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Soft tissue surgery > Past q > Flashcards

Past q Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common?
    a. Hungarian vizsla
    b. Husky
    c. Greyhound
    d. Pointer
A

B

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2
Q
  1. Which acquired condition may be contributing to the idiopathic laryngeal paralysis?
    a. Polyneuropathy
    b. Trauma
    c. Endocrinopathy
    d. Neoplasia
A

A

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3
Q
  1. Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL?
    a. Muscle process
    b. Cuneiform process
    c. Corniculatus process
    d. None of them
A

A

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4
Q
  1. What is the most frequent complication of Cricoarytenoid Lateralisation?
    a. Laryngeal collapse
    b. Recurrence
    c. Aspiration
    d. None of them
A

C

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5
Q
  1. PRAA means?
    a. Abnormally directed Botallo ligament
    b. Patency of the Botallo duct
    c. Abnormally directed aortic arch
    d. Abnormally directed subclavian artery
A

C

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6
Q
  1. Which sign of the following is characteristic of PRAA?
    a. Vomiting 30 minutes after feeding
    b. Vomiting 1-2 hours after feeding
    c. Vomiting 4-5 hours after feeding
    d. Regurgitation
A

D

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7
Q
  1. What is not typical of the surgery of PRAA?
    a. Left sided 4th intercostal thoracotomy
    b. Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct
    c. Extraluminal dilation of the stenotic oesophagus
    d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest
A

C

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8
Q
  1. PDA means?
    a. Abnormally directed Botallo ligament
    b. Patency of the Botallo duct
    c. Abnormally directed aortic arch
    d. Abnormally directed subclavian artery
A

B

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following signs is characteristic of PDA?
    a. Ventricular arrhythmia
    b. Ventricular extrasystole
    c. Atrial arrhythmia
    d. Machinery murmur
A

D

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10
Q
  1. What is not typical of the surgery of PDA?
    a. Left sided 4th intercostal thoracotomy
    b. Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct
    c. High risk of intraoperative complication
    d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest
A

B

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11
Q
  1. Which vessel is responsible for the blood supply of the caudal part of the right pancreatic lobe?
    a. Gastroduodenal a.
    b. Cranial pancreaticoduodenal a.
    c. Caudal pancreaticoduodenal a.
    d. Caudal mesenteric a.
A

C

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12
Q
  1. Which procedure is controversial for preparation for colorectal surgery?
    a. Manual evacuation of the rectum
    b. Enema
    c. Stool softening (oral lavage solution)
    d. Preoperative antibiotics
A

B

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13
Q
  1. Which suture technique is recommended for the closure of the colon in cats?
    a. Single layer simple interrupted
    b. Single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous
    c. Single or double layer but always simple interrupted
    d. Single or double but always simple continuous
A

D?

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14
Q
  1. Which procedure is adequate for irreparable caecum inversion?
    a. Typhlotomy
    b. Typhectomy
    c. Appendectomy
    d. Subtotal colectomy
A

B

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15
Q
  1. Which species has high incidence of large intestinal obstruction?
    a. Dog
    b. Cat
    c. Ferret
    d. Horse
A

D

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following does usually not cause large intestinal obstruction in small animals?
    a. Colic tumour
    b. Constipation
    c. Colic
    d. Foreign body
A

D

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17
Q
  1. The most common indication of subtotal colectomy in cats is?
    a. Congenital megacolon
    b. Primary idiopathic megacolon
    c. Secondary idiopathic megacolon
    d. Tertiary idiopathic megacolon
A

B

18
Q
  1. Which hepatic division possess the gall bladder
    a. Right division
    b. Central division
    c. Left division
    d. Caudal division
A

B

19
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures is most frequently used for cholecystolith removal?
    a. Cholecystotomy
    b. Cholecystectomy
    c. Cholecystoenterostomy
    d. Choledochostomy
A

B

20
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures has a modification called ‘Roux-en-Y’ technique?
    a. Choledochotomy
    b. Cholecystectomy
    c. Cholecystoduodenostomy
    d. Cholecystojejunostomy
A

D

21
Q
  1. Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid ring constrictor?
    a. Cellophane
    b. Silk
    c. Casein
    d. Nylon
A

C

22
Q
  1. Which disease can be solved with so called ‘Eck fistula’?
    a. EPSS
    b. IPSS
    c. Microvascular dysplasia
    d. AV fistula
A

B

23
Q
  1. Which of the following anatomic features does not contribute to the difficulty manipulating the organ?
    a. Lobular structure
    b. Sensitivity to manipulation
    c. Anatomy of blood supply
    d. Duct opening
A

B

24
Q
  1. Which of the pancreatic areas is the most accessible for surgical manipulation?
    a. The cranial part of the right lobe
    b. The caudal part of the right lobe
    c. The left part of the left lobe
    d. The right part of the left lobe
A

B

25
Q
  1. Which of the following surgical procedures of the pancreas has the relatively lowest risk of complication?
    a. Partial pancreatectomy
    b. Totally pancreatectomy
    c. Omentalisaiton of pancreatic abscess
    d. Excisional biopsy of the right pancreatic lobe
A

D

26
Q
  1. Which of the following disorders is regarded as the ‘classic’ indication for adrenalectomy?
    a. Peripheral Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma
    b. Central Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma
    c. Peripheral Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma
    d. Central Cushing’s with unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma
A

A

27
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect regarding adrenalectomy?
    a. Cushing’s patients should be pre-treated with Trilostan before adrenalectomy
    b. Pheochromocytoma usually causes rather tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia than hypertension
    c. Patient with pheochromocytoma could be pre-treated with α- and/or β-blockers before surgery
    d. Central Cushing’s is suspected in case of bilateral adrenal enlargement
A

B

28
Q
  1. Which of the following endocrine tests is used to assess the steroid substitution after adrenalectomy?
    a. ACTH stimulation test
    b. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
    c. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
    d. None of them
A

A

29
Q
  1. Which factor plays the most significant role in the assessment of the prognosis of adrenalectomy?
    a. Tumour involvement of pancreaticoduodenali vessels
    b. Tumour involvement of phrenicoabdominal vessels
    c. Tumour involvement of the caudal vena cava
    d. Malignancy of the adrenal tumour
A

C

30
Q
  1. Which statement is correct?
    a. The most common feline thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenoma/hyperplasia
    b. The most common feline thyroid disease is hypothyroidism caused by adenoma/hyperplasia
    c. The most common feline thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenocarcinoma
    d. The most common feline thyroid disease is hypothyroidism caused by adenocarcinoma
A

A

31
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The most common canine thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenocarcinoma
b. The most common canine thyroid disease is the hormonally inactive unilateral adenocarcinoma
c. The most common canine thyroid tumour is the hormonally inactive adenocarcinoma
d. The most common canine thyroid disease is hyperthyroidism caused by adenoma

A

B

32
Q
  1. Which is the following diagnostic methods, provides both morphologic and functional data regarding thyroid disorders?
    a. Doppler ultrasonography
    b. CT angiography
    c. Immunohistochemistry
    d. Scintigraphy
A

D

33
Q
  1. Which of the following metabolic disorder is the most common acute complication of extracapsular thyroidectomy?
    a. Hypercalcaemia
    b. Hypocalcaemia
    c. Hypokalaemia
    d. Hyperkalaemia
A

B

34
Q
  1. Which factor may not contribute to the urinary incontinence in case of ‘pelvic’ bladder?
    a. The ‘shortening’ of the urethra
    b. The ‘banding’ of the urethra
    c. The bladder neck and urethra are out of the normal abdominal pressure
    d. The injury of the bladder innervation
A

D

35
Q
  1. Which of the following nervous system is responsible for the sphincter mechanism of the urinary bladder?
    a. Parasympathetic – hypogastric n.
    b. Parasympathetic – pudenal n.
    c. Sympathetic – hypogastric n.
    d. Sympathetic – pelvic nn.
A

C

36
Q
  1. Which of the following nervous system is responsible for the expression mechanism of the urinary bladder?
    a. Parasympathetic – hypogastric n.
    b. Parasympathetic – pudenal n.
    c. Sympathetic – hypogastric n.
    d. Sympathetic – pelvic nn.
A

B

37
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions usually causes anatomic urinary incontinence?
    a. Rectovaginal fistula
    b. Rectouretheral
    c. USMI
    d. Ectopic ureter
A

D

38
Q
  1. Which kind of technique would you prefer to cover an elbow skin defect?
    a. Full thickness skin grafting
    b. Split thickness skin grafting
    c. Inguinal fold flap plasty
    d. Axial pattern flap
A

D

39
Q
  1. What does ‘V-Y plasty’ mean?
    a. Correction of Y-U plasty
    b. Version of Z-plasty
    c. Version of W-plasty
    d. Tension relieving technique
A

D

40
Q
  1. The main nutritional blood vessel of the ventral abdominal skin is?
    a. Superficial caudal epigastric
    b. Superficial cranial epigastric
    c. Profound circumflex iliac
    d. Superficial circumflex iliac
A

A

Soft tissue surgery (1 decks)

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