Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MRCP PART 1 > Past Year Paper 4 > Flashcards

Past Year Paper 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which anti-htn needs to be used with caution in severe Aortic stenosis?

A

Bisoprolol (beta blockers).

A significant degree of left ventricular function is required to overcome the gradient across the valve and maintain cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Where is the lesion in cortical blindness with preserve pupillary reflex to light?

A

Occipital lobe infarcts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Electrolyte abnormality seen in refeeding syndrome? consequences of those abnormality?

A
  1. Hypophosphateaemia: Muscle weakness, cardiac failure, neurological disturbance -> Seizures!
  2. Hypokalaemia
  3. Hypomagnasemia: predisposes to Torsades des pointes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does lithium cause nephrogenic DI?

A

Decreased aquaporin-2 expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

JVP finding in patient with pulmonary stenosis?

A

Dominant A waves.

Occurs with increased atrial contraction pressure.

Tricuspid stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis
RVH
Right atrial myxoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of psychotic symptoms in Parkinsons?

A
  • Quetiapine
  • Clozapine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Deficiency of which complement is associated with recurrent menigococcal infections?

A

C5 deficiency is associated with increased risk of gram negative bacteria infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Proto-oncogene seen in MEN2A and MEN2B?

A

Rearranged during transfection (RET) proto-oncogene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ix for contact dermatitis?

A

Patch testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pharmacological treatment for itching in liver disease?

A

Cholestyramine.

Itching is caused due to bile acid accumulation and Cholesytramine is a bile acid sequestrant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Genetic mutation in Polycythaemia?

A

JAK2 mutation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of Allopurinol?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where are cardiac Myxoma most likely to occur?

A

Left Atrium.

Carney complex - increased risk of myxoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symptoms of Giardiasis?

A

It is spread by the faeco-oral route.
Foreign travel, swimming/drinking water from a river or lake

  • Steatorrhoea
  • Bloating, abdominal pain
  • Flatulence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sensitivity calculation?

A

True positive / (TP + FN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long does stent restenosis take after angioplasty?

A

Occurs 3 - 12 months from placement.

Stent thrombosis is more acute occurring in a few days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Gene defect causing Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Fibrillin-1 Deficiency.

Marfan’s syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15 that codes for the protein fibrillin-1

Upwards lens dislocaiton seen in Marfan’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Yellowing of vision seen in overdose of which condition?

A

Digoxin toxicity causes confusion, visual hallucinations and yellowing of vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ulnar nerve neuropathy in arm features?

A
  • Weakness of hypothenar muscles
  • Sensory loss of fifth and half of fourth finger
  • Tender over medial epicondyle

?Golfer’s elbow
- ?cubital tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Main receptor that nicotine binds to?

A

Acetylcholine receptor.

Nicotine binds to the nicotinic acetyl choline receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mode of inheritance for Haemophilia A?

A

X linked reccessive disorder.

Affected father cannot pass it on to a male child and that he produces female carriers of the Haemophilia A gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Haematuria 48 hours following an URTI?

A

Immunoglobulin A nephropathy.

22
Q

Mx for benign essential tremor?

A
  1. Propranolol
  2. Primidone sometimes used.
23
Q

MOA of ondansetron?

A

5-hydroxytryptaine 3 (5-HT3) antagonist.

May cause transient QT prolongation in some patients.

24
Which artery lies closest to the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Inferior thyroid artery. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve is most susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery because it is close to the bifurcation of the right inferior thyroid artery.
25
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is associated with what condition?
HIV Parkinsons disease Mx Topical Ketocanozole
26
Barretts oesophagus puts patient at risk of which type of cancer?
Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus. Barrett's refers to the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa, with the usual squamous epithelium being replaced by columnar epithelium.
27
Mx for Paget's disease of the bone?
- Raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP) - Calcium and phosphate are typically normal. Mx: Bisphosphonates - Oral Risedronate - IV Zoledronate
28
Hx of IBD. Presented with rapidly enlarging ulcer with a raised edge and boggy necrotic base studded with small abscess?
Pyoderma Gangrenosum. Exhibits Pathergy whereby a lesion occurs at the site of injury.
29
Necrobiosis Lipodica is associated with which condition?
Shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically on the shin of diabetics.
30
Mx for pregnant pt who wants to quit smoking?
Nicotine replacement therapy is safe to be used in pregnancy.
31
Mx for Phaeochromcytoma?
- Hypertension, headaches, sweating, palpitations. Surgery is the definitive management. The patient must first be fully alpha-blocked with Phenoxybenzamine given before a beta-blocker (Propranolol).
32
Gene associated with familial adenomatous polyposis?
FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition which leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is due to a mutation in a tumour suppressor gene called adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), located on chromosome 5.
33
Nerve root affected causing weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, ankle eversion, ankle inversion?
L5.
34
Treatment for Chalmydia Psitacci infection?
Psittacosis is infection caused by Chlamydia psittaci. Psittacosis should be suspected in a combination of typical fever with a history of bird contact. Mx: 1. Doxycycline first line 2. Erythromycin second line
35
Which commonly prescribed Abx causes pulmonary fibrosis?
Nitrofurantoin. Leads to pulmonary fibrosis when used over the long term.
36
Rash seen in lyme disease? Abx choice in lyme disease?
Erythema chronicum migrans. - Doxycycline if early disease. - Amoxicillin is an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated. - Ceftriaxone if disseminated disease
37
How long to give TB medication for in CNS TB (meningeal TB)?
12 months. Quadruple treatment RIPE for first two months and then Rifampicin and Isoniazid for further 10 months.
38
Standard therapy for Active TB?
Initial phase - first 2 months (RIPE) - Rifampicin - Isoniazid - Pyrazinamide - Ethambutol Continuation phase - next 4 months - Rifampicin - Isoniazid
39
Treatment for latent TB?
The treatment for latent tuberculosis is 3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin OR 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine).
40
Mx for Scabies?
1. Permethrin 5% is first-line 2. Malathion 0.5% is second-line
41
Mx for patients with Barretts oesophagus who have low grade dysplasia on initial endoscopy?
Where low grade dysplasia is seen for the first time, repeat endoscopy is offered in 6 months time. Where this persists at the second endoscopy they are recommended to proceed to radiofrequency ablation of abnormal tissue.
42
MOA of dipyridamole?
Adenosine uptake inhibitor.
43
Mx for Lichen planus?
Potent topical steroids. Benzydamine mouth wash for oral lesions.
44
Short QT interval seen in which electrolyte abnormality?
- Hypercalcaemia. - Hyperkalaemia Metabolic acidosis
45
Mx for urinary schistosomiasis?
Praziquantel.
46
Artery occluded in posterior MI?
Posterior Descending artery supplied by the right coronary artery.
47
MOA of aspirin?
Aspirin is a COX-1 Inhibitor. It is a modifier of the enzymatic activity of COX-2. It also blocks thrmoboxane A2 on platelets reducing platelet aggregation.
48
Most common organism seen in dog bites?
Pasteurella is seen in 50% of dog bites.
49
Mx of bile acid diarrhoea following ileal resection?
Cholestyramine.
50
Faecal elastase is measured in which condition?
Chronic pancreatitis. Faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging inconclusive.
51
Beta blocker overdose drug management?
1. If bradycardic then Atropine 2. In resistant cases Glucagon may be used
52
Drugs that can be cleared by Haemodialysois?
BLAST - Barbiturate - Lithium - Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol) - Salicylates - Theophyllines (charcoal haemoperfusion is preferable)
53
Mx in salicylate overdose?
1. Urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate 2. Haemodialysis

MRCP PART 1 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions