past questions Flashcards by luke McCreath

what is not a mark?

tatoo

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what are the indications of an ECG?

irregular heart beats noted during physical exam; bradycardia, tachycardia; evaluation of cardiac arrhythmia, detection of enlarged cardiac chambers, show cardiac disturbances of electrolytes & systemic diseases; aid cardiac disease diagnosis; monitor anaesthesia, evaluate the effectiveness of cardiological drugs

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what is not part of the national?

history

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what Are the principles of Marek’s sound percussion?

crackling sound of the hammer and plessimeter; sound of thoracic wall or wall of any organ; resonant sound of gas containing tissue or other organs

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what are the characteristics of pulse pressure?

difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure; determined by heart rate, stroke volume & peripheral resistance

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what is the dental formula of dogs?

top: 3-1-4-2
bottom: 3-2-4-3

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what is the dental formula of the cat?

top: 3-1-3-1
bottom: 3-1-2-1

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what are the indications in oesophagus for GI endoscopy?

dysphagia, regurgitation, chronic vomiting, foreign bodies, haematemesis, melena, gastritis, ulcers, neoplasia, pyloric obstruction, gastric motility disorder

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what are the indications in the duodenum for GI endoscopy?

chronic vomiting, haematemesis, melena, chronic diarrhoea, inflammatory bowel disease, adenocarcinoma, caecal inversion, colitis

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what are the indications in the colon for GI endoscopy?

Tenesmus, haematochezia, dyschezia (constipation); rectal masses, faecal mucus, lymphoma, adenocarcinoma, caecal inversion, colitis

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what is not an indication for GI endoscopy?

Ascites

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In dogs, RSHF can lead to?

ascites; pleural fluid accumulation; distended jugular; dyspnoea; subcutaneous fluid

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what sound do you hear in the case of pulmonary oedema?

non-musical rhonchi (crepitation & crackling)

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what type of stones can be seen with an ultrasound?

inorganic, organic, struvite & oxalate (all stone types)

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what is nystagmus?

involuntary movement of the eyeball

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what is Horner’s syndrome?

sympathetic denervation of the orbit

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what are the characteristics of Horner’s syndrome?

myositis; ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid); exophthalmos; prolapse of the third eyelid; reduced sweating

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what can cause Horner’s syndrome?

polyps

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how many hours must you leave after eating to avoid post-prandial lipaemia?

12 hrs

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history is part of the general impression? true/ false?

false

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what is true about ataxia?

incoordination; muscle weakness; vestibular malfunction

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what is true about pericardial thrill (remits)?

pathological. Grade 5 murmur (every loud murmur with pre-cordial thrill)

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when is fremitus heard?

dry pleurisy; bronchitis; fibrinous bronchitis; stenotic cardiac valves; valve insufficiency

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which organs can be palpated in the cats abdomen?

both kidneys; urinary bladder; small intestine; colon; ovaries (when enlarged); lymph nodes (when enlarged)

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what is not a kidney evaluation parameter?

creatinine kinase

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checking the bone marrow, what is not performed?

X-ray; schintography; ALKP (to check for osteolysis); US

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checking the bone marrow, what is performed?

CT; MRI; Cytology; haematology; FNA; Biopsy of ln; CBC; bone marrow core biopsy

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indications for skin biopsy?

hereditary/ congenital skin diseases; auto-immune skin disease; neoplasia

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Which disease is acute?

a. Type I discopathy
b. Type II discopathy
c. Lumbosacral instability
d. Tumour

Type I discopathy

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Increasing in the film object distance?

a. The resulting image will be larger
b. The resulting image will be sharper
c. The resulting image will be distorted
d. Both a and b are correct

The resulting image will be larger

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Which answer is false?

a. During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile
b. The outer surface of the surgical glove is considered sterile when it is put on
c. The open gloving method is used for minor interventions (e.g., catheterisation)
d. When performing the open gloving method, the folded back inner surface of the glove cuff can be touched by the bare hands

a. During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

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Physiological dead space means?

a. Anatomical dead space
b. Anatomical alveolar dead space
c. Alveolar dead space
d. Anatomical apparatus dead space

Anatomical alveolar dead space

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Mark the CORRECT statement regarding juvenile vaginitis?

a. Prepuberal gonadectomy is the only effective therapy
b. Brucella canis infection plays a minor role in its pathogenesis
c. Herpes viral infection plays a major role in its pathogenesis
d. The problem heals spontaneously after the first heat

The problem heals spontaneously after the first heat

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Mark the incorrect statement?

a. Benign prostate hyperplasia predisposes to acute prostatitis
b. Bacteriological examination of urine is suitable in all cases for the detection of bacteria present in the prostate
c. Bacteriological examination of fraction 3 is suitable for the detection of pathogen infecting the prostate
d. In the case of prostatitis, at least 4-6 weeks of antibiotic treatment with lipophilic and basic antibiotics are require

Bacteriological examination of urine is suitable in all cases for the detection of bacteria present in the prostate

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In which cycle phase is it typical: in the vaginal smear we can see large numbers of red blood cells, parabasal cells, intermediary cells, small ratio of superficial cells?

a. Early pro-oestrus
b. Late pro-oestrus
c. Oestrus
d. Dioestrus

Early pro-oestrus

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Classification of pimobendane?

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor
c. A bipyridine derivative
d. Ca-channel sensitiser and alpha-adrenergic blocker

Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

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Which sign of the following is characteristic of PRAA?

a. Vomiting 30 minutes after feeding
b. Vomiting 1-2 hrs after feeding
c. Vomiting 4-5 hrs after feeding
d. Regurgitation

Regurgitation

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Which is the upper most muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?

a. Dorsal latissimus dorsi
b. Dorsal serratus m.
c. Ventral serratus m.
d. Cutaneous trunci

Cutaneous trunci

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Capillarity, mark the incorrect statement!

a. Capillarity is the process by which fluid and bacteria are carried into the interstices of multifilament fibres
b. All braided materials have degrees of capillarity
c. Monofilament sutures are considered non-capillary
d. Capillary suture materials should be used in contaminated or infected sites

Capillary suture materials should be used in contaminated or infected sites

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which of the above organs can generally be seen on a survey radiograph?

a. Pancreas
b. Ovaries
c. Adrenals
d. Aorta

Aorta

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Trachea-hypoplasia/ occurrence, symptoms?

a. Mixed type dyspnoea in old dogs, paroxysomal coughing, salivation/ nasal discharge
b. In puppies, whistling during expiration, dyspnoea and coughing
c. In young dogs, dyspnoea during exercise, tracheal stridor and fremitus, productive coughing
d. Independent of age, coughing, bronchial stridor

In young dogs, dyspnoea during exercise, tracheal stridor and fremitus, productive coughing

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When is liquid barium sulphate entirely emptied from the stomach following PO administration in healthy dog?

a. After 1 hr
b. After 4 hrs
c. After 12 hrs
d. After 24 hrs

After 12 hrs

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Reasons of vein cannulation. Pick the false answer?

a. Drug administration
b. Fluid therapy
c. Emergency access
d. Monitoring core temperature

Monitoring core temperature

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Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding salivary mucocele?

a. Its aetiology can be either traumatic or inflammatory
b. It is common in poodles
c. one of its effective treatments is puncture and content removal of the cyst
d. it definitely indicates surgery

one of its effective treatments is puncture and content removal of the cyst

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which of the following is NOT part of the microscopical evaluation methods of the semen?

a. Motility
b. PH
c. Morphology
d. Cytology

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Scalpels. Mark the incorrect statement?

a. Scalpels are the primary cutting instrument used to incise tissue
b. No.10 and No. 20 non-disposable scalpel handles are commonly used in veterinary medicine
c. Pencil grip allows more precise incisions than other grips
d. Blades are available in various sizes and shapes, depending on the intended task

No.10 and No. 20 non-disposable scalpel handles are commonly used in veterinary medicine

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Maintenance of general anaesthesia. Pick the FALSE answer?

a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Inhalational
d. Epidural

Epidural

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Which statement is incorrect regarding acute abdominal catastrophe?

a. The precise diagnosis of organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication
b. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
c. It definitely requires emergency care
d. It is caused by morphological/ functional disorders of abdominal organs

The precise diagnosis of organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication

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Which of the following is a contraindication of the placement of oesophagostomy tube?

a. Intestinal tumour
b. Comatose or vomiting animal
c. Cachexic animal
d. Anorexic animal

Comatose or vomiting animal

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Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy?

a. Superficial liver rupture
b. Diffuse hepatomegaly
c. Liver abscess
d. Cholelithiasis

Liver abscess

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What medicine should be given to a dog with grade B2 mitrial valve disease (MMVD)?

a. ACE inhibitors
b. Pimobendane
c. Furosemide
d. None of them

Pimobendane

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Which of the following is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA)?

a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor
d. Splenic HAS does not metastasise into the heart

The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

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Congenital Portosystemic shunt – diagnosis?

a. Icterus, ascites, anorexia, wasting, hepatomegaly
b. Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural digestive, urinary symptoms, plasma ammonia, FBA- PP bile acid increased, doppler US
c. Ultrasonography  hepatomegaly, AST/ ALT increased, Biopsy
d. Ascites, hypoproteinaemia, haematuria, increased ALT

Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural digestive, urinary symptoms, plasma ammonia, FBA- PP bile acid increased, doppler US

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Which if the following statements is incorrect regarding GDV?

a. The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders
b. There is also chronic form of GDV
c. GDV is usually acute onset
d. GDV starts right after latest feeding

GDV starts right after latest feeding

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Which is the first choice in the case of Hansen type I disc protrusion?

a. Lateral corpectomy
b. Fenestration
c. Total laminectomy
d. Hemilaminectomy

Hemilaminectomy

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Diabetes insipidus: which is correct?

a. Clinical manifestations: PD/ PU, hyperinsulinaemia
b. The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin
c. The ADH production of the kidneys is insufficient in the nephrogenic form
d. Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH-stimulation test

The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin

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Which is not an indication for dialysis treatment?

a. Anuric acute kidney injury
b. Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid therapy
c. Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis
d. Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid therapy

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Primary assessment of circulation. Mark the incorrect answer?

a. Detection of bleeding
b. Perform ECG and heart US examination
c. Check mucus membranes and CRT
d. Check pulse rate and quality

Perform ECG and heart US examination

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The MAP (mean arterial pressure) is ….

a. Average of the systolic and diastolic values
b. Rarely lower than diastolic pressure
c. Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure
d. Closer to systolic pressure than to diastolic pressure

Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure

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Fanconi syndrome in dogs: which answer is wrong?

a. Glucosuria
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Aminoaciduria
d. Ketonuria

Ketonuria

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In the case of tracheal hypoplasia, the diameter of the trachea is less than?

a. The 1/3 length of the third rib
b. The 20% of the thoracic inlet
c. The double of the length of the second lumbar vertebra
d. One intercostal space

The 20% of the thoracic inlet

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Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shock?

a. Methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate
b. Prednisolone Na-succinate
c. Dexamethasone (not contraindicated but not highly effective)
d. Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

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Fungal rhinitis?

a. Characterised by bilateral serous nasal discharge
b. Acute, mild disease
c. Aspergillus or cryptococcus in the origin
d. Nocardia or mycoplasma in the origin

Aspergillus or cryptococcus in the origin

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Which of the following blood pressures (in mmHg) is the critical value of CNS blood flow maintenance in shock?

a. 70
b. 60
c. 50
d. 40

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Which of the following suture patterns is tension relieving?

a. Simple interrupted
b. Purse string
c. Interrupted horizontal mattress
d. None of them

Interrupted horizontal mattress

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What modality is used for two-dimensional real-time imaging of cardiac structures?

a. B-mode
b. Colour doppler
c. M-mode
d. Spectral doppler

M-mode

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The upper limit of total plasma calcium in the dog is?

a. 2 mmol/l
b. 5 mmol/l
c. 3 mmol/l
d. 6 mmol/l

2 mmol/l

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Which statement is incorrect regarding prostate ultrasonography?

a. It can detect fluid accumulation in the organ
b. It can detect parenchymal hypertrophy
c. It can differentiate cyst from abscess
d. It provides possibility of core biopsy

It can differentiate cyst from abscess

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Fentanyl. Pick the false answer?

a. Full agonist opioid drug
b. 15–30-minute duration of effect
c. Do not combine with propofol
d. May be re-dosed

15–30-minute duration of effect

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Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

a. PDS
b. Polyglyconate
c. Glycomer
d. Poliglecaprone

Poliglecaprone

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Suturing of small intestine anastomosis wound?

a. Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple/interrupted suture pattern, in 2 layers
b. Multifil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted pattern, in 2 layers
c. Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continous suture pattern, in 1 layer
d. Monofil, non-absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous suture pattern, in 1 layer (all layers)

Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continous suture pattern, in 1 layer

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Chronic pancreatitis?

a. Very rare in cats
b. It has autoimmune form
c. High fat diet is part of the therapy
d. Mainly occurs in puppies

It has autoimmune form

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How can you distinguish between ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG?

a. The QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmias
b. The QRS complex is always of normal width in the case of supraventricular arrythmia
c. P-wave is always visible in front of QRS complex in supraventricular arrythmias
d. P-wave never seen in supraventricular arrythmias before QRS complex

The QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmias

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Which is not a feeding tube?

a. Pharyngeal tube
b. Naso-oesophageal tube
c. Oesophageal tube
d. Percutan gastric tube

Pharyngeal tube

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Mark the INCORRECT statement?

a. Benign prostate hyperplasia predisposes to malignant prostate tumour
b. Adenocarcinoma and transient cell carcinoma are the most common forms of prostate cancer in dogs
c. Castration reduces the size of non-neoplastic prostate but does not affect the progression of non-neoplastic processes
d. Prostate carcinoma in a dog is NOT androgen dependant tumour

Prostate carcinoma in a dog is NOT androgen dependant tumour

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What does “sceletonisation” mean?

a. Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected
b. V-shaped incision in the mesentery
c. Excision of the affected interstitial section
d. Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected

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What is the typical finding during FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?

a. Honey-like viscous exudate during puncture
b. Thin, water like fluid during puncture
c. Bloody fluid during puncture
d. None of them

Honey-like viscous exudate during puncture

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Which is the indication for duodenoscopy?

a. Ileus
b. Acute vomiting
c. Acute diarrhoea
d. Melena, hematemesis

Melena, hematemesis

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Which statement is WRONG? In acute kidney failure, mannitol infusion….?

a. Should only be given to a previously rehydrated patient
b. Can be repeated upto 5 times in the case of anuria
c. Can be repeated many times is diuresis is present
d. Is recommended for oliguric renal failure

Can be repeated upto 5 times in the case of anuria

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Which is NOT true?

a. In hepatic encephalopathy the blood level of ammonia is elevated
b. The lactulose and diet with high biological value proteins are an important part of treatment of hepatic encephalopathy
c. Obstipation, alkalosis, hypokalaemia and GI bleeding are all worsening symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy
d. In microvascular dysplasia the abdominal blood vessels can be detected by colour doppler ultrasound

In microvascular dysplasia the abdominal blood vessels can be detected by colour doppler ultrasound

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What does atypical operation mean?

a. One sort of life-saving surgiries
b. One sort of tumour removal procedure
c. Specific plastic surgical intervention
d. An individual procedure using whole knowledge, experience, and intuition of the surgeon

An individual procedure using whole knowledge, experience, and intuition of the surgeon

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ASA 2. Pick the false answer?

a. Mild systemic disease
b. No apparent functional disorders
c. Low anaesthetic risk
d. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years

Age: 6 weeks – 5 years

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Causes of rebreathed CO2. Pick the false answer?

a. High flow in semi-open, non-rebreathing system
b. Exhausted soda lime
c. Stuck one way valve
d. Large dead space

High flow in semi-open, non-rebreathing system

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What is not typical of PDA surgery?

a. Left 4th intercostal thoracotomy
b. Ligature and bisection at the botallo duct
c. High risk of intraoperative complications
d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

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Which anatomical structure is demonstrated by myelography?

a. Epidural space
b. Subdural space
c. Subarachnoid space
d. Periarachoideal space

Subarachnoid space

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Which statement is true?

a. You don’t have to use grid for the chest
b. You don’t have to use grid above 10 cm object thickness
c. The use of the grid often required digital systems
d. To create improved sharpness of image

To create improved sharpness of image

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An ECG exam is most appropriate (indicated) if:

a. When the heartrate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm
b. When the dog that has an accident has 200 bpm heart rate
c. When a dog with a body temperature of 40.8˚C has a heart rate of 180 bpm
d. When the heart rate of a dog arriving for a microchip implant is 160 bpm

When the heartrate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm

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Ventricular extrasystoles are…

a. Caused by atrial disease (e.g. dilation)
b. Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g. splenic tumour)
c. Always caused by heart failure
d. Caused by increased vagal tone

Caused by atrial disease (e.g. dilation)

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How can you determine the left atrial-aortic ratio (LA/LO) during echocardiography?

a. Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same long axis view
b. Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis view
c. Measure the diameter of the aorta in short axis and measure the diameter of the left atrium in long axis view
d. Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in long axis view

Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis view

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Which of the following can be incorrect regarding salivary mucocele?

a. Its aetiology can be either traumatic or inflammatory
b. Its common in poodle
c. One of its effective treatments is puncture and removal of the cyst
d. It definitely indicates surgery

One of its effective treatments is puncture and removal of the cyst

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Which exposure factor could be used in small animal radiography?

a. 8 mAs
b. 100 mAs
c. 0.8 mAs
d. 800 mAs

8 mAs

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True about benign prostate hypertrophy?

a. Prostate enlargement is usually asymmetric
b. US examination can show cysts in the prostate
c. An important element of treatment is antibiotic therapy
d. An important element of treatment is the administration of androgens

US examination can show cysts in the prostate

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What is the target blood glucose level in a diabetic patient at maximum effect of insulin?

a. 3-6 mmol/l
b. 3-6 µmol/l
c. 4-9 µmol/l
d. 4-9 mmol/l

4-9 mmol/l

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Which of the following statements is incorrect? An active drain…….

a. Is not recommended as a flushing drain
b. Can be open-suction drain
c. Can be closed suction drain
d. Is used as flushing drain

Is not recommended as a flushing drain

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The pop-off valve (adjustable pressure limiting valve) …..pick the false answer?

a. Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lings
b. Is open during spontaneous breathing
c. Is set to 20 cm H2O during manual or mechanical ventilation
d. It is set to 40 cm H2O in case of compromised lung

It is set to 40 cm H2O in case of compromised lung

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Inspiration. Pick the false answer?

a. Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure
b. IPPV inspiration is caused by increasing intrapleural pressure
c. Expiration is spontaneous in both cases
d. IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

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Which statement is true?

a. Some digital technologies use X-ray films
b. Fluoroscopy can be digital or analogue
c. DR systems can be digital or analogue
d. The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic

Fluoroscopy can be digital or analogue

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Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair?

a. Laparotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy

Laparotomy

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Suturing materials. Pick the false answer!

a. The size is indicated on the package either in metric units (e.g., European pharmacopoeia) or in USP units (e.g., 5-0; USA pharmacopoeia)
b. Catgut is an organic and absorbable suture material
c. Polyglycolic acid, polyglactin, and polydioxanone are synthetic and absorbable
d. Polyester, polyamide, and polypropylene are synthetic and non-absorbable

The size is indicated on the package either in metric units (e.g., European pharmacopoeia) or in USP units (e.g., 5-0; USA pharmacopoeia)

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Which colour is typical of the compensatory stage of shock?

a. Pale
b. Cyanotic
c. Dirty red
d. Bright red

Bright red

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Electrosurgery. Pick the false answer?

a. The thermocauter is a metal device heated by fire
b. The electrocauter is a metal device heated by direct current
c. Electrosurgical devices are “cold”, they increase the temperature of the treated tissues by applying alternating current
d. All three methods allow controllable and safe surgical intervention

The thermocauter is a metal device heated by fire

Which is associated with portal hypertension?

a. Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia
b. Arterioportal/ arteriovenous fistula
c. Congenital portosystemic shunt
d. Hepatic lipidosis

Arterioportal/ arteriovenous fistula

Which of the following drugs has no afterload reducing effect?

a. Amlodipine
b. Pimobendane
c. Digoxin
d. Hydralazine

Digoxin

Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?

a. Polyglactin (Vicryl®)
b. Polydioxanone (PDS®)
c. Both of them
d. None of them

None of them

Which answer is true?

a. During surgical scrubbing the number of germs in the skin and forearm increases from the elbow to the fingertips
b. The back of the surgical gown is considered sterile after putting it on
c. If the surgical gloves tear, one must scrub again
d. The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on exposure time and not on how hard you scrub

The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on exposure time and not on how hard you scrub

PDA means?

a. Abnormally directed botallo ligament
b. Patentency of the botallo duct
c. Abnormally directed aortic arch
d. Abnormally directed subclavian artery

Patentency of the botallo duct

What is the role of the collimator?

a. Filtration of the scattered beams
b. Setting the size of the X-ray beam
c. Setting the strength of the X-ray beam
d. Reduction of X-ray radiation

Setting the size of the X-ray beam

Which statement is true?

a. The overexposed digital image will be too bright
b. The overexposed analogue image will be too dark
c. The underexposed analogue will be too dark
d. The underexposed image will be too bright

The underexposed analogue will be too dark

Mark the INCORRECT statement?

a. Surgical castration is an effective therapy for Benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Chemical castration (e.g., Deslorelin) may be suitable for the treatment of prostatic hyperplasia
c. In the case of benign prostatic hyperplasia, administration of 5a reductase inhibitor can reduce the size of the prostate while maintaining fertility
d. In benign prostatic hyperplasia, osaterone acetate (a testosterone receptor inhibitor) may reduce prostate size, but fertility may be significantly impaired

In benign prostatic hyperplasia, osaterone acetate (a testosterone receptor inhibitor) may reduce prostate size, but fertility may be significantly impaired

Mark the CORRECT statement regarding vaginitis?

a. In the case of vaginitis, bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing are not required
b. The pathogens that cause vaginitis are most often the constituents of the normal vaginal flora
c. E. coli and staphylococcus aureus never appear as part of the normal vaginal flora
d. Gonadectomy reduces the risk of chronic vaginitis

The pathogens that cause vaginitis are most often the constituents of the normal vaginal flora

Ways to increase the penetrating powers of X-rays include?

a. Increasing kVP
b. Increasing the time setting
c. Increasing the thermionic emission
d. Increasing mAs

Increasing kVP

What does the term asthenozoospermia mean?

a. Lack of motile spermatozoa in the sperm
b. Lack of spermatozoa in the sperm
c. Blood or urine contamination
d. Increased PH of the sperm

Lack of motile spermatozoa in the sperm

The optimal PH of sperm is?

a. 5.8-6.2
b. 6.3-6.7
c. 6.8-7.2
d. 5.8-7.2

6.3-6.7

Treatment of pyelonephritis: which answer is wrong?

a. ACE-I, omega-3 fatty acids
b. Puncture and flushing of renal pelvis
c. Systemic antibiotics
d. Fluid therapy

ACE-I, omega-3 fatty acids

Characteristics of endocrine skin disorders?

a. A symmetrical hyperpigmentation/ alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness of thinness, chronic course
b. Symmetrical eczema on the skin, hair loss all over the body, condition heals quickly after the elimination of the cause
c. Seborrhoea, hyperpigmentation, and hyperkeratosis all over the body, in young dogs  later gradual improvement/ healing
d. Pruritis, traumatic alopecia, acute course

A symmetrical hyperpigmentation/ alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness of thinness, chronic course

ASA 3. Pick the false answer?

a. Severe systemic disease
b. Visible functional impairment
c. Age: 6 weeks-5 years
d. Not life-threatening status

Age: 6 weeks-5 years

According to Sante’s rules, if a cats abdomen measures 8cm, FFD is 100 cm, kVp is?

a. 72
b. 56
c. 66
d. 52

Fanconi syndrome is NOT characterised by?

a. Proximal tubular acidosis
b. Central diabetes insipidus
c. Aminoaciduria
d. Glycosuria

Central diabetes insipidus

Acute colitis/ dog, cat/ clinical signs:

a. Large amount of watery diarrhoea
b. Small amount, watery diarrhoea with undigested food
c. Small amount, pudding-like, mucinous, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhoea
d. Large amount, mucinous, bloody (melaena) diarrhoea

Small amount, pudding-like, mucinous, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhoea

Which statement is false? In case of thoracic effusion?

a. The opacity of the thorax is increased
b. The outline of the organs gets sharper
c. Diaphragmatic hernia sometimes cannot be ruled out
d. Type of the fluid cannot be determined

Type of the fluid cannot be determined

Which factor is not involved in the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

a. Testosterone levels decrease with age
b. Testosterone levels increase with age
c. Increasing oestrogen: testosterone ratio
d. Increased 5-alpha reductase activity in prostate cells

Testosterone levels increase with age

Ascending pathway of the nociception?

a. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection, and perception
b. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection, and perception
c. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection, and perception
d. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection, and perception

Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection, and perception

Which statement is true? On a lateral chest radiograph….

a. The left ventricle is located cranioventrally
b. The left atrium is located caudodorsally
c. The right ventricle is located craniodorsally
d. The right atrium is located caudoventrally

The left atrium is located caudodorsally

What is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

a. May cause thromboembolism
b. May cause sudden death
c. Often has long survival
d. Causes right sided heart dilation

Causes right sided heart dilation

Which statement is incorrect? The X-ray (is)….

a. Ionising radiation
b. Electromagnetic radiation
c. Travels at the speed of light
d. Consists of charged particles

Consists of charged particles

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureter?

a. Cystoscopy
b. Double contrast cystography
c. Intravenous urography pneumocystography
d. Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4

Intravenous urography pneumocystography

Scissors. Mark the incorrect statement!

a. Suture removal scissors have concavity on one blade
b. Bandage scissors have a blunt tip, which reduced the risk of cutting skin
c. Surgical scissors are held with the thumb and middle finger
d. Blunt dissection may be used to undermine skin edges, for tension-free wound closure

Suture removal scissors have concavity on one blade

What type of instruments are mayo and Metzenbaum?
a. Scalpel
b. Artery forceps
c. Scissors
d. Needle holders

Scissors

In the case of acute epistaxis/ nasal bleeding?

a. Immediate X-ray examination is needed
b. Immediate rhinoscopy is needed
c. As soon as possible haemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are required
d. Nasal foreign body and fungal rhinitis cannot be presumed in the background

As soon as possible haemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are required

Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer?

a. Function: physiological or pathological
b. Origin: organic or psychogenic
c. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
d. Duration: acute or chronic

Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

At what temperature do we store chilled semen?

a. 0˚C
b. 2˚C
c. 5˚C
d. 8˚

5˚C

Which of the following is the main shock organ of the cat and the horse?

a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Small intestine
d. Pancrea

Lungs

The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemias?

a. < 1.5
b. > 1.5
c. < 2.5
d. > 3.5

> 1.5

Characteristics of reverse sneezing?

a. Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background
b. Indicates a severe, life-threatening illness
c. Usually caused by the irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
d. Indicates a laryngeal lesion

Usually caused by the irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity

Application of propofol. Pick the false answer?

a. Only in combination with muscle relaxants
b. Slowly
c. IV
d. To effect

Only in combination with muscle relaxants

Which statement is false? When obtaining radiographs of fractures, it is important….

a. To take orthogonal projections
b. To have the neighbouring joints in the picture too
c. In case of uncertainty take x-ray of the contralateral limb too
d. Always take radiographs of the thorax to

Always take radiographs of the thorax to

Which plane is used to measure the left atrium to aortic ratio?

a. Short axis at heart base from right side
b. Long axis at right side
c. Apical view
d. Subcostal view

Short axis at heart base from right side

Which breed is predisposed to cushing’s syndrome?

a. Greyhound
b. Cocker spaniel
c. English bulldog
d. Karelian terrier
e. Yorkshire terrier

Yorkshire terrier

Which of the following is not typical in the case of babesiosis?

a. Myoglobinuria
b. Icterus
c. Vomitus
d. Acute kidney injury

Myoglobinuria

Which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the retrospective multicentre study by Wavreille et al (vet surg. 2016)?

a. Primary lung tumours were represented in 52% of the indications
b. 76% of the dogs and 80% of cats had postoperative respiratory complications
c. The acute perioperative (less than or equal to 24h) mortality was around 10%
d. Subacute (less than or equal to 2 weeks) postoperative mortality affected 1 dog and 2 cats

The acute perioperative (less than or equal to 24h) mortality was around 10%

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding gastric foreign body?

a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 90%
b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/ septic procedure
c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hrs after gastrotomy

The gastrotomy is a contaminated/ septic procedure

What is the main source of radiation exposure of the personnel?

a. Leaking radiation from X-ray tube
b. The primary beam
c. The secondary beam originating from the patient
d. None of them

The primary beam

Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs?

a. Only together with paraprostatic cyst surgery
b. Even in asymptomatic cases castration, based on US diagnosis, large dose of oestrogens
c. Only in symptomatic cases castration, fimasteride
d. Only in symptomatic cases, surgical removal of the gland

Even in asymptomatic cases castration, based on US diagnosis, large dose of oestrogens

Which answer is wrong? Consequence of left sided heart failure?

a. Thoracic fluid accumulation in cats
b. Pulmonary oedema in dogs
c. Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
d. Pulmonary oedema in cats

Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs

Physiological values of the PH of the urine in dogs and cats?

a. 6-7
b. 7-8
c. 8-9
d. 5-5.5

6-7

Monitoring of anaesthetized patients involves the assessment of……pick the false answer?

a. Stage of narcosis
b. Pain markers
c. Patients parameters
d. Owners consent

Owners consent

Conditions of musculoskeletal system requiring emergency care. Mark the incorrect answer?

a. Open fracture
b. Intraarticular bone fracture
c. Patellar luxation
d. Severe muscular injury, laceration

Patellar luxation

feature of Von-Willebrand’s disease?

a. Prolonged surgical bleeding
b. Severe thrombopenia
c. Spontaneous bleeding is common
d. Dalmatians are predisposed

Prolonged surgical bleeding

If we increase the kVp, we have to use….mAs, to get the same exposure.me.

a. Higher
b. The same
c. Lower
d. Whatever

Lower

In which cycle phase is it typical; swollen vulva with serosanguinous discharge, big folds in the vaginal lumen?

a. Pro-oestrus
b. Oestrus
c. Di-oestrus
d. Anoestru

Oestrus

What is the goal of asepsis?

a. To prevent contamination
b. To reduce contamination
c. To allow contamination
d. All the above

To prevent contamination

Which of the following is least effective in German shepherd’s perineal fistulation?

a. Fistulectomy
b. Cyclosporine
c. Prednisolone
d. Conservative therapy

Conservative therapy

Epulis/ occurrence/ dogs?

a. The most common benign tumour in the oral cavity
b. The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity
c. A very rare benign tumour of the oral cavity
d. Although epulis may occur in the oral cavity, but basically it is the benign tumour of the rectum

The most common benign tumour in the oral cavity

Suture characteristics. Mark the incorrect statement?

a. The ideal suture resists shrinking in tissue
b. The ideal suture absorbs with minimal reaction after the tissue has been healed
c. The ideal suture is capillary
d. The ideal suture is non-allogenic

The ideal suture is capillary

What is the most frequent complication of CricoArytenoid lateralisation?

a. Laryngeal collapse
b. Recurrence
c. Aspiration
d. None of them

Aspiration

Which drug is not an antihistamine?

a. Chlorpiramine
b. Flumetazone
c. Hydroxyzine
d. Dimetindene-maleate

Flumetazone

Cuff size for BP measuring. Pick the false answer?

a. Patients of different sizes require different cuffs
b. Optimal cuff’s width is 40% of leg’s circumference
c. Optimal cuff’s width is 140% of legs circumference
d. Wider cuff produces lower BP value and vice versa

Optimal cuff’s width is 140% of legs circumference

Which disease is painful?

a. Discopathy
b. Fibrocartilage embolism
c. Degenerative myelopathy
d. Wobbler syndrome

Discopathy

Narcosis systems. Pick the false answer?

a. Open circuit
b. Semi-open circuit
c. Semi-closed circuit
d. Closed circuit

Open

Which type of pyoderma is the “hot spot”?

a. Deep
b. Superficial
c. Surface
d. Pseudo

Surface

ECG characteristics of atrial fibrillation?

a. The R-R distance varies, and the ventricular complexes are greatly deformed
b. There are no P waves, and the R-R distances are regular
c. There are no P waves, and the R-R distances vary
d. The atria and the ventricles operate separately with different P-wave and QRS frequencies

There are no P waves, and the R-R distances vary

Local anaesthetics. Pick the false answer?

a. Block all nerves
b. Local anaesthesia types: terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural, spinal
c. Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthesia
d. Possible side effects: cardiovascular and CNS signs, cell toxicity

Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthesia

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in cats in case of haematuria?

a. FIC (feline idiopathic cystitis)
b. Urolithiasis
c. Neoplasia
d. Bacterial cystitis

FIC (feline idiopathic cystitis)

How many fractions of ejaculate are there in the dog?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100 mA and 1/10 sec is?

a. 10 mAs
b. 10000 mAs
c. 100 mAs
d. 1 mAs

10 mAs

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge approximation?

a. Simple – mattress – cruciate
b. Skin – intradermal – subcutaneous – muscular – fascial -…
c. Interrupted Vs. continuous
d. Appositional – inverting – tension relieving…..

Appositional – inverting – tension relieving…..

Which hormone is responsible for the epithelial cell proliferation of the vaginal mucosa?

a. Progesterone
b. Oestrogen
c. LH
d. Testosterone

Oestrogen

The approx.. upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and cat is?

a. 1.2 mmol/l
b. 3.5 mmol/l
c. 2.0 mmol/l
d. 0.8 mmol/l

2.0 mmol/l

Parameters of ventilation. Pick the false answer?

a. Tidal volume: 10-15 ml/bwkg
b. Respiratory rate: 80-100/ min
c. Inhalation/ exhalation time ratio: 1.2-1.3
d. Target values: 35-45 mm/Hg CO2 and 100% SpO2

Respiratory rate: 80-100/ min

In the study of megaoesophagus one of the following methods is NOT used?

a. Survey radiographs
b. Barium sulphate paste swallow
c. Carbon-dioxide inflation
d. Feeding barium sulphate mixed with pet food

Carbon-dioxide inflation

Atropine is used for treatment…..pick the false answer?

a. Bradycardia caused by opioids
b. Reflex-bradycardia caused by a2-agonists (high BP)
c. AV and SA blocks
d. Increased gland secretion and bronchospasm

Reflex-bradycardia caused by a2-agonists (high BP)

Metomidine, xylazine. Pick the false answer?

a. Using a general dose, phases of sedation, induction and maintenance cannot be separated
b. Can be antagonised by flumazenil
c. Not recommended for old, cardiac, and diabetic patients
d. Cause circulatory and respiratory depression

Can be antagonised by flumazenil

The following is not true about polycystic kidney disease?

a. It is often asymptomatic
b. Renal abscesses may develop in case of bacterial infection of the cysts
c. Ultrasound examination is required to make diagnosis
d. Treatment is often surgical

Treatment is often surgical

The upper limit of total bilirubin in the dog is?

a. 20 micromol/l
b. 30 mmol/l
c. 10 mmol/l
d. 10 micromol/l

20 micromol/l

Mark the INCORRECT statement?

a. Benign prostate hyperplasia predisposes to acute prostatitis
b. Bacteriological examination of the urine is suitable in all cases for the detection of bacteria present in the prostate
c. Bacteriological examination of fraction 3 is suitable for the detection of the pathogen infecting the prostate
d. In the case of prostatitis, at least 4-6 weeks of antibiotic treatment with lipophilic and basic antibiotics are required

Bacteriological examination of the urine is suitable in all cases for the detection of bacteria present in the prostate

Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid ring constrictor?

a. Celophane
b. Silk
c. Kazein
d. Nylon

Kazein

Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhoea/ suggested additional examinations/ dog, cat?

a. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination
b. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and anaerobic bacterial culture
c. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and parvo ELISA test
d. Faecal analysis: bacteriological and fungal culture

Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and anaerobic bacterial culture

The most common heart disease in cats?

a. Mitral endocardiosis
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Subvalvular aortic stenosis (SAS)
d. PDA

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Which part of the stomach usually dislocates in axial (sliding) hiatal hernia?

a. Cardia
b. Fundus
c. Corpus
d. Antrum pylori

Cardia

The temperature of the filament within the cathode is controlled by?

a. Time setting
b. The source-image distance
c. kVp setting
d. mA setting

Time setting

for which of the following diseases is regurgitation not a typical symptom?

a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Persistent right aortic arch
c. Persistent ductus arteriosus
d. Spirocercosis

Persistent ductus arteriosus

hich may be a characteristic symptom of hyperestrogenism in male dogs?

a. Epithelial metaplasia in the prostate gland
b. Development of prostate tumour
c. Increase in ejaculate volume
d. Bone marrow hyperplasia

Epithelial metaplasia in the prostate gland

When do secondary morphological abnormalities develop?

a. During spermatogenesis
b. During the ripening process
c. Both
d. None

None

Which statement is false?

a. The upper motor neuron cell bodies are located in the cerebellum and brain stem
b. The upper motor neuron could stimulate or inhibit the lower motor neuron
c. In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes
d. In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings: hyperreflexia, muscle hypertonia, abnormal reflexe

In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes

Ectopic ureters…..which answer is wrong?

a. Are usually causing constant urine dripping
b. Are occurring only in females
c. Can be diagnosed by X-ray or CT exam
d. Can be diagnosed with cystoscopy

Are occurring only in females

What is the most common cardiac disease in cats?

a. ARVC
b. DCM
c. HCM
d. RCM

HCM

Basic surgical instruments. Mark the incorrect statement?

a. Their function can be separating, gripping, exploring and merging
b. The scalpel is held with fingertips in the case of long straight incisions and pencil grip in the case of short, fine incisions
c. The mayo-hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle
d. Scissors and artery forceps are held with the tips of the thumb and ring finger through the finger rings and with the index finger resting on the shanks

The mayo-hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle

Which of the following methods can be chosen as first in case of foreign body caused caudal thoracic (prediaphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction?

a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
b. Endoscopic removal
c. Laparotomy, gastrotomy transluminal foreign body removal
d. Thoracotomy oesophagostomy

Endoscopic removal

Surgical needles. Mark the incorrect statement?

a. A variety of needle shapes and sizes are available
b. Selection of the needle depends on the type of tissue to be sutured
c. The depth and diameter of the wound are important when selecting the most appropriate curved needle
d. Reverse cutting needles can dissect through friable tissue without cutting

The depth and diameter of the wound are important when selecting the most appropriate curved needle

In early phases of healing, the most essential white blood cell count in the wound is?

a. The neutrophil granulocytes
b. The monocyte
c. The T-lymphocyte
d. The eosinophil granulocyte

The neutrophil granulocytes

Which exposure factors cause same blackening on the detector than 60 kV/ 8mAs?

a. 70 kV/ 16mAs
b. 50 kV/ 20mAs
c. 80 kV/ 2 mAs
d. 40 kV/ 10 mAs

80 kV/ 2 mAs

What is the basic structure of the normal pulmonary pattern?

a. Alveoli
b. Pulmonary vessels
c. Bronchi
d. None of them

Alveoli

Effects of premedication. Pick false answer?

a. Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression
b. Increases O2 demand
c. Decreases anaesthetic dosage, side effects, and cost
d. Eliminates excitation stage

Increases O2 demand

Anaesthesia types. Pick the false answer?

a. Local
b. Regional
c. Subtotal
d. General

Subtotal

On the basis of modified Glasgow coma scale we can evaluate the prognosis of the patient with head trauma according to?

a. Pupil size, motor activity, consciousness
b. Pupil size, motor activity, brainstem reflexes
c. Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness
d. Pupil size, brainstem reflexes, consciousness

Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness

The modified Glasgow coma scale is based on the following?

a. Pupil size, motor activity, consciousness
b. Pupil size, motor activity, brainstem reflexes
c. Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness
d. Pupil size, brainstem reflexes, consciousness

Pupil size, motor activity, consciousness

How many lung lobes has the dog got?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

How many lung lobes does a cat have?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

General anaesthesia criteria. Pick false answer?

a. Inhalational
b. Hypnosis
c. Analgesia
d. Muscle relaxation

Inhalational

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Abdominocentesis
c. Ultrasonography
d. Respiratory endoscopy

Ultrasonography

What type of perineal hernia is most common in bitches?

a. Lateral
b. Dorsal
c. Ventral
d. Perineal hernia does not occur in bitches

Perineal hernia does not occur in bitches

Stages of narcosis (I-IV). pick the false answer?

a. Stadium analgesia = induction phase
b. Stadium excitations = excitatory phase
c. Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis
d. Stadium asphysiae = deep surgical narcosis

Stadium asphysiae = deep surgical narcosis

With the use of a grid we can?

a. Reduce the radiation exposure
b. Improve the image contrast
c. Improve the image sharpness
d. Reduce the exposure time

Improve the image contrast

What contrast medium would you use to demonstrate vascular strangulation of the oesophagus?

a. Barium sulphate
b. Inorganic iodine compound
c. Air
d. The use of contrast medium is contraindicated

The use of contrast medium is contraindicated

Which procedure is adequate for irreponable caecum inversion?

a. Typhlotomy
b. Typhlectomy
c. Appendectomy
d. Subtotal colectomy

Typhlectomy

Please mark the INCORRECT answer! Conditions of the respiratory system requiring care?

a. Complete airway blockage
b. Open or tension pneumothorax
c. Severe pulmonary oedema
d. Tracheal hypoplasia

Tracheal hypoplasia

Advantages of closed narcotic systems, pick the false answer?

a. Low source gas consumption
b. Low inhalational anaesthetic consumption
c. Cheap
d. Easily controllable depth of anaesthesia

Easily controllable depth of anaesthesia

Which statement is false?

a. In the case of wrong exposure factors the digital image will be motten
b. The S-value informs you about the exposure
c. The image can be motten both in over- and underexposed cases
d. Digital systems require much higher doses than analogue system

Digital systems require much higher doses than analogue system

Myelography is primarily used to diagnose?

a. Spinal cord bleeding
b. Spinal cord compression
c. Spinal cord necrosis
d. Brain circulatory disorders

Spinal cord compression

Most pulse oximeters display. Pick the false answer?

a. Signal strength
b. Saturation and pulse frequency
c. Plethysmogram
d. Ratio of abnormal/ normal haemoglobin types

Ratio of abnormal/ normal haemoglobin types

In the case of secondary wound infection?

a. Bacterial sample taking and antibiotics resistance testing is obligatory
b. Use concentrated cytotoxic solution on the wound surface
c. Perform surgical debridement on the effected area
d. Use talc-powder on the wound surface and cover it with a bandage

Bacterial sample taking and antibiotics resistance testing is obligatory

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of diffuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery?

a. Bilroth I gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrectomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Reposition and gastropexy

Euthanasia

In which cycle phase is it typical: in the vaginal smear the rate of cornified cells is higher than 80-90%?

a. Pro-oestrus
b. Oestrus
c. Di-oestrus
d. Anoestrus

Oestrus

What is not a characteristic symptom of early-stage benign prostate enlargement?

a. Bloody preputial discharge
b. Stranguria
c. Hematuria
d. Deteriorating sperm quality, tail defects of sperm

Deteriorating sperm quality, tail defects of sperm

What changes do you expect to find in the case of severe PDA?

a. Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b. Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c. Left ventricular dilation
d. Right ventricular dilation

Left ventricular dilation

Fat derived peptides”/ effects of cytokines and hormones produced by adipocytes?

a. Mild chronic inflammation, decrease in insulin resistency
b. Increase in appetite, decrease in insulin resistency
c. Mild chronic inflammation, long-lasting oxidative stress
d. Mild acute inflammation, increase in blood pressure, increase in appetite

Mild chronic inflammation, long-lasting oxidative stress

Which one of the following is not typical in the case of AKI?

a. Cachexia
b. Vomitus
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Uraemic ulcers

Cachexia

Paraprostatic cysts are?

a. Caused by ascending infections (E. coli)
b. Caused by prostatic tumour or squamous metaplasia
c. Remnants of the Mullerian-ducts or retention cysts
d. Small fluid filled cavities

Remnants of the Mullerian-ducts or retention cysts

AHDS – acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea syndrome/ dog?

a. Former name: HGE – haemorrhagic gastroenteritis, caused by Cl. Perfringens A
b. Severe disorder caused by corona virus
c. Mild disorder caused by mutated parvo virus
d. Mild disorder, the patient can recover in few days without any treatment

Former name: HGE – haemorrhagic gastroenteritis, caused by Cl. Perfringens A

Oliguria/ definition/ dog?

a. Urine output less than 50 ml/ ttkg/ day
b. Urine output less than 100 ml/ ttkg/ day
c. Urine output less than 30 ml/ ttkg/ day
d. Urine output less than 6-10/ ttkg/ day

Urine output less than 6-10/ ttkg/ day

ARDS = acute respiratory distress?

a. A severe life-threatening bronchitis caused by smoke inhalation
b. Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
c. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure caused by lung injury and capillary permeability increasing
d. Noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema caused by increased hydrostatic pressure

Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure caused by lung injury and capillary permeability increasing

Pathophysiology of obesity – which one of the statements below is true?

a. Hyperplastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals
b. Prognosis is good in hyperplastic obesity because the stationary phase quickly replaces the dynamic phase
c. Prognosis is careful in hypertrophic obesity because the dynamic phase quickly replaces the stationary phase
d. In hypertrophic obesity the size and the number of adipocytes increases

Hyperplastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals

What is flea bite dermatitis?

a. Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to flea saliva protein after repeated flea bite challenge; localisation: lumbosacral region
b. Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to flea saliva protein after repeated flea bite challenge; localisation: auxillary and inguinal region
c. A mechanical dermatitis in poorly groomed dogs caused by fleas; it heals after improvement of hygiene of the dog-shelter or kennel
d. A mechanical dermatitis in poorly groomed dogs caused by fleas; localisation: feet

Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to flea saliva protein after repeated flea bite challenge; localisation: lumbosacral region

Renal amyloidosis typically found in …. Which breed of cat?

a. Persian
b. Siamese
c. Abyssinian
d. Bengal

Abyssinian

How can you distinguish a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular one on ECG?

a. A ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause
b. The supraventricular extrasystole is always of normal width
c. In front of the QRS complex, a p-wave is always seen in a supraventricular beat
d. A p-wave is never seen before QRS complex in supraventricular beat

A ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

Which statement is true regarding heartworm?

a. Cats are occasionally affected
b. Cats are often infected
c. Cats are never infected
d. None of the statements are true

Cats are occasionally affected

Which statement is true regarding immune-complex glomerulonephritis?

a. Diagnosis can be made based on the typical ultrasound of the kidneys
b. Urine protein/ creatinine ratio is typically high
c. An important element of therapy is broad spectrum antibiotic treatment
d. Serum albumin level is increased

An important element of therapy is broad spectrum antibiotic treatment

Important aspects of fluid therapy during acute kidney injury. Choose the wrong answer?

a. Dehydration %
b. Urine production
c. Daily insensible losses
d. Urine specific gravity

Urine specific gravity

Most important sign of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs?

a. Fever, alopecia, inappetence
b. Blood dripping from urethra between urinations
c. Macroscopic haematuria
d. Clear urine at the beginning of urination, blood in the urine at the end of urination

Blood dripping from urethra between urinations

What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)?

a. X-ray tube
b. X-ray film
c. Collimator
d. PSP plat

X-ray film

Which of the following abdominal organs does not dislocate in PPDH?

a. Spleen
b. Greater omentum
c. Liver
d. Small intestine

Spleen

Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer?

a. Morphine and fentanyl
b. Buprenorphine and butorphanol
c. Tramadol and thiopental
d. Naloxone (as antagonist)

Tramadol and thiopental

Electrosurgery. Pick the false answer?

a. In monopolar systems, a large surface return electrode must be placed on patients’ body
b. In monopolar systems, if the contact surface between the return electrode and body is small, burns may occur
c. Forceps-like bipolar systems do not require large-surface return electrode
d. The efficiency and patient safety of the monopolar system is better

The efficiency and patient safety of the monopolar system is better

Which of the following organs is not commonly displaced/ incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder

Uterus

What is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy?

a. Castration can prevent urinary incontinence
b. The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided
c. Easily detectable urethral section, wider and safer stoma
d. The cystotomy can be avoided

Easily detectable urethral section, wider and safer stoma

Dissociative anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?

a. Thalamocortical dissociation
b. Limbic depression
c. Perineal analgesia
d. Alteration of consciousness

Limbic depression

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from traumatic trauma?

a. Male
b. Bite trauma
c. Body weight less than 10kg
d. Body weight less than 20kg

Body weight less than 20kg

Suture materials. Mark the incorrect statement?

a. Suture materials may be classified according to their behaviour in tissue: absorbable/ non-absorbable
b. Suture materials may be classified according to their structure: monofilament/ multifilament
c. Suture materials can be classified according to their origin: synthetic, organic or metallic
d. Suture material can be classified according to their length: typically 20, 50, 100, or 200 cm

Suture material can be classified according to their length: typically 20, 50, 100, or 200 cm

What contrast medium would you use for double contrast cystography?

a. Iodinated contrast and barium sulphate
b. Air and barium sulphate
c. Iodinated contrast and air
d. Air only

Iodinated contrast and air

Which of the following is not characteristic of regurgitation?

a. Develops spontaneously
b. Proceeded by nausea
c. Undigested food
d. Passive backflow

Proceeded by nausea

Absorbable sutures are generally NOT used for which of the following?

a. Intestinal sutures
b. Ligation of the ovaries
c. Skin sutures
d. Subcuticular sutures

Skin sutures

ASA-2. Pick the false answer?

a. Mild systemic disease
b. No apparent functional disorders
c. Low anaesthesia risk
d. Age 6weeks to 5 yrs

Low anaesthesia risk

Which of the following is not an image parameter?

a. Density
b. Sharpness
c. Magnification
d. Contrast

Magnification

What is not a normal component of the digital X-ray technology?

a. X-ray tube
b. Intensifying screen
c. Grid
d. Collimator

Intensifying screen

Which factors are not involved in the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

a. Testosterone levels decrease with age
b. Testosterone levels increase with age
c. Increasing oestrogen: testosterone ratio
d. Increased 5-alpha reductase activity in the prostate cells

Testosterone levels increase with age

Which stage of the cycle phase is it typical: slightly swollen vulva, the vaginal mucosa is whitish, “dry” and wrinkled?

a. Prooestrus
b. Oestrus
c. Dioestrus
d. Anoestrus

Oestrus

At what temperature do we store frozen semen?

a. -196˚C
b. -140˚C
c. 0˚C

-196˚C

Which is the first compensation during heart failure?

a. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated
b. Processes that reduce plasma volume are initiated
c. The peripheral blood vessels dilate
d. Heart rate increases

Heart rate increases

Ventricular extrasystoles are…?

a. Caused by atrial diseases (e.g. dilation)
b. Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g. splenic tumour)
c. Always caused by heart failure
d. Caused by increased vagal tone

Caused by atrial diseases (e.g. dilation)

Treatment of pyelonephritis. Which is wrong?

a. ACE-I, omega-3 fatty acids
b. Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis
c. Systemic antibiotics
d. Fluid therapy

ACE-I, omega-3 fatty acids

Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis?

a. Chronic liver disease, Von - Willebrand’s disease
b. Chronic kidney disease, DIC, Von - Willebrand’s
c. Chronic liver disease, DIC, Raynaud’s syndrome
d. Rodenticide poisoning, DIC, Harada’s disease

Chronic kidney disease, DIC, Von - Willebrand’s

Which statement is not true?

a. Antiepileptic therapy could cause elevated ALP, ALT, and GGT level in the dog
b. The potentiated sulphonamide therapy can cause destructive cholangitis in the dog
c. The glucocorticoid therapy always leads to irreversible necrosis of the liver
d. The antidote of the acetaminophen toxicosis is the N-acetylcystein

The glucocorticoid therapy always leads to irreversible necrosis of the liver

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