Past Questions 1

Question 1

1) Parts of the genome of the agents can be detected with PCR
2) Asymptomatic infections can become manifest
3) Euryxen agents have a wide host range
4) There is a minimum number of agents that is necessary to infection of animals
5) Haemagglutination inhibition test is used to the detection of antigens of certain agents
6) In the case of generation shift, the infected animals must be slaughtered at the beginning of the eradication procedure
7) Ascites can be a clinical sign of Derzsy.s disease
8) The chicken infectious anaemia causes clinical signs similar to those seen in PDNS
9) In pigs, the porcine circovirus 1 can cause PMWS
10) PDNS is a type III hypersensitivity

Answer 1

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 2

1) One of the most common pathological signs of PDNS is glomerulonephritis
2) Porcine circovirus 2 always causes clinical signs in cattle
3) Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months
4) The sarcoid is the disease of the horse
5) Canine adenovirus 2 frequently causes abortion in dogs
6) Herpes viruses are resistant to detergents
7) Herpesviruses can cause latent, persisting infections
8) In papillomavirus infection, there is no viraemia
9) Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus
10) The European Brown hare is not susceptible to the myxoma virus

Answer 2

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 3

1) Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus is transmitted by arthropods
2) Conjunctivits is a frequent sign of duck viral enteritis
3) Conjunctivitis and muco-purulent nasal discharge are frequent signs of feline rhinotracheitis
4) Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s disease
5) Lumpy skin disease is zoonotic
6) Vaccines are available to be used in the control of African Swine fever
7) Respiratory signs can be seen in atypical forms of myxomatosis
8) Bovine papular stomatitis is zoonotic
9) Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of Swine Pox virus
10) The pseudocowpox virus is a zoonotic agent

Answer 3

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 4

1) Foot and mouth disease can be carried for long time in the hoof tissue
2) The African Swine fever virus is serologically uniform, but several genotypes exist
3) Spasmodical paddling is a frequent clinical sign of duck hepatitis
4) Talfan disease can be seen in animals below 4 months of age
5) The African Swine fever virus infects the swine by air
6) Teschovirus is resistant, it remains infective in the faeces for a few weeks
7) Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks
8) The VES infection results in clinical signs similar to that of FMD
9) Avian nephritis virus replicates in the gut
10) Birds serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus

Answer 4

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 5

1) The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection
2) Orbivirus spread by droplet (aerosol) infection
3) Horse encephalosis is endemic in Africa
4) Horses and humans do not play a significant role in the transmission of West Nile virus
5) Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses
6) Rotaviruses are typically transmitted via the faecal-oral route
7) Lameness is frequent symptom of bluetongue in sheep
8) The bluetongue virus is vectored by mdges/gnats
9) Ischaemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem lesions of subacute Classical Swine fever
10) Bunyaviruses cause oral infection

Answer 5

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 6

1) Classical Swine fever infection in the 2nd half of the pregnancy leads to the birth of immunotolerant piglets
2) The BVD virus typically damages endothelial, epithelial and lymphatic tissues
3) Classical swine fever virus can be transmitted by raw pork products
4) Classical swine fever infection results in immunosuppression
5) In utero infection with non-cytopathic BVDV can cause immunotolerance
6) Bovine parainfluenza virus causes central nervous clinical signs in cattle
7) Breeding mares should be vaccinated before the influenza season
8) Bovine RS virus causes low morbidity and high mortality
9) Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza
10) Earth is free from Rinderpest

Answer 6

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 7

1) Peste des petits ruminants is caused by a paramyxovirus
2) Eurasia is free from Newcastle disease
3) Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen in the case of rabies
4) Rabies virus appears in the saliva 2-3 days after the onset of the clinical signs
5) Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in chicken below 6 weeks of age
6) The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI
7) Ephemeral fever virus can cause clinical signs in ruminants, pigs and horses
8) The eggs are not infected infectious bronchitis virus
9) Nephropathogen infectious bronchitis virus strains can cause nephritis and uricosis
10) Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups

Answer 7

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 8

1) Enzoonotic bovine leukosis virus can be transmitted with blood
2) Feline leukosis virus can only be transmitted with saliva
3) Retroviruses are euryxemic agents
4) Enzoonotic bovine leukosis virus can infect foetuses of pregnant animals
5) The maedi virus and visna virus are related but can be differentiated with PCR
6) Tumour formation in the lungs, liver and spleen is typical in ovine pulmonary adenomatosis
7) Phospholipase C is a virulence factor of the agent of bacillary haemoglobinuria
8) Tetanus is seen only in horses
9) Infectious necrotic hepatits is mainly seen in pigs
10) Incomplete blood clotting is a typical postmortem finding in the case of anthrax

Answer 8

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 9

1) Pregnant ewes can be vaccinated in order to prevent lamb dysentry
2) Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries
3) Classical Swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot
4) Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per os
5) Clostridium chauvoei can produce acids and gas from carbohydrates
6) Warm weather is a predisposing factor of swine erysipelas
7) Lesions of pig enterotoxaemia can be seen in the small intestine
8) Morel’s disease is caused by Staphylococcus aureus subsp. aureus
9) Streptococcus equi subsp. equi is the causative agent of strangles
10) Flaccid paralysis is a frequent clinical sign of tetanus

Answer 9

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 10

1) Giant cells typically occur in tubercles
2) Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium caprae can cause bovine tuberculosis
3) Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis can only be seen in sheep
4) The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is 3.6 mm and there are local lesions of signs
5) The tuberculin test in cattle can false negative if the animal is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
6) Positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
7) Infected cattle shed the agents of bovine tuberculosis in milk
8) Septicaemic E. coli strains are responsible for E.coli diseases of poultry
9) Bovine coli septicaemia is caused by verotxigenic E. coli strains
10) Hypo-gammaglobinaemia can predispose cattle to coli septicaemia

Answer 10

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 11

1) Hygienic problems can predispose new-born calves to coli diarrhoea
2) Coli diarrhoea of new-born calves can be prevented by vaccinating the pregnant cows
3) Omphalitis is a frequent sign of E.coli disease of day-old chicken
4) Neonatal coli diarrhoea of piglets is seen typically in 1-10 day old animals
5) The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs and lesions of salmonellosis of cattle
6) Salmonellosis can cause septicaemia in sheep
7) Rodents and hares are susceptible to Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
8) Salmonella Abortus equi causes abortion of horses
9) Salmonella Abortuion of mares happens always a few days before the expected birth
10) Arthritis can be a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis

Answer 11

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 12

1) Salmonella bovis is the causative agent of bovine salmonellosis
2) Pasteurella multocida can cause pasteurellosis in small ruminants
3) The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the diaphragmatic lobes
4) Transportation is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves
5) Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
6) Fowl cholera occurs mainly in the winter in Europe
7) Aerosol infection is a common form of transmission of the agent of necrobacillosis
8) Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination
9) The agent of anatipestifer disease causes septicaemia
10) Only pigs are susceptible to Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

Answer 12

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 13

1) Infectious coryza is a generalized disease
2) Europe is free from Brucella ovis
3) Meningitis can occur in the case of Glássers disease
4) Histophilus ovis can cause pneumonia in cattle
5) Glassers disease occurs mainly in 1-2 months old piglets
6) The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks, mosquitoes and other blood sucking arthropods
7) Brucella abortus can infect dogs
8) Brucella abortus can cause abortion of cattle
9) Clinical signs of tularaemia are mainly seen in cattle
10) Bovine brucellosis can be treated 4-6 weeks long with penicillins

Answer 13

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 14

1) Focal infection and necrosis can be seen in the parenchymal organs in the case of tularemia
2) Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle
3) Avian bordetellosis has clinical signs only in turkey
4) The causative agent of avian bordetellosis is Bordetella bronchiseptica
5) Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders
6) Susceptible animals are mainly infected per os with the agent of glanders
7) Glanders occurs only in horses
8) Infectous bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis
9) Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei
10) Spirochaetes are resistant bacteria

Answer 14

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 15

1) Campylobacter suis causes proliferative enteropathies in pigs
2) Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to Campylobacteriosis
3) Campylobacter foetus subsp. foetus can cause bacteriaemia, septicaemia in small ruminants
4) Borrelia burgdoferi causes Lyme borreliosis
5) Swine dysentry can mainly be seen in suckling piglets
6) Arthiritis is a clinical sign of Lyme borreliosis in dogs
7) Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentry
8) Wet pastures can predispose horses to leptospirosis
9) Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentry
10) Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of young dogs

Answer 15

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 16

1) Leptospirosis can cause moon blindness of horses
2) Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine dysentry
3) Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs
4) Haemorrhagic necrotic placentitis is a postmortem lesion of Q fever
5) Q fever is a zoonosis
6) Ehrlichia ruminantium is the causative agent of heartwater
7) Mycoplasma bovis can cause arthritis in cattle
8) Severe haemolysis is a clinical sign of bovine anaplasmosis
9) Arthritis is a clinical sign of contagious agalactia of sheep and goats
10 The agent of Q fever is transmitted by ticks

Answer 16

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 17

1) In the case of marker vaccines, the field strains and the vaccine strains can be differentiated
2) Euryxen agents have a wide host range
3) In the case of latent infection, the agents are continuously shed
4) The normal microflora of the gut is essential for animals; they cannot live without it
5) Stenoxen agents have a wide host range
6) Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals
7) PCR is used for the detection of antibodies against porcine parvovirus 1
8) Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus can protect until 4 months of age
9) SMEDI is caused by goose circovirus
10) The PMWS is a type IV hypersensitivity

Answer 17

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 18

1) The porcine circovirus can replicate in the foetus
2) In pigs, the porcine circovirus 1 can cause PMWS
3) Herpesviruses can cause latent, persisting infections
4) Adenoviruses may cause urolithiasis in sheep
5) Polyomavirus infect parrots
6) Canine adenovirus 2 can cause upper respiratory tract
7) The primary replication of haemorrhagic nephritis enteritis virus in small intestine
8) Adenoviruses can cause purulent bronchoalveolar pnuemonia in calves and lambs
9) The Aujeszky’s disease in cats is usually a mild respiratory disease with quick recovery
10) For immunization against equine rhinopneumonitis virus mostly marker vaccines are used

Answer 18

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) False
10) False

Question 19

1) Turkery herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s disease
2) The Marek’s disease virus causes immunosuppression
3) Swine pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs
4) Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of lumpy skin disease virus
5) Arthropods play an important role in transmission of sheeppox
6) Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of fowlpox
7) The African sine fever virus causes haemadsorption in cell cultures
8) Calves should be vaccinated against bovine papular stomatitis
9) The pseudocowpox virus is a zoonotic agent
10) Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries

Answer 19

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 20

1) Pigs are infected with swine vesicular disease virus per os
2) Teschovirus is resistant, it remains infective in the faeces for a few weeks
3) Teschen disease occurs in cattle, sheep and pigs
4) Asyptomatic animals can carry Teschovirus
5) In acute African Swine fever cases, we can observe high mortality in sows
6) The foot and mouth disease virus is classified into 7 serotypes
7) Haemorrhages are frequent postmortem lesions of avian encephalomyelitis
8) Birds serve as reservoirs for the Eastern equine encephalomyelitis virus
9) RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture
10) Orbivirus spread by droplet (aerosol) infection

Answer 20

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 21

1) Clinical signs of avian nephritis can be seen in the first four weeks
2) There are several virulence variants of burisitis virus
3) Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses
4) Bluetongue virus is also foetopathic
5) The border disease is present only in the United Kingdom
6) Goats are not susceptible to bluetongue virus
7) Horse encephalosis occurs only in America
8) Bluetongue disease occurs only in Africa
9) Bunyaviruses cause oral infection
10) Classical Swine fever can cause transplacental infection

Answer 21

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 22

1) During necropsy of acute Classical Swine fever cases, haemorrhages can be seen in the gastric mucosa
2) All bunyaviruses are transmitted by mosquitos
3) Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia
4) Antigenic shift is behind the influenza pandemics
5) Classical swine fever can retain its infectivity for 6 months in frozen meat
6) Newcastle disease is a notifiable disease
7) The virulence of avian influenza is determined by the IV pathogeny index and mortality
8) Paramyxoviruses cannot cause strong cytopathogenic effect in cell cultures
9) Antigenic drift means serials of point mutations in the HA and NA genes
10) Bovine parainfluenza 3 virus infection is usually endemic in cattle farms

Answer 22

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 23

1) Natural reservoir of Hendra virus is flying fox
2) Lentogenic Newcastle disease virus cause severe fatal infection
3) The PRRS is caused by a coronavirus
4) Cats can be/are regularly vaccinated against feline coronavirus
5) Vesicular stomatitis virus is transmitted by blood sucking arthropods and direct contact
6) Foxes maintain sylvatic rabies in Europe
7) The porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus causes disease in calves
8) Vesicular stomatitis is a zoonotic disease
9) Vaccine against Equine Viral Arteritis is never used in Europe
10) There are no vaccines for the prevention of feline leukosis

Answer 23

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 24

1) Proventricular dilation disease is a zoonosis
2) Equine infectous anaemia virus is transmitted with blood of the infected animals
3) Enzoonotic bovine leukosis can spread from cattle to sheep, goats and other ruminants
4) Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups
5) Avian leukosis virus can cause only lymphoid leukosis
6) Proventricular dilation disease can occur in parrots
7) Bacillary haemoglobinuria is caused by Clostridium haemolyticum
8) Liver flukes can predispose animals to infectious necrotic hepatitis
9) Pulpy kidney disease generally occurs in 1-2 week old lambs
10) Pulpy kidney disease is caused by Clostridium perfringens D

Answer 24

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 25

1) In the case of transmissable encephalopathies, lesions can only be seen in the central nervous system
2) Anaculture or anatoxin vaccines are used for the prevention of blackleg
3) In the case of transmissable encephalopathies, always degenerative lesions can be seen
4) Morel’s disease occurs mainly in cattle, small ruminants and pigs
5) The agent of tetanus is strictly aerobic
6) Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per os
7) Streptococcosis of pigs is caused by Streptococcus hyicus
8) Clinical signs of porcine streptococcosis can mainly be seen in piglets
9) In the case of chronic erysipelas, pneumonia is a clinical sign
10) Diamond skin disease is a clinical form of erysipelas

Answer 25

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 26

1) Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
2) The agent of avian tuberculosis infetcs animals generally per os
3) Infected cattle shed the agents of bovine tuberculosis in tracheal discharge
4) Only aerosol infection occurs in the case of bovine tuberculosis
5) Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep occurs in tropical countries but not in Europe
6) Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can only be seen above 3-4 months of age
7) The tuberculin test is used only for the detection of infection of animals with mycobacteria
8) Dermatophilus occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in winter
9) Septicaemic E. coli strains are responsible for E. coli diseases of poultry
10) Coli diarrhoea of newborn piglets is caused by fimbriated E.coli strains

Answer 26

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 27

1) Coli septicaemia of calves is seen most frequently after weaning
2) Mastitis is a common clinical sign of bovine nocardiosis
3) Dermatophilus congolensis is the agent of dermatophilus
4) Actinomyces bovis is the causative agent of bovine actionomycosis
5) Salmonella avium is the main aetiological agent of fowl paratyphoid
6) Humans are infected with salmonellae per os
7) All serotypes of salmonellae can cause salmonellosis in humans
8) Coli diarrhoea of rabbits is typically seen in suckling animals
9) Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe
10) Couch is a frequent clinical sign of swine typhoid

Answer 27

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 28

1) Swine typhoid is a very frequent disease in Europe nowadays
2) Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
3) Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination
4) Dermonecrotoxin of the agents is responsible for the clinical signs of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle
5) Acute systemic pasteurellosis is caused by Pasteurella multocida
6) The dermonecrotoxin of Pastereulla multocida damages the osteoclast cells
7) Ornithobacterium rhinotracheal can cause disease in chicken and turkey
8) Carrier animals shed the agent of yersiniosis in the faeces
9) IBR and PI-3 virus can predispose cattle to disease caused by Histophilus ovis
10) Infectious coryza occurs in chicken, turkey and waterfowl

Answer 28

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 29

1) Infectious coryza is a generalized disease
2) Brucella ovis mainly causes abortion, clinical signs in males are rare
3) Agar gel diffusion test and ELISA are used to detection of infection with Brucella ovis
4) Mainly attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine
5) Brucella suis causes swine brucellosis
6) Brucella canis can infect dogs
7) Brucella canis is the aetiological agent of canine brucellosis
8) The causative agent of tularemia is Francisella tularensis
9) Herd replacement is the only way of eradication of porcine brucellosis
10) Bovine brucellosis has to be treated 4-6 weeks long with pencillins

Answer 29

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 30

1) Brucella abortus can cause abortion of cattle
2) The agent of tularemia can be transmitted by ticks
3) Avian bordetellosis has clinical signs only in turkey
4) Bartonella henselae can cause severe, generalized disease in cats
5) Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses
6) Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei
7) Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders
8) Pneumonia is a clinical sign of glanders in humans
9) Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis
10) Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis

Answer 30

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 31

1) Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis
2) Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis
3) Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
4) There are no vaccines for the prevention of Lyme borreliosis
5) Lyme borreliosis is a zoonosis
6) The agent of proliferative enteropathies can be detected using the silver impregnantion test
7) Abortion is the main clinical sign of leptospirosis in dogs
8) Generally attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of leptospirosis of pigs
9) Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of young dogs
10) Leptospira can be detected with silver impregnation test

Answer 31

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 32

1) Haemorrhages under the serous membranes are typical postmortem lesions of swine dysentry
2) Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves
3) Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins
4) Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis
5) Spasms, paddling and opisthotonus can be seen in the case of heartwater
6) Mycoplasma bovis can cause arthritis in cattle
7) Anaemia is a typcal clinical sign of eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats
8) Fibrinous pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of heartwater
9) Tick bites is the only way of infection with the agent of Q fever
10) Chlamydiosis is a zoonosis

Answer 32

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 33

1) Stenoxen agents have a wide host range
2) The method of vaccination has no effect on the efficacy of the vaccination
3) New born animals cannot be infected from the milk thanks to the colostral antibodies
4) Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals
5) In the case of latent infection, the genome of the agent is integrated in the genome of the host
6) In the case of marker vaccines, the field strains and the vaccine strains can be differentiated
7) One of the most common pathological signs of PMWS is glomerulonephritits
8) The reproduction of the circovirus continuous in the dividing cells
9) SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus
10) Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only til 2 weeks age

Answer 33

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 34

1) PMWS is a type III hypersensitivity
2) Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis
3) The egg drop syndrome virus can be transmitted vertically
4) Adenovirus pneumoenteritis is rarely fatal in calves and lambs
5) Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of infectious laryngotracheitis
6) Haemorrhagic nephritis virus is a polyomavirus
7) Equine rhinopneumonitis virus can cause purulent metritis
8) The turkey haemorrhagic enteritis virus can cause marble spleen disease in pheasants
9) Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease
10) Sheep should be immunized against malignant catarrhal fever virus

Answer 34

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 35

1) In cattle, cowpox lesions are usually seen on the teats
2) Encephalitis is a frequent complication in infectious laryngotracheitis of chickens
3) Pregnant mares abort usually in the acute phase of equine rhinopneumonitis
4) Malignant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in sheep
5) Sheep pox is a generalized disease with fever
6) In African Swine fever cases of abortion are never observed
7) Myxomatosis virus causes tumour formation in rabbits
8) Sheeppox virus is zoonotic
9) Calves should be vaccinated against bovine papular stomatitis
10) In cattle, pseudocowpox lesions are usually mild and transient

Answer 35

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 36

1) The main host (reservoir) of foot and mouth disease virus is swine
2) The mortality of swine vesicular disease is very high; it can be 50-60%
3) The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low, it cannot survive in the environment
4) Swine vesicular disease virus replicates in the epithelium of the throat and tonsils
5) The resistance of duck hepatitis A virus is high
6) Several virulence variants of African Swine fever virus exist
7) The bursisits virus mostly causes germinative infection
8) RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture
9) Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks
10) Rodents serve as reservoirs for the Western equine encephalomyelitis

Answer 36

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 37

1) The orthoherpesvirus A causes clinical symptoms only in humans
2) Abortion is the main clinical sign of togavirus infection results in abortion of horses
3) Lameness and abortions are signs of bluetongue
4) Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle
5) Rotaviruses infect only mammals
6) Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur in summer and autumn
7) Orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis in calves
8) In subacute Classicial Swine fever, we can observe signs of pneumonia during necroscopies
9) In acute Classical Swine fever, skin haemorrhages and bloody nasal discharge can be observed
10) Classical Swine fever infection results in thrombocytopenia

Answer 37

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 38

1) Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA proteins
2) Normal sized spleen can be observed in uncomplicated cases of subacute Classical Swine fever
3) Nairobi sheep disease leads to abortion in the infected pregnant animals
4) Pigs infected with BVDV turn seropositive to classical swine fever
5) Mucosal disease can develop in cattle persistantly infected with BVDV
6) Bovine parainfluenzal virus causes central nervous clinical signs in calves
7) In humans, inactivated vaccines are used for the immunization against influenza
8) Bovine parainfluenza-3 virus infection is usually endemic in cattle farms
9) Mesogenic strans of NDV causes respiratory disease in birds
10) Canine distemper virus can produce a generalized infection

Answer 38

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 39

1) Canine distemper virus has six serotypes
2) The serotype of influenza viruses is determined by their HA and NA proteins
3) The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI
4) Nephropathogen infectous bronchits virus strains can cause nephritis and uricosis
5) Vesicular stomatitis is a widespread disease all over the world
6) The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus
7) Dogs can be vaccinated against canine enteric coronavirus
8) Rabies occurs only in tropical countries
9) The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against TGE
10) Dyspnoea is the main clinical sign of borna disease

Answer 39

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 40

1) Ovine pulmonary edenomatosis virus can infect sheep, goats and cattle
2) Lymphoid leukosis is the most frequent clinical form of avian leukosis
3) Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups
4) Maedi visna is maintained by persistently infected sheep
5) Equine infectious anaemia virus disappears from animals after the viremia
6) There is intensive vaccination against caprine arthritis encephalits in endemic countries
7) Anthrax is caused by Clostridium anthracis
8) Incomplete blood clotting is a typical postmortem finding in the case of anthrax
9) Scrapie prion is detected with PCR
10) Oedema factor is a virulence factor of the agent of anthrax

Answer 40

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 41

1) Animals showing clinical signs of anthrax have to be killed, treatment is not allowed
2) Infectious necrotic hepatis is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
3) Generally live vaccines are used for the prevention of anthrax
4) Ulcerative lymphangitis of horses is caused by Corynebacterium equi
5) Erysipelas occurs only in pigs
6) Coagulase production is a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus
7) Corynebacterium renale can cause bovine pyelonephritis
8) Encephalitis is a frequent clinical sign of listeriosis in sheep
9) In the case of chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign
10) Clostridium chauvoei can produce acids and gas from carbohydrates

Answer 41

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 42

1) The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is 3.6mm and there are no local lesions or signs
2) Mycobacteria are highly resistant thanks to lipids and waxes in the cell wall
3) Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is an acute disease
4) False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by pre-allergy
5) The primary complex of bovine tuberculosis is generally seen in the gastrointestinal tract
6) The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os
7) Poultry are widely vaccinated for the prevention of avian tuberculosis
8) Postmortem lesions of paratuberculosis can be seen in the small intestine
9) The most severe clinical signs of paratuberculosis can be seen in suckling calves
10) Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs

Answer 42

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 43

1) Verotoxigenic E. coli strains cause neonatal coli diarrhoea of pigs
2) Dermatophilus occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in winter
3) Coli diarrhoea of newborn piglets is caused by fimbriated E. coli strains
4) Coli septicaemia of calves is seen most frequently after weaning
5) High fibre content of the feed can prevent coli diarrhoea of rabbits
6) Coli diarrhoea of rabbits is typically seen in suckling animals
7) Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis
8) Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid
9) Swine typhoid is a chronic disease
10) Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe

Answer 43

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 44

1) Swine paratyphoid is an acute disease
2) Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
3) Fibrinous pneumonia is a frequent postmortem lesion of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves
4) Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative agent of necrobacillosis
5) Overcrowding is a predisposing facotr of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle
6) The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the diaphragmatic lobes
7) The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis
8) Aerosol infection is a common form of transmission of the agent of necrobacillosis
9) Koster staining is used for staining of brucellae
10) Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis

Answer 44

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 45

1) Glassers disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis
2) Brucellae are facultative intracellular agents
3) High fever is a clinical sign of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine
4) Histophilus ovis can cause disease in cattle and sheep
5) Fowl cholera cannot be prevented by vaccination
6) The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare
7) Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae
8) Brucella abortus can infect dogs
9) Brucella suis can colonise the udder of cattle
10) The causative agent of tularaemia is Francisella tularensis

Answer 45

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 46

1) Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice
2) Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle
3) Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders
4) The agent of avian bordetellosis can produce cytotoxin
5) Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is cause by Moraxella bovis
6) Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate distemper
7) Contact animals are treated with penicillin in the case of glanders
8) Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses
9) Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei
10) Campylobacte fetus subsp. venerealis is a zoonotic agent

Answer 46

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 47

1) Campylobacter hepaticus is the causative agent of infectious hepatitis in pigs
2) Bovine genital campylobacteriosis is maintained by bulls
3) Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis
4) Rabbit syphilis is caused by Treponema paraluiscunniculi
5) Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
6) Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is a zoonotic agent
7) Leptospira can be detected with silver impregnation test
8) Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentry
9) Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery
10) Leptospira pomona can cause abortion in pigs

Answer 47

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 48

1) Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery
2) Leptospira can cause moon blindness of horses
3) Generally attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of leptospirosis of pigs
4) Resistance of mycoplasma is good, they can survive in the environment for several months
5) Spasms, paddling and opisthotonus can be seen in the case of heartwater
6) Chlamydiosis is a zoonosis
7) The agent of Q fever is transmitted by ticks
8) The haemotropic mycoplasmas cannot be cultured on media
9) Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis
10) Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplama bovis

Answer 48

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 49

1) The method of vaccination has no effect on the efficacy of the vaccination
2) Eradication with generation shift can be used in cattle herds
3) There is a minimum number of agents that is necessary to infection of animals
4) Arthropod borne infections are direct infections
5) Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts
6) Attenuated strains can be used in live vaccines
7) PDNS is a type IIII hypersensitivity
8) The replication of canine parvovirus 2 is in the crypt cells of large intestine
9) Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only til 2 weeks age
10) In pigs the porcine circovirus 2 can cause PMWS

Answer 49

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 50

1) SMEDI is caused by goose circovirus
2) If 100 day old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus, dermatitis is a clinical sign
3) Herpes viruses are generally good antigens
4) The natural reservoir hosts of the Aujezsky’s disease virus are rodents
5) The egg drop syndrome virus can be transmitted vertically
6) Adenoviruses can cause purulent bronchoalveolar pneumonia in calves and lambs
7) The infectious laryngotracheitis can cause viraemia and pneumonia in young chickens
8) The egg drop syndrome virus causes severe inflammation of the ovaries in hens
9) The European brown hare is not susceptible to the myxoma virus
10) Canid herpes virus infection can cause abortion

Answer 50

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 51

1) Swine pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs
2) The pathologic lesions of acute Marek’s disease and avian leukosis can be similar
3) Malgnant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in sheep
4) Herpes viruses are sensitive to detergents
5) Swine pox virus can cause respiratory signs and abortion
6) The African Swine fever virus causes haemadsorption in cell cultures
7) Skin nodules and ulcers can be signs of cowpox infection in cats
8) Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries
9) The tick species vectoring African Swine fever are present in Portugal and Spain
10) In the control of African Swine fever, decreasing the wild boar populations is helpful

Answer 51

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 52

1) Duck hepatitis A virus does not cause viraemia
2) The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low, it cannot survive in the environment
3) Talfan disease is a disease of pigs
4) Foot and mouth disease virus is serologically uniform
5) For laboratory tests, foot and mouth disease samples should be submitted in buffered transport medium
6) Lameness is a typical clinical sign of Teschen disease
7) Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis
8) Togaviruses cause airborne infection
9) VES causes mortality in piglets
10) Bursitis virus targets the premature T lymphocytes

Answer 52

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 53

1) Birds serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus
2) The feline calicivirus infection can be recognised by the ulcers seen on the tongue
3) Because of endothelial damage Classical Swine fever results in haemorrhages
4) Goats are more resistant to the Bluetongue than sheep
5) The natural reservoirs of the African horse sickness virus are mainly zebras
6) Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses
7) Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses
8) Orthoreoviruses can cause tenosynovitis in pigs
9) Classical swine fever infection results in immunosuppression
10) Normal sized spleen can be observed in uncomplicated cases of subacute Classical Swine fever

Answer 53

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 54

1) Akabane virus causes foetal damages in dogs
2) The main host of influenza is the swine
3) During necroscopy of acute Classical Swine fever cases, haemorrhages can be seen in the gastric mucosa
4) Non-cytopathic strains of the bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVDV) can’t cause transplacental infection
5) Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA proteins
6) Canine distemper virus has one serotype with virulence variants
7) Bovine RS virus can cause severe pneumonia in 6 months to 2 year old calves
8) Paramyxoviruses are bad immunogens
9) Antigenic shift means the reassortment of the influenzavirus genome segments
10) Salivation and chewing movements cannot be clinical signs of canine distemper

Answer 54

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 55

1) Hendra virus can infect mainly swine and human
2) Canine distemper virus can produce a generalized infection
3) Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in chicken below 6 weeks of age
4) Retroviruses are enveloped, their resistance is low
5) Retroviruses are generally host specific viruses
6) Vesicular stomatitis virus does not cause viraemia only local lesions
7) The mortality of vesicular stomatitis is low
8) Rabies virus is shed in the viraemic phase of the disease
9) The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI
10) Borna disease occurs only in horse

Answer 55

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 56

1) By slaughtering seropositive animals, ovine pulmonary adenomatosis can be eradicated
2) Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus is transmitted with tracheal discharge
3) Fever is a major clinical sign of equine infectious anaemia
4) Sheep are resistant against caprine arthritis encephalitis virus
5) Lymphoid leukosis is the most frequent clinical form of avian leukosis
6) Maedi and visna are caused by the same virus species
7) Tetanus is seen only in horses
8) The incubation of BSE is 3-5 years
9) Lesion of malignant oedema are mainly seen in the large muscles
10) Anaculture or anatoxin vaccines are used for the prevention of malignant oedema

Answer 56

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 57

1) Scrapie prion is shed in discharges of the infected animals
2) In the case of transmissable encephalopathies meningoencephalitis is a typical postmortem lesion
3) Bradsot is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
4) Diarrhoea is a frequent clinical sign of listeriosis in sheep
5) Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per os
6) Fibrinous pneumonia can frequently occur in the case of swine erysipelas
7) Listeria bacteria can be found in the soil
8) Clinical signs of porcine streptococcosis can mainly be seen in piglets
9) The toxin of Clostridium botulinum has irreversible effect
10) Penicillin is recommended for the treatment of acute swine erysipelas

Answer 57

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 58

1) Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be diagnosed using microscopy
2) The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria
3) The thermal tuberculin test can be used in order to examine the organic reaction of bovine tuberculosis
4) False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria
5) Tuberculosis lesions in the lymph node are common in the early generalization
6) Infected cattle shed the agents of bovine tuberculosis in tracheal discharge
7) Cough is a typical clinical sign of bovine pulmonary tuberculosis
8) Respiratory distress is a clinical sign of canine actinomycosis
9) Coli diarrhoea of newborn piglets is caused by fimbriated E. coli strains
10) The agent of paratuberculosis is shed in the faeces

Answer 58

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 59

1) Oedema disease occurs most frequently in calves
2) Omphalitis is a frequent sign of E. coli disease of day old chicken
3) Calves are vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent coli septicaemia
4) High fever is a typical clinical sign of bovine septicaemia
5) Rodents and birds can infect cattle with salmonellae
6) Bovine salmonellosis is always limited to the gut
7) Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia
8) Salmonellosis can cause septicaemia in sheep
9) Fever is a common clinical sign of swine paratyphoid
10) Transportation of animals can predispse cattle to salmonellosis

Answer 59

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 60

1) Some viral infections can predispose animals to fowl paratyphoid
2) Pasteurella multocida can cause pasteurellosis in cattle
3) Respiratory pasteurellosis occurs only among cattle above 6 months of age
4) Pasteurella bovis can cause pasteurellosis in cattle
5) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis can cause disease in hares
6) Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
7) Mannheimia haemolytica causes rabbit parsteurellosis
8) Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle
9) Infectious coryza is a generalized disease
10) Infectious coryza occurs in chicken, turkey and waterfowl

Answer 60

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 61

1) Histophilus ovis can cause mainly pneumonia in sheep
2) Histophilus ovis can cause pneumonia in cattle
3) Brucella ovis mainly causes abortion, clinical signs in makes are rare
4) Mainly attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine
5) Focal inflammation and necrosis in the liver is a common postmortem lesion on of fowl cholera
6) Herd replacement is the only way of eradication of porcine brucellosis
7) Bordetella bronchiseptica can cause disease only in pigs
8) Tularamia is a zoonosis
9) Brucella canis is shed in the semen
10) Clinical signs of tularemia are mainly seen in cattle

Answer 61

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 62

1) Brucella melitensis can infect dogs
2) Brucella canis cannot cause abortion in dogs, it causes only orchitis in males
3) Ulcers in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders
4) There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis
5) The causative agent of avian bordetellosis is Bordetella bronchiseptica
6) Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders
7) Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei
8) Susceptible animals are mainly infected per os with the agent of glanders
9) Glanders only in horses
10) Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis

Answer 62

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 63

1) Intestinal adenomatosis is a form of proliferative enteropathies
2) Lyme borreliosis is transmitted by mosquitos
3) Campylobacters are microaerophilic bacteria
4) Lyme borreliosis is frequently asymptomatic in animals
5) Regional ileitis is a form of proliferative enteropathies
6) Campylobacter jejuni frequently causes severe diarrhoea and losses in poultry
7) Diarrhoea is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
8) The lesions of swine dysentry can be seen in the large intestine
9) Abortion can be a clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
10) Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine dysentery

Answer 63

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 64

1) Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
2) Leptospirosis of suckling piglets is a frequent acute disease
3) The agent of swine dysentery can cause disease in humans
4) Mycoplasma bovis can cause reproduction problems in cattle
5) Abortion caused by chlamydia can be diagnosed by microscopic examination
6) Contagious agalactia of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma agalactiae
7) Chlamydia abortus can cause abortion of ewes
8) Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis
9) Anaemia is a clinical sign of bovine anaplasmosis
10) Resistance of mycoplasmas is good, they cannot survive in the environment for several months

Answer 64

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 65

1) Stenoxen agents have a wide host range
2) Foetuses have no immune reactions, they appear only in 2-4 week old animals
3) Avirulent strains can be used in live vaccines
4) Embryo transfer can be used as an eradication method
5) Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts
6) The age of vaccinated animals can influence the efficacy of the vaccination
7) The porcine parvovirus 1 causes renal disorders in adults
8) Porcine circovirus 2 always cause clinical signs in pigs
9) There is no neutralizing epitope of parvoviruses
10) SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus

Answer 65

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) False

Question 66

1) In parrots, porcine circovirus 2 causes the psittacine beak and feather disease
2) PMWS is a type III hypersensitivity
3) The turkey haemorrhagic enteritis virus can cause marble spleen disease in pheasants
4) Papillomavirus replicates in the kidney
5) Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign on infectious laryngotracheitis
6) Derzsy’s disease is caused by a polyomavirus
7) Bovine heroes mamillitis virus can cause mastitis in cows
8) The sarcoid is a disease of cattle
9) The diphtheric form of fowlpox causes lesions on the mucouc membranes
10) Clinical manifestation of swine inclusion body rhinitis is usually seen in piglets less than 3 weeks of age

Answer 66

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 67

1) Myxomatosis may results in over 90% mortality in susceptible animals
2) Conjunctivitis and muco-purulent nasal discharge are frequent signs of feline rhinotracheitis
3) Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of dick viral enteritis
4) In cattle, cowpox lesions are usually seen on the teats
5) Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries
6) The tick species vectoring African Swine fever are present in Portugal and Spain
7) Avian pox viruses are species specific
8) The African Swine fever virus replicates in lymphocytes
9) Poxviruses usually induce cell proliferation in epithelial cells of the skin and mucosal surfaces
10) Conjunctivitis is characteristic in the early phase of myxomatosis

Answer 67

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 68

1) The foot and mouth disease virus is classified into 7 serotypes
2) Ducks are infected with the duck hepatitis A virus generally per os
3) The foot and mouth disease virus can retain its infectivity in dried milk for months
4) The main clinical sign of Teschen disease in sheep is pneumonia
5) In the control of foot and mouth disease vaccines are used in Europe
6) Flaccid paralysis is a typical clinical sign of Talfan disease
7) Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis
8) The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection
9) Bursitis virus infection can reduce the efficacy of vaccinations
10) Avian nephritis virus replicates in the gut

Answer 68

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 69

1) Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be seen in the first month of life
2) The primary source of VES infection is sea-origin feed
3) Bluetongue virus is also foetopathic
4) African horse sickness is zoonotic
5) Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur in summer and autumn
6) Lameness is frequent symptom of bluetongue in sheep
7) Mammalian orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis only in suckling animals
8) Oedemas and haemorrhages are the most frequent lesions in African horse sickness
9) Classical Swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia
10) Classical Swine fever virus targets the bone marrow stem cells

Answer 69

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 70

1) Non-cytopathic strains of the Bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVDV) can cause immunosuppression
2) Pestiviruses are zoonotic
3) Akabane virus is zoonotic
4) In utero infection with non-cytopathic BVDV can cause immunotolerance
5) Ischemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem lesions of subacute Classical Swine fever
6) Influenzaviruses have segmented genome
7) Antigenic drift is behind the seasonal influenza epidemies
8) Antigenic drift means serials of point mutations in the HA and NA genes
9) Hendra virus can infect mainly swine and human
10) Canine distemper virus has six serotypes

Answer 70

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 71

1) Natural hosts of rinderpest virus are cloven- hoofed animals
2) Newcastle disease virus has virulence variants
3) Rabies virus is shed in the viraemic phase of the disease
4) Ephemeral fever virus is shed in large amount in the saliva
5) Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause clinical signs in horses
6) Rhabdoviruses are generally good antigens
7) Retroviruses are enveloped, their resistance is low
8) Vaccine against Equine Viral Arteritis is never used in Europe
9) Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen in the case of rabies
10) Maedi-visna can occur in sheep, goats and cattle

Answer 71

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 72

1) Feline leukosis virus can cause immune tolerance
2) Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis vrus can infect sheep, goats and cattle
3) Mutation of retroviruses is very rare
4) Retroviruses are frequently carried lifelong
5) Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is carried lifelong
6) Retroviruses can integrate into the genome of host cells
7) In the case of transmissable encephalopathies, meningoencephalititis is a typical postmortem lesion
8) Classical Swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot
9) Anthrax is a chronic disease in ruminants
10) There are no vaccines for the prevention of bacillary haemoglobinuria

Answer 72

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) False

Question 73

1) Soil contaminated frozen feed is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot
2) Bacillary haemoglobinuria is mainly seen in cattle
3) Infectiousnecrotic hepatitis is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
4) Vesicles are formed in the case of exudative dermatitis
5) Erysipelas can be an acute septicaemia in pigs
6) The agent of tetanus is strictly aerobic
7) Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
8) Humans are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas through wounds
9) Clostridium botulinum generally causes wound infection
10) In the case of chronic erysipelas, pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign

Answer 73

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 74

1) Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be diagnosed using microscopy
2) The skin intradermal tuberculin test can be repeated within a week if necessary
3) The incubation time of bovine tuberculosis is 1-2 weeks
4) Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
5) Saprophytic and facultative pathogenic mycobacteria cannot colonise warm blooded animals
6) There is close antigenic relationship between mycobacteria
7) Fibrinous pneumonia is a typical lesion of paratuberculosis
8) Mycobacterium bovis can cause generalized tuberculosis in badgers
9) Pigs with neonatal coli diarrhoea have to be treated per os with antibiotics
10) Subcutaneous pyogranulomas can be seen in the case of canine actinomycosis

Answer 74

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 75

1) Bovine actinomycosis is typically a generalized disease
2) Nocardia bacteria can cause inflammation of lymphatic vessels
3) Postmortem lesions of paratuberculosis can be seen in the small intestines
4) Hypogammaglobinemia can predispose cattle to coli septicaemia
5) Abortion is the main clinical form of human salmonellosis
6) Salmonella Typhisuis is the causative agent of swine typhoid
7) Salmonella Typhimurium can cause salmonellosis of cattle
8) Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe
9) Enteritis is a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis
10) Salmonella Cholerasuis can cause swine paratyphoid

Answer 75

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 76

1) Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia
2) Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
3) Mannheimia haemolytica causes rabbit pasteurellosis
4) Diarrhoea is a common clinical sign of yersiniosis in pigs
5) Waterfowl is more susceptible to fowl cholera than hens
6) Dermonecrotoxin producing Bordetella bronchiseptica can cause rhinitis in piglets
7) The block of the larchrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis
8) Sinusitis is a frequent clinical sign of ornithobacteriosis
9) Europe is free from Brucella ovis
10) Fowl cholera can occur in ducks and geese

Answer 76

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 77

1) Brucellae are facultative intracellular agents
2) Mainly attenuated vaccines are used for prevention of actinobacilluar pleuropneumonia of swine
3) Meningitis can occur in the case of Glasser’s disease
4) Glasser’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis
5) The agent of contagious equine metritis causes septicaemia in horses
6) Infected cattle carry brucellae lifelong
7) Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae
8) Tularaemia is a zoonosis
9) The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks
10) Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice

Answer 77

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 78

1) The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks, mosquitoe, and other blood sucking arthropods
2) The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare
3) Glanders can occur in horses
4) Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis
5) Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses
6) Melioidosis is endemic in the Mediterranean area
7) There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis
8) The clinical signs of glanders are more severe in horses than in donkeys
9) Glanders occurs only in horses
10) Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis

Answer 78

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) True

Question 79

1) Arthritis is a clinical sign of Lyme borreliosis in dogs
2) Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteropathies in pigs
3) Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis
4) Melioidosis is a zoonosis
5) Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis
6) Lyme borreliosis is maintained by small rodents
7) Abortion is the main clinical sign of leptospirosis of dogs
8) Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of young dogs
9) Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
10) Swine dysentery is caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

Answer 79

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 80

1) Leptospirosis can be diagnosed based on the titre of antibodies in the sow’s blood
2) Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins
3) Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery
4) Q fever is a zoonosis
5) Severe pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of Potomac horse fever
6) Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis
7) Mycoplasmas frequently have immunosuppressive effect
8) Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is diagnosed by isolation of the agent
9) The agent of cantagious bovine pleuropneumonia is spreading in aerosols
10) Abortion caused by chlamydia can be diagnosed by microscopic examination

Answer 80

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 81

1) Mycobacterium bovis is an agent of bovine tuberculosis
2) Fresh tuberculosis lesions in the lymph nodes are common in the early generalization
3) The skin intra dermal tuberculin test can be repeated within a week if necessary
4) Cough is a typical clinical sign of bovine pulmonary tuberculosis
5) If the cellular immune reaction of cattle is weak, mainly proliferative lesions of tuberculosis can be seen
6) Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause generalized tuberculosis in cattle
7) BCG vaccination of badgers can results in decreased shedding of mycobacteria
8) The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria
9) Drop of egg production is a clinical sign of avian tuberculosis
10) The resistance of the agent of paratuberculosis is low, it cannot survive in the environment

Answer 81

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 82

1) Actinomyces bovis is the causative agent of bovne actinomycosis
2) Actinomyces species can cause diseases mainly in birds
3) The causative agent of foot rot is Dichelobacter nodosus
4) Actinomycosis is a notifiable disease
5) Mastitis is a common clinical sign of bovine nocardiosis
6) Hypogammaglobinemia can predispose cattle to coli septicaemia
7) Calves are vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent coli septicaemia
8) Rhodococcus equi can cause a disease mainly in swine
9) Nocardia are gram positive branching filaments
10) Lack of colostrum is an important predisposing factor in diseases in young animals caused by E coli

Answer 82

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 83

1) Hygienic problems can predispose new-born calves to coli diarrhoea
2) Verotoxigenic strains are responsible for oedema disease
3) In case of coli diarrhoea of weaned piglets, it is advisable to reduce the amount of feed
4) High fever is a typical clinical sign of coli diarrhoea of new born piglets
5) Oedema disease of weaned piglets is caused by enterotoxigenic E coli strains
6) Salmonella Typhimurium can cause salmonellosis of cattle
7) Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis
8) The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs and lesions of salmonellosis of cattle
9) Arthritis can occur in mares after salmonella abortion
10) Salmonellosis can cause septicaemia in sheep

Answer 83

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 84

1) Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe
2) Swine typhoid is a very frequent disease in Europe nowadays
3) Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid
4) Swine typhoid can be transmitted with infected pigs
5) Swine typhoid can be transmitted by contaminated utensils
6) Fowl paratyphoid has been eradicated in Europe
7) Salmonella enteritidis can cause fowl paratyphoid
8) Lesions caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis are always limited to the gut
9) Rodents and hares are susceptible to Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
10) Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia

Answer 84

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 85

1) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is a zoonotic agent
2) Transportation is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves
3) There are no vaccines for the prevention of haemorrhagic septicaemia of cattle
4) Fruits and vegetables can be the source of human infection by yersiniae
5) Bleeding from the nose is a frequent clinical sign of haemorrhagic septicaemia of cattle
6) Mannheimia haemolytica leukotoxin (cytotoxin) damages the macrophages
7) The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the diaphragmatic lobes
8) Lesions of atrophic rhinitis caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica are irreversible
9) Pasteurella multocida can cause pasteurellosis in small ruminants
10) The cytotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica is responsible for the clinical signs of ovine mastitis

Answer 85

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 86

1) Pasteurella multocida can infect humans
2) Feather pecking or force feeding can predispose animals to fowl cholera
3) High ammonia concentration in the air can predispose rabbits to pasteurellosis
4) Fowl cholera is caused by pasteurella multocida A, D and F strains
5) Subcutaneous abscesses can be seen in the case of rabbit pasteurellosis
6) Clinical signs of anatipestifier disease are limited to the respiratory tract
7) Asymptomatic carriage of Pasteurella multocida can occur in birds
8) The endotoxin of the agent is responsible for the clinical signs of fowl cholera
9) Parent birds have to be vaccinated just before laying in order to prevent fowl cholera
10) Sinusitis is a frequent clinical sign of ornithobacteriosis

Answer 86

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 87

1) As a result of Koster-staining, B. melitensis, B. abortus and B. suis are stained red
2) Abortion is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis
3) There is a serological relationship among some Brucella species, because of the same polysaccharides in the cell wall
4) Brucella suis can infect only pigs
5) Wild hares can be the carrer of Brucella suis
6) Brucella abortus can infect dogs
7) Agar gel diffusion test and ELISA are used to detection of infection with Brucella ovis
8) Brucella ovis can cause septicaemia in cattle
9) Brucella suis can cause abortion of pregnant sows in any gestation period
10) Brucella ovis occurs in most sheep-raising regions of the world

Answer 87

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 88

1) Lesions of bovine actinobacillosis can be found in the maxilla or the mandible
2) Bovine actinobacillosis is prevented by widespread vaccination with inactivated vaccines
3) Francisella tularensis form gram positive, branching filaments
4) Increased salivation is a clinical sign of bovine actinobacilllosis
5) Hunters can be infected with Francisella tularensis during skinning of wild hares
6) Actinobacillus seminis causes epididymitis and orchitis in rams and bocks
7) Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of pigs can be chronic
8) Pigs are susceptible to Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
9) Glassers disease occurs mainly in 1-2 months old piglets
10) Histophilus ovis can cause disease in cattle and sheep

Answer 88

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 89

1) Zoonotic agents can cause disease in animales and humans
2) Eradication with selection method is not done nowadays
3) Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts
4) New-born animals must be kept isolated when eradication with generation shift is used
5) Deletion vaccines can only be used as live vaccines
6) Infection before self-recognition of the immune system can result in tolerated infections
7) PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity
8) Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only til 2 weeks of age
9) PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction
10) Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis

Answer 89

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) False

Question 90

1) Vertical infections is not possible in chicken infectious anaemia
2) Ascites can be a clinical sign of Derzsy’s disease
3) Adenoviruses are poor antigens
4) Canine adenovirus 2 can cause encephalitis in foxes
5) The Aujeszky’s disease is a zoonosis
6) Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months
7) Liver lesions are frequently seen in puppies with Canid herpes virus
8) Aviadenoviruses can cause hepatitis-hyropericardium syndrome in geese
9) Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease
10) Clinical manifestation of swine inclusion body rhinitis s usually seen in piglets less than 3 weeks of age

Answer 90

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 91

1) Vaccination against bovine papular stomatitis provides life-long immunity
2) Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus
3) Conjunctivitis and blepharitis are signs of infectious bovine rhnotracheitis
4) The Marek’s disease virus is transmitted by inhalation
5) The primary replication site of African Swine fever virus is the oronasal mucosa
6) The African Swine fever virus replicates in lymphocytes
7) In Europe, the main route of infection is the transmission of the African Swine fever by ticks
8) Heterologous viruses of avian pox frequently cause generalization
9) Cowpox virus frequently causes abortions and encephalitis
10) Attenuated vaccines are forbidden to be used against fowlpox

Answer 91

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) False
9) False
10) False

Question 92

1) Foot and mouth disease can be carried for long time in the hoof tissue
2) Foot and mouth disease virus is serologically uniform
3) Duck hepatitis cannot be prevented with vaccination
4) Cattle shed foot and mouth disease virus for a shorter time comparing to swine
5) The primary replication site of foot and mouth disease is the bone marrow
6) The clinical signs of Talfan disease are more severe than that of Teschen disease
7) Bursitis virus targets the premature B lymphocytes
8) Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis
9) RHD virus is used for biological control of rural rabbits
10) Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be seen in the first month of life

Answer 92

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 93

1) Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens older than 8 weeks
2) Equine encephalomyelitis viruses are zoonotic
3) The natural reservoirs of the African Horse sickness virus are mainly zebras
4) The infectious equine arteritis and the African horse sickness may have similar clinical signs
5) The subacute form of African Horse sickness is causing oedema formation and heart failure
6) Acute form of African Horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses
7) The tick-borne encephalitis virus can be transmitted via consumption of raw milk
8) Vaccination against bluetongue results in serotype specific imunity
9) In acute Classical Swine fever, at the beginning obstipation, later diarrhoea can be observed
10) The BVD virus typcally damages endothelial, epithelial and lymphatic tissues

Answer 93

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 94

1) The border disease virus causes pneumonia in sheep
2) Classical Swine fever infection during the first half of pregnancy results in the birth of immunotolerant piglets
3) The BVD virus can infect also pigs
4) Ischaemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem lesions of subacute Classical Swine fever
5) Classical Swine fever virus can retain its infectivity for 6 months in frozen meat
6) Newcastle disease virus can cause CNS signs in dogs
7) Bovine RS virus can cause life threatening disease in calves
8) Newcastle disease is a notifiable disease
9) Paramyxoviruses are good immunogens
10) Natural hosts of rinderpest virus are cloven hoofed animals

Answer 94

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 95

1) In swine, all influenza variants can be detected
2) Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza
3) Cats can be/are regularly vaccinated against feline coronavirus
4) Dogs can be vaccinated against canine enteric coronavirus
5) Rhabdoviruses are resistant viruses, they can remain infective in the environment for several weeks
6) Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause clinical signs in horses
7) Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in chicken below 6 weeks of age
8) Bovine coronavirus causes watery diarrhoea in calf up to 3 weeks
9) Bovine coronavirus causes rhinitis in calf up to 3 months
10) Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can infect foetuses of pregnant animals

Answer 95

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) False
10) True

Question 96

1) Encephalitis caused by caprine arthritis- encephalitis virus is generally seen in 2-4 month old kids
2) Borna disease occurs only in horses
3) Feline leukosis virus can cause horizontal and vertical infection
4) All avian leukosis viruses are oncogenic
5) Retroviruses can integrate into the genome of host cells
6) Maedi-visna can occur in sheep, goats and cattle
7) BSE prion is shed in milk in large amount
8) Bacillus anthracis cannot produce spores in the infected animals
9) Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries
10) Agents of transmissable encephalopathies are most frequently detected with PCR

Answer 96

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 97

1) Human anthrax cannot be treated with antibioitics
2) Classical Swine fever is a frequent predsiposing factor of Bradsot
3) Pulpy kidney disease generally occurs in 1-2 week old lambs
4) Not properly prepared silage can be the source of Listeria
5) The toxin of Clostridium botulinum causes flaccid paralysis
6) The agent of bovine pyelonephritis causes ascending infection
7) The agent of erysipelas is carried by asymptomatic pigs in the tonsils
8) Pig enterotoxaemia can be generally seen in weaned piglets
9) The agent of exudative dermatitis of pigs produce exfoliative toxin
10) Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

Answer 97

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) True
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 98

1) Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium caprae can cause bovine tuberculosis
2) Bovine pyelonephritis occurs in adult animals
3) The primary complex of bovine tuberculosis is generally seen in the gastrointestinal tract
4) Paratuberculosis occurs most frequently in pigs
5) The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria
6) Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be seen only above 3-4 months of age
7) The tuberculin test is used for the detection of infection of animals with mycobacteria
8) Air sacculitis is common in the case of E coli disease of poultry
9) Neonatal coli diarrhoea is more frequent in pigltets of first farrowing gilts
10) Coli diarrhoea of new-born calves can be prevented by vaccinating the pregnant cows

Answer 98

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) True
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 99

1) High fever is a common clinial sign of neonatal coli diarrhoea of calves
2) Coli diarrhoea of newborn piglets is caused by enterotoxigenic E coli strains
3) The most severe clinical signs of paratuberculosis can be seen in suckling calves
4) The agent of paratuberculosis is shed in the faeces
5) Fowl paratyphoid is caused by facultative pathogenic salmonellae
6) Abortion of ewes caused by salmonellosis generally happens 2-4 weeks after the acute signs
7) The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs and lesions of salmonellosis of calves
8) Salmonellosis of cattle occurs mainly in day-old calves
9) Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis
10) Lesions of swine typhoid are always limited to the intestine

Answer 99

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) False

Question 100

1) Fowl paratyphoid has been eradicated in Europe
2) Carrier animals shed the agent of Yersiniosis in the faeces
3) Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination
4) The agent of acute systemic pasteurellosis is zoonotic
5) The resistance of the agent of fowl cholera is low
6) Mannheimia haemolytica causes rabbit pasteurellosis
7) Diarrhoea is the main clinical sign of bovine pasteurellosis
8) Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causatuve agent of necrobacillus
9) Koster staining is used for staining of brucellae
10) Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis

Answer 100

1) False
2) True
3) False
4) False
5) True
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) False

Question 101

1) Ataxia and spasms are common clinical signs of anatipestifer disease
2) Brucella abortus and Brucella melitensis can cause bovine brucellosis
3) Arthritis is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis
4) Orchitis is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis
5) Brucella suis causes swine brucellosis
6) Brucella canis is shed in the semen
7) Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae
8) Osteomyelitis is a frequent sign of porcine brucellosis
9) Bordetella canis is an agent of kennel cough of dogs
10) Brucella abortus can colonise only pregnant cows or heifers

Answer 101

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) True
6) True
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) False

Question 102

1) Brucella melitensis can cause abortion of cattle
2) Focal infection and necrosis can be seen in the parenchymal organs in the case of tularaemia
3) Melioidodis is endemic in the Mediterranean area
4) Glanders can occur in horses
5) There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis
6) Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses
7) Moraxella ovis can cause keratoconjunctivitis only in sheep and goats
8) The agent of avian bordetellosis can produce cytotoxin
9) Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders
10) Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is a zoonotic agent

Answer 102

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) True
10) True

Question 103

1) Lyme borreliosis is frequently asymptomatic in animals
2) Lyme borreliosis is maintained by small rodents
3) Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis
4) There are no vaccines for the prevention of Lyme borreliosis
5) Campylobacter hepaticus is the causative agent of infectious hepatitis
6) Salpingitis can be seen in the case of bovine genital campylobacteriosis
7) Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention
8) Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
9) Leptospira Tarassovi can cause abortion in pigs
10) Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins

Answer 103

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False
5) False
6) True
7) False
8) False
9) True
10) True

Question 104

1) Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery
2) Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves
3) Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery
4) Q fever is a zoonosis
5) Wet cough and excretion of large amount of nasal discharge are typical clinical signs of mycoplasma pneumonia of swine
6) There are no vaccines for the prevention of Q fever
7) Animal pathogenic chlamydia species do not cause disease in humans
8) Mycoplasma synoviae is spreading vertically
9) Tick bite is the only way of infection with the agent of Q fever
10) The agent of heartwater damages the endothelial cells

Answer 104

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True
5) False
6) False
7) False
8) True
9) False
10) True