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EQUINE I > Past Q > Flashcards

Past Q Flashcards

1
Q

Please list two main advantages of digital (direct) radiography over computed radiography!

A

A: DR improves workflow by producing higher quality images instantaneously while providing 2 to 3 times more dose efficiency than CR.

Additionally :

  • X-ray photons are directly converted to a digital signal
  • Time and productivity savings (= reduces the long processing conventional radiography to seconds)
  • Images are instantly stored and ready to view on the computer
  • In some cases patient is exposed to significantly reduced radiation doses
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2
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image?

A

A: D45L-PlMO (dorsolateral plantar medial oblique)

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3
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image?

A

LM (in a 5-10degree tilt)

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4
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image?

A

DPI (on a 5-10 degree tilt)

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5
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image?

A

D45L-PIMO

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6
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image?

A

PI45L-DMO

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7
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image?

A

Flexed LM

(Highlight plantar aspect of trochlear ridges of tallus)

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8
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image?

A

SKYLINE

or Plantarprox-Plaantardist

(Highlight tuber calcanei & Sustentacullum talli)

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9
Q

How do we administrate phenylbutazaone as premedication in horses?

A

A : Only IV

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10
Q

What kind of narcotic system is appropriate for equine anaesthesia?

A

Closed circle

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11
Q

Which drug is suitable for raising mean arterial blood pressure (ABP) intraoperatively?

A

Dobutamine

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12
Q

It can happen in case of an accidental intraarterial injection of alpha-2 receptor agonist?

A

Collapse

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13
Q

What sign could indicate that the horse is anaesthetised superficially?

A

Increase blood pressure

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14
Q

How do we administer phenylbutazone as a premedication in horses?

A

IV

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15
Q

The most common complication after anaesthesia of a horse with laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

Laryngospasm

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16
Q

What is true for a half limb cast, when you are using light casting as a cast material?

A

Quick application possible, no fluid permeability, it is light

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17
Q

What is the most important point to keep in mind, while you are placing a high bandage on the front limb?

A

Protect the accessory carpal bone against pressure sore

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18
Q

What kind of fluid should be used for joint lavage?

A

Sterile, isotonic infusion solution

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19
Q

Time-dependant antimicrobials are:

A

Beta lactams and macrolides

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20
Q

Please list the three main steps of preparing a foot for radiological exam:

A

Remove shoes and pare the foot, brush food with wire brush, pack the sulci of the frog with play doh

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21
Q

What is the first step in a case of a puncture wound of the sole of the hoof by a nail?

A

X-ray from the two views to localise the nail, the therapy depends on the nail position and injured structures

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22
Q

What are the phases of wound healing in the correct order?

A

Acute inflammation, proliferation, resorption, remodelling

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23
Q

When do you have to remove skin sutures following primary wound closure in a horse?

A

After 12-14 days postop

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24
Q

List two parameters which are evaluated during a distant examination:

A
  • Size,
  • conformation,
  • body condition,
  • posture,
  • gait,
  • behaviour and demeanour,
  • obvious pathological changes
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25
Q

List 2 basic coat colors in horses:

A

Bay, black, chestnut, grey etc

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26
Q

It poses the greatest risk when anaesthetising a newborn foal:

A

Induction with inhalational anaesthetic without premedication

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27
Q

Describe the normal percussion findings of the lungs in healthy adult horses:

A

Strong/sharp, low, resonant, short

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28
Q

What is the anatomical location (i.e. side and intercostal space) of the point of maximum intensity of a cardiac murmur originating from the aortic valve area?

A

Left 4th ICS below point of shoulder

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29
Q

List two reflexes for the examination of the trigeminal nerve in horses

A
  • Evaluation of facial cutaneous secretion
  • Palpebral reflex
  • Corneal reflex
  • Ability to chew
  • Movements of the jaw
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30
Q

What is the anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a recumbent horse if it can raise it’s head and neck?

A

Caudal cervical region

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31
Q

What is the meaning of urinary tenesmus?

A

Excessive straining during urination

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32
Q

List three indications of abdominal ultrasonography in horses

A
  • Colic
  • Weight loss
  • Anorexia
  • Pyrexia
  • Abnormal x ray findings
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33
Q

What is the normal percussion sound in the medium third of the abdomen on the right side?

A

Dulled tympanic

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34
Q

Define dysmetria:

A

An error in trajectory due to an abnormal range, rate, and/or force of motion

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35
Q

List the two unique characteristics of the mandibular lymph nodes in horses:

A

Y-shaped and lobulated

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36
Q

List two primary skin lesions:

A
  • Macule Papule/plaque
  • Vesicle
  • Pustule
  • Urticaria
  • Nodule
  • Tumour
  • Cyst
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37
Q

List the three most important vital parameters:

A

Temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate

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38
Q

List two lymph nodes which are palpable only when they are enlarged in adult horses:

A

Lateral retropharyngeal Superficial cervical

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39
Q

List the three most important vital parameters (basic clinical values)

A

A: rectal temp, heart/pulse rate, respiratory rate

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40
Q

Name the white mark visible in the image below.

A

A: bald face

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41
Q

List two radiological findings, that may appear in a joint with osteoarthritis:

A
  • Periarticular osteophyte formation
  • Subchondral bone lysis and/or sclerosis
  • Lucent zones in the subchondral bone
  • Narrowing of the joint space
  • Osseous cyst-like lesions
  • Joint capsule distension
  • Periarticular soft tissue swelling
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42
Q

List two non-musical adventitious respiratory sounds:

A

Clicking, rattling, crackling noises

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43
Q

What is the physical cause of the 4th heart sound(S4) in horses?

A

Atrial contraction and sudden arrest of the distended ventricle

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44
Q

What is the most frequently used electrocardiographic lead system in horses?

A

Base-apex lead

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45
Q

What Greek prefix is used to describe the longest cardiac murmur?

A

A: Pan

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46
Q

Please list two main advantages of digital (direct) radiography over computed radiography

A
  • Image seen in a few seconds,
  • faster examination,
  • lower radiation dose,
  • can produce better quality images
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47
Q

List three ancillary diagnostic methods for the examination of the abdomen in adult horses:

A

Ultrasonography, endoscopy, laparoscopy

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48
Q

What is the normal percussion sound in the medium third of the abdomen on the right side?

A

A: dulled tympanic

Left side
Dorsal 1/3 – dulled-tympanic

Medium 1/3 – dulled-tympanic Ventral 1/3 – dulled

Right side
Dorsal 1/3 – tympanic (base of caecum contains gas, even

healthy horse)
Medium 1/3 – dulled tympanic Ventral 1/3 – dulled

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49
Q

What is the interval of isosthenuric urine specific gravity in horses?

A

1008-1014g/L (Hyposthenuria-<1008g/L;Hyper->10014g/L)

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50
Q

List three indications of abdominal ultrasonography in horses.

A

A:

  • Colic
  • Weight loss,
  • Anorexia
  • Pyrexia
  • Leukocytosis,
  • Leukopenia
  • Abnormal X-ray findings
  • Elevated plasma fibrinogen
  • Elevated liver enzymes
  • Elevated kidney values
  • Abnormal peritoneal fluid
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51
Q

True or False?

The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

A

True

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52
Q

Which radiological abnormalities can be associated with osteoarthritis of the distal interphalangeal joint?

A

Periarticular osteophytes

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53
Q

List two reflexes for the examination of the trigeminal nerve in horses.

A

A: Palpebral reflex, Corneal reflex

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54
Q

Which projection is best to highlight the dorsomedial aspect of the carpus?

  • Dorsoplantar
  • Dorsolatero-palmaromedial oblique
  • Palmarolateral-dorsomedial oblique
  • Flexed lateromedial
A

Palmarolateral-dorsomedial oblique

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55
Q

List two non-musical adventitious respiratory sounds.

A

A:

Clicking, rattling, crackling noises

Musical: whistling

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56
Q

What advantage does CT have when compared to MRI?

A

It provides more detailed information of osseous structures.

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57
Q

How does the amount of X-rays change with distance?

A

Inverse square law

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58
Q

Scintigraphy is particularly useful for diagnosing which injuries?

A

Stress fracture

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59
Q

Name the artefact marked with asterisks in the image below. The ultrasound was obtained from the right 10th intercostal space at the level of the shoulder joint.

A

A: Reverberation artefact

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60
Q

Which statement is true about MRI examinations?

  • It can only be performed in standing horses
  • It can only be performed under general anaesthesia
  • The foot is the most commonly examined region
  • The hock is the most commonly examined region
A

The foot is the most commonly examined region

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61
Q

The number of the left maxillary permanent first molar tooth in the Triadan system - 109 - 209 - 309 - 409

A

209

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62
Q

Which is true?

  • Above 50mA always death
  • Above 100mA always death
  • Both
  • None
A

Above 100mA always death

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63
Q

Name the artefact marked with asterisks in the image below.

A

Comet tail

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64
Q

How many lateromedial views would be appropriate/enough to see properly one seide of the equine thorax? -1 -2 -3 -4

A

4

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65
Q

What is the normal percussion sound in the dorsal third of the abdomen on the right side of an adult horse?

  • Resonant
  • Tympanic
  • Dull
  • Sonorous
A

Tympanic

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66
Q

Which blood parameter is suitable for the examination of the liver in horses?

A

Ammonia

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67
Q

Name the artefact marked with asterisks in the image below.

A

Plaural effusion

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68
Q

Which paranasal sinus is affected most frequently by sinusitis in horses? -

  • Maxillary
  • Frontal
  • Conchal
  • Sphenopalatine
A

Maxillary

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69
Q

What is the location of the mitral valve in the horse?

A

Left 5th ICS

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70
Q

Please name the radiological abnormality indicated by the arrow! Please specify its location.

A

A: Osteophyte on the dorso-distal aspect of P2

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71
Q

Which one of the following cardiac murmurs causes precordial thrill (fremitus)?

  • Grade 2 early systolic
  • Grade 3 late diastolic
  • Grade 4 pansystolic
  • Grade 5 holodiastolic
A

Grade 5 holodiastolic

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72
Q

What is the anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a horse if it shows tetraparesis and decreased thoracic limb spinal reflexes?

A

C6-T2

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73
Q

Which one of the following is a non-musical adventitious lung sound?

A

Crackling

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74
Q

Describe the abnormal colour of the oral mucosa visible in the image below.

A

A: dark pink/red/purple- colitis

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75
Q

What is the percussion sound of a normal guttural pouch in a healthy adult horse?

  • Dull
  • Bone like
  • Dulled tympanic
  • Resonant
A

Resonant

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76
Q

Which one of the following arteries is suitable for the palpation of the pulse in normal adult horses?

A

Transverse facial artery

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77
Q

The heart rate of a 24 hour old healthy foal is?

A

80-100

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78
Q

List two primary skin lesions.

A

A: Macule, Papule/plaque, Vesicle, Pustule, Urticaria Nodule,Tumor,Cyst

(Secondary: Alopecia ,Scaling ,Crusting ,Scar ,Erosion ,Ulcer ,Lichenification Fissure ,Hypo- / hyperpigmentation ,Necrosis )

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79
Q

Which one of the following lymph nodes can be palpated in any normal horse?

  • Superficial cervical
  • Parotid
  • Superficial inguinal
  • Lateral retropharyngeal
A

Superficial inguinal

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80
Q

List two lymph nodes which are palpable only when they are enlarged in adult horses.

A

A: Lateral retropharyngeal and Superficial cervical

( rectal palpation: Iliosacral and Mesenteric)

(always palpable- mandibular and Superficial inguinal)

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81
Q

Which cardiac murmur is physiological in horses?

A

Grade 3 early diastolic

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82
Q

Which part of the central nervous system is affected when a horse shows intention tremor?

A

Cerebellum

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83
Q

List two basic coat colours in horses.

A

A: bay, black, chestnut, white.

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84
Q

List the two unique characteristics pf the mandibular lymph node in horses.

A

A: Y-shaped, lobulated

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85
Q

What is the most important point to keep in mind, while you are placing a high bandage on the front limb?

a- The bandage should be fixed to the hoof

b- Protect the accessory carpal bone against pressure sore

c- Protect the proximal sesamoid bones against pressure sore d- The bandage should reach the level above the elbow joint

A

b- Protect the accessory carpal bone against pressure sore

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86
Q

Time dependent antimicrobials are:

A

A: beta-lactams and fluroquinolones (according to pharma fluro are concentration dependent but there is no other option)

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87
Q

When do you have to remove skin sutures following primary wound closure in a horse?

A

A: After 12-14 days postoperatively

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88
Q

Name the skin lesion visible in the image below.

A

Secondary skin lesion • Lichenification

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89
Q

Which Greek prefix is used to describe the longest cardiac murmur?

A

Holo/pan systolic

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90
Q

Which drug is suitable for raising mean arterial blood pressure (ABP) intraoperatively?

  • Dobutamine
  • Lidocaine
  • Guaiphenesin
  • Atropine
A

Dobutamine

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91
Q

What kind of fluid should be used for a joint lavage?

  • Sterile, isotonic infusion solution
  • Sterile, hypertonic infusion solution
  • Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
  • Sterile, hypertonic, 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
A

Sterile, isotonic infusion solution

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92
Q

What are the phases of wound healing in the correct order?

  • Acute inflammation, resorption, proliferation, remodelling
  • Resorption, acute inflammation, proliferation, remodelling
  • Resorption, acute inflammation, remodelling, proliferation
  • Acute inflammation, proliferation, resorption, remodelling
A

Acute inflammation, proliferation, resorption, remodelling

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93
Q

Which statement is true?

  • The prognosis is favourable in contused wounds for primary wound healing.
  • The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds.
  • The underlying tissue have minimal damage in most of the cases of contused wounds.
  • Anaerobe wound infection is rare in contused wounds.
A

The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

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94
Q

What is the normal percussion sound in the medium third of the abdomen on the right side?

A

Dulled tympanic

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95
Q

List 3 indications of abdominal ultrasonography in horses.

A
  • Colic => acute at least in hospital
  • Weight loss
  • Pyrexia
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96
Q

What is the anatomical location (i.e., side and intercostal space) of the point of maximum intensity of a cardiac murmur originating from the aortic valve?

A

Aortic valve – left 4th ICS below point of shoulder.

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97
Q

What is the physical cause of the 4th heart sound (S4) in horses?

A

Atrial contraction and sudden arrest of the distended ventricle.

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98
Q

Describe the normal percussion findings of the lungs in healthy adult horses.

A

Normal findings: strong/sharp, low, resonant, short.

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99
Q

List two non-musical adventitious respiratory sounds.

A

Clicking and rattling

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100
Q

List the three most important vital parameters (basic clinical values).

A
  • Rectal temperature
  • Pulse heart rate
  • Respiratory rate
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101
Q

List two basic coat colours in horses.

A

Black and bay

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Perfectly
102
Q

List the two unique characteristics of the mandibular lymph node in horses.

A

Y-shaped Lobulated, lentil to pea size lobules

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103
Q

List two primary skin lesions.

A

Macule and papule

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104
Q

Please list two main advantages of digital (direct) radiography over computed radiography?

A

Image seen in a few seconds Lower radiation dose

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105
Q

What is the meaning of urinary tenesmus?

A

Excessive straining during urination.

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106
Q

What is the anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a recumbent horse if it can raise its head and neck?

A

Caudal cervical region

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107
Q

What is the interval of isosthenuric urine specific gravity in horses?

A

1008-1014 g/l

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108
Q

List three ancillary diagnostic methods for the examination of the abdomen in adult horses.

A
  • Rectal palpation
  • Nasogastric intubation
  • Abdominocentesis
109
Q

List two reflexes for the examination of the trigeminal nerve in horses.

A

Palpebral reflex Corneal reflex

110
Q

Which kind of narcotic system is appropriate for equine anesthesia?

  • Closed circle
  • Pendulum-like
  • Open system
  • Semi-open system
A

Closed circle

111
Q

What is the normal range of ETCO2 measured by capnography?

  • <35mmHg
  • >45mmHg
  • 35-45 mmHg
  • 55-65 mmHg
A

35-45 mmHg

112
Q

How do we administer phenylbutazone as premedication in horse? - IM - IV - SC - CRI

113
Q

What is the most frequent used electrographic lead system in horses?

A

Base-apex lead Base-apex lead is the most common by Einthoven can also be used

114
Q

Describe the normal percussion findings of the lungs in healthy adult horses

A

Strong, sharp, low, resonant, short

115
Q

What is the most important point to keep in mind, while you are placing a high bandage on the front limb?

  • The bandage should be fixed to the hoof
  • Protect the accessory carpal bone against pressure sore
  • Protect the proximal sesamoid bones against pressure sore
  • The bandage should reach the level above the elbow joint
A

Protect the accessory carpal bone against pressure sore

116
Q

Time dependent antimicrobials are:

  • aminoglycosides
  • aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones
  • B-lactams and fluoroquinolones
  • B-lactams and macrolides
A

B-lactams and macrolides

117
Q

When do you have to remove skin sutures following primary wound closure in a horse?

  • After 7 days postoperatively
  • After 12-14 days postoperatively
  • After 21 days postoperatively
  • At the first bandage change
A

After 12-14 days postoperatively

118
Q

List the most important vital parameters (basic clinical values)

A
  • Heart rate: 28-42 bpm
  • Respiratory rate: 10-18 breaths per minute
  • Rectal temperature: 37-38 c
119
Q

List two lymph nodes which are always palpable in adult horses:

A
  1. Mandibular lymph node
  2. Superficial inguinal lymph node
120
Q

Please list two main advantages of digital (direct) radiopraphy over computed radiography!

A
  • Distal radiography
    • image seen in a few seconds on screen
    • No need to take casette to the reader
    • Lower radiation dose
    • Better quality images
121
Q

What is the anatomical location (i.e side and intercostal space) of the point of maximum intensity if a cardiac murmur originating from the aortic valve?

A

A: 4th intercostal space on the left side. (left P-3, A-4, M-5, right: T-4)

122
Q

What is the physical cause of the 4th heart sound (S4) in horses?

A

A: Atrial contraction & sudden arrest of distended ventricles

123
Q

Describe the normal percussion findings of the lungs in healthy adult horses.

A

A: strong, sharp, low, resonant, short
Intensity (strong, sharp / weak), Frequency (low / high), Tone (sonorous, resonant / dull), Duration (short / long) green- normal

124
Q

It is true for morphine administration:

  • Can last for 1-2 hrs after intramuscular injection
  • Can be given for epidural anaesthesia
  • More potent analgesic than fentanyl
  • After IV injection can cause hypertension
A

Can be given for epidural anaesthesia

125
Q

Please name the disease that results in radiological abnormalities seen in this image.

A

A: laminitis

126
Q

What is the meaning of urinary tenesmus?

A

A: excessive straining during urination

127
Q

What is the anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a recumbent horse if it can raise its head and neck?

A

A: lesion is in caudal cervical region.

128
Q

What is the interval of isosthenuric urine specific gravity in horses?

A

A: 1008-1014 g/L

129
Q

Which statement is true?

  • The carbonisation of proteins is typical in I. degree burning injury
  • Formation of bullae is typical in I. degree burning injuries
  • III. degree burning injury: combustio escharctica
  • Formation of bullae is typical in III. degree burning injuries
A

III. degree burning injury: combustio escharctica

130
Q

List three ancillary diagnostic methods for the examination of the abdomen in adult horses.

A
  1. Rectal palpation ,
  2. Nasogastric intubation ,
  3. Abdominocentesis ,
  4. Endoscopy ,
  5. Radiography ,
  6. Ultrasonography ,
  7. Laparoscopy ,
  8. Laparotomy ,
  9. CT (foals)
131
Q

Which radiographic view (projection) of which structures can you see on this image?

A

A: Palmaroproximal-palmarodistal oblique

132
Q

Which statement is true?

  • It is preferable to suture the edges of bite wounds
  • The bite wounds are healing by primary intention in general
  • Both of them are true
  • None of them is true
A

None of them is true

133
Q

What Vitamin-A does help in wound healing?

  • Epithelization
  • Collagen synthesis
  • Both of them are true
  • None of them are true
A

Both of them are true

134
Q

What is the most frequently used electrocardiographic lead system in horses?

A

A: Base-apex lead

135
Q

It can be an indication for atipamezole administration:

  • If the foal remains recumbent for too long after sedation
  • If the cattle becomes recumbent after sedation
  • At recovery after TIVA
  • In all three cases above
A

If the foal remains recumbent for too long after sedation

136
Q

Please name the abnormality shown in this radiograph.

A

A: Sequestrum

137
Q

What are the phases of wound healing in the correct order ?

a- Acute inflammation, resorption, proliferation, remodeling

b- Resorption, acute inflammation, proliferation, remodeling

c- Resorption, acute inflammation, remodeling, proliferation

d- Acute inflammation, proliferation, resorption, remodeling

A

d- Acute inflammation, proliferation, resorption, remodeling

138
Q

Which statement is true ?
a- The prognosis is favorable in contused wounds for primary wound healing
b- The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
c- The underlying tissues have minimal damage in most of the cases of continued wounds d- Anaerobe wound infection is rare in contused wounds

A

b- The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

139
Q

What is the location of the mitral valve in a normal horse?

A

A: left 5th intercostal space.

140
Q

What is the most unlikely complication of general aneathesia in adult horses:

  • Hypotension
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypothermia
  • Bradypnoe
A

Hypothermia

141
Q

In the normal ECG, P-wave is followed by:

A

A: QRS- complex (→it’s rather a “RS”complex than a QRS complex. Both terminology are used)

142
Q

Which animal species has absolute cardiac dullness?

A

A: horse (= heart directly in contact with thorax wall)

143
Q

How many cardiac sounds can be heard in a healthy adult horse, at a heart rate of 44 beats/minutes?

A

A: 2 (4 in low heart beat, 2 in fast heartbeat, normal HB range: 28-42 BPM)

144
Q

What is the cause of the fourth cardiac sound (S4) in a normal adult horse?

A. Ventricular contraction

B. Closing of the semilunar valves

C. Rapid ventricular filling

D. Atrial contraction

A

D. Atrial contraction

145
Q

It is not true for V/Q mismatch during anaesthesia:

  • Can not be improved by PEEP
  • Can be caused by airway obstruction
  • Saturation is < 90% mostly
  • Arterial blood gas values deteriorate
A

Can not be improved by PEEP

146
Q

Mortality is rising when anesthetizing a newborn foal, because:

  • The anesthesiologist has little experience of this type of patient
  • Patient’s ionic disorder is common
  • Hypoglycemia is common
  • All above listed
A

Hypoglycemia is common

147
Q

If the plane of general anesthesia is superficial, then …

  • The eyeball rotates rostromedial
  • The corneal reflex is absent
  • The muscles of the jaw are tight
  • The pupil does not respond to light
A

The muscles of the jaw are tight

148
Q

What is the location of the mitral valve in normal horse ?

A. Left 3rd intercostal space

B. Left 4th intercostal space

C. Left 5th intercostal space

D. Left 6th intercostal space

A

C. Left 5th intercostal space

149
Q

The mean arterial pressure is

  • (systolic pressure + 2x diastolic pressure) / 3
  • (2x systolic pressure + diastolic pressure) / 2
  • (2x systolic pressure + diastolic pressure) / 3
  • (systolic pressure + 2x diastolic pressure) / 2
A

(systolic pressure + 2x diastolic pressure) / 3

150
Q

In a normal ECG, P-wave is followed by :

a- T-wave

b- R-wave

c- QRS-complex

d- S-wave

A

c- QRS-complex

151
Q

Which of the following has no analgesic effect

  • ketamine
  • acepromazine
  • medetomidine
  • morphine
A

Acepromazine

152
Q

Which animal species has absolute cardiac dullness ?

a- Horse

b- Goat

c- Swine

d- Sheep

153
Q

Fibroblasts are present during the wound healing from

  • 24-26 hours
  • 2-3 days
  • 4-5 days
  • 10th day
154
Q

How many cardiac sounds can be heard in a healthy adult horse, at a heart rate of 44 beats/minute ?

a- 1

b- 2

c- 3

d- 4

A

b- 2 (→ <35/min = 4 cardiac sound heard, 35-80 = 2 cardiac sound, 80-100 = 3 cardiac sound)

155
Q

Name 5 types of wounds :

A
  1. Puncture,
  2. Ulcers,
  3. Skin teers,
  4. Contusion,
  5. Laceration,
  6. Avulsion, etc
156
Q

The aim of PIVA:

  • To reduce cardiovascular depression under GA
  • To improve intraoperative analgesia
  • To improve recovery
  • All three above mentioned
A

All three above mentioned

157
Q

Definition and symptoms of hypovolemic shock :

A

Hypovolemic shock , also known as hemorrhagic shock, is a life-threatening condition that result when the horse loses more than 20% (1/5) of it’s body’s blood or fluid supply. This severe fluid loss makes it impossible for the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood to the body. Hypovolemic shock can lead to organ failure.

  • *Mild symptoms** : Headache, fatigue, nausea, sweating, dizziness
  • *Severe symptoms :** Cold skin, pale skin, rapid/shallow breathing, rapid heart rate, little or no cardiac output, confusion, weakness, weak pulse, blue lips and nails, loss of consciousness, lightheadedness.
158
Q

When anaesthetizing a horse with HYPP (hyperkalemic periodic paralysis), it is the most important to prevent:

  • Hyperthermia
  • Myopathy
  • Ventricular fibrillation
  • Hyponatremia
A

Hyperthermia

160
Q

Which is a great advantage of CT over MRI?

  • It provides more information about function
  • Shorter acquisition time
  • Less ionising radiation
  • Avoids the risk of being exposed to magnetic fields
A

It provides more information about funtion

161
Q

Which describes the correct orientation of the skyline view of the navicular bone?

  • Palmaroproximal-palmarodistal oblique view
  • Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view
  • Dorsodistal-palmaroproximal oblique view
  • Dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique view
A

Palmaroproximal-palmarodistal oblique view

162
Q

What is the amount of contrast material (iohexol) used for myelography (adult, 500kg horse)?

  • 10-20 ml
  • 20-30 ml
  • 40-50 ml
  • 80-100 ml
163
Q

How many intercostal space does a horse have ?

164
Q

Which material absorbs the most radiation?

  • bone
  • metal
  • soft
  • Tissues air
165
Q

What is normal spontaneous coughing of horse ?

A
  • Healthy horse doesn’t cough spontaneously,
  • cough stimulation is difficult, hardly can be done.
  • Stimulated coughing is
    • intensive,
    • sharp,
    • high,
    • short,
    • dry,
    • painless,
    • snapping,
    • does not reoccur.
166
Q

What is not used for examining lungs

  • Ultrasound,
  • X-ray,
  • Endoscopy,
  • Scintigraphy ?
A

Scintigraphy

167
Q

Which region can be imaged with standing magnetic resonance imaging?

  • The proximal metacarpal region
  • The elbow
  • The neck
  • The stifle
A

The proximal metacarpal region

168
Q

Which is not used for examining paranasal sinuses

  • Auscultation,
  • Vision,
  • Percussion,
  • Palpation ?
A

Auscultation

169
Q

Which intercostal space is caudal lung border at the tuber coxae in horse ?

170
Q

What is the normal percussion sound in horse ?

A

Sharp/strong, low, sonorous/resonant, short

171
Q

What is the caudal lung border at shoulder level of horse ?

A

10th ICS usually

172
Q

Air is the most commonly used medium for positive contrast studies

  • Yes
  • No
  • Only for the navicular bursa
  • Negative contrast studies are performed more often in horses.
173
Q

What is adventitious sound in musical respiratory sound ?

174
Q

What is true ?

Horses couch spontaneously or not

A

Horses do not cough spontaneously

175
Q

Which of the following steps helps to reduce the amount of scattered radiation?

  • Collimation
  • Placing the generator further away from the horse
  • Increasing film-focus distance
  • Wearing lead glasses
A

Collimation

176
Q

What examination cannot be used for sinuses ?

A

Auscultation

177
Q

What lab test is done if bone illness is suspected in horse ?

A
  • Cytology,
  • Histopathology,
  • Microbiology,
  • Ca++,
  • Vit. D,
  • PTH,
  • kidney function,
  • ALKP,
  • Complete blood count,
  • Inflammatory mediators
178
Q

What is the ALARA principle applied to?

  • Magnetic fields
  • Ultrasound
  • Laser light emission
  • Ionising radiation
A

Ionising radiation

179
Q

How is the induced cough in horse ?

A

Healthy horse doesn’t cough spontaneously, cough stimulation is difficult, hardly can be done. Stimulated coughing is intensive, sharp, high, short, dry, painless, snapping, does not reoccur.

180
Q

MCQ : What is true about the horse ?

a- Long soft palate

b- Long epiglottis

c- Acute angle of esophagus into stomach

d- Left colon attached

e- Right colon attached

f- Stomach touch wall

g- Stomach does not touch wall

h- Right colon is free

i- Left colon is free

A

a- Long soft palate

c- Acute angle of esophagus into stomach

e- Right colon attached

g- Stomach does not touch wall

181
Q

In which direction should the Xray beam tilted for a caudocranial view of the stifle?

  • Slightly proximal to distal
  • Slightly distal to proximal
  • Horizontal beam should be used
  • Vertical beam should be used
A

Slightly proximal to distal

182
Q

Where to measure pulse in horses ?

A

3 main sites :

  1. Facial artery (in incisura vasorum facialium),
  2. Transverse facial artery (Rostrally to facial crests) and at the 4th quantum of the eye (= lateral point of the eye).
  3. Last option : at distal cannon/Fetlock level on each sides of the fetlock joint.
183
Q

Which of the following regions is accessible for standing radiographic examination in an adult horse?

  • The sacroiliac joint
  • The lumbosacral joint
  • The caudal thoracic articular process joints??
  • The ilial wing
A

The caudal thoracic articular process joints??

184
Q

What is special about the GIT in a horse ?

a- Small intestines are not fixed

b- Colon is fixed

c- Sharp angle at the cardia

d- Long epiglottis

A

c- Sharp angle at the cardia

185
Q

What causes enlarged p wave in horse ECG ? What is it called ? Symptom of ataxia in horse :

A

Symptoms of ataxia : CNS origin (not peripheral!!) causing incoordination without muscle weakness (sway, wobble, stumble movements/gaits), up to recumbency

186
Q

The minimum time required for an osteophyte to become visible on a radiograph - 1 week - 2 weeks - 3 weeks - 4 weeks

187
Q

Where does the nasal discharge come out when it is originated from the guttural pouch ?

a- Unilaterally, ex : from the left guttural pouch, discharge will come out in/from the left nostril. (Same for right side)

b- Bilaterally

c- The discharge of one side’s guttural pouch will come out form the opposite/other side’s nostril.

A

a- Unilaterally, ex : from the left guttural pouch, discharge will come out in/from the left nostril. (Same for right side)

188
Q

Thoracic x-ray is suitable for :

a- Foal

b- Foal and pony and miniature horse

c- Foal with contrast

d- Large horse

A

b- Foal and pony and miniature horse

189
Q

What’s the result in case of guttural pouch inflammation?

A

Nasal discharge in both (nostril) sides (if both guttural pouch inflamed, if only one→discharge will be unilateral, I think)

190
Q

Which one of the following statements is true about thoracic auscultation in horses?

  • Rattling is a musical adventitious respiratory sound.
  • Basic respiratory noises are harsh in normal horses due to the large lung capacity.
  • Auscultation over the lung should be performed in every 4 to 5 intercostal spaces.
  • In cases of dyspnoe, basic respiratory noises are increased in intensity.
A

In cases of dyspnoe, basic respiratory noises are increased in intensity.

191
Q

Lung borders in the horse :

A

16th ICS (tuber coxae),14th (tuber ischiadicum),10th (shoulder), 7th (elbow)

192
Q

What is a possible cause of completely missing lung sounds (basic respiratory noises) during thoracic auscultation?

  • Decreased airflow.
  • Pleural effusion.
  • Superficial breathing.
  • Respiratory distress.
A

Pleural effusion

192
Q

Which one of the followings is a feature of the thoracic percussion sound in normal horses? - Dull - High - Tympanic - Short

A

Short

(Strong, Sharp, Short, ressonant, low)

193
Q

which one of the following blood parameters is most specific to detect cardiac muscle injury in horses?

  • LDH2
  • CK-MB
  • Troponin I
  • AST
A

Troponin I

194
Q

What are the percussion sounds of thorax in a healthy horse ?

A

Sharp, low, sonorous, short

195
Q

What is the slap test in the horse?

A

Hit the withers from one side and palpate larynx on the other side, the horse swallows (N. Vagus recurrens involved), repeat from reverse side for both.

196
Q

What can NOT be palpated in the rectal exam of a healthy horse?

A

Right kidney

197
Q

What does stuporous mental status mean?

  • Quiet, unwilling to perform normally, but responsive to environmental stimuli.
  • Responsive to environmental stimuli, but responses are not clearly directed to the stimuli.
  • Unresponsive to environmental stimuli, but responsive to painful sensation.
  • Unresponsive to either environmental or painful stimuli.
A

Unresponsive to environmental stimuli, but responsive to painful sensation.

198
Q

Which one of the following neurological signs can be seen in horses with vestibular lesions?

  • Head tilt.
  • Deviation of the head toward the side of the lesion.
  • Intention tremor.
  • Opisthotonus.
199
Q

How to clinically examine bone?

A

? (Like painfulness, swelling etc. Think the right answer was the one with crepitation in it)

200
Q

Which salivary gland is most accessible for physical examination in horses?

  • Mandibular.
  • Parotid.
  • Sublingual.
  • Buccal.
201
Q

What is false about the physical exam of kidneys?

  • Right kidneys are usually not palpable in horses
  • Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats
  • Decreased kidney size is always associated with chronic renal disease in dogs
  • Painful kidneys might indicate acute disease, renal stones, or tumor
A

Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats???

202
Q

Picture of a horse with altered lung borders- what could be the reason?

A

For all these questions the answer was COPD (so I guess they’re using the same pic all over again)

203
Q

Which species has physiological palpable ovarian glands ?

a- horse,

b- cattle,

c- dog,

d- cat,

e- sheep,

f- goat

A

a- horse,

b- cattle,

204
Q

Which one of the followings is a primary skin lesion?

  • Scar.
  • Fissure.
  • Ulcer.
  • Tumour.
205
Q

Respiratory sounds over abdomen :

A. higher in dog than horse,

B. higher in horse than dog,

C. “h” sound,

D. bronchial in dog,

E. bronchial in horse

A

A. higher in dog than horse,

D. bronchial in dog,

206
Q

Which one of the following coat colours is a basic colour?

  • Gray
  • Dun
  • Bay
  • Piebald.
207
Q

How many scores are in the most commonly used body condition scoring system of adult horses? - 4 - 5 - 9 - 10

208
Q

MPQ. In which species can you feel the heart on the right side?

A. cat,

B. dog,

C. horse,

D. cattle,

E. rabbit,

F. goat,

G. sheep

A

A. cat,

B. dog,

C. horse,

E. rabbit,

209
Q

Percussion of hemithorax? absolute/relative dullness in which animals?

A

Absolute dullness in dog+ horse.
Relative dullness in cattle, sheep, goat, swine

210
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?

  • Normal equine stomach reaches the left abdominal wall only.
  • This is one of the reasons why horses cannot vomit.
  • The equine large colon is only fixed on the right side of the abdomen.
  • Equine small intestinal mesentery is short, therefore colic diseases involving the mesentery rarely develop.
  • Equine soft palate is short. This is one of the reasons why horses cannot vomit.
A

Equine small intestinal mesentery is short, therefore colic diseases involving the mesentery rarely develop

211
Q

What is the respiratory rate in a 12-hour-old normal foal?

  • 10-20 breaths per minute.
  • 20-30 breaths per minute.
  • 30-40 breaths per minute.
  • 40-50 breaths per minute.
A

30-40 breaths per minute.

212
Q

In which species can the uterus be palpated physiologically?

A

horse, cattle

213
Q

Name the structures/bones in the following pics :

A

A- Humerus

B- Radius

C- Lateral Splint bone (or MC4)

D- Tibia

E- Proximal phalanx (or P1 or Long pastern

214
Q

What is the normal percussion sound of the dorsal third of the abdomen on the left side?

  • Dull.
  • Dulled.
  • Dulled tympanic.
  • Tympanic.
A

Dulled tympanic

215
Q

What anatomical structure does divide the guttural pouch?

  • Stylohyoid bone.
  • Tympanic Hyoid bone.
  • Ceratohyoid bone.
  • Thyrohyoid bone.
A

Stylohyoid bone

216
Q

Caudal lung border in a healthy horse ?

A

At the level of the tuber coxae in the 16th ICS.

217
Q

Which method is not suitable for the examination of the paranasal sinuses ?

A

Auscultation

218
Q

Which statement is true ?

a- The breathing type of the ruminants and carnivores is costoabdominal.

b- The breathing type of the horses is costoabdominal

c- Taking respiratory rate does not belong to the basic clinical values

d- The respiratory rates of younger animals are the same as for adults

A

b- The breathing type of the horses is costoabdominal

219
Q

In case of pulmonary oedema ?

a- Water like serous discharge coming out from the nostrils

b- Foamy pinkish, occasionally reddish content coming out from the nostrils

c- Lumpy white content coming out from the nostrils

d- Thick purulent putrid content coming out from the nostrils

A

b- Foamy pinkish, occasionally reddish content coming out from the nostrils

220
Q

Name the structures below :

A

A- Mc bone

B- Proximal phalanx

C- Proximal sesamoid bone

D- Proximal sesamoid bone

E- Fetlock joint

F- Middle phalynx

G- Distal phalynx

H- Pastern joint

I- Coffin joint

J- Distal sesamoid bone

221
Q

What is the pulse rate in a normal foal at birth?

  • 40-60 beats per minute.
  • 60-80 beats per minute.
  • 80-100 beats per minute.
  • 100-120 beats per minute
A

60-80 beats per minute

222
Q

Name the following structures :

A

A- Tibia

B- Tuber Calcanei

C- Central tarsal bone

D- 3rd tarsal bone

E- 4th tarsal bone

F- Mt3 bone

G- Mt4 bone (or splint bone)

1- Trochlea Tali ? or Simply Talus bone ?

2- Intermediate ridge of tibia ?

6- Tibial cochlea ?

223
Q

Name the structures below :

(Answers directly on pic)

224
Q

Name the structures below :

A

A. Patella

B. Lateral collateral ligament

C. Cranial cruciate ligament

D. Lateral meniscus

E. Fibula (head/caput + neck/collum)

F. Tibial crest/Crista tibialis

G. Medial collateral ligament

H. Medial meniscus

I. Caudal cruciate ligament

J. Patellar groove/sulcus ?

225
Q

See the pic below to answer the questions :

A

Fig. 1 :

Which anatomical structure does the yellow arrow point at

o Accessory carpal bone

Fig 2 : Name the following muscles

o A : M.Gastrocnemius
o B : M.Fexor digitalis superficialis (SDF)

o C : M.Flexor digitalis profundus (DDF)

Fig. : 3 : Which synovial structure can be involved in a septic process on Fig. 3 ?

o Bursa subcutanea calcanea or Bursa Subtendinea calcanea

226
Q

Describe the cardiac parameters of murmur :

227
Q

Which spp has an apical heart beat ?

A

Dog, cat, horse, bovine, swine ?

228
Q

Which conformational abnormality viewed from the front ?

a- Normal conformation

b- Vase wide

c- Base narrow

d- Carpus valgus

e- Calf knee

A

b- Vase wide

229
Q

Which conformational abnormality viewed from the front ?

a- Normal conformation

b- Base wide

c- Base narrow

d- Carpus valgus

e- Calf knee

A

e- Calf knee

230
Q

Which conformational abnormality viewed from lateral ?

a- Normal conformation

b- Camped under

c- Calf knee

d- Bucked knee

e- Camped out

A

b- Camped under

231
Q

Palpable lesions on the foot :

a- Coffin joint effusion

b- P3 fracture

c- Bone oedema

A

a- Coffin joint effusion

232
Q

Which tendon cannot be palpated in the metacarpal region ?

a- Lig. Sesamoideum rectum

b- Deep digital flexor tendon

c- M. interosseus medius

A

b- Deep digital flexor tendon

233
Q

Which conformational abnormality is not visible from lateral perspective ?

a- Broken foot axis

b- Base-marrow

c- Club foot

A

c- Club foot→Not sure (cause club-foot patterns are lung pathological x-ray patterns)

234
Q

Which conformational abnormality is not visible from frontal perspective ?

a- Carpus valgus

b- Base-wide

c- Broken hoof axis

A

c- Broken hoof axis

235
Q

What conformational abnormality is seen on the photo below ?

236
Q

Which cardiac murmur is physiological in horses ?

a- There is no physiological murmur in horses

b- Grade 2, pandiastolic murmur

c- Grade 3, holosystolic murmur

d- Grade 3, early diastolic murmur

A

d- Grade 3, early diastolic murmur

237
Q

Which method is not suitable for the examination of the heart ?

a- Inspection

b- Palpation

c- Ultrasonography

d- Endoscopy

A

d- Endoscopy

238
Q

How many cardiac sounds can be heard in a normal horse ?

A. Always 2

B. Always 3

C. Often 2, sometimes 4

D. Always 4

A

C. Often 2, sometimes 4

239
Q

What is the cause of the fourth cardiac sound (S4) ?

A. Atrial contraction

B. Opening of the semilunar valves

C. Rapid ventricular filling

D. Closure of the atrioventricular valves

A

A. Atrial contraction

240
Q

What is the ocation of the aortic valve in a normal horse ?

A. Left 3rd intercostal space

B. Left 4th ICS

C. Left 5th ICS

D. Left 6th ICS

A

B. Left 4th ICS

241
Q

At abdominal Ultrasonography exam, stomach is :

a- Right side visible in 10-15th ICS

b- Left side visible in 10-15th ICS

c- Reaches ventral abdominal wall

d- Can’t be visualized

A

b- Left side visible in 10-15th ICS

242
Q

At rectal exam you can not palpate :

a- Left kidney

b- Ventral part of the caecum

c- Right kidney

d- Spleen

A

c- Right kidney

243
Q

Not used for exam of esophagus :

a- US

b- Palpation

c- Feeding test

d- Percussion

A

d- Percussion

244
Q

Not use for examination of the liver :

a- Biopsy

b- US

c- Biochem

d- Palpation

A

d- Palpation

245
Q

The fluid at abdominocentesis can be :

a- Transudate

b- Exudate

c- Both

246
Q

What kind of system is good to put horse to sleep ?

247
Q

What is the average size of the respiratory volume of an adult 500 kg horse ?

248
Q

What’s the minimum oxygen level required during anesthesia ?

249
Q

How to monitor the circulation during anesthesia

250
Q

What does the capnograph measure ?

A

Concentration or partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the respiratory gases.

251
Q

The following what diagnostic method was the radiograph taken? (Long arrow) and what is indicated by the short arrow?

A

Long arrow, contrast, radiography,

Short arrow, 1st carpal bone

252
Q

Please name the radiological abnormality indicated by the arrow. Please specify its location.

A

Periarticular osteophyte (osteoarthritis) on the dorsal aspect of the distal end of the short pastern bone (P2)

253
Q

Describe the abnormal color of the oral mucosa visible in the image below

A

Colitis, dirty red color

254
Q

Please name the abnormalities shown in this radiograph

A

Sequestration

255
Q

Which radiographic projection is shown on this image

256
Q

Name the artifact marked with asterisks in the image below. The Ultra sonogram was obtained from the right 10th ICS at the level of the shoulder joint

A

Reverberation artifact

257
Q

List the names of the paranasal sinuses marked with an asterisk in the image below

A

Rostral maxillary sinus and frontal sinus

261
Q

A. sinus rhythm,

B. Ventricular Premature complex,

C. second degree or atrial ventricular block,

D. atrial perimeter complex

A

D. atrial perimeter complex

262
Q

A. PhonoCardiography

B. Electrocardiography

C. EchoCardiography

D. Kinetic Cardiography

A

A. PhonoCardiography

263
Q

A. Achilles Tendon

B. M.Peroneus Tertius

C. M. Tibialis Cranialis

D. M. Extensor dig. Longus

A

B. M.Peroneus Tertius

264
Q

Picture of a horse with

265
Q

What are the Grades of SALTER Harris

A
  • SH-I = Complete separation between epiphysis and metaphysis
  • SH-II = Fractures starts in the metaphases
  • SH-III = Intra articular fracture of Epiphysis only
  • SH-IV = Intra articular fracture of Ephesus and metaphysics
  • SH-V = just pain
266
Q
  • Dist check lig. desmotomy
  • Prox check lig. desmotomy
  • Deep dig. flex. Tend desmotomy
  • Lig. Ses. Rectum desmotomy
A

Dist check lig. desmotomy

267
Q
  • Navicular bone palmaro proximal - Palmaro distal oblique view navicular disease skyline view
  • Navicular bone dorsal proximal palmaro distal oblique view navicular disease
  • Navicular bone dorsal proximal palmaro distal oblique view septic osteoarthritis
  • Navicular bone palmaro proximal palmaro distal oblique view OCD
A

Navicular bone palmaro proximal - Palmaro distal oblique view navicular disease skyline view

EQUINE I (1 decks)

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