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Path past papers and BB quizzes > Past papers + BB quizzes > Flashcards

Past papers + BB quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Paul Bunnel test - shows heterophilic antibodies

A

Glandular fever

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2
Q

Rash of dermatomal distribution

A

Shingles

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3
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

HHV8

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4
Q

Exanthem subitum

A

HHV6

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5
Q

Acute necrotising encephalitis

A

HSV1

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6
Q

Pale rigid lesions on the side of the tongue

A

hairy leukoplakia - tx is aciclovir

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7
Q

Naturally occurring cytokine that is able to inhibit HIV fusion to cd4+ t lymphocytes?

A

MIP-1alpha

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8
Q

Nucleoside analogue able to inhibit reverse transcriptase

A

zidovudine

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9
Q

drug delivered by inhalation able to treat both influenza A and B

A

zanamivir

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10
Q

Tx of severe, treatment resistant herpes

A

Interferon

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11
Q

CMV tx

A

Ganciclovir

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12
Q

Pneumonitis after a bone marrow transplant

A

CMV

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13
Q

HIV monitoring?

A

viral load PCR

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14
Q

Primary stomatitis cause?

A

HSV 1

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15
Q

Viral protein responsible for binding HIV to CD4

A

gp120

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16
Q

cardinal features of this disease - muscle spasms and rigidity

A

Tetanus

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17
Q

Tx of gram -ve anaerobes

A

metronidazole

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18
Q

Tx of VRE (vancomycin resistant enterococci)

A

Linezolid

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19
Q

Severe systemic infection before the cause has been identified

A

cefuroxime

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20
Q

Long-term prophylactic in post splenectomy patients

A

penicillin V

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21
Q

Mesenteric adenitis and necrotising granulomas

A

Yersinia

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22
Q

Rice eating and diarrhoea

A

Bacillus cereus

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23
Q

Rice water stool

A

Cholera

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24
Q

Diarrhoea and stools contain numerous cysts

A

Giardiasis

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25
Q

Nausea, vomiting, non bloody diarrhoea that resolved 3 days later

A

Salmonella

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26
Q

Desending paralysis after eating canned food

A

Clostridium botulinum

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27
Q

toxin-mediated organism that does not damage or invade gastrointestinal epithelium

A

Cholera

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28
Q

GI infection - family’s main source of water is the river

A

Cryptospordium parvum

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29
Q

Bitten by rat. 10 days later he complains of fever, malaise, headache and myalgia

A

Spirillum minus

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30
Q

Cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

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31
Q

A zoonosis associated with hepatitis, jaundice, conjunctival infection and renal impairment. Transmission by direct contact with the urine or tissues of infected animal

A

Leptospirosis

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32
Q

Raised, erythematous rash with clearing in the centre or dim centre

A

Lyme disease - erythema chronicum migrans

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33
Q

Jaundice and conjunctival haemorrhages

A

Leptospira interrogans

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34
Q

Castenada’s medium - gram negative coccobacilli

A

Brucella melitensis

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35
Q

ulcer - centra is black and necrotic. Painless round black lesions with rim of oedema

A

Anthrax - `bacillus anthracis

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36
Q

Arm pain, dysphagia, hypersalivation, agitation, generalised muscle twiching, confusion

A

Rabies (encephalitis)

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37
Q

Most common cause of nappy rash fungus?

A

Candida albicans

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38
Q

itchy, scaly rash on the soles of the feet. Fugus

A

Trichophytum rubrum

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39
Q

Fungus causing hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Aspergillus flavus

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40
Q

Hypopigmentation on the trunk. Woods lamp produces yellow fluorescence. Fungus?

A

Pityrosporum orbiculare

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41
Q

itchy sensation between the toes

A

Tinea pedis

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42
Q

itchy vaginal discharge most likely diagnosis?

A

Candidiasis

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43
Q

cavitating lesion on CXR

A

Aspergillosis

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44
Q

Loves pigeon racing has enlarged lymph node in the neck

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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45
Q

Malaise, migratory erythematous rash, arthralgia, more forgetful recently

A

Lyme disease

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46
Q

Painful and swollen limb after having an accident on the limb (e.g. fracture)

A

Staphylococcal osteomyelitis

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47
Q

History of TB now has trouble with posture and movement

A

Pott’s disease

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48
Q

Abscess associated with chronic osteomyelitis

A

Brodie’s abscess

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49
Q

Infection of surgical site

A

Staph Aureus and coagulase -ve staph

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50
Q

Difficulty opening mouth, eyes drooped down, rigid abdomen, angles of mouth stretched outwards

A

Tetanus. Tx is IV tetanus antitoxin

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51
Q

High temp in someone in contact with animals

A

Brucellosis

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52
Q

Jaundice, fever, hepatomegaly in someone with past history of HBV

A

HDV - Hepatitis delta virus

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53
Q

MRI of brain shows ring enhancing lesion

A

cerebral abscess

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54
Q

Woman forgetful. Doesnt speak properly. Ataxia and sudden spasms of muscles. EEG shows periodic sharp waves

A

CJD prion disease

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55
Q

causes cavitating pneumonia and associated with functional or anatomical abnormalities of the renal tract

A

Klebsiella

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56
Q

Commonest cause of UTI in catheterised men

A

E coli

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57
Q

2nd commonest cause of UTI in women

A

Staph saprophyticus

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58
Q

Causes haemorrhagic cystitis in children

A

Adenovirus

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59
Q

Tx of acute pyelonephritis

A

Cipro

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60
Q

Tx of pseudomonas in CF

A

ceftazidime

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61
Q

UTI features in someone with negative culture, maybe HIV +ve

A

Renal TB

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62
Q

Sigmoidoscoy shows white plaques on the mucosal surface

A

C diff

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63
Q

Procedure of Abx prophylaxis in surgeries

A

Cef and Met 0-2 hours before no longer than 24 hours after surgery

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64
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, swollen eyelids

A

Chagas disease

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65
Q

Ulcer in the mouth. Also had ulcer in arm 1 year ago

A

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

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66
Q

Fever, dizziness, persistent cough. Splenomegaly and rough, dry skin. Dark patches on the hands. Pancytopenia

A

Leishmania donovani

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67
Q

Fever, malaise, weight loss. Hepatosplenomegaly and neck stiffness. CXR shows small, nodular opacities.

A

Miliary tb

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68
Q

Infant with swollen eyelids. Discharge

A

Chalmydial conjunctivitis in the neoborn

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69
Q

Intra-cranial calcification

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

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70
Q

Newly born with microphthalmia, deafness, hepatosplenomegaly, rash

A

Congenital rubella syndrome

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71
Q

HepB virus

A

dsDNA virus

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72
Q

distate for cigarettes

A

HepA

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73
Q

liver problems associated with polycythaemia

A

Budd Chiari syndrome

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74
Q

Low serum copper and low caeruplasmin

A

Wilsons - serrum copper initially low and then becomes high?

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75
Q

Hyperkalaemia in someone with mechanical heart valves

A

Haemolysis

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76
Q

Urinary sodium < 20 =

A

Hypovolaemia

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77
Q

CT shows atrophy of the adrenal glands

A

Cushings?

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78
Q

Progressive tanning of the skin after having an adrenelectomy for Cushing’s

A

Nelson’s syndrome - patient develops macroadenomas secreting ACTH. Pigmentation, visual disturbances, headaches, high ACTH

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79
Q

Increased levels in the urine of people with CAH

A

Pregnanetriol

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80
Q

CYP21 deficiency = congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Hyponatraemia with hyperkalaemia

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81
Q

Lump in throat moves up with swallowing with thyroid symotoms

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

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82
Q

Dark patches on back of hands with high serum cholesterol

A

Familial hypercholesterolaemia

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83
Q

Haemoptysis and haematuria

A

Goodpastures

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84
Q

Associated with Von Hippel Lindau

A

Renal Cell Ca

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85
Q

Well-circumscribed metastasis in the lungs secondary to renal cell ca, choriocarcinom, prostate cancer

A

Cannonball metastasis

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86
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia, no hypercalcaemia, no glycosuria on urine dip. Fluid deprivation test 400-600 urine osmolarity

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

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87
Q

Varies with posture when sample is taken

A

Albumin and renin

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88
Q

Varies with race and exercise

A

Creatinine kinase

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89
Q

Varies with time of sampling

A

Cortisol

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90
Q

Genital atrophy + hypokalaemia

A

Use of corticosteroids

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91
Q

Dark brown urine + proliferation of the mesangium

A

IgA nephropathy

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92
Q

Gold standard of measuring GFR

A

Inulin

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93
Q

Staging and monitoring treatment of extracapsular spread of prostatic carcinoma

A

Acid phosphatase

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94
Q

Loin to groin pain

A

Renal stones

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95
Q

Raised levels of this in sarcoidosis?

A

ACE

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96
Q

Useful marker of reinfarction MI?

A

CK MB

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97
Q

Following chemotherapy which enzyme would you expect to be elevated?

A

LDH

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98
Q

T1D antibody

A

anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase

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99
Q

liver enzyme raised after MI

A

AST

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100
Q

Test of the extrinsic pathway

A

PT

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101
Q

Antibody in macrocytic anaemia

A

Anti gastric parietal cell antibody

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102
Q

Spherocytosis test

A

Osmotic fragility

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103
Q

Vitamin deficiency someone with waddling gait

A

Vit D

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104
Q

Deficiency of —— in someone very thing but distended abdomen

A

Protein

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105
Q

Fabry’s disease - an x linked disorder of glycolipid metabolism due to deficiency of what?

A

Galctosidase A

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106
Q

SCID deficiency?

A

Adenosine deaminase

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107
Q

McArdle’s glycogen storage disease causes stiffness following exercise deficiency of?

A

Mycophosphorylase

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108
Q

Recommended therapy used in an attack of acute

intermittent porphyria

A

Haem arginate

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109
Q

drug that is contraindicated in

patients with porphyria

A

Diclofenac (NSAID) and Co-trimoxazole

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110
Q

Drug that can result in chronic porphyria

A

Alcohol

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111
Q

An 8 year old boy, showing signs of slow development,
presents with a painful right knee which on examination
was hot and swollen. Scratch marks on his face were
also observed. An aspiration of the synovial fluid from
the joint revealed crystals which were negatively
birefringent.

A

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome

112
Q

What is the major antagonist of serine

proteases at a site of injury?

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

113
Q

A 60 year old male presents to his GP with
symptoms of tiredness, dizziness and loss of
vision. He has lymphadenopathy and
splenomegaly. Serum electrophoresis shows
an IgM spike.

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia

114
Q

A 3-day-old baby presents with jaundice and has
raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin. During
examination, he is found to be irritable and has
increased muscle tone and lies with an arched
back (opisthotonus)

A

Kernicterus

115
Q

The molecule that is formed by the gut after a meal
and is the main carrier of dietary triglycerides. This molecule is present in the fasting state in cases
of lipoprotein lipase deficiency.

A

Chylomicron

116
Q

A 3-week-old male is seen by a paediatrician
because of severe jaundice that appeared at birth
and has been worsening ever since.

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

117
Q

A young boy presents to his GP with jaundice. He is
also found to have haemoglobinuria, splenomegaly
and anaemia. His mother reveals that he was
jaundiced at birth and needed a blood transfusion.

A

G6PD deficiency

118
Q

A post mortem diagnosis of an inborn error of
metabolism is investigated in a case of “sudden infant
death”. What deficiency is the most likely cause?

A

Medium chain acyl coA dehydrogenase

119
Q

A neonate with a history of feeding difficulties
presents with jaundice, cataracts and sepsis. What
deficiency is the most likely cause?

A

Galactase-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

120
Q

DM values

A

Fasting > 7, Random > 11.1, OGTT > 11.1

121
Q

Impaired glucose tolerance values

A

Fasting < 7 AND OGTT 7.8 - 11.1

122
Q

Impaired fasting glucose

A

Fasting 6.1 - 7 AND OGTT < 7.8

123
Q

Diabetes - Na, K and serum osmolarity

A

High Na, Low K, serum osmolarity?

124
Q

Potassium in DKA

A

High

125
Q

Conn’s - Na, K and serum osmolarity

A

High Na, low K, and high urine osmolarity

126
Q

Rule of thumb for SIADH

A

urine osmolality is double the plasma osmolality, it’s likely to be SIADH

127
Q

Which cell sits in (it’s immature form in) the periphery, and when it matures, goes to
present things to T cells? So migrates to LN in mature form…

A

dendritic cells

128
Q

when there is an infection, this cell produces pus

A

Neutrophils

129
Q

increases with parasitic infections

A

Oesinophils

130
Q

cell is inhibited by the presence of MHC1 on cells?

A

Natural killer cell

131
Q

Sickle cell disease Hb and MCV

A

Low Hb, normal MCV

132
Q

Girl with coeliac refused to stick to gluten free diet and now had macrocytosis

A

Folate deficiency (due to malabsorption)

133
Q

A teenage girl who when she goes cross country running gets an erythematous rash on her legs. It is
well controlled by antihistamines

A

Cold urticaria

134
Q

Man has an allergic reaction during surgery and who’s lips becomes swollen/oedematous when
blowing up balloons as his daughter’s birthday party

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity Latex allergy

135
Q

Bloated after drinking milk but not IgE mediated

A

Lactose intolerance

136
Q

Patient with high IgG paraprotein – (32 or 40) g/dl, back pain and loss of sensation in legs

A

Multiple myeloma

137
Q

Patient with IgM paraprotein and visual disturbances

A

Patient with IgM paraprotein and visual disturbances

138
Q

A German lady who is asymptomatic, has low neutrophils, but no abnormal cells on film

A

Chronic idiopathic neutropenia

139
Q

An overweight individual with diabetes has longstanding bone/back pain. They are found to have
paraprotein IgA ~8g/dl, and GFR 55mls/min/1.73m^2. FBC normal and albumin normal.

A

Monoclonal-gammopathy-of-unknown-significance

140
Q

Asymptomatic with isolated rise in unconjugated bilirubin

A

Gilberts

141
Q

What is the most common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

E Coli

142
Q

A ward sister gets diarrhoea, and patients on the ward have been ill recently

A

norovirus

143
Q

Shigella

A

Bloody diarrhoea, vomiting with abdo pain

144
Q

Cholera

A

Profuse watery diarrhoea, resulting in weight loss

145
Q

Campylobacter

A

Flu like prodrome followed by crampy abdo pain. Complication is Guillian Barre

146
Q

Amoebiasis

A

Bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain and tenderness lasting for few weeks

147
Q

Diarrhoea (before 12 hours)

A

Staph

148
Q

Diarrhoea (after 12 hours, or day after meal)

A

E Coli

149
Q

Diarrhoea (2-3 days post-meal)

A

Camylobacter

150
Q

Diarrhoea (after 7 or more days after meal). non-bloody

A

Giardiasis

151
Q

Diarrhoea + (context of question e.g. Travel to Southeast Asia)

A

Cholera

152
Q

Diarrhoea + Flu like symptoms

A

Campylobacter

153
Q

Diarrhoea + Travel from Bangladesh

A

Typhoid

154
Q

Listeria meningitis tx

A

Amoxicillin + Gentamycin or Ampicillin + Gentamycin

155
Q
  1. IV antibiotic for Group A Strep pharyngitis/Strep Throat?
A

IV Benzylpenicillin

156
Q

Which/What antibiotic would you use to treat/prescribe someone who has cellulitis with a Methicillin SENSITIVE strain of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Flucloxacillin

157
Q

Abx for meningitis in over 50/60

A

Cefotaxime with amoxicillin

158
Q

Pyloric stenosis bloods

A

low potassium, normal sodium and high bicarbonate

159
Q

What happens to the body of the stomach in a patient with pernicious anaemia

A

Atrophic (gastritis)

160
Q

Cancer with H pylori

A

Gatric Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

161
Q

Most common type of malignancy in the breast

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma (accounts for 75% of all breast cancer) > DCIS is the most common type of non-invasive breast cancer.

162
Q

Which/What cancer is associated with (? the presence of?) E cadherins

A

E-cadherin present, answer = Invasive ductal carcinoma.

However, if it said E-Cadherin negative, answer = Invasive lobular carcinoma

163
Q

Cancer which has a high, medium and low stage to it

A

DCIS

164
Q

Fibro-epithelial tumour with abundant stromal elements

A

Phyllodes tumour

165
Q

enzyme regulates the rate limiting step in haem biosynthesis pathway/of the blood

A

ALA Synthase

166
Q

In Rhabdomyolysis, which biomarker is likely to be raised

A

CReatinine kinase raised

167
Q

Anti-PCD – Anti-Purkinje cell

A

Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration disease (which also spells PCD) can be associated with any cancer – most commonly small cell lung cancer, and Hodgkin’s disease

168
Q

Heterophile antibody

A

Infectious mononucleosis

169
Q

Anti-microsomal antibodies

A

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – hypothyroidism).

170
Q

Graves disease antibody

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor antibody

171
Q

Anti-Jo1

A

Myositis (specifically polymyositis and dermatomyositis) and Pulmonary Fibrosis (Honeycomb changes on X-ray)

172
Q

Anti-ribonucleoprotein antibody (U1RNP)

A

Mixed connective tissue disorder (e.g. Ankylosing spondylitis).

173
Q

Anti platelet antibody

A

ITP

174
Q

dry eyes and parotid swelling?

A

Sjogren

175
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency II

A

Selectin deficiency – typical History: less severe than LAD1, mentally limited, short stature and depressed nasal bridge

176
Q

Boy with abscesses has a positive NBT

A

Myeloperoxidase deficiency (NBT = Nitro Blue Tetrazolium (or as I call it NBT = Nitro Blue Test). A positive result suggests MPO (Myeloperoxidase deficiency) – an autosomal recessive disease. A negative result suggests lack of NADPH oxidase activity – i.e. NADPH is broken or absent (I.e. chronic granulomatous disease)

177
Q

A man with AF (Atrial fibrillation) develops fever, nausea, vomiting and pain in his right loin/flank. What is the most likely cause?

A

renal infarct

178
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia/low platelets in Pregnancy (Commonest cause of maternal thrombocytopenia)?
A

gestational thrombocytopenia

179
Q

Which antibiotic do you use to treat viral syncytial virus (bronchiolitis) in a child

A

ribavirin appaz

180
Q
  1. Man has an MI 3 years ago. Now comes into hospital feeling very unwell. Is having a sample taken from their pericardial layer and you find blood is aspirated from the pericardium
A

Ventricular rupture

181
Q
  1. A girl has recently been noted by her parents to be acting strange lately. A Lumbar puncture is performed and the CSF shows high lymphocytes and a raised protein, but normal glucose (on LP)
A

Herpes

182
Q
  1. A Rhesus D negative woman is having a Haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) and is CMV IgG negative. What is the most important thing to ensure in the transplant?
A

a. CMV IgG negative

183
Q

MMR + preg

A

must not be given

184
Q
  1. Which of these is a common finding in someone who has portal hypertension?
A

splenomegaly

185
Q
  1. Which cancer does asbestos cause?
A

mesthothelioma

186
Q

‘transitional cell’ cancer

A

bladder ca

187
Q
  1. Man presents with ulcers on mouth following treatment with a drug
A

steven johnson syndrome

188
Q
  1. Which vector transmits Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense?
A

a. Tsetse Fly

189
Q

Which of these ions (K, CL, Na, Mg) is most likely to be outside it’s normal range in an alkalotic picture?

A

Sodium

190
Q
  1. Which cancer is most likely in a person who is a non-smoker?
A

Adenocarcinoma

191
Q

50 year old man with Midshaft femur fracture – what would you find at the site of the break/fracture

A

chondrosarcoma

192
Q

Which/What is the most common cause of jaundice/fever in a returning traveller with a fever?

A

malaria

193
Q

ALL feature?

A

neutropenia

194
Q
  1. Which mixed pattern auto-inflammatory condition has over 90% heritability and effects the sacroiliac joint?
A

Ankylosing spondylitis

195
Q
  1. An elderly man has a fall, and doesn’t become unconscious/lose consciousness, and presents two days later with a confusion, where is the likely site of bleeding?
A

subdural

196
Q

Which clotting factor falls most rapidly after administering warfarin?

A

factor VII

197
Q

What drug is used to treat severe falciparum malaria?

A

Artesunate

198
Q
  1. A patient has a massive splenomegaly, and JAK2 V617F mutation with a leucoerythroblastic picture and tear-drop poikilocytes. What do they have?
A

myelofibrosis

199
Q

A patient required an aortic valve replaced 3 months ago. They have now come back a few weeks later with jaundice, Hb-urea (haemoglobinuria), and raised reticulocytes. What is the cause

A

mechanical haemolytic anaemia

200
Q

Which vasculitis causes stenosis to the ascending external carotid

A

Takayasu / Giant cells

201
Q
  1. What zoonotic disease does the Ixodes Tick cause?
A

Lyme disease

202
Q

Disease that causes Hydrops fetalis if caught in first 20wks

A

Parvovirus

203
Q

Disease which if transmitted to baby: they can initially be symptomless but then
come down with problems - long term sequelae. Beta herpes virus.

A

CMV

204
Q

Broad spec, no pseudomonal activity usually given with a beta lactamase inhibitor

A

Amoxicillin

205
Q

Wet slide microscopy

A

Trichomoniasis

206
Q

Woman with UTI - Culture grows gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staph saprophyticus

207
Q

19 year old rugby player with boils, members of his team have similar boils, as do
members of his family

A

herpes gladitorium HSV 1

208
Q

Virus that resides in pharynx and GIT - 1:100 encephalitis, 1:1000 destruction of
motor neurons

A

polio

209
Q

Develops a grey film over the epiglottis

A

Diptheria

210
Q

Cause of lockjaw

A

tetanus

211
Q

mass in head of pancreas

A

adenocarcinoma

212
Q

mass following acute pancreatitis

A

pseudocyst

213
Q

Patient with a history of severe abdominal pain; during cholecystectomy, the
surgeons noticed white specks around and on the pancreas.

A

chronic pancreatitis

214
Q

Patient with hypoglycaemia and pancreas mass

A

hypoglycaemia

215
Q

sacroidosis

A

non caseating granulomas

216
Q

On doing a patient’s nephrectomy they notice a mass in the kidney that extends into
the renal vessels and into the perinephric fat

A

papillary adenoma (found incidentally)

217
Q

Radiosensitive cancer of the testicle in a young man with a white/smooth
appearence?

A

seminoma

218
Q

Patient with a cancer in their bladder following chronic schistosomiasis

A

squamous cell carcinoma

219
Q

20 year old with a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of his leg - pain alleviated by aspirin

A

osteoid osteoma

220
Q

man goes deaf with bowed legs

A

pagets

221
Q

Patient with HIV, raised ICP, new onset epilepsy.

A

toxoplasmosis

222
Q

Woman with recurrent episodes of weakness and parasthesia that spontaneously
resolve

A

Multiple sclerosis

223
Q

Pt with Lung CA - High Na, Low K

A

ectopic ACTH

224
Q

Patient with polyuria and polydipsia- low Na, Low K, Low plasma and urine osmolarity

A

psychogenic polydipsia

225
Q

restrictive pericarditis

A

Hx of systemic disease e.g. amyloidosis,

haemochromatosis, inflammatory bowel disease

226
Q

optic nerve tumour excised and now lump on hand

A

neurofibromatosis

227
Q

Depression then CNS symptoms in young person

A

Variant CJD

228
Q

neurosings first and presents later

A

Sporadic CJD

229
Q

HIV Tuberculoma

A

ring enhancing lesion

230
Q

epileptic with patch on back and lumps in brain

A

Tuberous sclerosis

231
Q

capillary loops surrounded by epithelial cells

A

AV malformation

232
Q

INR 2.5

A

1 st episode DVT, PE, AF

233
Q

INR 3.5

A

recurrent DVT, PE, mechanical vales

234
Q

Familial hypocalcuric hypercalcaemia

A

high serum calcium, low urine calcium

235
Q

paracetamol and liver

A

Paracetamol: VERY HIGH ALT and AST

236
Q

HONK

A

low potassium, high glucose, high serum osmolality >320, bicarb>15

237
Q

DM

A

high lipids create a pseudohyponatraemia with normal

osmolality

238
Q

Ashkenazi Jews

A

Tay Sachs, lysosomal

239
Q

GvHD

A

Donor cells attacking host
o Days-weeks, rash, N+V, bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain, jaundice
o Prophylaxis: methotrexate/cyclosporine
o Treat with steroids

240
Q

Serum sickness

A

type III reaction

241
Q

Travel vaccine not given to someone with ank spond on TNFalpha inhibitro

A

yellow fever

242
Q

Every 5 years given to splenectomy patients

A

pneumococcal

243
Q

Given as post exposure prophylaxis

A

rabies

244
Q

death certificate

A

1a - ultimate cause of death e.g. bronchopneumonia
 1b causes 1a e.g. lung cancer
 1c causes 1b
 Part II - other diseases related to cause of death but not related to 1a-c e.g. diabetes
mellitus for a patient who died of MI

245
Q

Auer Rod and PML RARA

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

246
Q

pregnant and DIC?

A

Important cause if amniotic fluid embolus

247
Q

Felty’s syndrome

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia

248
Q

Pneumonia in HIV with ground glass appearance?

A

PCP

249
Q

urethritis, arthritis and eye problems

A

Reiter’s syndrome

250
Q

calcitonin

A

Calcitonin is produced by the parafollicular cells (aka C-cells) which reduce blood Ca2+, opposing the
effects of PTH.

251
Q

MSSA

A

Methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus; treatment is penicillin

252
Q

MRSA

A

M-resistant SA; treatment is vancomycin.

253
Q

MSSA with penicillin allergy

A

macrolide

254
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis in contacts

A

ciprofloxacin

255
Q

scaly red lesions of the scalp with hair loss.

A

tinea capitis

256
Q

ring worm, trunks, arms and legs, with raised red rings.

A

tinea corporis

257
Q

ringworm, Athlete’s foot.

A

Tricophyton rubrum

258
Q

aka Malassezia globosa/furfur; xmas tree pattern rash beginning with a Herald’s patch – spaghetti
and meatballs appearance.

A

Pityriasis versicolor/rosea

259
Q

meningitis with insidious onset in HIV.

A

cryptococcus

260
Q

protozoa infection in pregnancy can be passed on to baby

A

toxoplasmosis

261
Q

snail trail oral ulcer

A

Secondary syphilis - T pallidum

262
Q

abdo pain and headache but specifically NO diarrhoea

A

Salmonella typhi

263
Q

small ulcer on right ring finger that won’t heal and keeps getting bigger

A

Leishmania

264
Q

NOD2/CARD15 found in?

A

Chrons

265
Q

Swollen joint, needle-shaped aspirate with negative birefringence, what is the enzyme responsible

A

xantine oxidase

266
Q

What does JC virus cause?

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

267
Q

5yr old, tetany, bone pain. Widened epiphyses + ‘Cupping’ of metaphysis shown on x-ray. What is the cause?

A

rickets

268
Q

What is the minimum amount of time to treat a VTE?

A

3 months

269
Q

Neonate with meningococcal sepsis. What pathogen

A

GBS

270
Q

HIV +ve patient with v low CD4 + vascular lesions seen on trunk. What virus causes this cancer?

A

HHV8 - Kaposi

271
Q

What enzyme to confirm cardiac failure

A

BNP

272
Q

What liver enzyme is raised in MI

A

AST

273
Q

White things on the oesophagus seen in OGD of an alcoholic man with recurrent bleeding varices.

A

Oesophageal candidiasis

274
Q

type of cell does Rituximab target?

A

Mature B cell

275
Q

HepA spread

A

Foecal oral

276
Q

Slate grey skin

A

Haemochromatosis

277
Q

HTLV1 Virus lymphoma

A

Adult t cell lymphoma/leukaemia

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