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Soft tissue surgery elective > Past Q > Flashcards

Past Q Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following signs is regarded as characteristic of PDA (patent ductus arteriousus)?

A

Machinery murmur

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2
Q

What is NOT typical of the surgery of PDA?

A

Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct

(Typical:
 Left lateral thoracotomy in the 4th inter-costal space
 High risk of intra-operative complication
 Circum-costal surgery for the closure of the chest)

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3
Q

Which small intestinal section has similar vessel structure to the colon’s blood supply?

A 
Ileum 
Cranial mesenteric (ex. Ileocolic) → Ileocaecocolic (ileum, caecum, ascending colon)
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4
Q

Which procedure is NOT recommended anymore as preparation for rectal surgery?

A

Manual evacuation of rectum

(Recommended:
 Enema
 Pre-operative antibiotics
 Stool softening (oral lavage solution))

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5
Q

Which hepatic division possesses the gall bladder?

A

Central division

Gall bladder btw. the right medial and quadrate lobes.

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6
Q

Which of the following procedures has modification called ‘Roux-en-Y’ technique?

A

Chole-cysto-jejuno-stomy

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7
Q

Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid ring constrictor?

A

Casein → Inner Casein-ring

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8
Q

Which disease can be solved with the so called ‘Eck Fistula’?

A

IPSS (intrahepatic portosystemic shunt)

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9
Q

Which of the following anatomical features is NOT responsible for the difficult manipulation
of the organ (pancreas)?

a. Lobular structure
b. Thin serosal capsule
c. Angio-architecture
d. Duodenal opening

A

B?

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10
Q

Which of the pancreatic areas is the most accessible in terms of surgical manipulation?

a. The cranial part of the right lobe
b. The caudal part of the right lobe
c. The left part of the left lobe
d. The right part of the left lobe

A

B?

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11
Q

Which of the following procedures of the pancreas has the relatively lowest risk of
complications?

A

Excisional biopsy of the right pancreatic lobe

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12
Q

Which of the following disorders is regarded as the ‘classic’ indication for Adrenalectomy?

a. Peripheral Cushing’s with uni-lateral adrenal corticol adenoma
b. Central Cushing’s with uni-lateral adrenal corticol adenoma
c. Peripheral Cushing’s with uni-lateral adrenal medullar adenoma
d. Central Cushing’s with uni-lateral adrenal medullar adenoma

A

A

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13
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT regarding Adrenalectomy?

A

 Pheochromocytoma usually causes tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia, rather than hypertension.

Internet – Pheochromoctyoma is an uncommon tumour of the adrenal glands that can present with
headaches, sweating, palpitations, and paroxysmal hyper-tension.

(True:
 Cushing’s patients should be pre-treated with Trilostan before adrenalectomy.
 Patient with Pheochromocytomoa could be pre-treated with α and/or β blockers before surgery.
 Central Cushing’s is suspected in case of bilateral adrenal enlargement.)

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14
Q

Which of the following endocrine tests is used after adrenalectomy?

A

ACTH stimulation test

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15
Q

Which factor plays the most significant role in the assessment of the prognosis of
adrenalectomy?

A

Tumour involvement of the caudal vena cava

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16
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

The most common feline thyroid disease is hyper-thyroidism caused by adenoma / hyper-plasia.

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17
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods provides both morphological and functional data
regarding thyroid disorders?

A

Thyroid-Scintigraphy

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18
Q

Which of the following metabolic disorders is the most common acute complication of extra-
capsular thyroidectomy?

A

Hypocalcemia

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19
Q

Which of the following nervous system is responsible for the sphincter mechanism of the
urinary bladder?

A

Sympathetic nervous system - Hypogastric nerve

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20
Q

Which of the following conditions usually does NOT cause anatomic urinary incontinence?

A

USMI (urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence)

(True:
 Recto-vaginal fistula
 Recto-urethral fistula
 Ectopic ureter)

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21
Q

Which kind of technique would you prefer to cover an elbow skin defect?

A

Axial pattern flap

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22
Q

What does ‘V-Y plasty’ mean?

A

Tension relieving technique

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23
Q

The main nutritional blood vessel of the ventral abdominal skin is:

A

Superficial caudal epigastric

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24
Q

In which breed is the congenital laryngeal paralysis not common?

A

 Retrievers

(Common in:
 Bouvier des Flandres
 Husky
 Dalmatian)

25
Q

Which condition is secondary in the brachycephalic airway syndrome?

a. Laryngeal collapse
b. Elongated soft palate
c. Stenotic nares
d. None of them

A

A

26
Q

Which laryngeal structure is effected by Grade II laryngeal collapse?

a. Laryngeal sacculus
b. Cuneiform process
c. Corniculatus process
d. None of them

A

B

27
Q

In which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common?a. Hungarian vizsla

b. Husky
c. Greyhound
d. Pointer

A

b. Husky

28
Q

Which acquired condition may be contributing to the idiopathic laryngeal paralysis?

a. Polyneuropathy
b. Trauma
c. Endocrinopathy
d. Neoplasia

A

d. Neoplasia

29
Q

Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL?

a. Muscle process
b. Cuneiform process
c. Corniculatus process
d. None of them

A

a. Muscle process

30
Q

What is the most frequent complication of Cricoarytenoid Lateralisation?

a. Laryngeal collapse
b. Recurrence
c. Aspiration
d. None of them

A

c. Aspiration

31
Q

PRAA means?

a. Abnormally directed Botallo ligament
b. Patency of the Botallo duct
c. Abnormally directed aortic arch
d. Abnormally directed subclavian artery

A

c. Abnormally directed aortic arch

PRAA = persistent right aortic arch

32
Q

Which sign of the following is characteristic of PRAA?

a. Vomiting 30 minutes after feeding
b. Vomiting 1-2 hours after feeding
c. Vomiting 4-5 hours after feeding
d. Regurgitation

A

d. Regurgitation

33
Q

What is not typical of the surgery of PRAA?

a. Left sided 4th intercostal thoracotomy
b. Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct
c. Extraluminal dilation of the stenotic oesophagus
d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

A

c. Extraluminal dilation of the stenotic oesophagus

34
Q

PDA means?

a. Abnormally directed Botallo ligament
b. Patency of the Botallo duct
c. Abnormally directed aortic arch
d. Abnormally directed subclavian artery

A

b. Patency of the botallo duct

PDA = patent ductus arteriosus. Ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth

35
Q

Which vessel is responsible for the blood supply of the caudal part of the right pancreatic lobe?

a. Gastroduodenal a.
b. Cranial pancreaticoduodenal a.
c. Caudal pancreaticoduodenal a.
d. Caudal mesenteric a.

A

c. Caudal pancreaticoduodenal a.

36
Q

Which procedure is controversial for preparation for colorectal surgery?

a. Manual evacuation of the rectum
b. Enema
c. Stool softening (oral lavage solution)
d. Preoperative antibiotics

A

b. Enema

37
Q

Which suture technique is recommended for the closure of the colon in cats?

a. Single layer simple interrupted
b. Single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous
c. Single or double layer but always simple interrupted
d. Single or double but always simple continuous

A

d. Single or double but always simple continuous

38
Q

Which procedure is adequate for irreparable caecum inversion?

a. Typhlotomy
b. Typhlectomy
c. Appendectomy
d. Subtotal colectomy

A

b. Typhlectomy

39
Q

Which species has high incidence of large intestinal obstruction?

a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Ferret
d. Horse

A

d. Horse

40
Q

Which of the following does usually not cause large intestinal obstruction in small animals?

a. Colic tumour
b. Constipation
c. Colic
d. Foreign body

A

c. Colic

41
Q

The most common indication of subtotal colectomy in cats is?

a. Congenital megacolon
b. Primary idiopathic megacolon
c. Secondary idiopathic megacolon
d. Tertiary idiopathic megacolon

A

b. Primary idiopathic megacolon

42
Q

Which of the following procedures is most frequently used for cholecystolith removal?

a. Cholecystotomy
b. Cholecystectomy
c. Cholecystoenterostomy
d. Choledochostomy

A

b. Cholecystectomy

43
Q

Which of the following procedures has a modification called ‘Roux-en-Y’ technique?

a. Choledochotomy
b. Cholecystectomy
c. Cholecystoduodenostomy
d. Cholecystojejunostomy

A

d. Cholecystojejunostomy

44
Q

Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid ring constrictor?

a. Cellophane
b. Silk
c. Casein
d. Nylon

A

c. Casein

45
Q

Which of the following anatomic features does NOT contribute to the difficulty manipulating the organ?

a. Lobular structure
b. Sensitivity to manipulation
c. Anatomy of blood supply
d. Duct opening

A

b. Sensitivity to manipulation

46
Q

Which of the pancreatic areas is the most accessible for surgical manipulation?

a. The cranial part of the right lobe
b. The caudal part of the right lobe
c. The left part of the left lobe
d. The right part of the left lobe

A

b. Caudal part of the right lobe

47
Q

Which of the following surgical procedures of the pancreas has the relatively lowest risk of complication?

a. Partial pancreatectomy
b. Totally pancreatectomy
c. Omentalisaiton of pancreatic abscess
d. Excisional biopsy of the right pancreatic lobe

A

d. Excisional biopsy of the right pancreatic lobe

48
Q

Which of the following disorders is regarded as the ‘classic’ indication for adrenalectomy?

a. Peripheral Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma
b. Central Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma
c. Peripheral Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma
d. Central Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma

A

A

49
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT regarding adrenalectomy?

a. Cushing’s patients should be pre-treated with Trilostan before adrenalectomy
b. Pheochromocytoma usually causes rather tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia than hypertension
c. Patient with pheochromocytoma could be pre-treated with α- and/or β-blockers before surgery
d. Central Cushing’s is suspected in case of bilateral adrenal enlargement

A

b. Pheochromocytoma usually causes rather tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia than hypertension

50
Q

Which of the following endocrine tests is used to assess the steroid substitution after adrenalectomy?

a. ACTH stimulation test
b. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
c. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
d. None of them

A

a. ACTH stimulation test

51
Q

Which factor plays the most significant role in the assessment of the prognosis of adrenalectomy?

a. Tumour involvement of pancreaticoduodenali vessels
b. Tumour involvement of phrenicoabdominal vessels
c. Tumour involvement of the caudal vena cava
d. Malignancy of the adrenal tumour

A

c. Tumour involvement of the caudal vena cava

52
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The most common feline thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenoma/hyperplasia
b. The most common feline thyroid disease is hypothyroidism caused by adenoma/hyperplasia
c. The most common feline thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenocarcinoma
d. The most common feline thyroid disease is hypothyroidism caused by adenocarcinoma

A

a. The most common feline thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenoma/hyperplasia

53
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The most common canine thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenocarcinoma
b. The most common canine thyroid disease is the hormonally inactive unilateral adenocarcinoma
c. The most common canine thyroid tumour is the hormonally inactive adenocarcinoma
d. The most common canine thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenoma

A

b. The most common canine thyroid disease is the hormonally inactive unilateral adenocarcinoma

54
Q

Which is the following diagnostic methods, provides both morphologic and functional data regarding thyroid disorders?

a. Doppler ultrasonography
b. CT angiography
c. Immunohistochemistry
d. Scintigraphy

A

d. Scintigraphy

55
Q

Which of the following metabolic disorder is the most common acute complication of extracapsular thyroidectomy?

a. Hypercalcaemia
b. Hypocalcaemia
c. Hypokalaemia
d. Hyperkalaemia

A

b. Hypocalcemia

56
Q

Which factor may not contribute to the urinary incontinence in case of ‘pelvic’ bladder? [absolutely no idea at all]

a. The ‘shortening’ of the urethra
b. The ‘banding’ of the urethra
c. The bladder neck and urethra are out of the normal abdominal pressure
d. The injury of the bladder innervation

A

??

57
Q

Which of the following nervous system is responsible for the sphincter mechanism of the urinary bladder?

a. Parasympathetic – hypogastric n.
b. Parasympathetic – pudenal n.
c. Sympathetic – hypogastric n.
d. Sympathetic – pelvic nn.

A

c. Sympathetic – hypogastric n.

58
Q

Which of the following conditions usually causes anatomic urinary incontinence?

a. Rectovaginal fistula
b. Rectouretheral
c. USMI
d. Ectopic ureter

A

d. Ectopic ureter [I heard him say this, aloud, could have been a dream]

[PQ’s say, ‘usually does not’, and gives the answer USMI]

59
Q

What is NOT typical of the surgery of PDA (patent ductus arteriosus) ?

a. Left sided 4 th intercostals thoracotomy
b. Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct
c. High risk of intraoperative complication
d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

A

b. Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct

Soft tissue surgery elective (1 decks)

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