is contained in a steel vessel surrounded by concrete.
State and explain the purpose of the concrete other than it’s structural function

A
  • for a a shield to reduce intensity of radiation

- for protection from neutron radiation

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6
Q

How would you store radioactive waste that has these properties:

  • half life = 20 days
  • emits gamma and beta minus radiation
A
  • needs significant screening (lead)
  • highly active therefore produces heat
  • lasts for a short time ~ 80 days
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7
Q

How would you store radioactive waste that has these properties:

  • half life = 20 years
  • emits alpha particles
A
  • easy to screen, metal container
  • active for a very long time
  • problems over container fatigue
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8
Q

How is radioactive waste treating at a reactor site and how could it be stored safely?

A
  • initially place in cooling pond
  • water acts as a shield and cools down temperature
  • (long term) after 1-3 years will be less active and can be stored underground in steel containers
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9
Q

Why would you be unlikely to use carbon dating of a sample is less than 200 years
Half-life of carbon-14 is 5740 years

A

Hard to measure such a small drop in activity

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10
Q

In a thermal nuclear reactor, one fission reaction typically releases 2 or 3 neutrons.
Describe and explain how a constant rate of fission is maintained in a reactor by considering what events or sequence of events may happen to the released neutrons (6 mark)

A
  • neutron is slowed down by moderator
  • about 50 collisions to reach thermal speeds
  • absorbed by U(235) to cause fission
  • one neutron released goes on to cause a further fission is the critical condition
  • reaction may leave the reactor core without further interaction
  • neutron could be absorbed by control rod
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11
Q

Uranium is an alpha emitter. Explain why spent fuel rods present a greater radiation hazard than unused uranium fuel rods

A
  • easy to stay out the range of the a source
  • most fission fragments are more radioactive
  • initially most likely to be beta emitters (neutron rich)
  • ionising radiation damages body tissue
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12
Q

What is meant by the decay constant?

A

Probability of decay per unit time

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13
Q

Give two reasons why it is difficult to obtain a reliable age of an ancient boat using carbon dating

A
  • possible contamination

- boat may have been made from the wood a long time after the tree was cut down

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14
Q

Make I the subject of this equation

50dB = 10log(I/Io)

A

10^5 x Io

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15
Q

A sound has a dBA value is higher than the dB value, explain why?

A
  • dBA scale is frequency dependant to match the response of the ear
  • ear is more sensitive for a range of frequencies between 1kHz and 6kHz
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16
Q

What is the rest action potential for a nerve cell?

A

-70mV

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17
Q

Name the processes of the cycle of a nerve cells and state values of action potential

A
  • depolarisation (-70mV to 0mV)
  • reverse polarisation (0mV to +30mV)
  • repolarisation (+30mV to -70mV)
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18
Q

Explain the process of a nerve cells

A
  • at resting potential, high concentration of K+ ions inside and
    Na+ outside
  • when stimulated, membrane becomes permeable to Na+ ions entering the core increasing membrane potential to 0mV
  • reverse polarisation to +30mV
  • at +30mV membrane becomes impermeable to Na+ ions and permeable to K+ ions leaving the core
  • reducing membrane potential
    to -70mv
  • much slower process to return axon to original K+/Na+ ratio
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19
Q

Outline the basic principles of a magnetic resonance (MR) scanner to scan a patient’s brain

A
  • head placed in a strong magnetic field
  • supplied radio pulse excite H nuclei
  • when H nuclei de-excite they emit photons
  • these signals are detected and passed to computer
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20
Q

State and explain two advantages of using an MR scanner to scan a patient’s brain compared with a CT scanner

A
  • MR non-ionising radiation, ionising radiation in CT more danger to living cells
  • MR gives real time image, CT scan needs to rotate to produce final image
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21
Q

Give a range of alpha decay in air

A

0.03-0.07m

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22
Q

Give the range of B decay in air

A

0.2-3m

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23
Q

State the main interaction when an alpha particle is scattered by a gold nucleus

A

Repulsion between the alpha particles and the nuclei

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24
Q

Would the scattering distribution still be the same if the gold foil was replaced with isotopes of gold?

A

Yes because the alpha particles react with a nucleus that has the same number of protons and therefore charge

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25
Q

Explain how energy is released when some nuclides undergo fission and when other undergo fusion
(using the binding energy per nucleon vs nucleon number)

A
  • energy is released when binding energy per nucleon is increased
  • in fission a large nucleus splits, in fusion small nuclei join
  • the most stable nuclei at the peak
  • fusion occurs to the left of the peak and fission to the right
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26
Q

By considering the motion of the molecules explain how a had exerts a pressure and why the volume of the container must change if the pressure is to remain constant as the temperature increases

A
  • molecules are rapid random motion
  • molecules change their momentum
  • F = rate of change of momentum
  • Newton’s 3rd Law
  • P=F/A
  • Crms proportional to T
  • as temp increases so does change of momentum
  • compensated for by longer time between collisions as the temperature increases
  • as the volume increases the surface area increases which reduces the pressure
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27
Q

Explain what is meant by persistence of vision and state a practical situation where it is important

A
  • image remains after stimulus is removed

- e.g optical illusions

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28
Q

Define the threshold of hearing, Io

A
  • minimum intensity heard by a normal ear

- at 1kHz

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29
Q

How would you reduce the contact resistance in an ECG trace?

A
  • use sandpaper to remove hair and some dead skin
  • apply conducting gel
  • securely attach more than one electrode
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30
Q

How would you remove any unwanted signals in an ECG trace?

A
  • electrodes should be none reactive
  • patient needs to remain relaxed and still
  • shielded leads
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31
Q

Give 3 properties of an amplifier used in an ECG trace

A
  • has large input impedance
  • frequency response should be even across the frequency range
  • it’s voltage gain must be of the order of 1000 over a frequency range up to 20Hz
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32
Q

In an ECG trace, name the electrical events which cause the 3 peaks

A
  • depolarisation of atria
  • depolarisation of ventricles (repolarisation of atria)
  • repolarisation of ventricles
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33
Q

Explain the process which gives vertical spikes in an X-ray intensity vs photon energy graph

A
  • electrons strike anode and excite the target atoms
  • excited electrons fall to inner energy level
  • fixed energy gaps produce fixed energy photons
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34
Q

Explain how the intensifying screens in the film cassette achieve their purpose and state their benefit to the patient

A
  • convert X-ray photons to light photons
  • light photons expose film in correct place die to closeness of the screens to the film
  • reducing the intensity of radiation to the patient (less contact time)
35
Q

Explain what is meant by a chain reaction, naming the materials and particles involved. (with uranium)

A
  • U(235) captures a neutron and splits into two smaller nuclei, releasing more neutrons
  • at least one of these neutrons go on to cause further splitting of U(235)
36
Q

Explain the purpose of a moderator in a thermal nuclear reactor

A
  • slows down neutrons

- so neutrons are efficiently absorbed by uranium fuel

37
Q

Explain why the shielding becomes radioactive

When shielding around the core is used to protect from all types of radiation

A
  • neutrons are absorbed

- converts atoms of shielding into unstable isotopes

38
Q

Discuss one experiment that can be performed using a gas which would enable you to explain absolute zero and determine it’s value.
Including:
- what must remain constant
- what needs to be measured
- how to use results to find absolute zero
- justify why the value obtained is absolute zero

A
  • constant mass of gas and volume of gas
  • record volume for a range of temperature
  • how temperature is maintained
  • graph of volume against temperature is linear. Reference to pressure law.
  • extrapolate results to lower temperatures which has 0 volume
  • absolute zero is obtained using any gas (ideal)
39
Q

Give 3 sources of background radiation

A
  • rocks
  • cosmic rays
  • nuclear waste
40
Q

How would you work out the ratio of no. of Y photons incident on detector vs no. Y photons produced by source ?

A

Ratio = Area/(SA of sphere between the source and detector)

41
Q

How would you work out the activity of a source if you had a count rate?

A

Divide the count rate by (the ratio of the area of the detector/ SA of sphere surrounding source to detector)

42
Q

How would you work out a new count rate if the detector was moved x meters away?

A

Use inverse square law to work out k, then use k with new distance to work out new count rate

43
Q

Describe a graph of nuclear radius R vs nucleon number A

A

Initial steep gradient, then gradient slowly decreases

44
Q

Name the basic principle of the Rutherford scattering experiment, an equation relating to it and limits in accuracy of the experiment in regards to measuring the radius of a nucleus

A
  • alpha scattering involves electrostatic repulsion
  • Ea = Qq/4pixepsilon0xr
  • only measures the least distance of approach, not the radius
  • alpha particles have a finite size which must be taken into account
  • need a thin sample of gold foil to prevent multiple scattering
45
Q

Electron diffraction experiments, basic principle, limits in accuracy for measuring the radius of a nucleus and an equation

A
  • electron diffraction treats the electrons as a wave, having de Broglie wavelength
  • lamda = h/mv
  • electrons need to have high speed
  • have a small wavelength as it determines resolution
  • wavelength needs to be of the same order as the nuclear diameter for significant diffraction
46
Q

Compare advantages and disadvantage between using Rutherford scattering vs electron diffraction for estimating the radius of a nucleus

A
  • a particle measurements disturbed by nuclear recoil
  • electrons are not subject to the strong nuclear force
  • electrons are leptons
  • a particles are only scattered by protons and not all nucleons that make up the nucleus
47
Q

State the changes in a normal eye, when focusing on a distant object to a near object, in bright light

A
  • ciliary muscles contract

- producing a lens of greater power

48
Q

State the changes in a normal eye, when you view an object in very dim light to the same object in bright light

A
  • pupils become smaller

- comes turn on and rods become inactive

49
Q

State the effect of astigmatism on the image produced by the defective eye

A

Image is focused in a given plane and out of focus in perpendicular plane

50
Q

What would be the dBA of a sound with the power of 60dB in a frequency of 1kHz

A

60dBA as 1kHz is the reference frequency at the threshold of hearing

51
Q

How would you calculate the dB on a sound meter that is 5m from a drill that produces sound of power 2.0W?

A
  • work out I, which would be power/surface area of sphere between drill and meter
  • then use intensity level = 10log(I/Io)
52
Q

Explain the method of obtaining an image using ultrasound

A
  • US reflected at interface between two different acoustic impedances
  • each transducer emits pulse in turn and receives the echoes from the interfaces directly in line with it
  • each echo displayed as a bright spot on a screen
  • brightness depends on intensity of echo
  • y position determined by the time taken from transmission to the echo
  • x position determined by position of transducer
  • images are produced at about 25 per second and thus appear as real time moving image
53
Q

Give practical considerations of ultrasound

A
  • probe has a line of transducers
  • high frequency ac pulse applied to each transducer in turn
  • each transducer has piezoelectric crystal to generate ultrasound
  • use of gel between probe and skin to eliminate air
  • transducer as receiver
54
Q

Explain why the pulses of ultrasound used in medical imaging must be short

A
  • allows the transducer to damped before the echo returns to allow the transducer to act as a receiver
  • distance travelled short
  • emitted pulse must cease before echo arrives so that there is no interference
55
Q

Describe briefly how a CT scanner produces an image

A
  • narrow beam of X-rays
  • X-ray generator rotated around patient
  • detectors arranged around outside of the path
  • detector opposite generator registers transmitted intensity
  • detectors connected to computer which produces cross sectional image
56
Q

Define intensity of sound

A
  • intensity is the power per unit area

- at normal incidence

57
Q

How does a piezoelectric crystal work?

A
  • alternating p.d applied across crystal
  • causes crystal to expand and contract
  • creating pressure waves in the crystal
  • f of alternating p.d equal to that of the crystal
  • above 20kH- short application of A.C to produce short pulse
  • backing material to damp and stop pulse
58
Q

Explain why a coupling gel is needed and state the property of the gel that ensures a good quality image

A
  • gel is between the probe and the skin to exclude air

- gel should have acoustic impedance equal to that of the skin

59
Q

Define atomic mass unit

A

1/12 the mass of an atom of C(12)

60
Q

Explain why nuclei in a star have to be at a high temperature for fusion to take place

A
  • nuclei need to be close together for fusion to take place
  • but the electrostatic force is repulsive
  • the nuclei have to high kinetic energy to overcome repulsion
61
Q

Describe the changes made inside a nuclear reactor to reduce it’s power output and explain the process involved

A
  • insert control rods into the nuclear core

- which will absorb neutrons

62
Q

State the main source of the highly radioactive waste from a nuclear reactor

A

Spent fuel rods

63
Q

Describe and explain the nature of the radiation that may be emitted from an excited nucleus of the moderator

A
  • gamma is emitted

- as the nucleus de-excited down discrete energy levels

64
Q

How would tell from a ray diagram if someone is suffering from myopia?

A

The image falls short of the retina

65
Q

How would you tell from a ray diagram if a person had hypermyopia

A

The image would form outside/beyond of the retina

66
Q

The unaided near point of the defective eye is 0.15m, with the lens of focal length of -0.75, what is the distance of the aided near point from the eye?

A
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/-0.75 = 1/-0.15 + 1/v 
1/v = 1/-0.75 + 1/.15
v= 0.19
67
Q

In a fluoroscopic image intensifier, what is the first fluorescent screen used for?

A

Converts X-ray photons to light photons

68
Q

In a fluoroscopic image intensifier, what is the photocathode used for?

A

Uses energy of each light photon to release electrons from the surface of the cathode

69
Q

In a fluoroscopic image intensifier, what are anodes used for?

A
  • to accelerate the electrons

- focuses electron beams

70
Q

In a fluoroscopic image intensifier, the last fluorescent screen used for?

A

Converts energy of electrons to many light photons

71
Q

Why would a patient be asked to swallow barium sulfate before an X-ray?

A
  • Barium has a high density which provides a better contrast between organs and soft tissue
  • usually organs have poor contrast with soft tissue
72
Q

How to work out the mass of 1 atom of an element?

A

Mass of 1 mole/ Avogadro’s constant

73
Q

What does this image distance represent?

Negative figure, in hypermyopia

A

Unaided near point

74
Q

Why is a logarithmic scale used for dB scale?

A
  • response of ear is logarithmic

- allows a large range of intensities to be put in a suitable scale

75
Q

Describe how hearing loss varies with frequency over the audible range.
- due to excessive noise

A
  • loss increases up to 4kHz

- then decreases after this frequency

76
Q

Points to talk about explain the process of the heart pumping blood

A
  • SAN and AVN
  • valves/delay(0.1s)
  • contraction and relaxation
  • type of blood in each side (Right deoxygenated blood from body to lungs, left is opposite)
  • depolarisation and reverse polarisation, from movement of Na+ into axon causes contraction
  • -70mv to +30mV
  • repolarisation of K+ out of axon causes relaxation
77
Q

State the use of lead sheets in X-rays

A

Protects areas of body not being scanned

78
Q

State the use of the aluminium filter in X-rays

A

Filters out most low energy photons(high energy photons can pass through)

79
Q

State two reasons for using ultrasound over X-rays for scanning an unborn fetus

A
  • Ultrasound is not ionising, won’t harm the fetus

- ultrasound gives good images of soft tissue

80
Q

Give the ranges of the cones

A

Blue: 375 to 500
Green: 425 to 675
Red 475 to 725

81
Q

Describe how rods and cones are distributed over the surface of the retina

A
  • only cones at fovea

- as you get further away from fovea, fewer cones and more rods

82
Q

Why is an image in better resolution in bright light a opposed to dim light?

A
  • rods used in dim light, cones in bright

- size of cones are smaller than rods

83
Q

State one condition that must be satisfied for two objects to be resolved as individual images on the retina

A

The two images need to fall on receptors with a least - I stimulated receptor in between them

84
Q

Units of intensity of sound?