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Pharmacology Midterm 1 > Past Questions > Flashcards

Past Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
    a. All of the above can occur
    b. Allergic reactions
    c. Teratogenic effects
    d. Idiosyncratic reactions
A

a. All of the above can occur

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2
Q
  1. MRL is an acronym for:

a. Minimum relevant level
b. Maximum residue limit
c. Medicine residue level
d. Medicine registry list

A

B: maximum residue limit

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3
Q
  1. Usually for mixing these types of real drugs into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders need to have a Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (Veterinary Written Direction)
    a. POM-V
    b. Pharmacy medicines (P)
    c. Prescription only medicines (POM)
    d. AVM-GSL
A

a. POM-V

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4
Q
  1. Quantal dose response curves are
    a. Obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
    b. Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
    c. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
    d. Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studied
A

c. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug

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5
Q
  1. The adhesive of the granules can be:
    a. Pyridine
    b. Saccharose
    c. Distilled water
    d. Lactose
A

Distilled water

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6
Q

Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in possession of the veterinarian?

a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
b. None of these
c. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
d. Schedule 3 ad 4 drugs

A

Schedule 2 and 3

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7
Q

What is the first pass effect?

a. High plasma concentration occurs immediately after oral application
b. Stomach accumulates the drug
c. Liver decomposes the orally applied drug
d. Kidneys excrete the orally applied drug

A

Liver decomposes the oral applied drug

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8
Q

In which book can the indications, effects, and side effects of a given drug be found?

a. U.S. Pharmacopoeia
b. European Pharmacopoeia
c. British Veterinary Formulary
d. British Pharmecopoeia Veterinary

A

c. British Veterinary Formulary

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9
Q

The capacity of a drug to cause a particular action

a. Affinity
b. Specificity
c. Selectivity
d. Efficacy

A

Specificity

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10
Q

A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction (mediated at the histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g. epinephrine).

a. Partial agonist
b. Noncompetitive antagonist
c. Physiologic antagonist
d. Pharmacologic antagonist

A

c. physiological antagonist

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11
Q

Sublingual administration is useful for

a. Drugs causing nausea or vomiting
b. Drugs with high first pass metabolism
c. Hydrophilic drugs
d. Drugs that do not readily cross the blood brain barrier

A

b. drugs with first high pass metabolism

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12
Q

Which is the most informative name of drug about the major ingredient?

a. Approved name
b. Proprietary name
c. Chemical name
d. Licensed name

A

Approved name

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13
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?

a. Large pKa value of the drug
b. Increased motility of GI
c. Acid sensitivity of the drug
d. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

A

d. rapid dissolution from the formulation

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14
Q

According to the Misuse of Drug Regulations (UK) this drug is in Schedule 3:

a. Pentobarbitone
b. Low amount of codeine
c. Morphine
d. Ketamine

A

a. pentobarbitone

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15
Q

The maximal activity specific to a drug

a. Specificity
b. Potency
c. Intrinsic activity
d. Affinity

A

c. Intrinsic activity

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16
Q

Records should be made within 48 hours of the transaction and kept for a period of at least 5 years

a. Records of POM treatments
b. Records on scheduled drug treatments
c. Records on food producing animal treatments
d. Records on all treatments

A

c. Records on food producing animal treatments

17
Q

Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a
bolus?
a. Insoluble matrix
b. Chip controlled diaphragms
c. Expanding matrix
d. OROS

A

Chip controlled diaphragms

18
Q

Solid, single dose or multidose preparation for oral administration containing dry aggregates
of powder particles
a. Oral powder
b. Premix
c. Capsules
d. Granules

A

d. Granules

19
Q

What is the proportion of ionized vs non ionized molecules of a weak basic drig (pKa=7.4) in
stomach (PH=3.4)?
a. 10:1
b. 1:1
c. 10,000:1
d. 100:1

A

c: 10,000:1

20
Q

What “veterinary medicines regulation 2013” category can be supplied by pharmacists
without prescription?
a. POM-VPS and AVM-GSL
b. POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
c. NFA-VPS, AVM GSL

A

c. NFA-VPS, AVM GSL

21
Q

This is the name given to a drug by manufacturers that produce the drug:

a. Approved name
b. Proprietary name
c. None of these
d. Chemical name

A

b. Proprietary name

22
Q

Most appropriate method for the extraction of water soluble, heat sensitive substances from
medicinal herbs:
a. Preparing an infusion
b. Extraction with ether
c. Making a decoction
d. Preparing a tincture

A

b. extraction with ether

23
Q

Which process can move drugs against a concentration gradient?

a. Active transport
b. Filtration through membrane pores
c. Simple diffusion
d. Facilitated diffusion

A

a. Active transport

24
Q

Two drugs have been examined in animal studies, Both have a therapeutic index of 2. It can
be assumed that:
a. The dose response curves will be parallel
b. None of these
c. When given in ED50 does, the two drugs are equally safe
d. When ive at ED50 does, no animals will be killed by the drugs

A

b.none of these

25
Q

Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?

a. Sugar
b. Glycerine
c. Gelatine
d. Water

A

Glycerine

26
Q

Frequently used vehicle in oral powders:

a. Zinc oxide
b. Lactose
c. Talc
d. Glucose

A

lactose

27
Q

According to the Regulation fix MRL is established for some of these drugs:

a. Both Table 1 and 2
b. Drugs in Table 1
c. Antibiotics
d. Drugs in Table 2

A

Drugs in table 1

28
Q

Which statement is NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic
model?
a. A bioexponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time
b. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and/or excretion is
saturated
c. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly
d. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously

A

b. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and/or excretion is saturated

29
Q

At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 0.2 mg/L. The total maintenance dose if the drug is applied every 8 hours?

a. 6 mg
b. 48 mg
c. 4.8 mg
d. 0.6 mg

A

4.8

30
Q

In this kind of prescription traditionally the type of dosage form and the total amount of drug
has to be given in subscription part:
a. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
b. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
c. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
d. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

A

a. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

31
Q

In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a veterinary licensed medicine is given:

a. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
b. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
c. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
d. Prescription of a human licensed medicine

A

c. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

32
Q

Which one is correct? When the pKa of a drug euqals the pH of the surroundings

a. 50% ionization occurs
b. Number of ionized molecules is higher
c. Number of non ionized is higher
d. Number of inized and non ionized molecules is varying

A

50% ionization occurs

33
Q

Rectal administration

a. Is used when a local effect is desired
b. Is used to minimize systemic effect
c. Minimizes first pass metabolism
d. Maximizes first pass metabolism

A

c.minimizes first pass metabolism

34
Q

A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or onl incidentally with the
receptor
a. Physiologic agent
b. Partial agonist
c. Chemical antagonist
d. Pharmacological antagonist

A

c. chemical antagonist

Pharmacology Midterm 1 (1 decks)

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