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Past questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Salmonellae are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 20 °C

A

False

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2
Q

The minimum temperature at which salmonellae can still grow is 6 °C.

A

True

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3
Q

Salmonellae produce enterotoxins in the food that cause vomiting and diarrhoea in humans

A

False

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4
Q

Water activity lower than 0.97 inhibits the growth of salmonellae

A

Fale

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5
Q

Eggs may become infected with salmonellae usually through the pores of the eggshell

A

True

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6
Q

Salmonellae release a heat-labile enterotoxin and a cytotoxic protein in the intestines of the
consumers that cause diarrhoea

A

True

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7
Q

Salmonellae are mesophilic bacteria

A

True

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8
Q

Salmonellae are psychrophilic bacteria that can even grow at refrigerator temperature.

A

False

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9
Q

Under food production conditions, a heat treatment of 70 °C core temperature for at least one
minute is needed to render foodstuffs free from salmonellae

A

True

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10
Q

To destroy salmonellae in meat products a heat treatment of 90 °C for at least 10 minutes is needed

A

False

70C 1 min

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11
Q

All serotypes of salmonellae causing typhus in animals are capable of inducing disease in humans

A

False

Typhus causative agents are always sp. sensitive

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12
Q

Salmonella Enteritidis is the most common serotype causing disease in humans.

A

True

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13
Q

The animal health mark denoting that the inspected meat is fit for human consumption, shall be
placed on the packaging

A

False

species not specified

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14
Q

The identification mark denoting that the inspected meat is fit for human consumption, shall be
applied directly to the carcass.

A

False

species not specified

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15
Q

In line with classification of wastes, materials with the highest risk are assigned to Category 1

A

True

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16
Q

In line with classification of wastes, materials with the highest risk are assigned to Category 3.

A

False

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17
Q

In cattle, the intestines are SRM materials irrespective of the animal’s age

A

True

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18
Q

In cattle, the tonsils are SRM materials irrespective of the animal’s age

A

True

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19
Q

In the case of asymptomatic carriage of Salmonella spp. the animals must not be slaughtered for
human consumption

A

False

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20
Q

If Salmonellosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be
declared unfit for human consumption

A

True

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21
Q

Salmonella positive broiler flocks infected with any serotypes shall be slaughtered separately

A

False

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22
Q

Campylobacter positive broiler flocks shall be slaughtered separately.

A

False

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23
Q

If Listeriosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be declared
unfit for human consumption

A

True

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24
Q

If Yersiniosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be declared
unfit for human consumption

A

True

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25
Q

Rigor mortis develops as a result of an anaerobic glycolysis

A

False

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26
Q

Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP

A

True

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27
Q

In pigs, the final pH of the meat is reached faster than in cattle

A

True

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28
Q

In cattle, the final pH of the meat is reached faster than in pigs

A

False

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29
Q

Due to pH reduction, the water holding capacity of the proteins increases

A

False

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30
Q

Due to pH reduction, the water holding capacity of the proteins decreases

A

True

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31
Q

DFD meat is more prone to spoilage

A

True

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32
Q

The water holding capacity of the PSE meat is higher

A

False

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33
Q

Myoglobin is a bright red pigment that is formed at high oxygen pressure

A

False

Myoglobin is purple, Oxymyoglobin = bright red

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34
Q

Metmyoglobin is a purple pigment that is formed at high oxygen pressure

A

False

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35
Q

The water holding capacity of proteins is the lowest near their isoelectric points

A

True

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36
Q

The PSE meat is lighter than the normal one because it reflects more light

A

True

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37
Q

Emergency slaughter involves the urgent bleeding of animals suspected of infection

A

False

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38
Q

Immediate slaughter means the urgent bleeding of any injured, but otherwise healthy animals

A

True

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39
Q

Food chain information shall be prepared by the official vet as a part of the ante-mortem health
inspection at the farm

A

False

-should be prepared by the farmer

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40
Q

Each individual bovine animal shall be identified as a part of the ante-mortem health inspection at
the farm

A

True

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41
Q

Each individual animals of an equine consignment shall be identified as a part of the ante-mortem
health inspection at the farm

A

True

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42
Q

In pigs, only a smaller proportion of a consignment to a slaughterhouse shall be identified
individually

A

True

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43
Q

If the food chain information is missing, but the results of the ante-mortem health inspection are
satisfactory, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained

A

True

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44
Q

If the live animals cannot be identified, a separate slaughter shall be ordered

A

False

-animal shall be killed bloodless separately

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45
Q

In the case of poultry flocks positive for Salmonella Enteritidis, a separate slaughter shall be ordered

A

True

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46
Q

If the food chain information is missing, but the results of the ante-mortem health inspection are
satisfactory, the slaughter shall be postponed

A

False

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47
Q

Animals deriving from a farm being under animal health restriction due to classical swine fever can
be ordered to immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse if the suspicion of infection was
excluded

A

True

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48
Q

Animals deriving from a farm being under animal health restriction due to CSF shall be killed at a
designated slaughterhouse

A

False

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49
Q

Routinely, the carcasses and offal of cattle are to undergo a visual-only post-mortem inspection

A

False

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50
Q

In cattle, the sub-maxillary LNs shall be sliced on suspect only.

A

False

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51
Q

In cattle, the peri-bronchial and mediastinal LNs shall be sliced

A

True

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52
Q

In cattle, the liver is inspected visually, and on suspect by palpation and incision.

A

False

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53
Q

In cattle, incision shall be made into the main biliary ducts.

A

True

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54
Q

If the results obtained from the microbiological examination of carcasses fail to meet the process hygiene requirements the meat shall be condemned

A

False

-would be true for food safety hygiene, but this is process hygiene criteri

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55
Q

If the results of the salmonella examination fail to meet the process hygiene requirements the meat can be put on the market

A

True

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56
Q

Bleeding of pigs shall be performed with the animal suspended

A

True

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57
Q

Bleeding of pigs can be performed wither in vertical or in horizontal positions

A

False

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58
Q

Singeing is aimed at loosening the hair follicles at a temp of 58-62C

A

False

800-1000 something

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59
Q

After processing the GIT of pigs it can be used for manufacture of meat products for HC

A

True

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60
Q

Cattle stunned mechanically usually by captive bolt gun

A

True

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61
Q

In pigs, esophagus is ligated before the head is removed

A

False

-true for ruminants

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62
Q

After bleeding, scalding of ruminant’s carcasses is targeted at loosening the hair follicles

A

False

-skin is removed

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63
Q

In cattle, head is inspected at a separate inspection point

A

True

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64
Q

Edible offal of ruminants shall be chilled to <4C

A

False

-3*C for animals

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65
Q

Carcass of pigs shall be chilled to <7C

A

True

-true for all animals , exp rabbits

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66
Q

Diseases are included in the OIE list because of their public health significance

A

False

67
Q

Diseases are included in the OIE list because of their animal health significance

A

True

68
Q

In the case of anthrax, animals suspected of being disease or infected must not be slaughtered

A

True

-treated

69
Q

In the case of anthrax, animals suspected of being disease or infected shall be slaughtered separatately

A

False

70
Q

In the case of FMD outbreak, susceptible animal originated of restricted areas shall be killed

A

False

71
Q

Although echinococcosis is an important zoonosis, only the affected organs shall be condemned &
the rest of the carcass may be fit for human consumption

A

True

72
Q

Although TB is an important zoonosis, if chronic TB is diagnosed in one organ, only the affected
organ & its LNs shall be condemned

A

True

73
Q

In case of BSE, diseased or infected animals must be killed at the designated slaughterhouse

A

True

74
Q

Since bovine cysticercosis is an important zoonosis, when only a single cyst is found in the whole
carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

False

75
Q

In case of CSF, susceptible animals originated from restricted areas shall be killed at a designated
slaughterhouse

A

False

76
Q

In case of an ASF outbreak, all pigs at the farm of outbreak shall be killed

A

True

77
Q

In case of ASF, susceptible animals originated from restricted areas shall be killed at the designated
slaughterhouse

A

False

78
Q

The general rules & specific requirements of official food control are described by EU directives that are directly applicable in all Member State

A

False

79
Q

The Community provisions do not prescribe any organisational structures to be applied

A

True

80
Q

According to the Cummunity provisions official food control shall be performed according to similar
principles & using the same set of methods

A

True

81
Q

Community provisions determine the organisational structures to be applied in order to harmonise
the official food controls

A

False

82
Q

In most European countries a single uniform food chain safety authority is responsible for official
food contro

A

False

83
Q

In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the
official food control

A

True

84
Q

Food safety risks at retail level are higher than at whole-sailing therefore the rules of retail distribution of foods of animal origin are included in the EU regulation on hygiene of foods of animal origin

A

False

85
Q

Cold stores are operating under the effect of the EU regulation on hygiene of foods of animal origin

A

True

86
Q

Food consignments of animal origin can enter the territory of the EU after veterinary checks at border inspection posts only

A

True

87
Q

Within the EU, foods may move freely & their official control shall take place at their place of origin
& destination

A

True

88
Q

There are 2 basic documents that shall accompany the food consignment in the trade inside the EU,
the CVED & the Animal Health Certificate

A

True

89
Q

At the border inspection posts documentary checks shall be performed supplemented with physical
checks in case of suspect

A

False

90
Q

Even in small-scale operations, poultry can only be slaughtered at an approved slaughterhouse for public consumption

A

False

91
Q

In a small-scale operations, fresh meat of pigs & ruminants can be marketed from farm gates or to retail establishments

A

True

92
Q

In small-scale operations, fresh meat of pigs & ruminants can be marketed from farm gates or at local markets

A

False

93
Q

In small-scale operations, fresh meat of poultry can be marketed from farm gates or at local markets

A

True

94
Q

In small-scale operations, chilled raw milk can be marketed within 2 hours after milking

A

True

-can be kept for even longer also

95
Q

In small-scale operations, the total plate count of raw cows milk shall be les than the 1,500,00

A

False

96
Q

What is the main bottleneck of molecular spectroscopy?

A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
B. It is not suitable for analyzing solid samples
C. Only one compound can give signal in the given wavelength
D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

A

C. Only one compound can give signal in the given wavelength

97
Q

What is not true for gas chromatography?

A. It is not suitable for analyzing inorganic materials
B. Heat sensitive materials can also be analyzed
C. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography
D. It can be connected with mass spectrometric detection

A

C. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography

98
Q

What are not characteristic of indicator organisms?

A. Should be informative in all types of waters? (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater etc.)
B. They are obligate pathogens
C. Characterized by longer survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes
D. Their quantity must show direct correlation with the degree of fecal contamination

A

B. They are obligate pathogens

99
Q

Which statement is True for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A. Gram positive, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacterium
B. Occurs in feces, soil, water and waste water
C. As an indicator of fecal contamination can be used
D. Provides information about defects of filtering process

A

B. Occurs in feces, soil, water and waste water

100
Q

Which statement is False for Sulphite reducing Clostridia and Clostridium perfringes?

A. Obligate anaerobic, spore forming bacteria
B. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of fecal microflora
C. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
D. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts and defects of filtering process

A

B. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of fecal microflora

101
Q

Which statement is False for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria?

A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
B. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water
C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a defect in the water treatment
D. Carried out by pour plate method

A

A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C

102
Q

Which statement is True for total coliforms?

A. Associated with a more or less fecal contamination
B. Direct indicators of fecal contamination nor have health risk
C. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts
D. Belonging to the Streptococcaceae family

A

A. Associated with a more or less fecal contamination

103
Q

Which statement is True for the organic acids as preservatives?

A. Usually these substances have bactericide effect
B. The organic acids are effective in dissociated form
C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature
D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

A

C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature

104
Q

Which statement is True for the water removal?

A. The microbes can multiply at each water activity circumstances
B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
C. The bacteria can grow below 0.8 Aw
D. The Aw requirement of bacteria is lower than the moulds

A

B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms

105
Q

Which statement is True for the heat treatment?

A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60c heat treatment
B. Enterococcus can survive the 80°C 30 min. heat treatment
C. All the spores can be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

A

D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

106
Q

The typical spoilage flora of meat products are?

A. Moulds
B. Yeasts
C. Micrococci, Lactobacilli
D. Salmonella spp.

A

C. Micrococci, Lactobacilli

107
Q

The typical spoilage flora of bakery products are?

A. Moulds
B. Lactobacilli
C. Yeasts
D. Cl botulinum

A

A. Moulds

108
Q

What are characteristic of indicator organisms?

A. Should be informative in all types of waters? (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater
etc.)
B. They are obligate pathogens
C. Characterized by shorter survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes
D. Their quantity does not show direct correlation with the degree of fecal contamination

A

A. Should be informative in all types of waters? (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater
etc.)

109
Q

Which statement is False for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A. Gram negative, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacterium
B. Occurs in feces, soil, water and waste water
C. As an indicator of fecal contamination can be used
D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system

A

C. As an indicator of fecal contamination can be used

110
Q

Which statement is True for Sulphite reducing Clostrdia and Clostridium perfringes?

A. Obligate aerobic, spore forming bacteria
B. Most representative is clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of fecal microflora
C. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system

A

C. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection

111
Q

Which statement is True for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria?

A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
B. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water
C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a fecal contamination in the water treatment
D. Carried out by MPN method

A

B. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water

112
Q

Which statement is False for total coliforms?

A. Associated with a more or less fecal contamination
B. Direct indicators of fecal contamination nor have health risk
C. Provide good information on the microbiological status of the water
D. Belonging to the Enterobacteriaceae family

A

B. Direct indicators of fecal contamination nor have health risk

113
Q

Which statement is False for the organic acids as preservatives?

A. Usually these substances have bacteriostatic effect
B. The organic acids are effective in undissociated form
C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature
D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

A

D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

114
Q

Which statement is False for the water removal?
A. The microbes can multiply at certain water activity circumstances
B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
C. The bacteria can grow below 0.7 Aw
D. The Aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the moulds

A

D. The Aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the moulds

115
Q

Which statement is False for the heat treatment?

A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment
B. Enterococcus can survive the 60°C 30 min. heat treatment
C. All the spores can not be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

A

A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment

116
Q

What part of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum can be used for analytical purposes?

A. Only the ultraviolet and the visible parts
B. The ultraviolet, visible and near infrared parts
C. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared and the x-ray parts
D. The whole spectrum can be used

A

C. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared and the x-ray parts

117
Q

The main bottleneck of mass spectrometry?

A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
B. It is not suitable for analyzing solid samples
C. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials
D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

A

C. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials

118
Q

Limulus test is suitable for detection of Gram-bacteria

A

True

119
Q

Impedance measurement works with special media only

A

True

120
Q

The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP

A

False

121
Q

Listeria monocytogenes’ b-haemolysis strengthens the haemolysis of Staphylococcus aureu

A

True

122
Q

Salmonella colonies are reddish purple on XLD agar

A

True

123
Q

Salmonella decomposes lactose

A

False

-cannot decompose lactose

124
Q

MRSV agar can be used instead of RVS broth in the enrichment procedure of Salmonella

A

True

125
Q

Selective media of moulds have low pH

A

True

126
Q

Enterococcus faecalis is one of the most resistant among the non-spore forming microbes

A

True

127
Q

Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive

A

False

128
Q

E.coli can ferment lactose

A

True

129
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive

A

False

130
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is cultured in Fraser broth

A

False

-Giolitti-Cantoni broth and Baird-Parker aga

131
Q

Positive colonies of E.coli are bluish green on TBX agar

A

True

132
Q

Enterobacteriaceae cannot ferment glucose

A

False

133
Q

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens:

-Cultured on Sulphite cycloserine agar

A

True

134
Q

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens

-B and C strains pathogenic for human

A

False

A and C are pathogenic

135
Q

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens

-In LS broth incubated at 25°C

A

False

-incubation at 46*C

136
Q

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens

-No haemolysis on blood agar

A

False

137
Q

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?

-Produces toxin between 8-45°C

A

False

-bw 20-45

138
Q

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?

-Reduces the nitrate to nitrite

A

True

139
Q

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?

-No haemolysis on blood agar

A

False

-beta

140
Q

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?

-Gram negative

A

False

Gram positive

141
Q

Which statement is true for Salmonella?

-Indol production is negative

A

True

142
Q

Which statement is true for Salmonella?

-Voges-Proskauer test is positive

A

False

143
Q

Which statement is true for Salmonella?

-Lactose-fermentation is positive

A

False

144
Q

Which statement is true for Salmonella?

-H2S production is positive

A

True

145
Q

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes?

-Catalase test is positive

A

True

146
Q

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes?

-Rhamnose negative

A

False

147
Q

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes?

-Its typical colonies on ALOA agar are blue

A

True

148
Q

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes?

-Shows summersaulting motility at 25°C

A

True

149
Q

Which statement is false for E.coli?

-Citrate utilization test is positive

A

False

150
Q

Which statement is false for E.coli?

-Indole test is positive

A

True

151
Q

Which statement is false for E.coli?

-Voges-Proskauer test is negative

A

True

152
Q

Which statement is false for E.coli?

-Methyl red test is positive

A

True

153
Q

Enterococcus faecalis can grow:

-Between 10-60°C =

A

False

-grows bw 10-45*C

154
Q

Enterococcus faecalis can grow:

-At pH 2.6

A

False

-pH 9.6

155
Q

Enterococcus faecalis can grow:

-At 6.5% salt conc

A

True

156
Q

Enterococcus faecalis can grow:

-grow on blood agar with 70% bile content

A

False

-40% bile content

157
Q

Which statement is false for the water removal?

-The microbes can multiply at certain water activity (aw) circumstances

A

True

158
Q

Which statement is false for the water removal?

-The reducing of water activity inhibit the multiplication of microorganisms

A

True

159
Q

Which statement is false for the water removal?

-The bacteria can grow below 0.7 aw

A

False

-bacteria 0.91

160
Q

Which statement is false for the water removal?

-The aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the mould

A

True

-moulds 0.80

161
Q

What is produced during homofermentation?

A

Lactic acid

162
Q

From which one do you not take 500 gram sample?

A

Fruit

163
Q

Which substances belongs to category A? -

A

Chloramphenicol, anabolic agents

164
Q

What is true for the spoilage flora?

A

Aerotolerant anerob

Food Hygene (3 decks)

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