Past-papers Flashcards

1
Q

Which imaging technique is useful to demonstrate the ascites in the abdominal cavity? (you have to choose the FALSE answer):

A/ Abdominal Ultrasound

B/ Abdominal CT examination

C/ Abdominal CT and US examination

D/ Scintigrapy

A

D/ Scintigrapy

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2
Q

Subdural hematoma appears on CT examination usually with:

A/ Amorf contours

B/ Ring shape

C/ Crescent shape

D/ Lense shape

A

C/ Crescent shape

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3
Q

Ultrasound sign of the intussusception:

A/ „target” sign

B/ „whirplpool” sign

C/ „pseudokidney”

D/ „comet” sign

A

A/ „target” sign

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4
Q

A young 30 years old female was admitted for the emergency department with a strong, „beating-like” occipital headache.

What is the first imaging method in this case?

A/ MR

B/ Skull X-ray, two view

C/ Native CT of the brain

D/ Color-duplex Carotid Ultrasound

A

C/ Native CT of the brain

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5
Q

In case of a huge left sided pleural fluid collection the mediastinal complex will move:

A/ moderately to the right side

B/ the medastinal complex will stay in unchanged position

C/ moderately to the left side

D/ extensively to the left side

A

A/ moderately to the right side

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6
Q

For the mediastinal and retroperitoneal lymph nodes the most acceptable imaging method is:

A/ Ultrasound

B/ CT examination

C/ Scintigraphy

D/ Chest X-ray (two views)

A

B/ CT examination

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7
Q

The following transducer is used generally for adult’s abdominal US examination:

A/ 7,5-10 MHz convex

B/ 6-9 MHz phased-array

C/ 3,5-5 MHz convex

D/ 7,5-10 MHz linear

A

C/ 3,5-5 MHz convex

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8
Q

Appendicitis can be visualised with the following imaging methods (there is only one false statement, you have to find this FALSE answer):

A/ with native and contrast enhanced CT examination

B/ with Ultrasound examination

C/ with P-A abdominal X-ray examination

D/ with US and abdominal CT examination

A

C/ with P-A abdominal X-ray examination

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9
Q

In case of a polytraumatised patient which is the fastest imaging method to get useful informations about cranial, chest and abdominal condition?

A/ Skull, Chest and abdominal X-ray

B/ Carotid and Abdominal Utrasound examination

C/ native and contrast enhanced Multidetector CT examination

D/ PET-CT

A

C/ native and contrast enhanced Multidetector CT examination

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10
Q

The following pathological conditions can generate small bowel ileus (Only one answer is false, you have to choose this FALSE answer):

A/ Crohn’s disease

B/ Coecum tumor

C/ Strangulated hernia

D/ Thrombosis of the splenic vein

A

D/ Thrombosis of the splenic vein

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11
Q

During the CT examinations in the Hounsfield scale the density of the ………… is fixed to Zero.

A/ fresh blood

B/ water

C/ fat

D/ bone

A

B/ water

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12
Q

In case of a suspected nephro-ureterolithiasis the best method for the localisation of the nephro-ureterolithiasis is:

A/ Abdominal Ultrasound examination

B/ Intravenous Urography

C/ Low-dose CT

D/ PET-CT

A

C/ Low-dose CT

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13
Q

Which guidence technique is mainly useful for the biopsy of thyroid nodule?

A/ X-ray guided biopsy

B/ US-guided biopsy

C/ CT-guided biopsy

D/ MR-guided biopsy

A

B/ US-guided biopsy

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14
Q

In case of a simple liver cyst (with 25 mm diameter, without irregular wall and without septations), how could we characterize the inner content of the cyst?

A/ hypoechoic

B/ anechoic

C/ hyperechoic

D/ hyperdense

A

B/ anechoic

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15
Q

In case of widening of the mediastinum what pathological process could be the cause of this alteration? (Only ONE answer is FALSE, you have to sign this statement):

A/ Lymphoma

B/ Aneurysm of the descending aorta

C/ Calcified pleural callus

D/ Hilar pulmonary neoplasia

A

C/ Calcified pleural callus

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16
Q

Which method is used for the detection of abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?

A/ Barium enema

B/ PA Chest and native abdominal X-ray

C/ Contrast enhanced abdomino-pelvic CT – CT angiography

D/ PET-CT

A

C/ Contrast enhanced abdomino-pelvic CT – CT angiography

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17
Q

Pulmonary abscess usually appears on the chest X-ray with:

A/ lower transparency crescent shape

B/ lower transparency ring shape with inner fluid level

C/ lower transparency lense shape

D/ lower transparency wedge shape

A

B/ lower transparency ring shape with inner fluid level

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18
Q

Duplex ultrasonography

  1. Combination of two transducers to see blood vessesl both in superficial and deep locations
  2. Simultaneous doppler analysis of bilateral limbs by two sonographs
  3. 2D US examination, then doppler analysis by ”pencil” probe
  4. Simultaneous 2D US with doppler sampling from the vessels specified on the 2D image
A
  1. Simultaneous 2D US with doppler sampling from the vessels specified on the 2D image

Duplex ultrasonography is used in vascular studies; refers to the simultaneous use of both grayscale or color Doppler to visualize the structure of, and flow within, a vessel and sprectral (waveform) doppler to quantitate flow.

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19
Q

For what does a radiologist look for when performing a FAST-exam?

  1. Free abdominal fluid
  2. Gall bladder inflammation
  3. Kidney stones
  4. Cysts
A

a. Free abdominal fluid

FAST is a rapid bedside US examination performed by surgeons, emergency physicians and certain paramedics as a screening test for blood around the heart or abdominal organs after trauma.

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20
Q

What is the first modality choice in symptomatic bone tumors?

  1. PET-CT
  2. Scintigraphy
  3. Conventional x-ray
  4. CT
A

c. Conventional x-ray

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21
Q

US sign of intussuception:

  1. ”target” sign
  2. ”whirlpool” sign
  3. ”psudokidney”
  4. ”comet” sign
A

a. ”target” sign

the target sign of intestinal intussusception, also known as the doughnut sign, or bulls eye sign. The appearance is generated by concentric alternating echogenic and hypoechogenic bands. The echogenic bancs are formed by mucosa and muscularis, whereas submucosal is responsible for the hypoechogenic bands.

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22
Q

MR spectroscopy is a useful method in diagnosis of

  1. Renal cell cancer
  2. Ovarian cancer
  3. Testicular cancer
  4. Prostate cancer
A

d. Prostate cancer

MRS is currently used to investigate a number of diseases in the human body, most notably cancer (brain, breast and prostate), epilepsy, alzheimers, parkinsons and huntingtons. MRS has been used to diagnose pituitary tuberculosis. Prostate cancer: combined with MRI and given equal results, then the #D MRS can predict the prevalence of a malignant degeneration if prostate tissue by approx. 90%. The combination of both metods may be helpful in the planning of biopsies and therapies of the prostate, as well as to monitor the success of a therapy.

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23
Q

Choose the correct statement regarding hyperacute cerebral infarcts

  1. Hyperdense media sign is always visible
  2. Hyperdense media sign is visible in 25-50% of the cases
  3. Hyperdense media sign is never visible
  4. Hyperdense media sign is visible in 10-15% of the cases
A

b. Hyperdense media sign is visible in 25-50% of the cases

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24
Q

What is the diagnostic strategy in extracranial carotid disease?

  1. Primary examination is DSA which is complemented by CTA or MRA, US is only for kids
  2. Primary examination is duplex US for screening and follow-up: probless solving advanced imaging for selected cases is CTA or MRA – catheter angiography (DSA) is mainly for therapeutic interventions
  3. US-guided puncture of the CCA and then directed angiography of the affected side
  4. Primary examination is CTA; MRA is only for iodine-sensitive patients; DSA for all patients preceding surgery and duplex US for post-surgical complications
A

b. Primary examination is duplex US for screening and follow-up: probless solving advanced imaging for selected cases is CTA or MRA – catheter angiography (DSA) is mainly for therapeutic interventions

  1. Carotid artery stenosis is usually diagnosed by color flow duplex US scan of the carotid arteries in the neck. This involves no radiation, no needles, and no contrast agents that may cause allergic reactions. This test has good sensitivity and specificity.
  2. CTA or MRA may be useful. With contrast: contraindicated in patients with renal insuffieicency, catheter angiography has a 0.5-1% risk of stroke, MI arterial injury or retroperitoneal bleeding. The investigation chosen will depend on the clinical question and the imaging expertice, experience and equipment available.
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25
Q

In case of a huge left-sided pleural fluid collection the mediastinal complex will move:

  1. Moderately to the right side
  2. The mediastinal complex will stay in unchanged position
  3. Moderately to the left side
  4. Extensively to the left side
A
  1. Moderately to the right side

  1. A large pleural effusion may cause treacheal deviation away from the effusion
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26
Q

For the mediastinal and retroperitoneal lymph nodes the most acceptable imaging method is

  1. US
  2. CT examination
  3. Scinitigraphy
  4. Chest x-ray (two views)
A

​​

  1. CT examination

  1. CT scans of the chest are more accurate in determining the location and nature of a mediastinal mass than conventional radiographs.
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27
Q

The following transducer is used generally for superficial soft tissue US examinations

  1. 7,5-10 MHz convex
  2. 6-9 MHz phased-array
  3. 3,5-5 MHz convex
  4. 7,5-10 MHz linear
A

7,5-10 MHz linear

Linear; 8-10 (or more)MHz, superficial penetration, better resolution

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28
Q

How do you call the complex that should be evaluated in case of chronic sinusitis?

  1. Osteomeatal complex
  2. Ostiomeatal complex
  3. Ethmoidal complex
  4. Nasomeatal complex
A

b. Ostiomeatal complex

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29
Q

In case of a polytraumatic patient, which is the fastest imaging method to get useful information about cranial, chest and abdominal complications?

  1. Skull, chest and abdominal x-ray
  2. Carotid and abdominal US examination
  3. Non contrast and contrast enhanced multidetector
  4. CT examination
A

c. Non contrast and contrast enhanced multidetector CT examination

  1. It is also quite common in severe trauma for patients to be sendt directly to CT or a surgery theater, if they require emergency treatment
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30
Q

The following pathological conditions can generate small bowel ileus (only one answer is false, you have to choose the FALSE answer):

  1. Crohn´s disease
  2. Coecum tumor
  3. Strangulated hernia
  4. Thrombosis of the splenic vein
A

d. Thrombosis of the splenic vein

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31
Q

In neuroradiology

  1. MR has a superior ability in the imaging of the cranial bones
  2. MR images lack bone artifacts
  3. MR has the ability to distinguish calcifications
  4. MR cannot visualize white matter lesions
A

​b. MR images lack bone artifacts

(Bone-artefact O on lecture slide..)

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32
Q

Interstitial shadows are

  1. Web-like
  2. Of vascular origin
  3. Patchy
  4. Common CT terminology for mesenteric fat
A

a. Web-like

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33
Q
  1. Choose the correct statement
    1. Fresh hemorrhage in CT is hypodense
    2. Chronic subdural hematoma in CT is hyperdense
    3. MR is capable to determine the approximate age of hemorrhage
    4. MR is not useful in identifying hemorrhage
A

​c. MR is capable to determine the approximate age of hemorrhage

  • Chonic >14 days, T1=dark, T2=dark
  • Late subacute 7-14 days, T1=bright, T2=bright
  • Early subacute 3-7 days, T1= bright, T2= dark
  • Acute 1-3 days, T1=isointense, T2=dark
  • Hyperacute <24h, T1=isointense, T2=bright
  • Changes in the appearance of blood over time on MRI
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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is an absolute contraindicated for enema reduction of an intussusception?
    1. Small amount of free fluid on utrasonography
    2. Signs of perforation (pneumoperitoneum, peritonitis)
    3. Small bowel obstruction
    4. Iodine allergy
A

b. Signs of perforation (pneumoperitoneum, peritonitis)
1. Contraindications: signs of peritonitis and perforations according to: https://radiopaedia.org/articles/intussusception-reduction

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35
Q

Choose the correct statement

  1. On T1 weighted images white mater has a higher signal intensity than grey matter
  2. On T1 weighted images white matter has a lower signal intensity than grey matter
  3. On T2 weighted images CSF has intermediate signal
  4. On T2 weighted images bones have the highest signal intensity
A

a. On T1 weighted images white mater has a higher signal intensity than grey matter

  1. Different tissues have different T1 and T2 values, which is why fat, muscle, and bone, for example, will appear differently not only from each other but also within different pulse sequences.
  2. Tissues that have a short T1 will be bright.
  3. Tissues with a long T2 will be bright
  4. Bright translates into whiter or having increased signal intensity on MRI scans. Dark translates into blacker or having decreased signal on MRI.
  5. A key point is that water will be dark on T1-weighted images and bright on T2-weighted images. Water is T1-dark and T2-bright.
  6. If the fluid is dark (e.g., CSF, urine, etc) = T1 weighted image.
    If the fluid is bright (e.g., CSF, urine, etc) = T2 weighted image.
  7. Tissues and structures that are typicallt bright on T1: fat, hemorrhage, proteinaceous fluid, melanin, gandolinium abd other paramagnetic substances.
  8. Tissues and structure typically bright on T2: fat, water, edema, inflammation, infection, cysts, hemorrhage.
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36
Q
  1. The vertebral column injuries are classified according to the “model” below
    1. David 3 column theory
    2. Denis spinal canal theory
    3. Davis spinal canal theory
    4. Denis 3 column theory
A

d. Denis 3 column theory

Denis divided the vertebral column into 3 vertical parallel columns beased in biomechanical studies related to stability following traumatic injury. Instability occurs when injuries affect 2 contiguous columns (i.e., anterior and middle column, or middle and posterior column). Obvious a 3 column injury is unstable.

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37
Q

What is NOT typical for a malignant bone tumor?

  1. Ill-defined
  2. Periosteal reaction
  3. Destructions
  4. Well circumscribed
A

d. Well circumscribed

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38
Q

The …….. classification system divides renal cyctic masses into five categories based on imaging characteristics on contrast-enhanced CT

  1. Bi-rads
  2. Ren-Rads
  3. Li-Rads
  4. Bosniak
A

d. Bosniak

The bosniak classification system of renal cystic masses divides renal systic masses into five catergories based on imaging characteristics on contrast enhanced CT. it is helpful in predicting a risk of malignancy and suggesting either follow up or treatment.

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39
Q

MR spectroscopy is a useful method in the diagnosis of

  1. Renal cell cancer
  2. Ovarian cancer
  3. Testicular cancer
  4. Prostate cancer
A

d. Prostate cancer

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40
Q

What is the central (“fatty”) compartment of the suprahyoid neck?

  1. Anterior cervical space
  2. Pharyngeal mucosal space
  3. Masticator space
  4. Parapharyngeal space
A

d. Parapharyngeal space

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41
Q

What is the diagnostic strategy in extracranial carotid disease?

  1. Primary examination is DSA which is complemented by CTA or MRA, US is only for kids
  2. Primary examination is duplex US for screening and follow-up: problem-solving advanced imaging for selected cases is CTA or MRA; catheter angiography (DSA) is mainly for therapeutic interventions
  3. US-guided puncture of the CCA and then directed angiography of the affected side
  4. Primary examination is CTA: MRA is only for iodine-sensitive patients; DSA for all patient preceding surgery and duplex US for post-surgical complications.
A

b. Primary examination is duplex US for screening and follow-up: problem-solving advanced imaging for selected cases is CTA or MRA; catheter angiography (DSA) is mainly for therapeutic interventions

  1. Carotid artery stenosis is usually diagnosed by color flow duplex US scan of the carotid arteries in the neck. This involves no radiation, no needles, and no contrast agents that may cause allergic reactions. This test has good sensitivity and specificity.
  2. CTA or MRA may be useful. With contrast: contraindicated in patients with renal insuffieicency, catheter angiography has a 0.5-1% risk of stroke, MI arterial injury or retroperitoneal bleeding. The investigation chosen will depend on the clinical question and the imaging expertice, experience and equipment available.
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42
Q

In case of ileus in newborns

  1. We can make the diagnosis based only on abdominal x-ray
  2. Meconium ileus is caused by impacted thick meconium in children suffering from CF.
  3. Hirschsprung´s disease never causes ileus in newborn.
  4. Ileum atresia never occurs with non-used colon, because it is a disease of the small bowel, not the colon.
A

a. We can make the diagnosis based only on abdominal x-ray

Diagnosis of meconium ileus is suspected in a neonate with signs of intestinal obstruction, particularly if a family history of CF exists. Patients should undergo abdominal x-ray which show dilated intestinal loops; however, fluid levels may be absent.

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43
Q
  1. In case of a moderate amount of right sided pleural fluid collection the mediastinal complex will move
    1. Moderately to the right side
    2. Stay in unchanged position
    3. Moderately to the left side
    4. Extensively to the left side
A

c. Moderately to the left side

Very large pleural effusions may act like a mass and produce a shift of the mobile mediastinal structures AWAY from the side of the effusion.

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44
Q

For the mediastinal and retroperitoneal lymph nodes the most acceptable imaging method is:

  1. US
  2. CT examination
  3. Scintigraphy
  4. Chest x-ray (two views)
A

b. CT examination

CT scans of the chest are more accurate in determining the location and nature of a mediastinal mass than conventional radiographs.

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45
Q

Acute pulmonary embolism

  1. Negative chest radiography and lower extremity venous US can rule out confidently.
  2. Pulmonary angiography (DSA) is the best modality to assess the vasculature and this is the only modality, which is feasible in patients with dyspnea.
  3. CTA provides only indirect evidence of PE while MRA can visualize even the smallest branches (the only problem is restricted availability)
  4. CTA can directly prove the presence of emboli and additionally other possible causes of chest symptoms are often disclosed.
A

d. CTA can directly prove the presence of emboli and additionally other possible causes of chest symptoms are often disclosed.​

  1. Over 90% of PE develop from thrombi in the deep veins of the leg, especially above the level of the popliteal veins. They are usually a complication of surgery or prolonged bedrest or cancer. Because of the dual circulation of the lungs most PE do not result in infarction.
  2. Chest radiographs infrequently manifest one of the “classic” findings for PE which can include:
    1. Wedge-shaped peripheral air-space disease (Hampton hump)
    2. Focal oligemia (westermark sign)
    3. A prominent central pulmonary artery (knuckle sign)
  3. If the chest radiograph is normal, a nuclear medicine ventilation-perfusion scan may be diagnostic. If however, the chest radiograph is abnormal, a CT is usually performed.
  4. CT-PA is made possible by the fast data acquisition of spiral CT scanners (one breath hold) combined with thin slices and rapid bolus IV injections of iodineated contrast that produce maximal opacification of the pulmonary arteries with little or no motion artifacts.
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46
Q
  1. How do you call the complex that should be evaluated in case of chronic sinusitis?
    1. Osteomeatal complex
    2. Ostimeatal complex
    3. Ethmoidal complex
    4. Nasomeatal complex
A

b. Ostimeatal complex

47
Q

What is the method of choice in case of a head and neck cancer in order to evaluate the perineural tumor spread?

  1. fMRI
  2. CT
  3. Scintigraphy
  4. MRI
A

​d. MRI

Perineural spread of tumor is a form of local invasion in which primary tumor cells spread along the tissues of the nerve sheats. It is a well-recognized phenomenon in head and neck cancers. Signs on MRI suggesting perineural tumor spread are:

  1. Nerve thickening
  2. Widening of the neuronal foramen
  3. Loss of fat surrounding the nerve
  4. Abnormal perineural contrast enhancement
48
Q

These devices are mandatory during angiography. Mark the FALSE one

  1. Ballon catheter
  2. 4F catheter
  3. seldinger needle
  4. Guide wire
A

a. Ballon catheter – used in angioplasty, but not needed in angiography?!

49
Q

Which type of renal stone is radiolucent (non opaque) on abdominal plain radiography?

  1. Urine acid
  2. Sturvite
  3. Calcium phosphate
  4. Calcium oxalate
A

a. Urine acid

Uric acid?! = Radiolucent

50
Q
  1. Interstitial shadows are
    1. Patchy
    2. Of vascular origin
    3. Web like
    4. Common CT terminology for mestenteric fat
A

c. Web like

51
Q
  1. Which image technique is useful to demonstrate ascites in the abdominal cavity? (choose the false)
    1. Abdominal US
    2. Abdominal CT
    3. Abdominal CT and US examinatio
    4. Scintigraphy
A

d. Scintigraphy

52
Q

Subdural hematoma appears on CT examination usually with:

  1. Amorf contours
  2. Ring shaped
  3. Crescent shaped
  4. Lense shaped
A

c. Crescent shaped

53
Q

US sign of intussusception?

  1. “Target” sign
  2. “Whirpool” sign
  3. “Pseudokidney”
  4. “Comet” sign
A

a. “Target” sign

54
Q
  1. a young 30 year old female was admitted for the emergency department with a strong “beating-like” occipital headache. What is the first imaging method in this case?
    1. MR
    2. Skull x-ray, two view
    3. Native CT of the brain
    4. Color-duplex carotid US
A

c. Native CT of the brain

55
Q

In case of a huge left-sided pleural fluid collection, the mediastinal complex will move:

  1. Moderately to the right
  2. The mediastinal complex will stay in unchanged position
  3. Moderately to the left
  4. Extensively to the left
A

a. Moderately to the right

56
Q

For the mediastinal and retroperitoneal lymph nodes, the most acceptable imaging method is:

  1. US
  2. CT examination
  3. Scintigraphy
  4. Chest X-ray (two views)
A

b. CT examination

57
Q

The following transducer is used generally for adults abdominal US examination:

  1. 7,5-10 MHz convex
  2. 6-9 MHz phased-array
  3. 3,5-5 MHz convex
  4. 7,5-10 MHz linear
A

c. 3,5-5 MHz convex

58
Q

Appendicitis can be visualized with the following imaging methods, except:

  1. With native and contract enhanced CT
  2. With US examination
  3. With P-A abdominal x-ray
  4. With US and abdominal CT examination
A

c. With P-A abdominal x-ray

59
Q

During the CT examination in the Houndfield scale, the density of the ……. Is fixed to zero:

  1. Fresh blood
  2. Water
  3. Fat
  4. Bone
A

b. Water

60
Q
  1. In case of suspected nephron-ureterolithiasis the best method for the localization of the nephron-ureterolithiasis is:
    1. Abdominal US examination
    2. Intravenous urography
    3. Low dose CT
    4. PET-CT
A

c. Low dose CT

61
Q

Which guidance technique is mainly useful for the biopsy of thyroid nodule?

  1. X-ray guided biopsy
  2. US-guided biopsy
  3. CT-guided biopsy
  4. MR-guided biopsy
A

b. US-guided biopsy

62
Q

In case of a simple liver cyst (with 25 mm diameter, without irregular wall and without septations), how would we characterize the inner content of the cyst?

  1. Hypoechoic
  2. Anechoic
  3. Hyperechoic
  4. Hyperdense
A

b. Anechoic

63
Q

In case of widening of the mediastinum, what pathological process could be the case of this alteration:

  1. Lymphoma
  2. Aneurysm of the descending aorta
  3. Calcified pleural callus
  4. Hilar pulmonary neoplasia
A

c. Calcified pleural callus

64
Q

Which method is used for the detection of abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?

  1. Barium enema
  2. PA chest and native abdominal x-ray
  3. Contrast enhanced abdomino-pelvic CT – CT angiography
  4. PET-CT
A

c. Contrast enhanced abdomino-pelvic CT – CT angiography

65
Q

Pulmonary abscess usually appears on the chest x-ray with

  1. Lower transparency crescent shape
  2. Lower transparency ring shaped with inner fluid level
  3. Lower transparency lense shaped
  4. Lower transparency wedge shape
A

b. Lower transparency ring shaped with inner fluid level

66
Q

Which imaging technique is useful to demonstrate the ascites in the abdominal cavity (choose the wrong one)

  1. Abdominal US
  2. Abdominal CT
  3. Abdominal CT and US
  4. Scintigraphy
A

d. Scintigraphy

67
Q

Which shape is generally characteristic in case of epidural bleeding

  1. Crescent
  2. Amorph
  3. Lentiform
  4. Not detectable
A

c. Lentiform

68
Q

Which is NOT true regarding the multidetector/multislice CT

  1. Parallel rows of detectors
  2. During one rotation 4,16, 32… slices are measured
  3. Fractional (discontinuous) data collection = loss of information
  4. During one inspiration only, the whole body is scanned
  5. Reconstructions are made in any preferable plane
A

c. Fractional (discontinuous) data collection = loss of information

69
Q

In case of the following GFR value the patient DOES NOT need hydration prior to an IV contrast enhanced CT examination:

  1. GFR is below 30 ml/min/1.73m2
  2. GFR is above 40 ml/min/1.73m2
  3. GFR is below 60 ml/min/1.73m2
  4. GFR is above 60 ml/min/1.73 m2
A

d. GFR is above 60 ml/min/1.73 m2

70
Q

Based on the physical investigation and laboratory parameters, there is a suspicion of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following imaging methods is able to detect the complications most efficiently?

  1. Abdominal plain film
  2. Transabdominal ultrasonography
  3. CT/unenhanced and contrast-enhanced study
  4. Barium meal
A

c. CT/unenhanced and contrast-enhanced study

71
Q

Which imaging method is applied for screening of hip dysplasia for neonates between 4-5 months of age?

  1. X-ray
  2. Ultrasonography
  3. MRI
  4. Non of the above
A

b. Ultrasonography

72
Q

Patognomic sign of GI tract perforation in an erect plain abdominal radiograph:

  1. Oral contrast material depicted in the duodenum
  2. Colon cut-of sign
  3. Broad air-fluid level in the transverse colon
  4. Crescent translucency under the dome of the hemidiaphragm
A

d. Crescent translucency under the dome of the hemidiaphragm

73
Q

Which statement is false on double contrast bowel examination

  1. Smear mucosa with barium-containing contrast agent.
  2. Distend the lumen with gas, which is a positive contrast media, because of decreasing transparency.
  3. Relax bowel walls with smooth muscle relaxant
  4. Depiction: luminal contour, mucosal relief
A

c. Relax bowel walls with smooth muscle relaxant

(not sure)

74
Q
  1. In case of which organ can you apply utrasonography as the first imaging modality for adults:
    1. Lung
    2. Colon
    3. Spine
    4. Liver
    5. Brain
A

d. Liver

75
Q

The head and neck compartments are separated into parts on the basis of the following structure:

  1. Epiglottis
  2. Hyoid bone
  3. Cricoid cartilage
  4. Uvula
  5. Hard palate
A

b. Hyoid bone

76
Q
  1. Which modality does not apply ionizing radiation
    1. Contrast enhanced US
    2. Positron emission tomography (PET)
    3. Fluoroscopy
    4. Digital subtractional angiography (DSA)
A

a. Contrast enhanced US

77
Q

Which correlation is the most correct to the application of ultrasonography

  1. High frequency probe – deep penetration – low spatial resolution
  2. High frequency probe – poor penetration – good spatial resolution
  3. Low frequency probe – deep penetration – good spatial resolution
  4. Low frequency probe – poor penetration – good spatial resolution
A

b. High frequency probe – poor penetration – good spatial resolution

78
Q

1.Which are the guiding principles when it comes to choosing a modality to diagnose a disease?

Modality having a high specificity

Least invasive modality

Available modality

Most cost-effective modality

A

1.Which are the guiding principles when it comes to choosing a modality to diagnose a disease?

Modality having a high specificity

Least invasive modality

Available modality

Most cost-effective modality

79
Q

1.To differentiate a T1 and T2 weighted image in MRI, look for:

Bones

Muscles

Aorta

Water

A

1.To differentiate a T1 and T2 weighted image in MRI, look for:

Bones

Muscles

Aorta

Water

80
Q

1.Tension ptx is present, which requires emergent treatment if cxr shows

Mediastinal shift to the pathological side

Mediastinal shift to the normal side

Superiors displacement of the diaphragm on the normal side

Inferior displacement of the diaphragm on the pathological side

A

1.Tension ptx is present, which requires emergent treatment if cxr shows

Mediastinal shift to the pathological side

Mediastinal shift to the normal side

Superiors displacement of the diaphragm on the normal side

Inferior displacement of the diaphragm on the pathological side

81
Q

1.Young female patient previously underwent appendectomy. Now she is having pain n the ileocecal region. Which of the following disorders would you be suspicions of?

Sigma diverticulitis

Crohns disease

Peptic ulcer

Extrauterine gravidity

A

1.Young female patient previously underwent appendectomy. Now she is having pain n the ileocecal region. Which of the following disorders would you be suspicions of?

Sigma diverticulitis

Crohns disease

Peptic ulcer

Extrauterine gravidity

82
Q

1.In case of which of the following conditions would you make a frimann-dahl image?

Infiltrate of the lung

Abdominal free gas

Fracture of the femoral head

Subpulmonal fluid

A

1.In case of which of the following conditions would you make a frimann-dahl image?

Infiltrate of the lung

Abdominal free gas

Fracture of the femoral head

Subpulmonal fluid

83
Q

1.What is the difference between the origin of an epidural and subdural hematoma (usually)?

Subdural hemorrhage: arterial

Subdural hemorrhage: vein

Epidural hemorrhage: vein

Epidural hemorrhage: arterial

A

1.What is the difference between the origin of an epidural and subdural hematoma (usually)?

Subdural hemorrhage: arterial

Subdural hemorrhage: vein

Epidural hemorrhage: vein

Epidural hemorrhage: arterial

84
Q

1.Which condition can cause paralytic ileus?

Cramp caused by kidney stone

Acute pancreatitis

Mesenterial thrombo-embolism

Side-effect of medication

A

1.Which condition can cause paralytic ileus?

Cramp caused by kidney stone

Acute pancreatitis

Mesenterial thrombo-embolism

Side-effect of medication

85
Q

1.Tumors within the spinal canal may be classified as

Intramedullary

Extradural

Intradural-extramedullary

Extradural-intramedullary

A

1.Tumors within the spinal canal may be classified as

Intramedullary

Extradural

Intradural-extramedullary

Extradural-intramedullary

86
Q

1.Which of the followings can be complications after an operation

Ileus caused by adhesions

Abscess

Stress ulcus

Insufficiency of the suture

A

1.Which of the followings can be complications after an operation

Ileus caused by adhesions

Abscess

Stress ulcus

Insufficiency of the suture

87
Q

1.To evaluate an abdominal CT, the optimal windowing setting is…./on the HU-scale? (WL=window level, WW=window width)

WL=-600 HU, WW=1600 HU

WL=800 HU, WW=2000 HU

WL=60 HU, WW=360 HU

WL= 0 HU, WW=200 HU

A

1.To evaluate an abdominal CT, the optimal windowing setting is…./on the HU-scale? (WL=window level, WW=window width)

WL=-600 HU, WW=1600 HU

WL=800 HU, WW=2000 HU

WL=60 HU, WW=360 HU

WL= 0 HU, WW=200 HU

88
Q

1.Which organ would you put in this sentence: the …… body is the most common portion of this organ to be injured in blunt trauma because they are compressed against the spine in blunt traumatic injuries to the abdomen

Gall-bladder

Bladder

Pancreas

Liver

Aorta

A

1.Which organ would you put in this sentence: the …… body is the most common portion of this organ to be injured in blunt trauma because they are compressed against the spine in blunt traumatic injuries to the abdomen

Gall-bladder

Bladder

Pancreas

Liver

Aorta

89
Q

1.Which investigation is stongly recommended before doing a barium enema?

Pelvic US???

Cystoscopy

Rectoscopy????

Barium follow-through

Urography

A

1.Which investigation is stongly recommended before doing a barium enema?

Pelvic US???

Cystoscopy

Rectoscopy????

Barium follow-through

Urography

90
Q

1.Which of the following modalities is not a functional imaging method:

Scinitgarphy

PET

Mammography

SPECT

A

1.Which of the following modalities is not a functional imaging method:

Scinitgarphy

PET

Mammography

SPECT

91
Q

1.In case of a simple renal cyst (with 25 mm diameter, without irregular wall and without septations), how could we characterize the inner content of the cyst?

Hypoechoic

Anechoic

Hyperechoic

Hyperdense

A

1.In case of a simple renal cyst (with 25 mm diameter, without irregular wall and without septations), how could we characterize the inner content of the cyst?

Hypoechoic

Anechoic

Hyperechoic

Hyperdense

92
Q

1.In case of enlarged axillary and supraclavicular lymph nodes the first imaging method is:

CT

MR

US

Scintigraphy

A

1.In case of enlarged axillary and supraclavicular lymph nodes the first imaging method is:

CT

MR

US

Scintigraphy

93
Q

1.Gold standard” method currently in the diagnosis of renal cell cancer

HRCT

Transabdominal US

Unenhanced abdominal CT examination

IV urography

Contrast enhanced multiphasic abdominal CT

A

1.Gold standard” method currently in the diagnosis of renal cell cancer

HRCT

Transabdominal US

Unenhanced abdominal CT examination

IV urography

Contrast enhanced multiphasic abdominal CT

94
Q

1.Which of the following indications is inadequate planning an MRI in head and neck region?

Evaluation of perineural tumor spread

Bony skullbase evaluation in suspicion of bony fracture owing to an injury

Cartilage infiltration of the larynx

Proving soft tissue involvement of suprahyoid compartments

Posttherapeutic differentiation between recidive tumor and scar tissue

A

1.Which of the following indications is inadequate planning an MRI in head and neck region?

Evaluation of perineural tumor spread

Bony skullbase evaluation in suspicion of bony fracture owing to an injury

Cartilage infiltration of the larynx

Proving soft tissue involvement of suprahyoid compartments

Posttherapeutic differentiation between recidive tumor and scar tissue

95
Q

2.What kind of material is administered to the patient during an isotope examination?

Contrast media

Isopharmacon

Gadolinium

Radiopharmacon

A

2.What kind of material is administered to the patient during an isotope examination?

Contrast media

Isopharmacon

Gadolinium

Radiopharmacon

96
Q

1.Which of the following fracture type is considered as “pathological fracture”?

Fatigue fractures of athletes

Facture of bones weakened by a tumor, inflammation or cyct

All type of vertebral facture

Fractures due to osteoporosis

A

1.Which of the following fracture type is considered as “pathological fracture”?

Fatigue fractures of athletes

Facture of bones weakened by a tumor, inflammation or cyct

All type of vertebral facture

Fractures due to osteoporosis

97
Q

1.Which imaging technique is useful to demonstrate the vascularity of a splenic tumor?

Color-duplex abdominal US

Multiphasic contrast enhanced abdominal CT

A-P abdominal x-ray

Contrast enhanced abdominal MR

A

1.Which imaging technique is useful to demonstrate the vascularity of a splenic tumor?

Color-duplex abdominal US

Multiphasic contrast enhanced abdominal CT

A-P abdominal x-ray

Contrast enhanced abdominal MR

98
Q

1.IV contrast material should be avoided at CT examinations when the patient suffers from:

Manifest hypothyroidism

Severe lower extremity atherosclerotic disease

Manifest hyperthyroidism

Multinodular goiter

A

1.IV contrast material should be avoided at CT examinations when the patient suffers from:

Manifest hypothyroidism

Severe lower extremity atherosclerotic disease

Manifest hyperthyroidism

Multinodular goiter

99
Q

1.In case of typical liver hemangiomas, how can we characterize the mass?

Well rounded, hypoechoic

Well rounded, anechoic

Well rounded, hyperechoic

Well rounded, hyperdense

A

Well rounded, hypoechoic

Well rounded, anechoic

Well rounded, hyperechoic

Well rounded, hyperdense

100
Q

1.The following inflammatory conditions can cause small bowel ileus:

Chron´s disease

Diverticulitis

Bowel tuberculosis

All of the above

A

1.The following inflammatory conditions can cause small bowel ileus:

Chron´s disease

Diverticulitis

Bowel tuberculosis

All of the above

101
Q

1.Which is reliable imaging method in a suspicion of pulmonary embolism?

Transesophageal US

P-A chest x-ray

Pulmonary CT-angiography

Fluoroscopy of the chest

A

1.Which is reliable imaging method in a suspicion of pulmonary embolism?

Transesophageal US

P-A chest x-ray

Pulmonary CT-angiography

Fluoroscopy of the chest

102
Q

1.In case of recurring right subcostal pain, the first imaging method is:

Abdominal CT

MR

Abdominal US

Scintigraphy

A

1.In case of recurring right subcostal pain, the first imaging method is:

Abdominal CT

MR

Abdominal US

Scintigraphy

103
Q

1.What is the first chosen imaging method in case of neck nodule?

Swallow x-ray examination

US

MR

CT

A

1.What is the first chosen imaging method in case of neck nodule?

Swallow x-ray examination

US

MR

CT

104
Q

1.Which renal lesion contains typically fat?

Renal cell carcinoma

Septated renal cyst

Renal cortical infarction

Angiomyolipoma

A

1.Which renal lesion contains typically fat?

Renal cell carcinoma

Septated renal cyst

Renal cortical infarction

Angiomyolipoma

105
Q

1.In case of a left sided PTX the mediastinal complex will move:

Moderately to the left side

The mediastinal complex will stay in unchanged position

Extensively to the right side

Extensively to the left side

A

1.In case of a left sided PTX the mediastinal complex will move:

Moderately to the left side

The mediastinal complex will stay in unchanged position

Extensively to the right side

Extensively to the left side

106
Q

1.The following transducer is usually used for adult thyroid US

9-12.5 MHz convex

6-9 MHz phased-array

  1. 5-5 MHz convex
  2. 5-10 MHz linear
A

1.The following transducer is usually used for adult thyroid US

9-12.5 MHz convex

6-9 MHz phased-array

2.5-5 MHz convex

7.5-10 MHz linear

107
Q

1.Which of the following statement is the absolute contraindication for enema reduction of an intussusception (in case of a 4 month old baby):

Small amount of free fluid on the abdominal US

Signs of perforation

Subicterus

Small bowel obstruction

A

1.Which of the following statement is the absolute contraindication for enema reduction of an intussusception (in case of a 4 month old baby):

Small amount of free fluid on the abdominal US

Signs of perforation

Subicterus

Small bowel obstruction

108
Q

1.Which is NOT an indication of chest x-ray

High fever

Search for primary tumor

Elevated liver enzymes
Chest screening

A

1.Which is NOT an indication of chest x-ray

High fever

Search for primary tumor

Elevated liver enzymes
Chest screening

109
Q

1.Which is not a functional x-ray examination

Swallow examination

Fistulography of the liver

Bedside A-P view chest x-ray

Barium enema study (irrigoscopy)

A

1.Which is not a functional x-ray examination

Swallow examination

Fistulography of the liver (???)

Bedside A-P view chest x-ray

Barium enema study (irrigoscopy)

110
Q

1.How could we demonstrate a calcified stone in the gallbladder, with 30 mm in diameter (choose the false statement)

Angiography

US

Native abdominal CT

With P-A abdominal x-ray

A

1.How could we demonstrate a calcified stone in the gallbladder, with 30 mm in diameter (choose the false statement)

Angiography

US

Native abdominal CT

With P-A abdominal x-ray

111
Q

1.Which method is used for the detection of testicular cancer?

PET-CT

Angiography

CT

US

A

1.Which method is used for the detection of testicular cancer?

PET-CT

Angiography

CT

US

112
Q

1.Which X-ray technique is applied by conventional chest x-ray?

Heardbeam technique (25-35keV)

Softbeam technique (25-35 keV)

Heardbeam technique (120-140 keV)

Mammography uses soft beams

Softbeam technique (120-140 keV)

A

1.Which X-ray technique is applied by conventional chest x-ray?

Heardbeam technique (25-35keV)

Softbeam technique (25-35 keV)

Heardbeam technique (120-140 keV)

Mammography uses soft beams

Softbeam technique (120-140 keV)

113
Q

1.If a pulmonary infiltrate DOES NOT resolve over time despite treatment with antimicrobial agents, think of….

Broncho-alveolar subtype of lung cancer

Supraglottic cancer of larynx

Boeck sarcoidosis

Presence of mycoplasma or klebsiella

Pleural adhesions

A

1.If a pulmonary infiltrate DOES NOT resolve over time despite treatment with antimicrobial agents, think of….

Broncho-alveolar subtype of lung cancer

Supraglottic cancer of larynx

Boeck sarcoidosis

Presence of mycoplasma or klebsiella

Pleural adhesions

114
Q

1.In case of stroke, treatment strategy is primarily based on the following findings:

Localization of the lesion (infra- or supratentorial)

Unilateral or bilateral lesion

Presence of oedema

Presence of hemorrhage

A

1.In case of stroke, treatment strategy is primarily based on the following findings:

Localization of the lesion (infra- or supratentorial)

Unilateral or bilateral lesion

Presence of oedema

Presence of hemorrhage