Past Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What’s packet internet groper?

A

Ping!

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2
Q

Best way to test an internet connection?

A

Ping using ICMP

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3
Q

What is a zero subnet

A

The first subnet address obtained after subnetting a network.

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4
Q

What modes are you unable to change anything involving direct traffic

A

BOTH user and exec modes

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5
Q

What is a 802.1Q trunk

A

A ROAS or Router on a Stick, dot1q holds a vlan ID

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6
Q

What’s a code 200?

A

Code 200 refers to the meaning “OK” and is sending the data requested back to the source. Error 404 is referring to web page no found as you would likely see when browsing the web.

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7
Q

Which of the following is the best procedure for replacing the running-config with a pre-programed startup-config file?

A

Erase the startup-configuration file and then reload the switch or router.
To prevent the merging of the running-configuration file with the startup-configuration file you will need to erase the startup-config file and then reload the switch or router.

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8
Q

What is the difference between core, access, trunk, and distribution switches?

A

Core layer: This layer is considered the backbone of the network and includes the high-end switches and high-speed cables such as fiber cables. This layer of the network does not route traffic at the LAN. In addition, no packet manipulation is done by devices in this layer. Rather, this layer is concerned with speed and ensures reliable delivery of packets.
Distribution layer: This layer includes LAN-based routers and layer 3 switches. This layer ensures that packets are properly routed between subnets and VLANs in your enterprise. This layer is also called the Workgroup layer.
Access layer: This layer includes hubs and switches. This layer is also called the desktop layer because it focuses on connecting client nodes, such as workstations to the network. This layer ensures that packets are delivered to end user computers.

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9
Q

VLANS can split up

A

broadcasting domains

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10
Q

What does a subnet number identify

A

The subnet aka subnet id aka subnet address

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11
Q

What command configures the Telnet password on a router?

A

The “vty line 0 4” command will configure the Telnet password.

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12
Q

When a Host-A is using a network that utilizes a stateful DHCPv6 server, which of the following is NOT likely to be learned from that DHCPv6 server?

A

Stateful DHCPv6 servers do not supply the default router address; addresses come from the use of NDP messages communicated between hosts.

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13
Q

Which command currently stores the enable secret [password]?

A

MD5

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14
Q

Routing protocol performs all of the following functions except:

A

If two routes exist for the same destination subnet, the router will remove the first entry.
If two or more routes exist for the same destination subnet, then the router will decide on which route to use based on a metric.

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15
Q

Consider SW1 and SW2 share the same link and have at least one configured VLAN. Which of the following would prevent trunking between SW1 and SW2?

A

Both interfaces get configured with Switchport mode dynamic auto.

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16
Q

What is another term that references Port Address Translation?

A

NAT Overload

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17
Q

The two protocols an AAA server typically utilizes are what?

A

RADIUS and TACACS+ are protocols used to create secure communication between a host and the AAA server by encrypting the information getting transmitted.

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18
Q

This type of NDP message is sent when a particular neighbor requests the MAC address of a target host.

A

NA - Neighbor Advertisement - inform their presence to other hosts present on the same network as well as send them their link-layer addresses.
NS - Neighbor Solicitation IPv6 nodes send NS messages so that the link-layer address of a specific neighbor can be found. There are three operations in which this message is used:

▪ For detecting duplicate address

▪ Verification of neighbor reachability

▪ Layer 3 to Layer 2 address resolution (for ARP replacement) 
ARP is not included in IPv6 as a protocol but rather the same functionality is integrated into ICMP as part of neighbor discovery. NA message is the response to an NS message.
DAD - Duplicate Address Detection
RA - Router Advertisement Message - In order to inform hosts about the IPv6 prefixes used on the link and also to inform hosts that the router is available as default gateway the IPv6 routers send periodic RA messages

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19
Q

What port is FTP

A

TCP 20, 21

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20
Q

What port is SSH

A

TCP UDP 22

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21
Q

What port is Telnet

A

TCP UDP 23

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22
Q

What port is SMTP

A

TCP UDP 25

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23
Q

What port is DNS

A

53

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24
Q

What port is HTTP

A

80, 81

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25
When using 10 Base T and 100 Base T, what devices transmit on Pin positions 3,6?
Switches and Hubs | NIC transmitters use pair connected to pins 1 and 2 NIC receivers use 3 and 6
26
Whats the purpose of a bridge
Separate devices into collision domains and forward frames between two interfaces; they can also queue and buffer frames which allow the frames to be sent to the dest once it's no longer busy
27
What component of VPN technology ensures data can be ready only by the intended device
Authentication
28
When using 10 base T and 100 base T, devices transmit on pin positions 3 and 6
Ethernet NIC transmitters use the pair connected to pins 1 and 2, NIC receivers use a pair of wires at positions 3 and 6.
29
What's the range of a standard numbered ACL
1-99
30
What's the range of a expanded standard number ACL
1300-1999
31
What's the range of a extended number ACL
100-199
32
What's the range of an expanded extended numbered ACL
2000-2699
33
What does a solicited-node multicast address entail
A neighbor solicitation message will only reach hosts that contain the same last 6 hex digits of the address being targeted
34
TCP 3 Way Handshake
Client must first send a request with its desired port number, once the server acknowledges the port number and agrees the server will send back the same information; once the client receives the segment it then sends its acknowledgement back to the server
35
What is line status
the first part of the ethernet status, representing the physical layer
36
What is line protocol
the second part of the ethernet status representing the data layer
37
What does CSU and DSU stand for
Channel Service Unit | Data Service Unit
38
CSU and DSU clocking
Tells the router exactly when to send each bit through the serial cable
39
What does the command ip route address mask address mask 210 entail
Administrative distance of 210 instead of 1 from statically configured
40
What does the command ip route address mask address mask 210 entail
Administrative distance of 210 instead of 1 from statically configured
41
EIGRP finds path based on
the best (fastest) route
42
Connected routing
allows for a router to automatically learn the route of the subnet connected to each interface
43
Connected routing
allows for a router to automatically learn the route of the subnet connected to each interface
44
What does CSMA/CD stand for
Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection
45
In what devices is CSMA/CD used
LAN hubs because they all share one collision domain
46
LAN switches receive ethernet frames. What is the first step they do in their decision process
Decide when to forward a frame or when to filter (not forward) a frame based on Mac address
47
Name the components of an ethernet frame
Preamble Start Frame Delimiter Destination Mac Address Source Mac Address Type Data and Pad Frame Check Sequence
48
How does a VLAN make use of a router
Connect the router to a layer 2 switch
49
802.3u
defines a protocol that allows two linked ethernet nodes to agree on a determined speed and duplex setting
50
What does a switch use to build its mac address table
Source Mac Address of a frame
51
What's the minimum and maximum size of an 802.3 frame
Minimum of 46 bytes and maximum of 1500 bytes
52
Singlemode fiber cabling has __ distance and ___ cost
greater distance at greater cost
53
Tell me about access switches
It provides a connection to end users but can't forward frames to itself
54
Tell me about core switches
These switches typically can forward large amounts of traffic and forward between distribution switches
55
Tell me about distribution switches
These switches do not connect to the end user but provide a means of access for access switches to forward traffic to each other
56
What counter observes a duplex mismatch
Late Collisions (after 64th byte has been transferred)
57
What are the components of a socket
Transport Protocol, IP Address, and Port Number
58
What happens to routes on a routing table if an interface fails on R1
The route will be removed
59
What does TCP have that UDP does not have
UDP is connectionless and misses the flag bits
60
What does the command service password-encryption do?
It encrypts all passwords on your router
61
Serial x is up, line protocol is down
indicates a clocking problem
62
Serial x is down, line protocol is down
indicates a cabling problem
63
Input Errors indicate
physical layer issues, bad hardware, bad connection, incorrect equipment
64
Output Drops
Output drops appear in the output of the show interfaces serial command when the system is attempting to hand off a packet to a transmit buffer but no buffers are available.
65
Input Drops
Input drops appear in the output of the show interfaces serial EXEC command when too many packets from that interface are still being processed in the system.
66
What does AAA stand for
Authentication Authorization Accounting
67
What are the components of SNMP
manager, agent, and MIB
68
What must be configured before EIGRPv6 can run
A network id
69
What happens in a DHCP address conflict
The addresses on that list (displayed with show ip dhcp conflict) are not used in the future (similar to the addresses configured with the ip dhcp excluded-addresses command). To reuse a conflicting address, the network operator has to remove it from the list with the clear ip dhcp conflict address (or * for all addresses) command.
70
What type of path needs at least 2x variance
unequal cost path
71
How does EIGRP work?
When a change occurs, only routing table changes are propogated, uses hop count like rip as it's a distance vector